Multiple Choice Questions in Communications Engineering

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN:
Test yourself- Exam 1-10

Noise Chapter 4
Antennas Chapter 6
Satellite Communications Chapter 10
Optical Fiber Communications
Broadcasting
Microwave Communications
Acoustics
Radiation and wave propagation
Transmission Fundamentals
Wire and Wireless Communications Chapter 7
Modulation Chapter 3
Test Yourself Exam 01

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7.
ECE Board Exam March 1996

That dielectric material of an optical fiber surrounding the core
A. Cladding
B. Armor
C. Shield
D. Cover
An antenna that is circularly polarized is the ____________.
A. parabolic reflector
B. helical
C. Yagi-uda
D. small circular loop
A word in telegraphy consist of __________ characters plus a word space.
A. 11
B. 7 and
C. 8
D. 5
The number of voice band channels in master group per CCITT standard is __________.
A. 300
B. 480
C. 600
D. 120
The power of standard test tone is normally ____________.
A. 1 dB
B. 0 mW
C. 1 mW
D. 1 W
LORAN is a navigational system used primarily for _____________.
A. blind landing
B. obtaining your fixes location over large distances
C. automatic collision warning
D. approach control
The expander in a companding device provides ___________.
A. greater amplification for low signal levels
B. less amplification for low signal levels

C. greater amplification for high signal levels
D. lesser pressure for transmission cables
8. ECE Board Exam March 1996
LORAN is a navigation system used primarily for
A. approach control
B. obtaining fixes over large distances
C. blind landing
D. automatic collision warning
At what power level does a 1 kHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted) ?
A. -90 dB
B. -90 dBm
C. 90 dBm
D. 90 dB
One character or a sequence of characters forming a part, or the whole of a message with
a specific meaning
A. Signs
B. Call sign
C. Code
D. Identifier
The K-factor under normal atmospheric conditions in a microwave radio data profile
calculation is equal to ___________.
A. 2/3
B. 0
C. 4/3
D. Infinity
What is the IBMs asynchronous data link protocol designation?
A. 83 B
B. 8A1 / 8B1
C. 93 B
D. 9A1/ 9B1
EIRP stands for _______________.
A. effective isotropic refracted power
B. effective and ideal radiated power
C. effective isotropic reflected power
D. effective isotropic radiated power

The modulation system used for telegraphy is
A. frequency-shift keying
B. two-tone modulation
C. pulse-code modulation
D. single-tone modulation
The standard that specifies a balanced interface cable that will operate bit rates up to 10
Mbps with in a span distances up to 1200 m.
A. RS-423A
B. RS-422A
C. RS-550A
D. RS-449A
An antenna which is not resonant at a particular frequencies and so can be used over a
wide band of frequencies and so can be used over a wide band of frequencies is called
A. aperiodic
B. boresight
C. cassegrain
D. top-loaded
A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 ohms has an equivalent noise
resistance of 30 ohms. What is the receivers noise temperature?
A. 754 K
B. 464 K
C. 174 K
D. 293 K
___________ occurs when the microwave beam is at point of grazing over an obstacle.
A. Diffraction
B. Refraction
C. Absorption
D. Reflection
Atmospheric condition is controlled by
A. humidity
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. all of these

The characteristics impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its ________.
A. conductor spacing
B. conductor diameter
C. length
D. conductor radius
What is the purpose of a beat frequency oscillator (BFO)?
A. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
B. Generates a signal, whose frequency is the same as that of the intermediate frequency
C. Generates a 1kHz note for Morse code reception
D. Generates an output, whose frequency differs from that of the intermediate frequency
by 1 kHz
The point on the satellite orbit, closest to the earth is
A. prograde
B. perigee
C. zenith
D. apogee
The potential difference between any exposed structured to ground in any electrical
installation should not exceed _________ volts RMS.
A. 10
B. 45
C. 0
D. 30
The capture area of an antenna is directly proportional to the
A. frequency of the received signal
B. distance between transmitter and receiver
C. gain of the antenna
D. power density of the signal
Modems are required to connect computer to telephone lines because ___________.
A. telephone company rules required them
B. the telephone network bandwidth is too high
C. none of the above
D. the telephone network will pass direct current
The standard reference antenna for the directive gain is ___________.
A. elementary doublet
B. isotropic antenna
C. half-wave dipole
D. infinitesimal dipole
One hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to
A. 120 dBSPL
B. 115.56 dBSPL
C. 41.58 dBSPL
D. 57.78 dBSPL
It is a spacecraft placed in orbit around the earth carrying onboard microwave receiver
and transmitting equipments.
A. Fiber optic equipment
B. Communications satellite
C. Wireless radio system
D. Coaxial cable syste
One type of pulse communications system uses pulse that appear as a group, and which
vary in number according to the loudness of the voice. This type of pulse modulation is
called
A. pulse duration modulation
B. pulse amplitude modulation
C. pulse code modulation
D. pulse position modulation
A device to be connected across the headset in telephone receivers to reduce the effects
of acoustic shock.
A. Ground
B. Two rectifiers in parallel with opposite polarities
C. Protector
D. Fuse
Judgment on the case against an ECE shall become final and executory after
A. 10 days
B. 60 days
C. 30 days
D. 15 days
The equivalent noise temperature of the amplifier is 25 K. What is the noise figure?
A. 1.86
B. 0.1086
C. 1.086
D. 10.86
The letter-number designation B8E is a form of modulation also known as ___________.
A. pilot carrier system
B. independent sideband emission
C. lincomplex
D. vestigial sideband transmission
When the transmitting and receiving antennas are in line-of-sight of each other, the mode
of propagation is ________ wave.
A. space or direct
B. ground
C. surface
D. sky
Crosstalk coupling is ___________.
A. dBm (disturbing pair) minus dBm (disturbed pair)
B. the difference between readings on a cable pair with a tone and a cable pair without
tone read at the far end of a cable
C. signals from one circuit that get into another circuit
D. All of these are true
According to the Nyquist theorem, the sampling rate that can be used in a PCM system is
________ the highest audio frequency.
A. once
B. eight times
C. twice
D. thrice
Passive crossover components cause some frequencies to be delayed with respect to the
other frequencies at the crossover point.
A. Phase shift
B. Phase correction
C. Phase-error correction
D. Time alignment
A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At this

distance, what is the sound power in watt?
A. 12 W
B. 0.12 W
C. 0.012 W
D. 1.2 W
What is the one principal difference between synchronous and asynchronous
transmission?
A. the pulse height are different
B. the clocking is derived from the data in synchronous transmission
C. the clocking is mixed with the data in asynchronous
D. the bandwidth required is different
The lowest layer in the ionosphere
A. D
B. F2
C. E
D. F1
What is the number of pins in the RS-232C interface?
A. 25
B. 15
C. 20
D. 20
SSB transmission requires only ______ of the bandwidth for a DSBFC transmission.
A.
B. 2/3
C.
D.
The method of generating FM used by broadcasting station is
A. direct
B. all of these
C. indirect
D. insertion
What is the transmission rate of a system for transmitting the output of a microcomputer
to a line printer operating at a speed of 30 lines/minute? Assume that the line printer has
8 bits of data per character and prints out 80 characters/line.
A. 800 bps
B. 400 bps
C. 320 bps
D. 640 bps
Communications code is ____________.
A. eight bits per character
B. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
C. the same in all modern computers
D. either seven or eight bits per character
What is the reference tone level for dBm?
A. -82 dBm
B. -85 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -90 dBm
A type of an underground antenna is a/an __________ antenna.
A. Hertz
B. isotropic
C. parabolic
D. Marconi
Which of the following pulse modulation systems is analog?
A. Delta
B. Differential PCM
C. PWM
D. PCM
What is the purpose of the receivers squelch circuit?
A. To overcome fluctuations in the level the RF signal arriving at the receiver antenna
B. To prevent fluctuations in the AGC bias level
C. To reduce the receivers sensitivity to all incoming signals
D. To prevent amplified noise from reaching the loudspeaker during the absence of
an incoming signal
TACAN is a navigational aid providing ___________.
A. bearing and distance indication

B. speed and height indication
C. bearing and weather information
D. instrument-landing glide paths
In __________ transmission, a unique SYNC character is transmitted at the beginning of
each message.
A. asynchronous
B. synchronous
C. digital
D. analogue
If the terminating impedance is exactly equal to the characteristic impedance of the
transmission line the return loss is ___________.
A. zero
B. one
C. infinite
D. None of these
What is the main purpose of a communications system?
A. None of these
B. To have a frequency assignment
C. For modulation
D. To provide an acceptable replica of the information at the destination
What is meant by antenna gain?
A. The final amplifier gain minus the transmission line losses (including any phasing
lines present)
B. The ratio of the amount of power produced by the antenna compared to the output
power of the transmitter
C. The ratio of the signal in the backward direction
D. The numeric ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of
another antenna
Binary communications systems are better because
A. they can interface directly with the analog telephone network
B. the components are simpler, less costly, and more reliable
C. people think better in binary
D. interstate calls are less costly

In the phase shift method, How many circuits must be balanced?
A. None of these
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
The carrier swing necessary to provide 80% modulation in the FM broadcasting band is
__________.
A. 150 kHz
B. 120 kHz
C. 60 kHz
D. 75 kHz
The correctness and accuracy of the transmitted message content is
A. verified by the modem
B. communications system
C. determined by the sender and receiver
D. ensured by use of digital technique
The signal in a channel is measured to be 23 dB while noise in the same channel is
measured to be 9 dB. The signal to noise ratio therefore is __________.
A. 9/23
B. 23/9
C. 32 dB
D. 14 dB
Three audio waves with 100,200 and 300 volts amplitude respectively, simultaneously
modulate a 450 volts carrier. What is the total percent of modulation of the AM wave?
A. 69 %
B. 115.5 %
C. 50%
D. 83%
If the percentage modulation of an AM amplifier is 88% and the modulating signal is 1
volt, the carrier has an amplitude of _______________.
A. 1.14 volts
B. 0.88 volt
C. 1.88 volts
D. 0.12 volt

It consists of a number of dipoles of equal size, equally spaced along a straight line with
all dipoles fed in the same phase from the same source.
A. Log-periodic antenna
B. Yagi antenna
C. End-fire array
D. Broadside array
Data switching systems.
A. improve the efficiency of data transfer
B. are limited to small data networks
C. required additional lines
D. are not used in data system
A type of array antenna which consists of one half-wave driven dipole, one reflector and
one director
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Yagi-uda
C. Broadside collinear
D. Log periodic dipole array
Power is a _____________ amount of energy used in specific period of time
A. large
B. definite
C. electrical
D. relative
The midrange frequency range of sound is from
A. 256 to 2048 Hz
B. 2048 to 4096 Hz
C. 512 to 2048 Hz
D. 16 to 64 Hz
To connect coaxial line to a parallel-wire _________ is the best to use.
A. directional coupler
B. quarter-wave transformer
C. balun
D. slotted line
In AM, the carrier carries ____________ intelligence.
A. no
B. difference
C. distorted
D. same
Characteristics impedance of a transmission line is the impedance measured at the
___________ when its length is infinite.
A. input
B. shorted end of the line
C. output
D. midsection
Cross modulation on a receiver is eliminated at the
A. RF stage
B. mixer stage
C. IF stage
D. detector stage
A speaker cabinet has an internal volume 84,950 cm3. It has a port area on the baffle of
3,230 cm2 and baffle thickness of 19 mm. What is the Helmholtz resonance hertz of this
speaker enclosure?
A. 260 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 265 Hz
D. 250 Hz
What quarterwave transformer will match a 100 line to an antenna whose value is
175?
A. 132.29
B. 150
C. 16.58
D. 137.5
The local loop of the telephone system is understood to be
A. a single piece of wire connecting the subscribers telephone set to another telephone
set in an adjacent room
B. a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customers premise
and central office
C. a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer
D. a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modem

In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?
A. The equatorial regions
B. The northern hemisphere
C. The arctic regions
D. The polar regions
The process of assigning PCM codes to absolute magnitudes
A. Overloading
B. All of these
C. Quantizing
D. Multiplexing
It is a measure of the microwave power radiated from an antenna as a function of angular
direction from the antenna axis.
A. Antenna pattern
B. Polarization
C. Beamwidth
D. Sidelobes
It is the made from semiconductor material such as aluminum-galium-arsenide or
gallium-arsenide-phosphide.
A. APD
B. Injection laser diode
C. Light emitting diode
D. Positive-intrinsic-negative
Which one is not the basic electrical protection measures in the Philippine Electronics
Code?
A. Voltage/ current limiting and interrupting
B. Undergrounding
C. Grounding and bonding
D. Shielding
What does the noise weighting curve shows?
A. Noise signals measured with a 144 handset
B. Power levels of noise found in carrier systems
C. The interfering effect of other frequencies in a voice channel compared with a
reference frequency of one kilohertz
D. Interfering effects of signals compared with a 3-kHz tone

What is the difference between phase and frequency modulation?
A. Is purely theoretical because they are the same in practice
B. Lies in poorer audio response of phase modulation
C. Lies in the different definitions of the modulation index
D. Is too great to make two systems compatible
When a transmission line uses ground return, it is called a/an __________ line.
A. ungrounded
B. balanced
C. unbalanced
D. grounded
What is the gain of four identically polarized antennas stacked one above the other and
fed in phase?
A. 3 dB over the gain of one antenna
B. 10 dB over the gain of one antenna
C. 4 dB over the gain of one antenna
D. 6 dB over the gain of one antenna
The ratio of the level of the modulated output of a transmitter under conditions of
standard test modulation to the level of the demodulated output with no modulation
applied both measured with the same bandwidth.
A. Reference audio output
B. None of these
C. Audio frequency response
D. Residual noise level
The ___________ filter attenuates signals but passes frequencies below and above that
band.
A. low pass
B. band pass
C. band stop
D. high pass
In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999,
what is the capacity of the system?
A. 1000 lines
B. 100,000 lines
C. 10,000 lines
D. 100 lines
An absorption loss caused by valence electrons in the silica material from which fibers
are manufactured.
A. Modal dispersion
B. Infrared absorption
C. Ion resonance absorption
D. Ultraviolet absorption
In an FM receiver, which circuit removes amplitude variations?
A. Exciter
B. Mixer
C. Discriminator
D. Limiter
A one-hop, full duplex, microwave system in a space diversity arrangement. Determine
how many receivers in all are used?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6
The frequency spectrum of the stereophonic FM signal.
A. 67 kHz
B. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
C. 19 to 38 kHz
D. 30 to 53 kHz
Termination means
A. result of disconnecting a line from a transmitter
B. result of cutting both ends of a conductor
C. looking back impedance of a line with no load
D. load connected to the output end of a transmission line
Asynchronous protocol is
A. message oriented
B. clock oriented
C. bit oriented
D. character oriented
Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _________.

A. negative terminal
B. input
C. ground
D. positive terminal
What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable
such as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.10
C. 0.66
D. 0.30
Gain of an isotropic antenna
A. -1 dB
B. 1 dB
C. 0 dB
D. 2 dB
In measuring noise in a voice channel at a 4 dB test point level, the meter reads -70 dBm
(F1A weighted), convert the reading to pWp.
A. 53
B. 93
C. 63
D. 83
Power is always __________.
A. a definite amount of energy
B. all of these
C. the rate at which energy is used
D. expressed in watts
Radio fading resulting from obstruction losses.
A. Log normal fading
B. None of these
C. Multi-path fading
D. Rayleigh fading
After the IF stages have been aligned, the next stage to align in FM receiver is.
A. local oscillator
B. limiter stage
C. RF amplifier
D. mixer stage
___________ is a device in data transmission to interface data terminal equipment to an
analogue transmission line.
A. RS 232
B. Connector
C. Modem
D. RJ-11 plug
What is the primary advantage of DSBSC in AM?
A. Reduce bandwidth over standard AM
B. All of these
C. It is simpler to transmit and receive than the standard AM
D. No transmitter power is wasted in the carrier

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
ECE Board Exam November 1996

Which frequency band is the standard AM radio broadcast?
A. HF
B. UHF
C. MF
D. VHF
A system that performs parallel-to-serial and serial-to-parallel conversion of data link.
A. DCE
B. DTE
C. Modem
D. PC
The line control unit (LCU) operates on the data digital form.
A. Data communications equipment (DCE)
B. UART
C. Modem
D. Data terminal equipment (DTE)
Quantization noise is caused by
A. binary coding techniques
B. serial transmission errors
C. the synchronization between encoder and decoder
D. the approximation of the quantized signal
Speaker is a device that __________.
A. convert current variations into sound waves
B. none of these
C. convert electrical energy to mechanical energy
D. convert sound waves into current and voltage
An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has an _______
image.
A. virtual
B. the same in size
C. inverted
D. smaller size
The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is
A. attenuation
B. propagation
C. absorption
D. scattering
8. ECE Board Exam November 1996
Energy that has neither been radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
A. Captured waves
B. Incident waves
C. Standing waves
D. Modulated waves
One of the reasons why FDM is being replaced by TDM is
A. noise is amplified with voice when an FDM system is used
B. it is difficult to place channels side by side
C. there is more time than frequency
D. Most available frequencies has been used
Which determines the number of sideband components of FM?
A. Modulation frequency
B. Modulation index
C. Carrier frequency
D. All of these
How would one squeeze more channels of communication into TDM frames of standard
length?
A. Shorten the time delay for each channel
B. Raise the amplitude
C. Add modulators
D. Remove the synchronizing pulses
When one stations is designated as master and rest of the stations are considered slaves
message handling is ________.
A. polling
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. OSI
How many satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine government from ITU?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 5
D. 3
The output of a balanced modulator is ____________.
A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
RS-232, RS-449, RS-530, V, 24 and X.21 are examples of ____________.
A. standards for interfaces between modems and transmission facilities
B. standards for various types of transmission channels
C. standards for interfaces between terminals and modems
D. standards for end to end performance of data communications system
A special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).
A. Phantom line
B. Private line
C. Tie trunk
D. Tandem trunk
What is the baseband frequency of standard FDM basic supergroup?
A. 312 to 552 kHz
B. 300 to 600 kHz
C. 60 to 2540 kHz
D. 60 to 108 kHz
What is the data rate of the ISDN Basic access B channel?
A. 192 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 144 kbps
Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Spectrum analyzer
B. Multimeter
C. Reflectometer
D. Oscilloscope
What is the transmission rate of a GSM cellular system?
A. 64 kbps
B. 240 kbps
C. 128 kbps
D. 270 kbps
A dipole antenna requires to be feed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal
strength to a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field
strength available with an input power of 11 kW. What is the gain in dB obtain by the use
of the reflector ? ( Gain referred to this particular dipole)
A. 4.24
B. 1.81
C. 4.75
D. 2.6
Pulse carrier at the ratio of 8000 pulse/sec is amplitude modulated by an analog signal
this type of modulation is
A. PAM
B. ADM
C. DM
D. PCM
What is the applied power if a thermal RF wattmeter is connected to a transmitter through
a variable attenuator? The wattmeter reads 84 mW when 15 dB of attenuation is used.
A. 4.656 watts
B. 2.656 watts
C. 3.656 watts
D. 2.856 watts
Collects very weak signal from a broadcast satellite
A. Satellite dish
B. LNB
C. Yagi-Uda antenna
D. Satellite receiver
A seven-bit character can represent one of _________ possibilities.
A. 14
B. 64
C. 128
D. 7
The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro

Manila is
A. 10 kW
B. 20 kW
C. 15 kW
D. 5 kW
A loudspeaker cabinet has an internal volume of 5,184 in3 (84,950 cm3). It has a port area
on the baffle of 50 in2 (322.58cm2) and a thickness of 0.70 in (18 mm). What is the
Helmholtz resonance, in hertz, of this loudspeaker enclosure?
A. 250 Hz
B. 245 Hz
C. 240 Hz
D. 255 Hz
When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even Fresnel zone at the
point of reflection the RSL
A. remains the same
B. is above threshold
C. is decreased
D. is increased
Digital transmission provides a higher level of signal quality than analog transmission
because
A. repeaters regenerate digital pulses and remove distorstion
B. digital signals are easier to sample than analog signals
C. digital signals are smaller than analog signals and cannot easily be distorted
D. analog signals are continuous and not easily distorted.
A _________ interconnects LAN having identical protocols at the physical and data link
layers.
A. All of these
B. bridge
C. router
D. Gateway
Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ________ modulation
A. Phase
B. AM and FM
C. Digital
D. Angle
The different angles of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core is
many times the wavelength of the light transmitter is known as ________.
A. refraction
B. sensor
C. mode
D. emitter
An invitation from the primary to a secondary to transmit a message.
A. Retransmission
B. Selection
C. Reuse
D. Polling
An agency of the United Nations that formulates standards and recommend practices for
all civil aviation
A. ICAO
B. CAA
C. IATA
D. ATO
The transformer signal coding method for T1 carrier is
A. Binary
B. NRZ
C. Manchester
D. Bipolar
When the value of k increases, the effective result is ______ of the equivalent curvatures.
A. downward curvatures
B. flattening
C. bulging
D. sharp curvature
An electromagnetic wave consists of
A. a magnetic field only
B. both electric and magnetic fields
C. an electric field only
D. non-magnetic field only
In a transmission line, if the maximum current to minimum current ratio is 2:1 what is the
ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage?
A. 4:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 2:1
Satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Vertically polarized
B. Uplink
C. Downlink
D. RHCP
Multiplexing scheme use by baseband transmission.
A. FDM
B. Space multiplexing
C. TDM
D. Statistical multiplexing
Which stands for dB relative level?
A. dBrn
B. dBm
C. dBr
D. dBa
What is the maximum color TV bandwidth?
A. 1.6 MHz
B. 0.5 MHz
C. 1.0 MHz
D. 1.3 MHz
If Ns=250, determine the earth radius k-factor.
A. 1.98
B. 1.23
C. 1.33
D. 1.29
Digital modulation technique used in modems.
A. ASK
B. PSK
C. FSK
D. All of these
Which of the following is not a baseband signal modulation?
A. RF carrier
B. Video System
C. Audio signal
D. Binary coded pulses
The standing wave ratio is equal to ________ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.
A. 1
B. 50
C. 10
D. 2
Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal per cycle over a specified
total frequency band.
A. Thermal noise
B. White noise
C. Gaussian noise
D. All of these
When was the UHF channel (14-83) of television were added?
A. 1852
B. 1904
C. 1947
D. 1952
Multiplexing in a time division multiplexer occurs based upon
A. the position of a frame within the group of frames
B. the positioning of data within a frame
C. the priority assigned to a connected device
D. the activity of a connected device
Ethernet is baseband system using CSMA/CD operating at
A. 20 Mbps
B. 10 Mbps
C. 30 Mbps
D. 40 Mbps

A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula is
A. 92.4 + 10 log f +20 log d
B. 94.2 + 10 log f +20 log d
C. 92.4 + 20 log f +20 log d
D. 94.2 + 20 log f +20 log d
Which is the non-resonant antenna?
A. Broadside Antenna
B. Folded Dipole
C. Rhombic antenna
D. End fire array
The first commercial satellite
A. Explorer
B. Sputnik
C. Telstar
D. Early bird
A quadrature signaling have ________ possible states.
A. 16
B. 8
C. 32
D. 4
Proposed the use of a clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide.
A. Kao and Keck
B. Karpon and Keck
C. Karpon and Bockham
D. Bockham and Kao
What band does VSAT first operate?
A. X-band
B. C-band
C. Ku-band
D. L-band
What is the method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on 2 different
frequencies over the same path?
A. Quadruple
B. Frequency
C. Polarization
D. Space
The wavelength of light has no role in
A. Diffraction
B. Interference
C. Resolving power
D. Polarization
Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
A. High-pass filter
B. Band reject filter
C. Low-pass filter
D. Band-pass filter
The standard ASCII
A. is version II of ASC
B. is used only in US and Canada
C. has 132 characters including 32 control characters
D. is subset of 8-bit EBCDIC code
Luminous efficiency is least for a
A. mercury vapor lamp
B. low-wattage light bulb
C. high-wattage light bulb
D. fluorescent tube
Transmission lines when connected to antenna have
A. capacitive load
B. resistive load whose resistance is less than characteristics impedance
C. resistive load at the resonant frequency
D. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
What is the free space loss, in dB, between two microwave parabolic antennas 38.0
kilometer apart operating at 7.0 GHz?
A. 145.6 dB
B. 138.5 dB
C. 135.5 dB
D. 140.89 dB

What is the equivalent output of a circuit in dBm, if it is has an output of 10 watts?
A. 10 dBm
B. 30 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 40 dBm
Satellite engine use
A. liquid fuel
B. jet propulsion
C. ion propulsion system
D. solar jet
Low-power radar uses
A. RIMPATT
B. TRAPATT
C. Magnetron
D. IMPATT
Transmission line must be matched to the load to
A. transfer maximum voltage to the load
B. transfer maximum current to the load
C. reduce the load current
D. transfer maximum power to the load
Electromagnetic wave travel at __________ in free space.
A. 300,000 km/sec
B. 100,000 km/ sec
C. 400,000 km/sec
D. 200km/sec
When electromagnetic wave are propagated through a waveguide, they
A. are reflected from the walls but do not travel along them
B. travel along all four walls of the waveguide
C. travel along the broader walls of the guide
D. travel through the dielectric without touching the walls
Codes must be
A. agreed upon in advance between sender and receiver
B. eight bit per character
C. the same in all modern computer

D. either seven or eighth bits per character
Combination of modulator, channel and detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Discrete channel
C. T/R channel
D. Transponder
What is the stage of the sand becoming silicon?
A. Hot
B. Gas
C. Liquid
D. Molten
Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie
A. dBx
B. dolby
C. dBa
D. dBm
What is the principal difference between asynchronous and synchronous transmission?
A. The clocking is mixed with the data in synchronous transmission
B. The pulse height are difficult
C. The clocking is derived from the data in synchronous
D. The bandwidth required is difficult.
You are measuring a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73 dBm
(pure test tone) convert the reading in dBmCO.
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
What is the type of emission use by standard AM radio broadcast?
A. A0
B. F3
C. A3
D. A5C
____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction

through a cross sectional area of 1 sq.m. at right angle to the direction.
A. Sound pressure
B. Sound intensity
C. Pressure variation
D. Loudness
Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ___________.
A. input capacitance
B. beamwidth
C. bandwidth
D. effective height
What component in the telephone set has the primary function of interfacing the handset
to the local loop?
A. Varistor
B. Induction coil
C. Resistor
D. Capacitor
The first passive satellite transponder.
A. Early bird
B. Score
C. Moon
D. Sputnik
The primary purpose of the data modem is to
A. interface analog terminal equipment to analog communications channel
B. interface digital terminal equipment to analog communications channel
C. interface analog terminal equipment to digital communications channel
D. interface digital terminal equipment to digital communications channel
____________ is the out-of-band signaling between toll central offices (Bell System
Standard)
A. 2,000 Hz
B. 800 Hz
C. 3,835 Hz
D. 3700 Hz
Which symbol indicates that only one sideband is transmitted?
A. A3E
B. B8E
C. C3F
D. H3E
A voice-grade circuit using the PTN has an ideal passband of
A. 0 to 4 Hz
B. 0 to 4 kHz
C. 0 to 4 GHz
D. 0 to 4 MHz
1 micron is equal to ___________ meter(s).
A. 10-6m
B. 10-3 m
C. 106 m
D. 109 m
The lowest resistance grounding on earth
A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Surface loam soil
D. Limestone
Troposheric scatter uses the frequencies in the ________ band.
A. VLF
B. UHF
C. VHF
D. UF
The unit of pitch
A. Decibel
B. Phon
C. Mel
D. Sone
What kind of receiver is used in converntional telephone handset?
A. Capacitor
B. Carbon
C. Electromagnetic
D. Ceramic

Basic speed rate of digital system.
A. 144 kbps
B. 1,544 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 2,048 kbps
A horizontal antenna is
A. centrally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. horizontally polarized
D. perpendicularly polarized
What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
A. 0.108 cm
B. 1.082 cm
C. 0.017 cm
D. 0.0465 cm
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 16 ns, the source rise time is 1.5 ns and the
detector rise time is 2 ns, what is the cable rise time?
A. 14 ns
B. 6 ns
C. 9 ns
D. 12.5 ns
What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
A. 1.25 sec
B. 52 sec
C. 83.33 sec
D. 26 sec
What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
A. 6 dB
B. 2 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 1 dB
You are measuring noise in a voice channel at 7 dB test point level. The meter reads -56
dBm (FIA weighted). What is the reading in dBrnc?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 35
D. 25
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on
A. two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies
B. two or more identical frequencies
C. two or more different frequencies
D. two or more antennas operating on the same frequencies
Rules governing the transmission of digital information.
A. Line protocol
B. Isochronous
C. Data communications
D. Digital communications
A digital identification associated with a cellular system
A. SAT
B. ESN
C. MIN
D. SIM
____________ is measuring the propagated field strength over the projected service area
A. Radio sounding
B. None of these
C. Radio monitoring
D. Radio survey
1.
ECE Board Exam April 1997
What is the impedance of a balance 4-wire with a diameter of 0.25 cm and spaced 2.5 cm
apart using an insulator with a dielectric constant of 2.56?
A. 100
B. 65
C. 75
D. 50
2.
What is the impedance in ohms of a transformer marked for 25V, 4W, when the secondary is
correctly loaded?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
150
156
160
165
A single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.

A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
RG-8/U
Single line wire
Twin-lead
MIcrostrip
If voltage change equal to twice its original value, what is its corresponding change in dB?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
9 dB
6dB
10 dB
3dB
To couple a coaxial line to parallel line, it is better to use a ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
Slotted line
Quarter-wave transformer
Directional Coupler
Balun
What is the characteristic impedance of a single wire with a diameter d= 0.25 mm placed at
the center between grounded parallel planes separated by 1 mm apart. The wire is held by a
material with a velocity factor of 0.75.
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
85
63
50
75
If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many such
amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60 dB?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
3
4
5
2
________ sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a give noise level.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
Hartley theorem
Shannon-Hartley theorem
Nyquist theorem
Shannon theorem
Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Full duplex
Duplex
Half duplex
Simplex
10.
Industrial noise frequency is between _________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
200 to 3000 Mhz

15 to 160 Mhz
0 to 10 Khz
20 Ghz
Reference noise temperature.

A.
B.
C.
D.
12.
70 deg F
30 deg C
290 Kelvin
25 deg C
What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement?

A.
B.
C.
D.
13.
800 Hz
1500 Hz
3400 Hz
1000 Hz
Which does not effect noise in a channel?

A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
None of these
Bandwidth
Temperature
Quantizing level
The random and unpredictable electric signal from natural causes, both internal and external
to the system is know as ________.
A. Distortion
B. Noise
C. Attenuation
D. Interference
15.
The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testing.

A.
B.
C.
D.
16.
dBw
dBk
dBm
NPR
Unit of noise power of psophometer

A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
dBa
pWp
dBm
dBmO
100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by:

A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
25%
75%
100%
50%
If the modulation index of an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the
AM system being used is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A5C
A3J
A3H
A3
19.
What particular circuit that rids FM of noise?

A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
HPF
Phase shifter
Limiter
LPF
What is the advantage of PTM over PAM?

A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
All of these
Low sampling rate is required
Much better noise immunity
Simpler to generate
At 100% modulation, the sum fo the effective voltages in both sidebands is equal to
______% of the unmodulated carrier voltage.
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
50
71
100
25
A carrier signal has ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
23.
Constant peak amplitude

The information
Frequency range 20-20000 Hz
A varying amplitude
Which transmit only one sideband?

A. A3E
B. 3AJ
C. 11BE
D. H3E
24.
The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter operates as

A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
Class B
Class C
Class A
Class D
Modulation means
A. Varying of information
B. Utilization of a single transmission channel to carry multiple signals
C. Varying of some parameters of a carrier such as its amplitude to transmit
information
D. Transmit pulses in DC form on a copper wire
26.
What is the advantage of sidetone?

A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
High transmission efficiency

Results to a strengthened signal
No energy dissipation
Assures that the telephone is working
The standard test tone

A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
0dB
10 dBm
0 dBm
10 dB
One (1) Erlang is equal to ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
29.
360 CCS
100 CCS
36 CCS
3.6 CCS
Transmission of printed material over telephone lines.

A.
B.
C.
D.
30.
Video text
Facsimile
Encoding
Xerox copy
1-CCS is equal to?

A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
60
100
600
1
1 Erlang is ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.
1000 TU
10 TU
100TU
1 TU
When waves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Refraction
Reflection
Rarefaction
Diffraction
33.
Highest frequency that can be used for skywave HF communications between two given
points on earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
Gyro frequency
Maximum usable frequency
Critical frequency
Virtual frequency
Electromagnetic radiation theory was profounded by ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
35.
Sir Edward Appleton

Sir Isaac Newton
James Clerk Maxwell
Michael Faraday
Type of transmission path that permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60
MHz and over distances form about 1000 to 2000 km.
A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
Ducting
Ionospheric scatter
Microwave
Troposcatter
What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?

A.
B.
C.
D.
37.
E
F1
F2
D
Distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle.
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
Hop
Frequency
Wavelength
Crest
Which region of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for long distance night time
communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
A layer
D layer
E layer
F layer
What is the effective earths radius when N=300?

A.
B.
C.
D.
40.
8500 km
6370 km
7270 km
7950 km
The polarization of a discone antenna is _____.

A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
Horizontal
Vertical
Omni
Directional
_______ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Right angle
Angle of elevation
Bandwidth
Azimuth
42.
Which is properly terminated antenna?

A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
Rhombic
Hertz
Marconi
Dipole
______ is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.
Crystal
Orthomode transducer
Light transducer
Optoisolator
How much does the radiated power of an antenna increases if its current increased by 3.3
times?
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.
6.6 times
3.3 times
10.89 times
9.9 times
What do you call the energy that was not radiated into space or completely transmitted?
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.
Incident waves
Captured waves
Standing waves
Modulated waves
What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A. 200 kph
B. 250 kph
C. 300 kph
D. 100 kph
47.
The minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have.

A.
B.
C.
D.
48.
4
5
3
6
When testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna
must be used?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
Dummy antenna
Hertzian antenna
None of these
Void antenna
A device that radiates electromagnetic energy and or intercepts electromagnetic radation.

A.
B.
C.
D.
50.
Antenna
Transmitter
Transmission line
Transceiver
The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to length of 3.4 m.

A.
B.
C.
D.
42.9 MHz
61.3 MHz
38.5 MHz
53.5 MHz
51.
Full duplex transmission means

A.
B.
C.
D.
52.
One way transmission

24-hour transmission
Broadcast transmission
Two-way simultaneous transmission
Transmission system for a multidrop network

A.
B.
C.
D.
53.
Taken passing
Polling
Switching
CSMA/CD
Synchronous modems cost more than asynchronous modem because _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
54.
They have larger bandwidth

They are larger
The production volume is larger
They have clock recovery circuits
What equation defines the composition of an ISDN basic access line?

A.
B.
C.
D.
55.
B+2D
B+D
2B+2D
2B+D
Modem is referred to as ______.

A. Universal asynchronous Rx/Tx
B. Data communication equipment
C. Universal synchronous Rx/Tx
D. Data terminal equipment
56.
_______ character signifies the start of the test for Bisync.

A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
STX
ETX
SOH
BCC
What is the reason why companding is employed in PCM systems?

A.
B.
C.
D.
58.
To overcome impulse noise in PCM receivers

To allow amplitude limiting in the receivers
To solve quantizing noise problem
To protect small signals in PCM from quantizing distortion
What is framing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
Is concerned of synchronous system

Refers to parallel transmission
Is concerned with the boundaries between characters
Is concerned with individual bits
The method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system is ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
60.
Bandwidth analysis
Frequency spectrum
Spectral analysis
Frequency analysis
It is a protocol used to connect the other packet witching network.
A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
X.25
X.50
X.10
X.75
Slowest communications hardware product.

A.
B.
C.
D.
62.
Synchronous
Asynchronous
Ethernet
Internet
Highest theoretical frequency that can be processed at a sampling rate without aliasing.
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.
Folding frequency
Resonant frequency
Natural frequency
Critical frequency
Data is directly on the transmission cable.

A.
B.
C.
D.
64.
Asynchronous
Synchronous
Baseband
Broadband
A source code whose average word length approaches the fundamental limit set by the
entropy of a discrete memoryless source.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Prefix code
Huffman code
Entropy code
Source code
65.
______ sets the limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise level.
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.
Hartley theorem
Shannon-hartley theorem
Nyquist theorem
Shannon theorem
Gateway can interconnect LANs that have ____ protocols and formats.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.
The same
Different or the same
Totally different
None of these
Steps to follow to produce PCM signal.

A.
B.
C.
D.
68.
Quantizing, sampling, and coding

Sampling, quantizing, and coding
Sampling, coding and quantizing
Coding, quantizing and coding
Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.

A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
Full duplex
Duplex
Half duplex
Simplex
_______ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Feedhorn
B. Satellite dish
C. Satellite receiver
D. LNB
70.
What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites?

A.
B.
C.
D.
71.
Gallium Arsenide solar panel

Germanium based panels
Silicon based panels
Gallium Phosphate solar panel
Footprint refers to coverage area in the globe

A.
B.
C.
D.
72.
Satellite radiation polarization

Satellite navigation
Satellite radiation pattern
Satellite coverage
Asia Sat I covers how many countries in Asia?

A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
38
40
44
42
Insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single-mode fiber cable.

A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
0.2 dB
0.3 dB
0.09 dB
0.38 dB
A non-coherent light source for optical communications system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.
PIN Diode
ILD
APD
LED
Type of fiber that has the highest modal dispersion

A.
B.
C.
D.
76.
Step-index multimode
Step-index single mode
Graded index mode
Graded index multimode
Fiber optic cable operates near _______ frequencies.

A.
B.
C.
D.
77.
800 THz
20 MHz
200 MHz
2 GHz
Lifetime of ILDs
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.
150,000 h
100,000 h
50,000 h
200,000 h
The sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit time.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Sound intensity
Loudness
Coherence
Sound stress
79.
_______ is the transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room thru common
walls, floors or ceilings.
A.
B.
C.
D.
80.
Reverberation
Refraction
Flanking transmission
Reflection
The sound power level of a jet plane flying at a height of 1 km is 160 dB. What is the
maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the plane assuming that the
aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions?
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.
59.1 dB
69.1 dB
79.1 dB
89.1 dB
Lowest frequency produced by a musical instrument.

A.
B.
C.
D.
82.
Fundamental
Midrange
Period
Harmonic
Sound intensity level is ________.

A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
10 log I/I(ref)
10 log I(ref)/I
30 log I/I(ref)
20 log I/I(ref)
Tendency of sound energy to spread.
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.
Reflection
Diffraction
Rarefaction
Refraction
______ used to measure speech volume

A.
B.
C.
D.
85.
Volume meter
Audio frequency meter
Volume unit meter
Speech meter
What is the local oscillator frequency range commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to 455
KHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.
540 to 1600 KHz

0 to 1600 KHz
995 to 2055 KHz
0 to 455 KHz

TV channels 2, 4 and 5 are known as ________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.
Mid band UHF

Low band UHF
High band VHF
Low band VHF
______ is the first component of any MATV system to received broadcast signals.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Receiver
Antenna
Filter
Transmitter
88.
Mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in internal and tilting motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Tilting
Scanner
Pan/tilt device
Panning device
The allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast.

A.
B.
C.
D.
90.
25
15
5
75
______ is the time duration for one horizontal trace.

A.
B.
C.
D.
91.
48s
52 s
62 s
50 s
Which is atmospheric attenuation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
92.
Attenuation due to rain

Attenuation due to other gasses
Attenuation due to mist and fog
Due to water vapor and oxygen
A microwave system that requires the use of repeater.

A. Intervening terrain is favorable
B. Distances involved are greater
C. The required reliability is met
D. All of these
93.
What frequency does oxygen causes excessive attenuation

A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
119 GHz
183 GHz
310 GHz
60 GHz
RADAR means
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.
Radio detection and rating

Radio detection and ranging
Radio distance and ranging
Radio delay and ranging
A microwave link between the earth station and the down-town terminal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.
STL
Uplink
Downlink
Terrestrial link
The advantage of periscope antenna in microwave

A.
B.
C.
D.
97.
Minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations

Shorten waveguide link
Reduce tower height
All of these
Professional Regulations Commission was created under ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.
PD 323
PD 223
PD 232
RA 223
The institutionalization of the continuing Professional Education (CPE) Program of the

various regulated profession under the supervision of the Professional Regulation
Commission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
E.O. No. 266

E.O. No. 626
E.O. No. 662
P.D. 381
The basic law providing for the regulation of radio station, communications in the
Philippines and other purposes.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Act. No.`3846
D.O. No. 11
D.O. No. 88
D.O. No. 5

Listing of the date and time events, programs , equipment, test, malfunctions and corrections
in communication system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
File
Documentation
Reporting
Log
1.
Extra-terrestrial noise is observable at frequencies from

A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
0 to 20 KHz
Above 2 GHz
8 to 1.43 GHz
5 to 8 GHz
Band of light waves, that are too short to be seen by human eye.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
Visible
Infrared
Ultraviolet
Amber
Two wires that are bent 90 degrees apart.

A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
Hertz
Dipole
Log-periodic
Rhomic
The first symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU rules to
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Nature of signals modulating the main carrier

Type of information to be transmitted
Bandwidth
Type of modulation of the main carrier
Operating method in which the transmission is made alternately in each direction of a

telecommunication channel
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
Semi-duplex operation
Duplex operation
Half-duplex operation
Simplex operation
Production of radiation by a radio transmitting station

A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
Monitoring
Emission
Radiation
Transmission
The third symbol in the designation of radio emission under the ITU rules refers to
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
Type of the modulation of the main carrier

Bandwidth
Nature of the signals modulating the main carrier
A form of telecommunication for the transmission of transient images of fixed or moving

objects.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
E-mail
Television
Radio
Internet
Radiation pattern of a discone.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Unidirectional
Bidirectional
Omnidirectional
Figure of eight
10.
Another SEG function that allows a person to be superimposed on another scene.

A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
Visual effect
Wiper
Chroma keying
Special effect generation
What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory telephone services?

A.
B.
C.
D.
12.
50 dB
30 dB
40dB
20 dB
The use of telecommunication for automatic indicating or recording measurement at the

distance from the measuring instrument.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.
Monitoring
Tracking
Telemetry
Telecommand
The standard deviation of the variation in the transmission loss of a circuit should not exceed
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
3 dB
1 dB
5 dB
0.5dB
Noise caused by the thermal agitation of electrons in resistance.

A. All of these
B. Thermal noise
C. Johnsons noise
D. White noise
15.
Unity gain antenna

A.
B.
C.
D.
16.
Isotropic
Rhombic
Half-wave dipole
Dummy
The series of periodically recurrent pulses is modulated in amplitude by the corresponding

instantaneous samples.
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
PFM
PWM
PDM
PAM
This type of transmission permits communication in the frequency range from 30 to 60 MHz
and over distances from about 1000 to 2000 km.
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
Troposcatter
Ionospheric scatter
Ducting
Microwave
A region in front of a paraboloid antenna.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Transmission zone
All of these
Fraunhofer
Fresnel
19.
Designates the sensation of low or high in the sense of the base and treble.
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
Frequency
Intensity
Pitch
SPL
A good example of a pilot tone system used in commercial frequency modulation stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
FDM
Time division
Stereo multiplexing
Frequency modulation
Emission on a frequency or frequencies immediately outside the necessary bandwidth which

result from the modulation process except spurious emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
Radiation
Noise
Out of the band
Interference
A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
23.
Broad bandwidth
Good front-to-back
Maneuverability
Circular polarization
Background noise is the same as the following except

A. Impulse noise
B. White noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Gaussian noise
24.
Electronic equipment used to measure standing wave ration.

A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
Reflectometer
Wavemeter
Altimeter
Multimeter
A single sideband emission in which the degree of carrier suppression enables the carrier to
be reconstituted and to be used for demodulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
26.
Reduce carrier single sideband emission

Half carrier single sideband emission
Full carrier single sideband emission
Standard single sideband emission
Station in the mobile service not intended to be used while in motion.

A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
Coast station
Fixed station
Base station
Land station
The electric field lines in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface.

A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
Elliptical polarization
Horizontal polarization
Vertical polarization
Known to be the first satellite capable to receive and transmit simultaneously.

A.
B.
C.
D.
29.
Score
Syncom I
Telstar 1
Echo1
A digital carrier facility used to transmit a DSI-formatted signal at 1.544. Mbps.

A.
B.
C.
D.
30.
T2
T1
T4
T3
12 voice channels are sampled at 8000 sampling rate and encoded into 8 bit PCM word.
Determine the rate of the data stream.
a.
b.
c.
d.
31.
354 kbps
750 kbps
768 kbps
640 kbps
The most common device used as a light detector in fiber optic communications system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
32.
LED
Darlington phototransistor
APDs
PIN diode
Two resistors, 20k, and 50k are at ambient temperature. Calculate for a bandwidth equal
to 100kHz, the thermal noise voltage for the two resistors connected in parallel.
A. 0.4782V
B. 4278 V
C. 4.78 V
D. 47.8 V
33.
Calculate the energy of the photon of infrared light energy at 1.55m

A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
1.28x10-19 J
1.6 x10-19 J
1.22 x10-16 J
1.9 x10-14 J
If a fiber optic system has a rise time of 38.55 ns, the source rise time is 12 ns and the
detector rise time is 12 ns, what is the cable rise time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.
34.61 ns
14.55 ns
52.55 ns
26.25 ns
Nominal voice channel

A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
20 to 20 KHz
16 to 16 KHz
3 to 3 KHz
4 KHz
Two or more antennas separated by 9 wavelengths are used.

A.
B.
C.
D.
37.
Hybrid diversity
Space diversity
Polarized diversity
Frequency diversity
Nif stands for
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
Narrow intermediate frequency

Noise interference figure
Noise improvement factor
Non-intrinsic fugure
Any small element of space in the path of a wave may be considered as a source of secondary
wavelet.
A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
De Morgans Principle
Faradays Law
Huygens Principle
Fresnels Law of optics
Modulation in which the modulated wave is always present.

A.
B.
C.
D.
40.
Carrier modulation
Front-end
Continuous modulation
Log-periodic modulation
Atmospheric noise is less at severe frequencies above

A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
Audio level
30 MHz
10 GHz
1 GHz
At height about 180 km above the earth exist only during daylight.
A.
B.
C.
D.
F2 layer
D layer
E layer
F1 layer
42.
Radiation characteristics of a dipole

A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
Figure of eight
Omnidirectional
Bidirectional
Unidirectional
Determine the gain of a 6 ft. parabolic dish operating at 1800 MHz.

A.
B.
C.
D.
44.
30 dB
11.2 dB
15.5 dB
28.17 dB
An electromagnetic wave is ________ polarized when the electric field lies wholly in one
plane containing the direction of propagation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.
Horizontally
Linearly
Circularly
Vertically
A device that reduces the intensity of light in fiber optics communication systems.
A.
B.
C.
D.
46.
Reducer
Quality factor
Optical attenuator
Compressor
Propagation mode of microwave in a waveguide is known as _______.

A. TM
B. TE
C. SW
D. TEM
47.
The width of the frequency band which is just sufficient to ensure the transmission of
information at the rate and with the quality required under a specified condition and class of
emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.
Occupied bandwidth
Reference frequency
Necessary bandwidth
Frequency tolerance bandwidth
A convenient method of determining antenna impedance.

A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
Stub matching
Reactance circle
Smith chart
Trial and error
Which of the following fall under the high frequency band of the radio spectrum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.
8.2345 MHz
150.50 MHz
2.4555 MHz
35.535 MHz
The electric field lies in a plane parallel to the earths surface.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Elliptical polarization
51.
The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.
Tracking
Telemetry
Telecommand
Space telemetry
The product of the power supplied to the antenna and its gain relative to a half-wave dipole
in a given direction.
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.
Peak envelope power

ERP
Rated power
Carrier power
The Ku-band in the satellite service

A.
B.
C.
D.
54.
14/11 GHz
30/17 GHz
8/7 GHz
6/4 GHz
The sinusoidal carrier is pulsed so that one of the binary states is represented by a carrier
while the other is represented by its absence.
A.
B.
C.
D.
55.
FSK
ASK
PSK
QAM
Width measured in degrees of a major lobes between end of the love at which the relative
power is one half (-3dB) its value from the peak of the lobe.
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.
Bandwidth
Wavelength
Radiation
Beamwidth
The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise voltage testing.
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
NPR
dBm
dBW
dBrn
Any governmental office responsible in discharging the obligations undertaken in the

convention of the ITU and the regulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.
Administration
The union
Country
Telecommunications office
A large speaker having a large diameter (15 cm and above)

A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
Coaxial speaker
Woofer
Tweeter
Trixial speaker
Coaxial lines are used on those systems operating _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Below 2 GHz
At 300 MHz
Above 10KHz
Above 10GHz
60.
Determine the dynamic range for a 10 bit sign magnitude code.

A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
1023
425
511
756
A coherent binary phase shift keyed BPSK transmitter operates at a bit rate of 20 Mbps with
a carrier to noise ratio C/N of 8.8dB. Find E b/No.
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.
73 dB
62.4 dB
81.8 dB
8.8 dB
Receives and collects satellite signals form a broadcast satellite.

A.
B.
C.
D.
63.
LNB
Yagi-Uda array
Satellite receiver
Satellite disk
What is the effect in over modulated amplitude modulated radio broadcasting transmission?
A.
B.
C.
D.
64.
Interference to adjacent channel

Higher fidelity
Increase noise
Higher audio signal
Average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line by a

transmitter during one radio frequency cycle taken under the condition of no modulation.
A. Peak envelop power
B. Rated power
C. Carrier power
D. Mean power
65.
A method of expressing the amplitude of complex non-periodic signals such as speech.

A.
B.
C.
D.
66.
Frequency
Wavelength
Volume
Pitch
A government regulation in telecommunication which provide policy to improve the

provision of local exchange carrier service.
A.
B.
C.
D.
67.
E.O. 109
Act 3846
E.O. 59
E.O. 546
Radio communication operation service between mobile and land stations or between mobile
stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.
Land mobile satellite service

Maritime mobile service
Mobile service
Land mobile
The smaller the f rating, the _____ light that lens can take in.
A.
B.
C.
D.
More
Intense
Less
Same
69.
A radio communications service use in radio regulation between specified fixed points
provided primarily for the safety of air navigation and for the regular efficient and
economical air transport.
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.
Space operation service

Space service
Aeronautical mobile service
Aeronautical fixed service
Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.

A.
B.
C.
D.
71.
High pass filter

Low pass filter
Tank circuit
M-derived filter
The tendency of the sound energy to spread.

A.
B.
C.
D.
72.
Rarefaction
Reflection
Refraction
Diffraction
An earth satellite whose period of revolution is equal to the period of rotation of the earth
about its axis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
Geosynchronous
Steerable
Passive
Active
A figure of merit used to measure the performance of a radiation detector.
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
Noise equivalent power

Ripple factor
Safe factor
Quality factor
Radio wave concentration in the direction of the signal emitted by a directional antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.
Back lobe radiation

Side lobe radiation
Major lobe radiation
Transmitted signal
What is the channel bandwidth of a standard analogue telephone system?

A.
B.
C.
D.
76.
300-500 Hz
1200 kHz
100-300 Hz
300-3400 Hz
A satellite receives an uplink frequency of _______ MHz from a ground station of 3700
MHz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.
8150 MHz
1475 MHz
2225 MHz
5925 MHz
The outer conductor of a coaxial transmission line is always grounded at the

A.
B.
C.
D.
Input only
Input and output
Output only
Point of high SWR
78.
Sound intensity is given as

A.
B.
C.
D.
79.
df/dP
dE/dp
dA/dP
dP/dA
The lowest frequency produced by an instrument.

A.
B.
C.
D.
80.
Harmonic
Fundamental
Midrange
0 Hz
The reflector and director of an antenna array are considered as

A.
B.
C.
D.
81.
Parasitic elements
Transcendental elements
Feed-points
Driven elements
The core of the optical fiber has ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
82.
A medium index of refraction

A lower index of refraction than the cladding
A lower index of refraction than air
A higher index of refraction than the cladding
What makes an antenna physically long but electrically short?

A. Top loading
B. Adding C in series
C. Adding L in series
D. All of these
83.
An AM transmitter is rated 100W at 100% modulation. How much power required for the
carrier?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.
33.33 W
66.66 W
83.33 W
100 W
Used for time division multiplexing.

A.
B.
C.
D.
85.
Pulsed modulation
SSB
Amplitude modulation
A means of beyond the line-of-sight propagation of microwave signal.

A.
B.
C.
D.
86.
Space wave
Microwave link
Troposcatter
Point-to-point
Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of satellite antennas radiation pattern?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.
Hemispheric beam
Spot beam
Zone beam
Global beam
Theoretical gain of a hertzian dipole
A.
B.
C.
D.
88.
0 dB
1.76 dB
3 dB
2.15 dB
Satellite system or part of a satellite system, consisting of only one satellite and the operating
earth station.
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Satellite system
Satellite network
Space system
Multi-satellite link
The difference between the original and reconstructed signal gives rise to
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.
S factor
Quantizing noise
S/N
Fade margin
An area in the memory used for temporary storage of information, on Last in First out
basis.
A.
B.
C.
D.
91.
Core
Register
Flag
Stack
Refers to a land station in a maritime mobile service

A.
B.
C.
D.
Coast station
Ship earth station
Coast earth station
Maritime station
92.
Modulation in which no signal is present between pulses

A.
B.
C.
D.
93.
Pulse modulation
QAM
PSK
FSK
In the designation of bandwidth and emission, what letter in the first symbol represents a
double-sideband type of modulation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
A
B
C
H
Loss due to the diffraction of light when it strikes on the irregularities formed during the
manufacturing process of the fiber optics.
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.
Absorption loss
Attenuation
Bending loss
Rayleigh scattering loss
What is the unit of electric field strength?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
96.
Watt/meter
Ohms/meter
Ampere/meter
Watt/meter2
No answer
Refers to the first generation of local loop system in telecommunication technology.

A.
B.
C.
D.
97.
GSM
DECT
Analogue cellular
TACS
An area on the surface of the earth within which the bore sight of the steerable satellite beam
intended to be pointed
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.
Effective boresight area

Countour boresight are
Coordination boresight are
Equivalent boresight area
For a sample rate of 40 kHz, determine the maximum analog input frequency
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
30 kHz
40 kHz
20 kHz
10 kHz
An antenna that can only receive a television signal.

A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Isotropic antenna
TVRO
Reference antenna
Yagi antenna

Halo is also called
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flare
Dark current
Glitch
Ghost
1.
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
Two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies

Two or more identical frequencies
Two or more antennas operating on the same frequency
Two or more different frequency
An increase in the effective power radiated by an antenna in a certain desired direction at the
expense of power radiated in other directions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
Antenna gain
Antenna back lobe ration
Antenna total ration
Antenna efficiency
A radio land station in the land mobile service

A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
Mobile station
Land station
Base station
Ship earth station
A major and basic advantage for the use of a klystron.

A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
High power
Efficiency
Lesser noise
Cheaper
A band where most military satellite often operate
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
Ku
C
X
L
The final power amplifier in an FM transmitter usually operates class ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
AB
C
B
A
In television broadcasting vivid strong colors are often referred as _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
Saturation
Hue
Chrominance
Luminance
Where do the maximum current and minimum voltage values on a resonant Hertz dipole
exist?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
Center of the antenna

Near the end of the antenna
Near the center of the antenna
Ends of the antenna
How can the antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna be made comparable to
that of a half-wave antenna?
A.
B.
C.
D.
By lengthening the vertical

By installing a good ground radial system
By shortening the vertical
By isolating the coax shield from ground
10.
At what distance is VHF propagation normally limited?

A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
Around 500 miles

Around 1500 miles
Around 2000 miles
Around 1000 miles
What is meant by the term antenna efficiency?

A.
B.
C.
D.
12.
Efficiency = effective radiated power/transmitter output x 100%

Efficiency = radiation resistance/ transmission resistance
Efficiency = total resistance/radiation resistance x 100%
Efficiency = radiation resistance/total resistance x 100%
This is referred to as a fixed radio station that broadcasts program material from studio to
transmitter by radio link.
A.
B.
C.
D.
13.
Aural BC intercity relay

Aural broadcast STL
Shortwave station
Remote-pickup
What law does a light traveling in air optical fiber follow?

A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
Millman
Snells
Maxwell
Huygen
Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling
frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using
frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 and 174 MHz?
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.
165.8 MHz
156.8 MHz
158.6 MHz
168.5 MHz
A device that connects two dissimilar networks and performs the protocol conversion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.
Gateway
Coupler
Transformer
Converter
The use of telecommunication for the transmission of signals to initiate, modify or terminate
functions of equipment at a distance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
Tracking
space command
Telecommand
Trunking
Best described a dip-meter.

A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current

An SWR meter
A counter
A field strength meter
Refers to an emission designation for facsimile?

A. J3E and F4E
B. A3J and A4E
C. A3E and F3C

D. R3E and A3E
19.
How does a SSB transmitter output power normally expressed?

A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
Average power
In terms of peak envelop power
In terms of peak-to-peak power
Peak power
In satellite communication, the Geostationary satellites are conveniently located with respect
to the equator at _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
45 degrees latitude
90 degrees latitude
0 degrees latitude
5 degrees latitude
Known as the technique for adding a series inductor at or near the center of an antenna
element in order to cancel the capacitive reactance of an antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
Dipole
Center loading
Reflector
loading coil
What is meant by the term antenna bandwidth

A.
B.
C.
D.
Antenna length divided by the number of elements.

The angle between the half-power radiation points
The frequency range over which and antenna can be expected to perform well
The angle formed between two imaginary line drawn through the ends of the elements
23.
A multiple access technique used in GSM cellular system

A.
B.
C.
D.
24.
TACS
FDMA
TDMA
CDMA
Refers to an effect of selective fading.

A. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of the
same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by the time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations.
D. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experienced at
the receiving station.
25.
Where the voltage node of a half-wave antenna does exists?

A.
B.
C.
D.
26.
At feed point
Near the center
At center
Near the feed point
This is a flexible vertical rod antenna commonly used on mobiles.

A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
Marconi
Hertz
Whip
Ground plane
Referred to as an average power from the radio transmitter supplied to the antenna
transmission line taken during one radio frequency cycle under no modulation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
Carrier power
Rated power
Peak envelop power
Mean power
_______ is a major cause of the sporadic-E condition

A.
B.
C.
D.
29.
Temperature inversions
Sunspots
Meteors
Wind shear
Which of the following refers to a double side band full carrier?

A.
B.
C.
D.
30.
A3E
A3J
F3
R3A
What is the basic qualification of an applicant for public carrier network before a certificate
of public convenience or a provisional authority is issued?
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
Franchise
SEC document
Business permit
Radio station license
How wide is the spectrum bandwidth of a single GSM carrier?

A.
B.
C.
D.
100 kHz
200 kHz
50 kHz
16 kHz
32.
With which emission type is the capture-effect most pronounced?

A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
CW
FM
SSB
AM
What is a dummy antenna?

A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
One which is used as a reference for gain measurements

And antenna used for hand-held radio
An non-directional transmitting antenna
A non-radiating load for a transmitter used for testing
Best description of a collinear and broadside antenna radiation pattern.

A.
B.
C.
D.
35.
Bidirectional
Perfect circle
Unidirectional
Omnidirectional
A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of earths surface.

A.
B.
C.
D.
36.
Spot beam
Global beam
Zone beam
Hemispheric beam
The modulation technique used by GSM cellular system

A. Phase shift keying
B. Frequency shift keying
C. Gaussian minimum shift keying
D. QAM
37.
________ generates light beam at a specific visible frequency.

A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
Glass fiber
Infrared
Light waves
Laser
The most common application of satellites

A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
Surveillance
Reconnaissance
Defense systems
Communication
Referred to the dielectric constant of a transmission line material.

A.
B.
C.
D.
40.
Inductance and capacitance

Velocity factor
Characteristic impedance
Propagation velocity
Referred to as a ferrite device that can be used in lieu of a duplexer to isolate a microwave
transmitter and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna.
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
Isolator
Circulator
Coupler
Diode.
_______ is more prevalent in analog signals that have steep slopes or whose amplitudes vary
rapidly.
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.
Peak limiting
Quantization noise
Granular noise
Slope overload
Station located on an object which is beyond and is intended to go beyond the major portion
of the earths atmosphere.
A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
Terrestrial station
Space station
Satellite station
Mobile satellite station
A radio frequency in the ultra high frequency band of the radio spectrum band.
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.
235.50 MHz
450.50 MHz
150.50 GHz
0.31250 GHz
Technical study which deals with production, transport and delivery of a quality signal from
source to destination.
A.
B.
C.
D.
45.
Transmission system engineering

Communication system engineering
Telephony engineering
Telegraphic engineering
It is used to connect computers in the same building or in same area

A. MAN
B. LAN
C. SWITCH
D. WAN
46.
Referred by radio regulation as the station in the mobile service not intended to be used while
in motion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.
Fixed station
Base station
Land station
Coast station
What is the mixing process?

A.
B.
C.
D.
48.
Distortion caused by auroral propagation

The combination of two signals to produce sum and difference frequencies.
The elimination of noise in wideband receiver by phase differentiation
The elimination of noise in a wideband receiver by phase comparison
Which of the following systems is not used in radio detection and ranging?
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
Frequency shift
Pulse radar
Amplitude modulation
Considered as the main source of an internal noise.

A.
B.
C.
D.
50.
Device imperfection
Thermal agitation
Temperature change
Flicker
In shipboard satellite dish antennas system, azimuth is referred as the _______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
51.
0 to 90 degrees
Vertical aiming of the antenna
North to East
Horizontal aiming of the antenna
What is the period of a wave?

A.
B.
C.
D.
52.
The number of degrees in tone cycle

The number of zero crossing in one cycle
The amplitude of the wave
The time required to complete one cycle
Is the total useful information processed or communicated over a specific amount of time
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.
Baud rate
Bit rate
Information theory
Throughput
What is the approximate percentage of earth coverage of a geostationary satellite at zero

degree elevation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.
33.3%
45.2%
42.5%
30.5%
This refers to an area in the memory used for temporary storage of information on the basis
of Last in First out.
A. Core
B. Register
C. Flag
D. Stack
55.
What is a driven element of an antenna?

A.
B.
C.
D.
56.
Always the rearmost element

Always the forwardmost element
The element fed by the transmission line
The element connected to the rotator
Which of the following term best described the overload distortion?

A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
Peak limiting
Quantization noise
Granular noise
Slope distortion
What do you mean by the outward flow of and energy from any source in the form of radio
waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
58.
Radiation
Emission
Encoding
Tracking
Refer to the deviation of the operating frequency of a crystal oscillator from its nominal
value due to temperature variations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
Drift
Flash over
Frequency deviation
Deviation ratio
Find the product of the following binary number 100 to 101.

A.
B.
C.
D.
60.
11000
10100
10010
11100
Which of the following is and impedance matching ration of coax balun?

A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
2:8
1:2
4:1
2:1
Quantity that do not change when a beam of light enters on e medium to another.
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.
Frequency
Wavelength
Direction
Speed
Which of the following described the very early standard that defines binary digits as
space/mark line condition and voltage levels?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.
V.4
V.2
V.1
V.5
A form of single sideband emission where the degree of carrier suppression enable the carrier
to be reconstituted and be used for demodulation.
A. Half carrier single sideband emission
B. Full carrier single sideband emission
C. Reduced carrier single sideband emission
D. Double sideband emission
64.
An instrument for recording waveforms of audio frequency.

A.
B.
C.
D.
65.
Oscilloscope
Phonoscope
Radioscope
Audioscope
How much is the required minimum power output of an international AM BC stations?

A.
B.
C.
D.
66.
5 kW
30 kW
10 kW
50 kW
What is the equivalent of decimal 51 in binary?

A.
B.
C.
D.
67.
111011
110011
111001
100011
One of the first satellite system catering personal based communications services scheduled
for operation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.
Iridium system
Plutonium system
Indium system
Gallium system
What do you call a circuit that controls the magnetron output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
Inverter
Impeller
Modulator
Converter
Known as the satellite transmitted signal form a satellite transponder to earths station.
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.
Uplink
Down link
RHCP
Vertically polarized
Which of the following colors of light rays has the shortest wavelength?
A.
B.
C.
D.
71.
Yellow
Violet
Red
Blue
Antenna which is not properly terminated

A.
B.
C.
D.
72.
Isotropic
Non-resonant
Whip
Resonant
Term in communication which is referred, to send out in all direction.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Announce
Broadcast
Transmit
Media
73.
At the ends of a half-wave antenna, what values of current and voltage exist compared to the
remainder of the antenna?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
Minimum voltage and minimum current

Equal voltage and current
Minimum voltage and maximum current
Maximum voltage and minimum current.
One of the following stands for SONET acronym in telecommunication

A.
B.
C.
D.
75.
System optical network

Simple operation network
Synchronous optical network
System operating network
How can intermodulation interference between two transmitters in close proximity reduced
or eliminated?
A. Through installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line
B. Through installing terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line of the
transmitter and duplexer
C. By using a class C final amplifier with high driving power
D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
76.
What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a
station over 5000 miles away?
A.
B.
C.
D.
77.
Moonbounce
D-layer absorption
Tropospheric ducting
Faraday rotation
In radio High frequency communications the higher the radio frequency the ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
78.
Higher it can reach

Shorter it can reach
Effect is null
Longer it can reach
The signal to noise ratio that is required for a satisfactory television reception.
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.
30 dB
40 dB
10 dB
20 dB
What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized?

A.
B.
C.
D.
80.
The electric field is parallel to the earth

Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical
Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
The magnetic fields is parallel to the earth
What is emission F3F?

A.
B.
C.
D.
81.
Facsimile
Modulated CW
RTTY
Television
How can receiver desensitizing be reduced?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase the receiver bandwidth

Ensure good RF shielding between the transmitter and receiver
Increase the transmitter audio gain
Decrease the receiver squelch, gain.
82.
Circuit used to amplify the optical signal in fiber optics communications links.
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
Attenuator
Optical repeater
Optical amplifier
Generator
What do you call the single booster installed on the antenna dish of satellite receiver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
84.
Low noise amplifier

Single amplifier
Noise amplifier
Rectifier
Term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?

A.
B.
C.
D.
85.
Facsimile
ACSSB
Xerography
Television
An interfering current in a telegraph or signaling channel due to telegraph or signaling

current by another channel.
A.
B.
C.
D.
86.
Crosstalk
Noise current
Crossfire
Intermodulation
Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF
(150 MHz) marine-band receiver?
A. In the ionosphere
B. In the receiver rear end

C. In the receiver front end
D. In the atmosphere
87.
Known as the data transfer scheme that used handmaking principle.

A.
B.
C.
D.
88.
Synchronous data transfer scheme

DMA data transfer scheme
Asynchronous data transfer scheme
Uninterrupted data transfer scheme
Type of modulation used in TV broadcast visual transmitter.

A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Pulse modulation
DSBFC
Vestigial sideband
SSBFC
A transmitter supplies 8 kW to the antenna when it is unmodulated, determine the total

radiated power when modulated at 90%.
A.
B.
C.
D.
90.
5 kW
20 kW
15 kW
8.36 kW
Best describe as an amplifier used in radio telephony.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Magnifier
Class B
Class C
Class A
91.
The latest government regulation in the telecommunication which provides policy for the
provision of local exchange carrier service.
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.
E.O. 546
E.O. 109
Act 3948
E.O. 59
Referred to as the stage in the radio receiver that contributes most of the noise.
A.
B.
C.
D.
93.
IF amplifier
Supply stage
Speaker
Mixer
The frequency tolerance of an AM radio broadcast station

A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
200 Hz
2000 Hz
20 Hz
2 Hz
What are electromagnetic waves?

A. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
B. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each
other.
C. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
D. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
95.
What is the frequency range of C-band?

A. 10.95 to 14.5 GHz
B. 27.5 to 31 GHz
C. 3.4 to 6.424 GHz
D. 1.53 to 2.7 GHz
96.
Determine from the following the basic mode of transmission system in the public data
network in which data are transferred from the source to the network and from the network
to the destination in the frame format.
A.
B.
C.
D.
97.
Voice mode
Asynchronous mode
Synchronous mode
Packet mode
Refers to a type of beam antenna which uses two or more straight elements arranged in line
with each other.
A.
B.
C.
D.
98.
Dipole antenna
Yagi antenna
Whip antenna
Rhombic antenna
What is a frequency discriminator?

A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
A circuit for filtering two closely adjacent signals

A circuit for detecting FM signals
An FM generator
An automatic bandswitching circuit.
These are used to connect non-ISDN equipment ot ISDN line.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Digipeaters
Terminal adapters
Local repeaters
Terminal repeaters
100.

The executive branch of government in charge of policy making in the telecommunications.
A.
B.
C.
D.
National telecommunications commission

Telecommunications control bureau
Department of transportation and communications
Bureau of telecommunications
1.
When adjusting an RF filter on a transmitter using a dummy load, how much watts
dissipation should it stand to test a 150 watts transmitter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
75 watts
300 watts
50 watts
150 watts
When does broadcast station conduct and equipment test?

A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
During day time

During night time
At any time
During experimental period
Channel 7 of the regular television channel belongs to which band?

A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
Low VHF band

High VHF band
Low UHF band
High UHF band
Which of the following is one of the possible causes for a slow drift of frequency in a self
exited transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Poor soldered connections

Power supply voltage changes
Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits
DC and RF heating of resistors, causing then to change values.
A third symbol radio emission which represent telephone transmission including sound
broadcasting.
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
W
F
C
E
Which of the following is not a common microwave application?

A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
Radar
Data transmission
Space communications
Mobile radio
Which of the following is referred to as a radio emission without sidebands

A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
Analog
Carrier
Data
Voice
Ho w many times bigger does the bandwidth of a fiber optic multimode have over a cable?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
50 times bigger
100 times bigger
10 times bigger
5 times bigger
Type of antenna which is normally used for satellite tracking service.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Omni
Helical
Yagi
Dipole
10.
One of the following is referred to as a major component of an optical time domain

reflectometer
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
Pulse generator and vertical plate

Laser and horizontal plate
Pulse generator laser
Vertical and horizontal plate
One of the commonly used domain in the internet service.

A.
B.
C.
D.
12.
Yahoo
http
com
www
What is meant by the term radiation resistance for an antenna?

A. The resistance in the trap coils to received signal
B. An equivalent resistance that would dissipate the same amount of power as that
radiated from an antenna
C. The specific impedance of the antenna
D. Losses in the antenna elements and feed line
13.
Referred to an oscillator signal leak through from a properly neutralized amplifier such as a
master oscillator power amplifier.
A.
B.
C.
D.
14.
Carrier
Stray signal
Back wave
Loss wave
An advantage of optic fiber rejecting an induced noise signals from magnetic field or solar
storms flux.
A.
B.
C.
D.
15.
Electric hazard
Cross talk
Immunity to noise
Shielding
What kind of effect is referred to a varying light producing a varying voltage output of a
detector?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16.
Current effect
Voltage effect
Resistive effect
Photovoltaic effect
______ is known to be the first satellite capable of receiving and transmitting simultaneously.
A.
B.
C.
D.
17.
Syncom I
Telstar I
Score
Aguila
The extremely high frequency (EHF) band is in the radio spectrum range of _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
18.
30 to 300 kHz
30 to 300 GHz
3 to 30 MHz
3 to 30 GHz
One of the following is not among the advantages of series modulation

A. No transformer
B. Suppressed white noise
C. Simple
D. Modulates any frequency
19.
What do you call the service area of a standard AM broadcast where fading is allowed but
not objectionable co-channel interference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
20.
Experimental
Secondary
Tertiary
Primary
A third symbol emission which represent television.

A.
B.
C.
D.
21.
C
D
F
A
In telecommunications when we call data communications it means the transmission

of________.
A.
B.
C.
D.
22.
Voice and video

Voice
Video
Computer data
If frequency range of 401.000MHz to 401.050MHz has to be channelized at 12.5 kHz

between channel, what is the center of its first channel from the lower limit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
401.125MHz
401.00625MHz
401.025MHz
401.0125MHz
23.
Determine the effective radiated power of 20 kW TV broadcast transmitter whose antenna

has a field gain of 2.
A.
B.
C.
D.
24.
40 kW
80,000 watts
40,000 watts
8,000 watts
In indication signal for a handshake form the DCE to the DTE in response to an active
condition for the request to send a signal.
A.
B.
C.
D.
25.
Data transmission
Clear to send
Receive data
Data set ready
In amplitude modulation technique the unmodulated carrier is referred to as having ______.

A.
B.
C.
D.
26.
100% modulation
0% modulation
50% modulated
Over modulated
One of the following is not among the major components required on board ship under the
global maritime distress and safety system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
27.
On board radio facilities

Radio operator telegraphy onboard
Shore base facilities
Radio personnel on board
In what form does the information of data communications is transmitted between two
points?
A.
B.
C.
D.
28.
Alphanumeric form
Alphabetic form
Numeric form
Binary form
Width of frequency band just enough to ensure the transmission of information at a required
rate and quality required, and under a specified condition and class of emission.
A.
B.
C.
D.
29.
Occupied bandwidth
Transmission bandwidth
Necessary bandwidth
Frequency bandwidth
Refers to one of the front end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver which is usually
a separate circuit coupled to the mixer.
A.
B.
C.
D.
30.
Antenna feed
AGC
RF amplifier
Local oscillator
All bits in character are sent and received ______ in serial port.
A.
B.
C.
D.
31.
In groups of 3 bits
One at a time
In groups of 2 bits
Simultaneously
One of the following is a possible cause of an abrupt frequency variation in a self exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability to hold a constant
frequency oscillation.
A. Heating and expansion of oscillator coil
B. DC and RF ac heating of resistors which cause change in values
C. Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
D. Loose connections in the oscillator, amplifier, or antenna circuits.
32.
Which of the following parts of the radio receiver represent the component that extracts the
desire RF signal from the electromagnetic wave?
A.
B.
C.
D.
33.
AF amplifier
Antenna
Detector
Crystal
It is an average power of a radio transmitter supplied to the antenna transmission line taken
during a long sufficient interval of time and compared with the lowest frequency encountered
in the modulation, taken under the normal operating conditions.
A.
B.
C.
D.
34.
Carrier power
Rated power
Mean power
Peak envelop power
Determine from the following radio frequency that falls under the very high frequency band
of the radio spectrum.
A.
B.
C.
D.
35.
345.00 MHz
144.50 MHz
235.50 MHz
450.00 MHz
What is the typical number of bits in a static memory location?

A.
B.
C.
D.
1
2
16
8
36.
What controls the contrast of a television cathode ray picture?

A.
B.
C.
D.
37.
AFC
video stage gain
Audio gain control
CRT bias
Determine the dB gain of a receiving antenna which delivers a microvolt signal to a

transmission line over that of an antenna that delivers a 20 microvolt signal under identical
circumstances.
A.
B.
C.
D.
38.
10 dB
6 dB
3 dB
8 dB
Refers to one of a commonly used internet service domain.

A.
B.
C.
D.
39.
www
http
gov
infoseek
A law that specifically requires the service of a duly registered electronics and
communications engineer in the designing installation and construction, operation and
maintenance of radio stations.
A.
B.
C.
D.
40.
Act 3846
LOl 1000
R.A. 5734
Dept. order 88
Which band does channel 14 of the television channel belong?
A.
B.
C.
D.
41.
High VHF band

EHF band
UHF band
Low VHF band
How many ships area is designated in the implementation of the global maritime distress
and safety system.
A.
B.
C.
D.
42.
Four
Six
Three
Two
What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?

A.
B.
C.
D.
43.
Capacitor
Electromagnetic
Carbon
Ceramic
Determine the lower half-power frequency of a class-C amplifier having upper half-power
frequency of 10.025 MHz, a resonant frequency 5 MHz and a circuit Q of 10.
A.
B.
C.
D.
44.
1.0025 MHz
10.525 MHz
0.5 MHz
10 MHz
This is referred to a product of simultaneous frequency and amplitude modulation or a carrier

frequency variation which produces unwanted distortion.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Absorption modulation
Simultaneous modulation
Dynamic instability
Series modulation
45.
Main basic components of a data communication are composed of the following.

A.
B.
C.
D.
46.
Computer, modern and router

Computer, bridge and gateway
Transmitter, channel and receiver
Transmitter, computer and modem
The international radio consultative committee is referred to in international radio

communication as ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
47.
IRCC
ITU
IRR
CCIR
Refers to a continuous tone generated in a local exchange terminal through a combination of

two frequencies 350 Hz, and 440 Hz.
A.
B.
C.
D.
48.
Busy tone
Call waiting tone
Dial tone
Standard tone
One of the advantages of fiber optic which is referred to the volume of capacity of signals it
can carry.
A.
B.
C.
D.
49.
Security
Weight
Bandwidth
Physical size
Assume a frequency range of 401.000 MHz to 401.050 MHz, if you apply 25 kHz channeling
plan, determine the center frequency of the first channel from the lower limit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
50.
401.010 MHz
401.0125 MHz
401.025 MHz
401.00625 MHz
50 ECE Board Exam April 1998
The stability of transmitted signal from a simple Hartley oscillator single transmitter which is
coupled to and antenna wire affected by ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
51.
Chirping of oscillator
Closer coupling between the oscillator and the antenna.
Location of antenna
Material of antenna
Refers to the first symbol in an emission designation with an amplitude modulated main
carrier represented by letter H.
A.
B.
C.
D.
52.
Single sideband suppressed carrier

Double sideband full carrier
Independent sideband
Double sideband
Assume a frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz and 25 kHz channeling plan,
determine the center frequency of the second channel from the lower limit.
A.
B.
C.
D.
53.
405.030 MHz
405.025 MHz
405.050 MHz
405.075 MHz
An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of local
exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers enhanced services
beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers.
A.
B.
C.
D.
54.
International carrier
Value-added service provided
Inter-exchange carrier
Local exchange carrier
Which of the following refers to full duplex transmission?

A.
B.
C.
D.
55.
One at a time transmission

Two transmission medium
Intermittent transmission
Two way simultaneous transmission
What is the first symbol of a radio signal transmission having an amplitude modulated signal
carrier, double side band?
A.
B.
C.
D.
56.
C
B
H
A
Best choice of transmission line component to couple a coaxial line to a parallel-wire line
A.
B.
C.
D.
57.
Shorting
Balun
Slotted line
Directional coupler
Which of the following refers to the video signal amplitude that determines the quality of the
picture?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chrominance
Luminance
Brightness
Contrast
58.
________ is the method of encoding audio signals used in US standard 1544 kbit/s 24
channel PCM systems.
A.
B.
C.
D.
59.
Shannons law
A-law
Newtons law
Mu-law
In radio regulation, the first symbol in the designation of radio emission is ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
60.
Bandwidth
Nature of signal(s) modulation the main carrier
Type of modulation of the main carrier
Who is the principal administrator of republic act 7925?

A.
B.
C.
D.
61.
BOC
DOTC
Congress
NTC
What is the term for the ration of the radiation resistance of an antenna to the total resistance
of the system?
A.
B.
C.
D.
62.
Effective radiated power

Beamwidth
Radiation conversion loss
Antenna efficiency
Where does the AM broadcast band located in the spectrum band?
A.
B.
C.
D.
63.
HF band
VHF band
LF band
MF band
What determines the velocity factor in transmission line?

A.
B.
C.
D.
64.
The center conductor resistivity

Dielectrics in the line
The termination impedance
The line length
Refers to an address that identifies a server on the network and a particular document on the
server
A.
B.
C.
D.
65.
Hypertext
HTML
Wide area network
Uniform resource locator
Type of emission produced by one of the early radio transmitter in trains of damped RF ac
waves where its oscillator is coupled to a long wire antenna, normally used in radio telegraph
and having sidebands on its carrier.
A.
B.
C.
D.
66.
Digital emission
Key emission
Cycle emission
Spark emission
Is a kind of satellite which has a period of revolution equivalent to the period of rotation of
the earth about its axis.
A. Passive satellite
B. Synchronous satellite
C. Active satellite
D. Geosynchronous satellite
67.
Electromagnetic waves of frequencies arbitrarily lower than 3,000 GHz, propagated in space
without artificial guide.
A.
B.
C.
D.
68.
Space waves
Terrestrial waves
Mobile
Hertzian waves
Frequencies above ______ kHz, are referred to as the radio frequencies.

A.
B.
C.
D.
69.
20
2
10
200
Who is responsible in the correctness and accuracy of transmitted information content over a
data communication?
A.
B.
C.
D.
70.
The channel
The transmitter and receiver
The modem
The bridge
What is meant by the term deviation ratio?

A. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency
B. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating
frequency
C. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulation frequency
D. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency
71.
A quarter wavelength devices made of crystalline calcite that changes polarization in the
optic fiber communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
72.
Isolator
Retarder
Polarizer
Filters
Known as the maritime communications law which was enacted December 5, 1927
A.
B.
C.
D.
73.
R.A. No. 109

R.A. No. 3396
R.A. No. 7925
R.A. No. 3846
How do you transmit through multiplexing, a thousand of voice channel information over a
single fiber optic using on e wavelength?
A.
B.
C.
D.
74.
Polar division
Time division
Fiber division
Frequency division
In regulation of public telecommunications carrier such as in the evaluation of new entrant,

the following consideration shall be given emphasis to _______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
75.
Legal, technical and citizenship

Technical, citizenship and kind of service
Citizenship, capacity and financial
Technical, legal and financial
One of the following is a high powered RF ac basic transmitter that has two or more stages,
the oscillator stage which determines the frequency opereation and RF amplifier stage or
stages that develop the high power output. The purpose of which is to develop a good
frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.
76.
Goldsmith
MOPA
Alexanderson
Hartley
What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?

A. The index of shielding for coaxial cable
B. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in
vacuum
C. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light in a
vacuum
77.
Which of the following determines the characteristics of a transmission line?

A.
B.
C.
D.
78.
Inductance
Capacitance
Physical dimension
Length
One of the following is among the types of fiber optics used in electronics communication.
A.
B.
C.
D.
79.
Step-index multimode
Graded-index multimode
Semi-graded multimode
Single mode
Which of the following refers to the smallest beam of a satellite antennas radiation pattern
A. Global beam
B. Spot beam
C. Zone beam
D. Hemispheric beam
80.
One of the FM signal generator control which varies the phase of the modulating voltage
applied to the oscillator of the sweep generator
A.
B.
C.
D.
81.
Band control
Phase control
Marker amplitude control
Sweep output control
What consists the front-end circuit of a VHF TV superheterodyne receiver?

A.
B.
C.
D.
82.
Mixer, RF amplifier and AFC?

RF amplifier, Band pass filter and mixer
Local oscillator, mixer and RF amplifier
Local oscillator, AGC and antenna
One of the following prevents a transmitter from emitting a signal that interferes with other
stations on frequency during the test.
A.
B.
C.
D.
83.
Use of low height antenna

Use of grounded antenna
Use of dummy antenna
Use of shielded antenna radiator
A transmission line consisting of two conductors that have equal resistance per unit length.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Unbalanced line
Open-wire line
Balanced line
Coaxial line
84.
How do you eliminate radio frequency variation of an oscillator transmitter caused by its
supply voltage?
A.
B.
C.
D.
85.
Use new power supply

Lossen power supply shielding
Use of regulated power supply
Use of high capacitor in the supply circuit
Which of the following is not common transmission line impedance?

A.
B.
C.
D.
86.
50 ohms
120 ohms
75 ohms
650 ohms
How do you reduce the loss that is produced when light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber
optic?
A.
B.
C.
D.
87.
By painting the surface

By inclining the surface
By cooling
By application of antireflection coating
Best reason for pressurizing waveguides with dry air

A.
B.
C.
D.
88.
To maintain propagation
To maintain temperature of the waveguide
To reduce the possibility of internal arcing
To increase the speed of propagation
What is the device used in fiber optic communication which consist of a receiver transmitter
use to clean up and amplify digital data moving in one direction and another in the opposite
direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
89.
Optic compressors
Optic retarders
Optic isolator
Optic regenerators
Which of the following refers to the first active satellite?

A.
B.
C.
D.
90.
Telstar I
Echo I
Intelsat I
Sputnik I
In modulation technique, which of the following is referred to audible pitch?

A.
B.
C.
D.
91.
Width
Frequency
Harmonic
Amplitude
What do you call the phenomenon in digital circuits that describe the duration of time a
digital signal passes a circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
92.
Transmission time
Elapsed time
Propagation delay
Travel delay
What is the major cause of atmospheric or static noise?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Sunspots
Airplanes
Meteor showers
Thunderstorm
93.
Which of the following is not referred to as data terminal equipment?

A.
B.
C.
D.
94.
Telephone set
Printers
Modem
Computer
_______ is referred as the difference between available power and power budget?
A.
B.
C.
D.
95.
Fade margin
Power margin
Nominal gain
Power dissipation
The conversion of digital signal into analog for purposes of transmitting into the telephone
line is done through ______.
A.
B.
C.
D.
96.
ISDN
Radio
RS232C
Modem
Refers to the duration occupancy period of call during its use.

A.
B.
C.
D.
97.
Occupancy period
Traffic time
Use time
Holding time
In data communication the transmission of binary signals will require _______.

A. Same bandwidth as analog
B. More bandwidth than analog
C. Less bandwidth than analog

D. Bigger cable diameter
98.
Assuming a UHF frequency range of 405.0125 MHz to 405.0875 MHz at 25 kHz channeling
plan, how many channels can you produce?
A.
B.
C.
D.
99.
2.5 ch.
2 ch.
4 ch.
3 ch.
One of the following is a possible cause for a slow drift of frequency in a self-exited
transmitter oscillator circuits resulting to a poor frequency stability.
A.
B.
C.
D.
100.
Loose shielding
Heating of capacitor in the oscillator
Poor soldered connections
Faulty capacitor, resistor, tubes or resistors

A modulation which does not follow the sine wave pattern, it produces undesirable
harmonics such as spurious emission
A.
B.
C.
D.
0% modulated
Over-modulated
Unmodulated
100% modulated

1. How far away is the radio horizon of an antenna 100ft high?
A. 14.14 mi
B. 40km
C. 14.14 km
D. 40 mi
2. What is the maximum line-of-sight distance between a paging antenna 250 ft high and a pager
receiver 3.5ft of the ground?
A. 25 km
B.25mi
C. 70.73 km
D. 70.73 mi
3. What is the path attenuation between transmitter and receiver at a frequency of 1.2 Ghz and a
distance of 11,000 mi?
A. 119 dB
B. 115dB
C. 179dB
D. 174dB
4. What is the uplink receiver frequency if the downlink transmitter is on channel 4 (3.84 Ghz)?
A. 6.065 GHz
B. 6.84 GHz
C. 6.65 GHz
D. 6.05 GHz
5. What is the maximum theoretical data rate of the above problem if one transponder is used for
binary transmission?
A. 36 Mbps
B. 72 Mbps
C.18 Mbps
D. 144 Mbps
6. What is the quardband between transponder channels in the commercial C-band for satellite
communications?
A. 6 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 4 MHz
D. 2 MHz
7. What is the typical satellite transponder bandwidth?

A. 24 MHz
B. 500 MHz
C. 36 MHz
D. 48 MHz
8. What is the bandwidth available in the commercial C-band?
A. 1000 MHz
B. 36 MHz
C. 250 MHz
D. 500 MHz
9. Which of the following is the uplink frequency in C-band?
A. 5.925 GHz
B. 4.2 GHz
C. 7.425 GHz
D. 3.7 GHz
10. How many transponder channels are realized in the commercial C-band without frequency
re-use?
A. 24
B. 12
C. 36
D. 48
11. Which band of frequencies used by military for its satellites and radar?
A. C band
B. X band
C. L band
D. P band
12. For navigation as well as marine and aeronautical communications and radar, ____ band is
used.
A. L
B. K
C. S
D. J
13. What is the current frequency band given most attenuation for satellite communications?
A. Ku
B. C band
C. J
D. P
14. What satellite subsystem monitors onboard conditions such as temperature and battery
voltage and transmits this data back to a ground station for analysis?
A. Communications subsystem
B. AKM
C. TTC
D. Transponder
15. Which of the following satellite subsystem provides stabilization in orbit and senses changes
in orientation?
A. Attitude control subsystem
B. TTC
C. AKM
D. Transponder
16. What is the typical center frequency spacing between adjacent channels (transponders) in
satellites?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 500 MHz
D. 4 MHz
17. Which of the following are uplinks in the Ku band?
A. 14 to 14.5 GHz
B. 11.7 to 12.2 GHz
C. 14 to 15.5 GHz
D. 11 to 11.5 GHz
18. What is considered as the most advanced satellite system developed for cellular telephones?
A. Iridium
B. Globalstar
C. ANIK
D. Molniya
19. What is the orbit of Motorolas Iridium satellite system?
A. Polar
B. Equatorial
C. Inclined elliptical
D. Inclined equatorial
20. What band of frequencies do these satellites operate?
A. L band
B. Ka band
C. C band
D. Ku band
21. Iridium satellites can provide data communications of up ____ bps data rate.
A. 1200
B. 4800
C. 2400
D. 3840
22. What satellite system is also known as Navstar?
A. GPS
B. Iridium
C. Globalstar
D. Intelsat
23. What is the orbit height of a GPS satellite?
A. 10,898 nmi
B. 10,898 mi
C. 10,898 km
D. 10, 898 m
24. What is the orbital period of each satellite in the GPS constellation?
A. 6 h
B. 12 h
C. 5 h
D. 15 h
25. What term is normally associated with specifying the location of a celestial body in space?
A. Constellation
B. Galaxy
C. Satellite
D. Ephemeris
26. What is the angle of inclination of GPS system?
A. 55
B. 65
C. 105
D. 45
27. What material is most often used for the outer covering of coaxial cables?
A. PVC
B. Teflon
C. PE
D. Polystyrene
28. What is the dielectric constant of polyethylene (PE) insulator?

A. 2.5
B. 3.3
C. 2.27
D. 2.1
29. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) is also widely used insulator and is known as.
A. polystyrene
B. teflon
C. ceramic
D. bakelite
30. What is the characteristic impedance of a two-wire line with the following data: diameter =
0.023in., spacing =0.5 in., insulation = PE.?
A. 300
B. 250
C. 305
D. 301
31. What is the characteristic impedance of a coaxial line with the following data: inner diameter
= 0.2 in., center conductor diameter = 0.06 in., insulation = Teflon.
A. 200
B. 75
C. 50
D. 150
32. A pair of current-carrying conductors is not considered a transmission line unless it is at least
___ long at the signal frequency.
A. 0.1
B. 0.3
C. 0.2
D. 0.4
33. If the operating frequency is 450 MHz what length of a pair of conductors is considered to be
a transmission line?
A. 2.19 ft
B. 2.19 m
C. 0.219 ft
D. 0.219 m
34. What is the physical length of the above transmission line at 3/8 long?
A.0.82 m
B. 0.82 ft
C. 0.82 in
D. 0.82 cm
35. Which of the following coaxial cable connectors is called the UHF connector?
A. PL-259
B. BNC
C. N-type connector
D. F connector
36. What connector is popular in attaching test instruments like oscilloscopes, frequency
counters, spectrum analyzers, etc?
A. UHF connector
B. PL-259
C. BNC
D. SMA
37. Which coaxial cable connector is least expensive and is widely used for TV sets,VCRs and
cable TV?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C. BNC
D. PL-259
38. Which coaxial connector is a more complex and expensive but do a better job in maintaining
the electrical characteristics of the cable through the interconnections?
A. N-type connector
B. F-type connector
C.BNC
D. PL-259
39. The velocity factor in transmission lines vary from ___ to ___.
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C.0.5 to 0.9
D. 0.8 to 0.9
40. What is the typical velocity factor of coaxial cables?
A. 0.6 to 0.8
B. 0.3 to 0.5
C. 0.5 to 0.9
D. 0.4 to 0.6
41. What is the typical velocity factor of open-wire line?
A. 0.9
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.7
42. What line has a typical velocity factor of about 0.8?

A. Shielded pair
B. Flexible coaxial
C. Twin-lead
D. Open-wire line
43. What is the velocity factor of coaxial cable with a characteristic impedance of 50 and
capacitance of 30pF/ft and inductance of 75 nH/ft?
A. 0.58
B.0.68
C. 0.98
D. 0.81
44. What is transit time (time delay) of a 50-ft length transmission line of the above problem?
A. 50 ns
B. 100 ns
C. 75 ns
D. 65 ns
45. What do you call a transmission line used specifically for the purpose of achieving delay?
A. Delay line
B. Flat line
C. Resonant line
D. Non-resonant line
46. What is the time delay introduced by a 75-ft coaxial cable with a dielectric constant of 2.3?
A. 1.54 ns
B. 11.5 ns
C. 115.6 ns
D. 1156 ns
47. Assume a frequency of 4 MHz, determine the phase shift offered by the line in the above
problem.
A. 108.5
B. 106.5
C. 115.5
D. 166.5
48. Find the load impedance that must be used to terminate RG-62A/U to avoid reflections?
A. 93
B. 75
C. 50
D. 300
49. Find the equivalent inductance per foot of the above cable?
A. 13.5 nF/ft
B. 13.5 pF/ft
C. 116.8 nH/ft
D. 116.8 pF/ft
50. An RG-11/U foam coaxial cable has a maximum voltage standing wave of 52 V and a
minimum voltage of 17 V. Find the value of the resistive load.
A. 24.59
B. Either A or C
C. 228.75
D. Neither A nor C
51. Sound provides all sorts of information. What information is related to mental processes of
knowledge, reasoning, memory, judgement and perception?
A. Cognitive
B. Affective
C. Digital
D. Analog
52. What sound characteristic relates to a sonic time pattern?
A. Tempo
B. Attack
C. Rhythm
D. Timbre
53. What is considered the most obvious conveyor of information?
A. Sound
B. Speech
C. Music
D. Noise
54. Attack is a sound characteristic that refers to the way a sound begins. Which of the following
is NOT an attack of sound?
A. Hard
B. Soft
C. Crisp
D. Simple
55. At what loudness level do pitch (in mels) and frequency (in Hz) are numerically equal?
A. 0 dB
B. 20 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 40 dB
56. The basic voice band has how many octaves?

A. 10
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
57. The ratio of frequencies is termed.
A. interval
B. octave
C. harmonics
D. factor
58. What is the tonal ratio of an octave?
A. 1 to 2
B. 1 to 3
C. 2 to 1
D. 3 to 1
59. If the loudness level is 100 phons, what is this in sone unit?
A. 100
B. 90
C. 106
D. 96
60. What octave bands are there in the midrange?
A. 1st and 2nd
B. 5th, 6th and 7th
C. 3rd and 4th
D. 8th and 9th
61. How much louder is 80 phons over 60 phons?
A. 1000 times
B.4 times louder
C. 100 times
D. Twice as loud
62. What increase in sound level is commonly perceived by most people?
A. 6 to 10 dB
B. 1 to 3 dB
C. 3 to 6 dB
D. 10 to 20dB
63. What is typical loudness level of an acoustic guitar 1 foot away?

A. 60dB
B. 100dB
C. 80dB
D. 40dB
64. What do you call the perceptible sound repetition?
A. Reverberation
B. Echo
C. Reflection
D. Masking
65. What is the amount of sound reduction provided by a barrier wall, floor, or ceiling called?
A. Sound Attenuation
B. Transmission loss
C. Sound absorption
D. Barrier loss
66. What is the frequency of a 2-cm sound wave in sea water at 25C?
A. 76 kHz
B. 76 Hz
C. 76 MHz
D. 76 mHz
67. A choir consisting of 36 individuals all of whom can sing with the same intensity. A soloist
sings a certain passage and then is joined by the remainder of the choir members for a repeat of
the passage. What is the difference in the sound intensity level in the two cases?
A. 3 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 36 dB
D. 15.6dB
68. For the safety and comfort of factory workers, the sound-intensity level in a certain factory
must remain below 85 dB. What is the maximum sound intensity allowed in this factory?
A. 3.2 x 10-4 W/m2
B. 3.2 x 10-6 W/m2
C. 3.2 x 10-10 W/m2
D. 3.2 x 10-3 W/m2
69. What sound intensity corresponds to a sound-intensity level of 50dB?
A. 1 x 10-6W/m2
B. 1 x 10-7W/m2
C. 1 x 10-8W/m2
D.1 x 10-5 W/m2
70. The sound intensity received from the nearby jet plane is 12.6 W/m2 and that from another
jet plane some distance away is 0.45 W/m2. Find the relative loudness of the two.
A. 14.0 dB
B. 14.5dB
C. 12.5
D. 14.5
71. The noise from an airplane engine 100 ft from an observer is found to have an intensity of
45dB. What will be the intensity when the plane flies overhead at an altitude of 1 mi?
A. 10.5 dB
B. 34.5 dB
C. 35 dB
D. 20.5 dB
72. What is the apparent loudness of 80 dB?
A. Moderate
B. Very loud
C. Loud
D. Deafening
73. What loudness level in which permanent damage to hearing is possible?
A. 120 dB
B. 140 dB
C. 130 dB
D. 150 dB
74. What is sound pressure level if the RMS sound pressure is 100 bars?
A. 114 dB
B. 11.4 dB
C. 94 dB
D. 57 dB
75. What is the velocity of sound in wood (m/s)?
A. 330
B. 3600
C. 3300
D. 5800
76. What is the optimum reverberation time at 500 to 1000 Hz of an auditorium?
A. 0.9 to 1.1 s
B. 1.4 to 1.6 s
C. 1.5 to 1.6 s
D. 1.6 to 1.8 s
77. For a cinema, the optimum volume per person required is

A. 3.1
B. 2.8
C. 7.1
D. 4.2
78. Which of the following is NOT an acoustical defect to be avoided in acoustical designs?
A. Reverberation
B. Flutter echo
C. Distortion
D. Sound concentration
79. What absorber in which efficient absorption is only possible over a very narrow band
approaching 1.0 (total absorption)?
A. Porous material
B. Helmholtz resonator
C. Panel Absorber
D. Membrane absorber
80. How many voice signals (4 kHz max.) would fit into a 5 MHz spectrum?
A. 1250
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 1500
81. How many FM stations would be accommodated I an ordinary TV channel?
A. 33
B. 30
C. 40
D. 25
82. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor
of 0.695 at 45 MHz?
A. 17.82
B. 19.26
C. 16.28
D. 16.97
83. Determine the terrain sensitivity loss for a 4-GHz carrier that is propagating over a very dry,
mountainous area.
A. -1.25 dB
B. -3.05 dB
C. -2.01 dB
D. -5.01 dB
84. A satellite transmitter operates at 4GHz with an antenna gain of 4dBi. The receiver 40000 km
away has an antenna gain of 50 dBi. If the transmitter has a power of 8 W, find (ignoring
feedline losses and mismatch) the EIRP in dBW.
A. 50
B. 69
C. 49
D. 30
85. A radio signal moves from air to glass. The angle of incidence is 20. Calculate the angle of
refraction. The relative permittivity of the glass is 7.8.
A. 7.8
B. 5.04
C. 6.04
D. 7.04
86. At a certain time, the MUF for transmission at an angle of incidence of 75 is 17 MHz. What
is the critical frequency?
A. 4.4 MHz
B. 3.5 MHz
C. 6.5 MHz
D. 1.5 MHz
87. A properly matched transmission line has a loss of 1.5 dB/100m. if 10 W is supplied to one
end of the line, how many watts reach the load, 27 m away?
A. 10 W
B. 7.2 W
C. 9.9 W
D. 9.1 W
88. The electromagnetic radiation theory was profounded by
A. Sir Edward Appleton
B. Guglielmo Marconi
C. Heinrich Hertz
D. James C. Maxwell
89. What is caused by the transverse nature of electromagnetic waves?
A. Polarization
B. Interference
C. Beamwidth
D. Gain
90. Which propagation method is known as special case of skywave?
A. Space wave
B. Troposcatter
C. Ground wave
D. Direct wave
91. What is the orbit inclination of geostationary satellites?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
92. A transmission line of unknown impedance is terminated with two different resistances, and
an SWR is measured each time. With a 75 termination, the SWR measures 1.5. With a 300
termination, it measures 2.67. What is the impedance of the line?
A. 100
B. 212
C. 300
D. 112
93. What is the high frequency sound that cannot be heard by the human ear?
A. Ultrasonic
B. Transonic
C. Subsonic
D. Supersonic
94. What frequency is 10 octaves above 30 Hz?
A. 30.72 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 300 Hz
D. 307.2 kHz
95. A radio signal travels ____ yards per microseconds.
A. 273
B. 328
C. 618
D. 123.6
96. What is the actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of
0.63 at 28 MHz?
A. 44.28
B. 43.46
C. 11.07
D. 46.27
97. The range of speech power is ____.
A. 1 10 watts
B. 100 1000 milliwatts
C. 10 100 milliwatts
D. 10 1000 microwatts
98. What is the actual length in feet of a one-quarter wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor
of 0.68 to 30 MHz?
A. 19.26
B. 5.6
C. 17.82
D. 16.97
99. What is actual length in feet of a one-half wavelength of a coax with a velocity factor of 0.59
at 26 MHz?
A. 11.16
B. 40.29
C. 42.46
D. 46.28
100. The agreed standard for measuring loudness is the loudness sensation produced by a 1000
Hz sine wave _____ dB above the listeners threshold of hearing.
A. 80
B. 50
C. 30
D. 40

1. What is the refractive index of an ionospheric layer with 100x10 5 free electrons per m3 ?
Assume frequency to be at 20 MHz.
A. 0.99
B. 0.15
C. 0.78
D. 0.85
2. Each point on a spherical wavefront may be considered a source of secondary spherical
wavefronts. This is known as the
A. Snells law
B. DAlemberts principle
C. Appletons theory
D. Huygens principle
3. What is meant by the term deviation ratio?
A. The ratio of the audio modulating frequency to the center carrier frequency.
B. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio
modulating frequency.
C. The ratio of the carrier center frequency to the audio modulating frequency.
D. The ratio of the highest audio modulating frequency to the average audio modulating
frequency.
4. What is the major cause of selective fading?
A. Small changes in the beam heading at the receiving station.
B. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as experience at the receiving station.
C. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations.
D. Phase differences between radio wave components of the same transmission, as
experienced at the receiving station.
5. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. E-layer skip.
B. D-layer skip.
C. Auroral skip.
D. Radio waves may be bent.
6. What propagation condition is usually indicated when a VHF signal is received from a station
over 500 miles away?
A. D-layer absorption
B. Faraday rotation
C. Tropospheric ducting
D. Moonbounce
7. What is meant by the term modulation index?
A. The processor index.
B. The ratio between the deviation of a frequency modulated signal and the
modulating frequency.
C. The FM signal-to-noise ratio.
D. The ratio of the maximum carrier frequency deviation to the highest audio modulating
frequency.
8. The bending of radio waves passing over the top of a mountain range that disperses a weak
portion of the signal behind the mountain is
A. eddy-current phase effect
B. knife-edge diffraction
C. shadowing
D. mirror refraction effect
9. What is the wavelength of a signal at 500 MHz?
A. 0.062 cm
B. 6 meters
C. 60 cm
D. 60 meters
10. What is included in the total resistance of an antenna system?
A. Radiation resistance plus space impedance
B. Radiation resistance plus transmission resistance
C. Transmission line resistance plus radiation resistance
D. Radiation resistance plus ohmic resistance
11. What are electromagnetic waves?
A. Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet
B. A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other
C. A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each
other
D. A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other
12. The band of frequencies least susceptible to atmospheric noise and interference is:
A. 30 300 kHz
B. 300 3000 kHz
C. 3 30 MHz
D. 300 3000 MHz
13. What is the relationship in degrees of the electrostatic and electromagnetic fields of an
antenna?
A. 0 degree
B. 45 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 180 degrees
14. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance of a transmitting antenna with a
height of 100 meters is approximately:
A. 10 km
B. 40 km
C. 100 km
D. 400 km
15. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as horizontally polarized?
A. The electric field is parallel to the earth.
B. The magnetic field is parallel to the earth.
C. Both the electric and magnetic fields are horizontal
D. Both the electric and magnetic fields are vertical
16. What is meant by referring to electromagnetic waves as having circular polarization?
A. The electric field is bent into a circular shape.
B. The electric field rotates
C. The electromagnetic wave continues to circle the earth
D. The electromagnetic wave has been generated by a quad antenna
17. If a transmitting antenna is 100 meters high and a separate receiving antenna is 64 meters
high, what is the maximum space wave communication distance possible between them?
A. 18 km
B. 72 km
C. 164 km
D. 656 km
18. A receiver is located 64 km from a space wave transmitting antenna that is 100 meters high.
Find the required height of the receiving antenna.
A. 36 meters high
B. 64 meters high
C. 100 meters high
D. 182.25 meters high
19. Which of the following is not one of the natural ways a radio wave may travel from
transmitter to receiver?
A. Ground wave
B. Micro wave
C. Sky wave
D. Space wave
20. Which of the following terrain types permits a ground wave to travel the farthest?
A. Salt water
B. Fresh water
C. Sandy
D. Rocky
21. What is the input terminal impedance at the center if a folded dipole antenna?
A. 300 ohms
B. 72 ohms
C. 50 ohms
D. 450 ohms
22. What is the term used to describe a spread spectrum communications system where the
center frequency if a conventional carrier is altered many time per second in accordance with a
pseudo-random list of channels?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Time-domain frequency modulation
D. Frequency compandored spread spectrum
23. What is the velocity factor for non-foam dielectric 50 or 75 ohm flexible coaxial cable such
as RG 8, 11, 58 and 59?
A. 2.70
B. 0.66
C. 0.30
D. 0.10
24. If a transmission line has a power loss of 6 dB per 100 feet, what is the power at the feed
point to the antenna at the end of a 200 foot transmission line fed by a 100 watt transmitter?
A. 70 watts
B. 50 watts
C. 25 watts
D. 6 watts
25. What determines the velocity factor in a transmission line?
A. The termination impedance
B. The line length
C. Dielectrics in the line
D. The center conductor resistivity
26. What term is used to describe a spread spectrum communications system in which a very fast
binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier?
A. Frequency hopping
B. Direct sequence
C. Binary phase-shift keying
D. Phase compandored spread spectrum
27. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for ground wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
C. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
D. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
28. Which of the following frequency bands is best suited for sky wave propagation?
A. 30 to 300 kHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
29. What is the seventh harmonic of a 100 MHz quarter wavelength antenna?
A. 14.28 MHz
B. 107 MHz
C. 149 MHz
D. 700 MHz
30. Which if the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation during
the hours of darkness?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
31. Skip distance can be maximized by using the ____ radiation angle possible and the ____
frequency that will be refracted at that angle.
A. lowest, lowest
B. lowest, highest
C. highest, lowest
D. highest, highest
32. What is the meaning of the term velocity factor of a transmission line?
A. The ratio of the characteristic impedance of the line to the terminating impedance
B. The index of shielding for coaxial cable.
C. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line multiplied by the velocity of light in
a vacuum.
D. The velocity of the wave on the transmission line divided by the velocity of light
in a vacuum.
33. What is the term for the ratio of actual velocity at which a signal travels through a line to the
speed of light in a vacuum?
A. Velocity factor
B. Characteristic impedance
C. Surge impedance
D. Standing wave ratio
34. Why is the physical length of a coaxial cable transmission line shorter than its electrical
length?
A. Skin effect is less pronounced in the coaxial cable

B. RF energy moves slower along the coaxial cable
C. The surge impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
D. The characteristic impedance is higher in the parallel feed line
35. What would be the physical length of a tpical coaxial transmission line that is electrically
one-quarter wavelength long at 14.1 MHz?
A. 20 meters
B. 3.51 meters
C. 2.33 meters
D. 0.25 meter
36. To obtain the most reliable sky wave propagation the ____ should be used.
A. Lowest useable frequency (LUF).
B. Maximum useable frequency (MUF).
C. Optimum useable frequency (OUF).
D. Critical frequency
37. What is the deviation ratio for an FM-phone signal having a maximum frequency swing of
plus or minus 5 kHz and accepting a maximum modulation rate of 3kHz?
A. 60
B. 0.16
C. 0.6
D. 1.66
38. Tropospheric scatter is a method of sky wave propagation for which of the following
frequency bands?
A. 300 kHz to 3 MHz
B. 3 MHz to 30 MHz
C. 30 MHz to 300 MHz
D. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
39. What is the frequency range of an aircrafts radio altimeter?
A. 962 MHz to 1213 MHz
B. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
C. 4250 MHz to 4350 MHz
D. 108.00 MHz to 117.95 MHz
40. What type of transmission is radiated from an aircrafts radio altimeter antenna?
A. An amplitude modulated continuous wave
B. A pulse position modulated UHF signal
C. A differential phase shift keyed UHF signal
D. A frequency modulated continuous wave
41. The polarization of a radio wave:

A. Is perpendicular to the electrostatic field of the antenna
B. Is the same direction as the electrostatic field of the antenna.
C. Is the same direction as the magnetic field of the antenna.
D. Is perpendicular to both the electrostatic and magnetic fields of the antenna.
42. A coaxial cable has 7dB of reflected power when the input is 5 watts. What is the output of
the transmission line?
A. 5 watts
B. 2.5 watts
C. 1.25 watts
D. 1 watt
43. When is it useful to refer to an isotropic radiator?
A. When comparing the gains of directional antennas
B. When testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
C. When (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission in a southerly direction
D. When using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
44. Most AM broadcasts employ ___ polarization while most FM broadcasts employ ___
polarization of the radio wave.
A. vertical, vertical
B. vertical, horizontal
C. horizontal, vertical
D. horizontal, horizontal
45. How does the gain of a parabolic dish type antenna change when the operating frequency is
doubled?
A. Gain does not change
B. Gain is multiplied by 0.707
C. Gain increases 6 dB
D. Gain increases 3 dB
46. What is the frequency range of an aircrafts Very High Frequency (VHF) communications?
A. 118.000 MHz to 136.975 MHz (worldwide up to 151.975 MHz)
B. 108.000 MHz to 117.95 MHz
C. 329.15 MHz to 335.00 MHz
D. 2.0000 MHz to 29.999 MHz
47. What is a selective fading effect?
A. A fading effect caused by small changes in beam heading at the receiving station.
B. A fading effect caused by phase differences between radio wave components of
the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station.
C. A fading effect caused by large changes in the height of the ionosphere, as
experienced at the receiving station
D. A fading effect caused by time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations.
48. If the velocity of propagation in a certain medium is 200x10 6 m/s, what is its refractive
index?
A. 1.3
B. 1.5
C. 1.27
D. 0.67
49. What is the resultant field strength at the receiving antenna in space wave propagation under
case 2?
A. 0
B. d
C. 2d
D. 3d
50. The decimetric wave is using what method of propagation?

A. Ground wave
B. Space wave
C. Sky wave
D. Tropospheric wave
51. What is the typical frequency used for communicating to submerged submarines?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 4 kHz
D. 200 Hz
52. Which frequency bands can be refracted during the day by the D layer?
A. VLF
B. MF
C. LF
D. Both VLF and LF
53. What height of an ionized layer is determined from the time interval between the transmitted
signal and the ionospheric echo at vertical incidence?
A. Virtual height
B. Apparent height
C. Actual height
D. Effective height
54. During the night when the F2 layer combines with F1 layer it falls to what approximate
height?
A. 250 km
B. 350 km
C. 300 km
D. 400 km
55. Which of the following is considered the most frequently used transmission line?
A. Two-wire open line
B. Twin lead
C. Rigid coaxial line
D. Flexible coaxial line
56. The antenna effective height is ____ to ____ of the actual height.
A. to 2/3
B. to
C. to 2/3
D. to
57. What is the propagation velocity of a signal in a transmission line whose inductance and
capacitance are 5H/m and 20F/m respectively?
A. 100x103 m/s
B. 100 m/s
C. 10x103 m/s
D. 100x106 m/s
58. What is the phase coefficient in radians per unit length of a transmission line at the frequency
of 10 MHz if the velocity of propagation is 2.5x108 m/s?
A. 0.25
B. 2.5
C. 0.35
D. 3.5
59. Determine the conductance of a two-wire open line with the following parameters: D = 4 in.,
d = 0.1 in. and = 2.6x108 -m.
A. 2.76x10-9 S/m
B. 2.76x10-6 S/m
C. 2.76x10-12 S/m
D. 2.76x10-3 S/m
60. What is the input impedance of a transmission line if its characteristic impedance is 300
and the load is 600 ? Assume a quarter wavelength section only.
A. 150 k
B. 150 m
C. 150
D. 2
61. Determine the standing wave ratio of a 300- line whose load is 400+j150 .
A. 3.55
B. 1.67
C. 5.53
D. 3.35
62. What is the optimum volume per person of rooms for speech?
A. 2.8
B. 3.1
C. 4.2
D. 5.1
63. What happens to the beamwidth of an antenna as the gain is increased?
A. The beamwidth increases geometrically as the gain is increased.
B. The beamwidth increases arithmetically as the gain is increased.
C. The beamwidth is essentially unaffected by the gain of the antenna.
D. The beamwidth decreases as the gain is increased.
64. A superhet receiver has an IF of 455 kHz and is experiencing image-channel interference on
a frequency of 1570 kHz. The receiver is tuned to
A. 1115 kHz
B. 660 kHz
C. 2025 kHz
D. 910 kHz
65. What is the end impedance of a half-wave dipole?
A. 73
B. 72
C. 250
D. 2500
66. What volume of the chamber is required to measure absorption coefficient at 100 Hz?
A. 125 m3
B. 50 m3
C. 150 m3
D. 352 m3
67. What is the optimum reverberation time at 500 Hz for a cinema?
A. 0.8 1.2 sec.
B. 0.9 1.3 sec.
C. 0.6 0.8 sec.
D. 0.45 0.55 sec.
68. An FM receiver whose intermediate frequency is 10.7 MHz, is experiencing image channel
interference from a station transmitting on 121.1 MHz. If the local oscillator is tracking above,
the receiver is tuned to
A. 131.8 MHz
B. 110.4 MHz
C. 142.5 MHz
D. 99.7 MHz
69. A 1 Mhz carrier is amplitude modulated by a pure 200-Hz audio test tone. Which of the
following combinations of frequencies represent the total content of the AM signal?
A. 1 MHz and 200 Hz
B. 1 MHz and 1000.2 kHz
C. 999.8 kHz, 1000 kHz, and 1000.2 kHz
D. 999.8 kHz and 1000.2 kHz
70. What establishes the receiver bandwidth?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
71. What noise type is observable between 8 MHz to somewhat above 1.43 GHz or up to 1.5
GHz?
A. Solar noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Cosmic noise
72. Flicker noise is a poorly understood form of noise which may be completely ignored about
above ____.
A.100 Hz
B. 200 Hz
C. 400 Hz
D. 500 Hz
73. What is the typical gain of a rhombic antenna?
A. Between 15 to 60
B. Between 20 to 90
C. Between 50 to 75
D. Between 10 to 25
74. What illumination factor is normally considered in computing parabolic antenna gain in
microwave communications?
A. 0.54
B. 0.65
C. 0.75
D. 0.85
75. How many voice band channels are there in a superjumbo group?
A. 600
B. 900
C. 10,800
D. 3,600
76. In acoustics, what is the reference pressure in lb/ft 2 unit?
A. 2x10-5
B. 0.0002
C. 2.089
D. 2.980
77. Which of the following characterizes a properly terminated transmission line?
A. The line loss is minimum.
B. The standing wave ratio is minimum.
C. The input impedance is twice the load impedance.
D. The standing wave ratio is one.
78. What is the meaning of forward power?

A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna.
B. The power radiated from the top of an antenna system.
C. The power produced during the positive half of an RF cycle.
D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier.
79. What organization has published safety guidelines for the maximum limits of RF energy
near the human body?
A. The American National Standards Institute (ANSI).
B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
C. The Federal Communications Commission (FCC).
D. The Institute Of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE).
80. When no signal is being received, the loudspeaker is not entirely silent as a result of the
presence of
A. parasitic oscillations in some of the receiver stages.
B. negative feedback in each stage.
C. spurious frequencies as a result of improper neutralization.
D. internal receiver noise.
81. When measuring a transmitters frequency against a suitable standard, the frequency to be
measured is taken from the
A. oscillator stage
B. intermediate amplifier
C. buffer stage
D. final RF stage
82. When the is the ionosphere most ionized?
A. Dusk
B. Midnight
C. Dawn
D. Midday
83. Cellular radios use FM with a maximum deviation of
A.
B.
C.
D.
84. What device measures the angle between two radio frequencies and also the direction of
propagation of a wave?
A. Densimeter
B. Absorption wavemeter
C. Goniometer
D. Ergometer
85. An automated ship-to-shore distress alerting system using satellites and advanced terrestrial
communications systems.
A. GPS
B. Iridium system
C. INMARSAT
D. GMDSS
86. What antenna can be used to minimize the effect of Faraday rotation of polarization?
A. Dipole
B. Parabolic
C. Helical
D. Rhombic
87. The presence of standing waves on a transmission line is the result of
A. a high level of attenuation on the line.
B. terminating the line by a resistive load equal in value to the surge impedance
C. reducing the input power to below its critical level.
D. an impedance mismatch between the load and the line.
88. What device measures rf power by measuring the heat the rf power generates?
A. Calorimeter
B. Goniometer
C. Spectrum meter
D. Oscilloscope
89. What is considered the most efficient mode in terms of energy transfer in waveguides?
A. Dominant mode
B. Normal mode
C. Conventional mode
D. Vertical mode
90. In acoustics, _____ is the apparent change in frequency or pitch when a sound source moves
either toward or away from a listener.
A. flanking
B. reverberation
C. Doppler effect
D. echo
91. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes
peak due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5 mm
92. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m
B. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
D. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
93. The approximate single-hop nighttime range of F2 layer is ____.
A. 3000 km
B. 3840 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350km
94. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
95. In cellular system, _____ defines the geographic distance that is required between cells using
identical frequencies in order to avoid interference between the radio transmissions at these cells.
A. frequency-reuse ratio
B. distance-to-reuse ratio (D/R)
C. reuse format plan ratio
D. reuse factor
96. What do you call the ability of a mobile phone to change from one channel (frequency) to
another?
A. Frequency agility
B. Frequency handoff
C. Frequency handover
D. Frequency switch
97. What mathematical plane figure is ideal in cellular system design and engineering it
graphically and functionally depicts overlapping radio coverage between and among adjacent
cell base stations?
A. Hexagon
B. Octagon
C. Pentagon
D. Nonagon
98. In cellular system, the average lead time to install a new base station is approximately ____
months to a year.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10
99. What is considered the threshold of audibility at 3000 Hz?
A. 10-12 W/m2
B. 10-16 W/m2
C. 10-12 W/cm2
D. 10-15 W/cm2
100. At one atmospheric pressure, what is the approximate speed of sound in steel?
A. 5150 m/s
B. 5150 ft/s
C. 4990 m/s
D. 4990 ft/s

1. What significant element of sound refers to its characteristic tonal quality?
A. Pitch
B. Tempo
C. Rhythm
D. Timbre
2. What is the velocity of sound in wood?
A. 5800 m/s
B. 5000 m/s
C. 3300 m/s
D. 3700 m/s
3. What is the typical loudness level of a watch ticking?
A. 0 phon
B. 40 phons
C. 20 phons
D. 60 phons
4. The typical length of the rhombic antenna is ____.
A. 2 to 8
B. 10 to 20
C. 1 to 3
D. 5 to 10
5. What is the carrier frequency of supergroup 10?
A. 2724 kHz
B. 2356 kHz
C. 2108 kHz
D. 3100 kHz
6. In SPADE system, how many PCM-encoded voice band channels are there?
A. 800
B. 600
C. 300
D. 240
7. The product of the radiated RF power of a transmitter and the gain of the antenna system in a
given direction relative to an isotropic radiator is called ____.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
8. The product of antenna input power and the antenna power gain expressed in kW is called __.
A. Effective Radiated Power (ERP)
B. Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP)
C. Radiated Power
D. Transmit Power
9. What satellite system parameter represents the quality of a satellite or an earth station
receiver?
A. Gain-to-Equivalent Noise Temperature Ratio (G/Te)
B. Energy of Bit-to-Noise Density Ratio (Eb/No)
C. Carrier-to-Noise Density Ratio (C/No)
D. Bit energy
10. What noise is observable at frequencies in the range from about 8 MHz to somewhat 1.5
GHz?
A. Industrial noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Space noise
D. Shot noise
11. A special horn antenna consisting of a parabolic cylinder joined to a pyramidal horn.
A. Hoghorn
B. Cass-horn
C. Pyramidal horn
D. Conical horn
12. How many telegraph channels are there in the basic voice band channels?
A. 24
B. 96
C. 48
D. 672
13. Which of the following is oldest multiplexing scheme?

A. Frequency Division Multiplexing (FDM)
B. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM)
C. Code Division Multiplexing (CDM)
D. Space Division Multiplexing (SDM)
14. What carrier system multiplexes 96 voice band channels into a single 6.312 Mbps data
signal?
A. T1 carrier system
B. T2 carrier system
C. T1C carrier system
D. T3 carrier system
15. What is the metric subdivision of VHF band?

A. Metric
B. Millimetric
C. Decimetric
D. Centimetric
16. In satellite communications, what means of attitude control is using the angular momentum
of the spinning body to provide the roll and yaw stabilization?
A. Spin stabilization
B. Radial stabilization
C. Three-axis stabilization
D. Station keeping
17. Which of the following is NOT a porous absorber?
A. Prefabricated tiles
B. Plasters and spray on materials
C. Acoustic blankets
D. Membrane absorber
18. What historical satellite broadcasted live the 1964 Olympic games from Tokyo, Japan for the
first time?
A. Syncom I
B. Syncom III
C. Syncom II
D. Syncom IV
19. In transmission line, which of the following is the first step in the procedure of using stub
matching?
A. Calculate stub susceptance.
B. Calculate load admittance
C. Connect stub to load
D. Transform conductance to resistance
20. What type of balun (balanced-to-unbalanced) is used in high frequency applications?
A. Transformer type balun
B. A specially configured coaxial transmission line
C. A specially configured parallel-wire line
D. A /2 transformer balun
21. ____ is defined as any radiation of energy by means of electromagnetic wave.
A. Emission
B. Radiation
C. Radio
D. Broadcasting
22. In what year did Hertz discover radio waves?
A. 1844
B. 1873
C. 1887
D. 1895
23. Which of the following phenomena is possible is free space medium?
A. Reflection of radio wave
B. Diffraction of radio wave
C. Refraction of radio wave
D. Attenuation of radio wave
24. What is the reactance property at the input of a shorted quarter wavelength line?
A. A parallel LC circuit
B. A pure inductive reactance
C. A series LC circuit
D. A pure capacitive reactance
25. An early satellite owned by US Department of Defense that lasted only for 17 days
A. Courier
B. Echo
C. Score
D. Westar 1
26. Which of the following is the consolidation of H. No. 5224 and S. No. 2683?
A. RA 9292
B. RA 5734
C. RA 7925
D. RA 6849
27. Who will appoint the chairman and 2 members of the board of Electronics Engineering?
A. The Senate President
B. The President
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Commission on Appointment
28. How many nominees per position of the Electronics Engineering Board are nominated by
IECEP to PRC?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
29. According to RA 9292, how many days after the board exam the results will be released?
A. Within 5 days
B. Within 15 days
C. Within 20 days
D. Within 3 days
30. How many removal examination (s) will be given to an examinee who obtains a passing
rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject (s) below seventy
percent (70%) but not lower than sixty percent (60%)?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. Unlimited
31. Which of the following determines the acoustic behavior of gases?
A. Density
B. Pressure
C. Temperature
D. All of the choices
32. In what medium sound travels the faster?
A. Vacuum
B. Solid
C. Liquid
D. Gas
33. For a loudness level between 110 and 120 dB, the maximum daily exposure limit is ____
minute (s).
A. 1
B. 60
C. 20
D. 45
34. A porous material is far more efficient at high than low frequency absorption. How to
improve sound absorption at lower frequencies using this absorber?
A. Increase the thickness
B. Decrease the thickness
C. Mount with and airspace behind
D. Both A and C above
35. Which of the following describes a TDM frame?
A. A 250-s frame
B. A 125-s frame
C. A 500-s frame
D. A 60-s frame
36. ____ system transmits frequency-division-multiplexed voice band signals over a coaxial
cable for distances up to 4000 miles.
A. T carrier
B. X carrier
C. L carrier
D. F carrier
37. What is the spectrum range of U600 mastergroup?
A. 60 108 kHz
B. 564 3084 kHz
C. 312 552 kHz
D. 60 -2788 kHz
38. Which frequency reuse method is less effective because of Faradays effect?
A. Dual polarization
B. Reducing antenna beamwidth
C. Zonal rotation
D. Spin stabilization
39. Three telephone circuits, each having an S/N ratio of 44 dB, are connected in tandem. What
is the overall S/N ratio?
A. 44 dB
B. 39.2 dB
C. 41 dB
D. 43.52 dB
40. What is the noise factor if the equivalent noise temperature is 25 K?
A. 1.09
B. 0.09
C. 0.36 dBm
D. 0.36
41. A ground station is operating to a geostationary satellite at a 5 angle of elevation. Calculate

the round-trip time between ground station and satellite.
A. 275 s
B. 275 ms
C. 137.5 s
D. 137.5 ms
42. Calculate the reverberation time of a living room 8 ft high, 13 ft wide and 20 ft long. The
total absorption of the building structure inside the room is 180.7 sabines with four persons
present in the room.
A. 0.5 ms
B. 0.05 s
C. 0.5 s
D. 5 ms
43. What is the number of levels required in a PCM system with S/N ratio of 40 dB?
A. 64
B. 128
C. 256
D. 512
44. A radio communications link is to be established via the ionosphere. The maximum virtual
height of the layer is 100 km at the midpoint of the path and the critical frequency is 2 MHz. The
distance between stations is 600 km. determine the optimum working frequency?
A. 6.32 MHz
B. 2.1 MHz
C. 5.4 MHz
D. 1.8 MHz
45. Part of a microwave link can be approximated by free space conditions. The antenna gain are
each 40 dB, the frequency is 10 GHz, and the path length is 80 km. Calculate the receive power
for a transmitted power of 10 W?
A. 0.871 W
B. 871 W
C. 0.871 mW
D. 871 nW
46. What is the approximate critical frequency of the E layer?
A. 4 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 6 MHz
D. 3 MHz
47. What is the approximate single-hop nighttime range of F2 layer?

A. 3840 km
B. 3000 km
C. 4130 km
D. 2350 km
48. What ionospheric layer has a daytime approximate critical frequency of 8 MHz?
A. F2 layer
B. F1 layer
C. E layer
D. D layer
49. Determine the additional absorption (sabines) contributed by 10 persons in a room.
A. 47
B. 4.7
C. 0.47
D. 470
50. A frequency of 3000 Hz has how many octaves above 1000 Hz?
A. 1.6 octaves
B. 2.1 octaves
C. 1 octave
D. 3 octaves
51. The loudness level increased from 40 to 56 phons. What is the increase in loudness
sensation?
A. 3 times
B. 4.5 times
C. 2 times
D. 4 times
52. In the North American TDM system, what is the transmission rate in Mbps of T3 carrier
system?
A. 44.736
B. 6.312
C. 3.152
D. 274.176
53. What is the data rate in Mbps of a single satellite transponder considering an S/N of 30 dB?
A. 35.8
B. 3.58
C. 358
D. 3580
54. What condition occur when the refractive index of the air decreases with height much more
rapidly the normal?
A. Refraction
B. Superrefraction
C. Subrefraction
D. Diffraction
55. What do you call the increase of temperature with height?
A. Temperature inversion
B. Normal inversion
C. Ducting
D. Superrefraction
56. ____ is a term given to the region where superrefraction occurs.
A. Strata
B. Duct
C. Isothermal region
D. Tropospheric region
57. Which of the following wavelengths where absorption of electromagnetic waves becomes
peak due to vibrational resonances in the water vapor molecule?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 1.5 mm and 5 mm
C. 1.35 dm and 1.7 cm
D. 1.5 cm and 5mm
58. Oxygen molecule absorption peaks to electromagnetic wave are at what wavelengths?
A. 1.35 cm and 1.7 mm
B. 5 mm and 2.5 mm
C. 5 cm and 2.5 cm
D. 1.35 mm and 1.7 m
59. What instrument normally measures the virtual height of ionosphere?
A. Ionosonde
B. Altimeter
C. Field meter
D. Radar
60. The angle of elevation of the antenna beam is 20. Calculate the transmission-path distance
for an ionospheric transmission that utilizes a layer of virtual height 200 km. Use flat-earth
approximation.
A. 966 km
B. 2100 km
C. 1100 km
D. 405 km
61. If temperature change is 19C, what amount of change to sound velocity is possible?
A. 11.53 ft/s
B. 11.53 m/s
C. 19.304 ft/s
D. 19.304 m/s
62. In the above problem, what is the new velocity of sound assuming dry air medium?
A. 343 ft/s
B. 3430 m/s
C. 343 m/s
D. 342 m/s
63. In acoustics, if the volume of the room is 200 m3 then at what frequency the coefficient of
absorption is measured?
A. 120 kHz
B. 120 Hz
C. 100 Hz
D. 150 Hz
64. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM system with 10 kHz of modulating frequency
and a 150 kHz of frequency deviation?
A. 300 kHz
B. 320 kHz
C. 150 kHz
D. 200 kHz
65. Which of the following layers of the ionosphere has no effect on sky wave propagation
during daytime?
A. D
B. E
C. F1
D. F2
66. What phenomenon causes the radio-path horizon distance to exceed the geometric horizon?
A. Diffraction
B. Ducting
C. Reflection
D. Refraction
67. How to maximize the skip distance?
A. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and highest possible frequency
B. Using the smallest possible radiation angle and lowest possible frequency
C. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and highest possible frequency
D. Using the biggest possible radiation angle and lowest possible frequency
68. For a space wave transmission, the radio horizon distance of a receiving antenna with a
height of 64 meters is approximately
A. 8 km
B. 32 km
C. 64 km
D. 256 km
69. What bandwidth is needed to support a capacity of 128 kbps when the signal power to noise
power ratio in decibels is 100?
A. 19224 Hz
B. 3853 Hz
C. 19244 Hz
D. 3583 Hz
70. Which of the following systems uses frequency band 870-885 MHz as a transmit band of its
base station?
A. TACS
B. NTT
C. NMT
D. AMPS
71. A transmitted signal 5 meters in wavelength is received by an antenna coil having a 50-
resistance and a 0.01 H inductance. What is the capacitance of the tuner shunting the antenna coil
at this point?
A. 0.704 fF
B. 0.704 F
C. 0.704 nF
D. 0.704 mF
72. Which of the following is the basic component of a communications satellite receiver?
A. On-board computer
B. Reflector
C. Telemetry
D. Transponder
73. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
A. 35.3
B. 10.96
C. 379.8
D. 109.6
74. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth?
A. MUF
B. Gyro frequency
C. Skip frequency
D. Critical frequency
75. What is the most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones?
A. Frequency response
B. Power density
C. Field Strength
D. Gain
76. Atmospheric attenuation is an attenuation which is due to
A. mist and fog
B. gasses in the atmosphere

C. water vapor and oxygen
D. rain
77. Satellite orbits around the earth are ____ orbits.
A. circular
B. either elliptical or circular
C. elliptical
D. circular only
78. How does spatial isolation technique in satellite communications avoid interference?
A. Use of different polarity antennas
B. Use of different types of antennas
C. Employment of highly directional spot-beam antennas
D. Use of low gain antennas
79. An area on earth covered by a satellite radio beam is called ____.
A. SSP
B. Region
C. footprint
D. primary area
80. The American concert pitch A is equivalent to which if the following frequencies?
A. 440 Hz
B. 435 Hz
C. 260 Hz
D. 255 Hz
81. The international pitch A is equivalent to ___ Hz.

A. 435
B. 440
C. 260
D. 255
82. The speed of the satellite increases as its height in orbit gets
A. lower
B. higher
C. closer to the moon
D. closer to the sun
83. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output \, 4
dB feedline loss, 3 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 6 dB antenna gain?
A. 158 W
B. 39.7 W
C. 251 W
D. 69.9 W
84. A cellular standard known as the cdmaOne.
A. IS-95
B. IS-136
C. IS-54
D. IS-100
85. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 50 watts transmitter power output, 5
A. 300 W
B. 315 W
C. 31.5 W
D. 69.9 W
86. Which Ethernet system is restricted only to 100 m?
A. 10 Base T
B. 20 Base 2
C. 10 Base 5
D. 10 Base 1
A. 600 W
B. 75 W
C. 18.75 W
D. 150 W
88. Which of the following regulates the ownership and operation of radio and television stations
in the country?
A. PD 576-A
B. PD 756
C. PD 657
D. PD 677
A. 37.6 W
B. 237 W
C. 150 W
D. 23.7 W
90. In GSM cellular system, the speech coding rate is ____.
A. 13 kbps
B. 8 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
A. 800 W
B. 126 W
C. 12.5 W
D. 1260 W
92. Which NTC memorandum circular governs the rules and regulations about the manufacture,
acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
A. MC No. 2-05-88
B. MC No. 2-04-88
C. MC No. 2-07-88
D. MC No. 2-09-88
A. 601 W
B. 240 W
C. 60 W
D. 379 W
94. What do you call a short bit sequence sent typically 128 bits in digital signatures?
A. Hash
B. Public key
C. Private key
D. Password
95. What medium is used by IBM token ring network that operates at either 4 Mbps or 16 Mbps?
A. Twisted pair
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber-optic
D. Parallel-wire line
96. What is known as the final stage in the evolution of the GSM standard?
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. EDGE
D. Bluetooth
97. According to KBP revised radio code which airtime below is classified class D for AM
stations?
A. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
B. 12:00 NN to 6:00 PM
C. 9:00 PM to 12 Midnight
D. 12:00 Midnight to 5:00 AM
98. Encryption of data is important to ensure its privacy. It is most commonly achieved by using
a ____.
A. public-key encryption
B. private-key encryption
C. password-key encryption
D. character set encryption
99. The speech coding rate in D-AMPS is ____.
A. 8 kbps
B. 13 kbps
C. 15 kbps
D. 20 kbps
100. Which of the following principal musical intervals is considered dissonant?
A. 7:8
B. 1:2
C. 5:8
D. 3:5

1.
________ is a standard whereby mobile phones can gain access to specially tailored
Internet websites.
A. Bluetooth
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. EDGE
2.
What noise is a transient short-duration disturbance distributed essentially uniformly over

the useful passband of a transmission system?
A. Flicker noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Shot noise
D. Impulse noise
3.
What is the insertion loss of connector type splices for a single mode optical fiber?
A. 0.51 dB
B. 0.49 dB
C. 0.31 dB
D. 0.38 db
4.
In the European standard, the aurial transmitter maximum radiated power is ______ of
peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 40%
5.
What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF for microwave

communications?
A. 60 MHz
B. 80 MHz
C. 120 MHz
D. 70 MHz
6.
What is the data link protocol that is used in asynchronous transmission for transferring
files from one computer to another?
A. A modem
B. X modem
C. B modem
D. C modem
7.
What distortion is not caused by transmission line characteristics?

A. Phase distortion
B. Pulse shape distortion
C. Spacing bias distortion
D. Amplitude distortion
8.
What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200 watts transmitter power
output, 4 dB feline loss, 4 dB duplexer and circulator loss, and 10 dB antenna gain?
A. 317 W
B. 2000 W
C. 126 W
D. 260 W
9.
Which of the following is standardized as part of GSM phase 2+ that can offer theoretical
data speeds of upto 115 kbit/s?
A. EDGE
B. GPRS
C. WAP
D. Bluetooth
10. A ______ is essentially a cell site that is mounted on a flatbed tractor-trailer used for
emergency purposes.
A. COW
B. BULL
C. CALF
D. PONY
11. Which of the following best describes a dip-meter?
A. An SWR meter
B. A counter
C. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback current
D. A field strength meter
12. Which is space diversity system?
A. Two or more antennas operating on two different frequencies?
B. Two transmitters operating at same frequencies
C. Two or more antennas operating on the same frequency
D. Two antennas from two different transmitters
13. What part or section of a TV receiver that separates the sound and video signals?
A. IF stage
B. Video amplifier
C. Video detector
D. Burst separator
14. What is the channel number of an FM station with a carrier frequency of 99.5 MHz?
A. 256
B. 258
C. 257
D. 259
15. In a triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are operated
A. In the linear region
B. In the nonlinear region
C. As class A amplifiers
D. As class B amplifiers
16. In ISDN, what is the basic access B channel data rate?
A. 32 kbps
B. 64 kbps
C. 144 kbps
D. 16 kbps
17. What is the channel spacing for MF-HF voice frequencies?
A. 2.8 kHz
B. 500 Hz
C. 3.5 kHz
D. 3 kHz
18. What is the quantization signal-to-noise ratio if an 8-bit PCM code is used?
A. 40 dB
B. 50 dB
C. 60 dB
D. 65 dB
19. What is the emission designation of a single sideband reduced carrier signal?
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
20. What is the most commonly used intermediate frequency of radar receivers?
A. 40 MHz
B. 60 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 30 MHz
21. The input signal of a travelling wave tube is introduced at
A. Cathode
B. Anode
C. Cathode end of the helix
D. Collector end of the helix
22. What determines the ability of radar to determine the bearing to a target?
A. Speed of light
B. Speed of target
C. Antenna directivity
D. Frequency of signal
23. What is the minimum number of bits required in a PCM code for a range of 10,000?
A. 12
B. 9
C. 14
D. 10
24. The antenna current is doubled when the modulation index is doubled in ______ AM
system.
A. A5C
B. A3J
C. A3
D. A3H
25. Which of the following is not a bounded medium?
A. Coaxial line
B. Two-wire line
C. Waveguide
D. Free space
26. What is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound because
the intensity varies inversely with the square of the distance?
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Loudness
D. Frequency
27. Comparing the capacities of a DVD and an ordinary CD, DVD is ______ time bigger
than CD.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 25
28. Locking on to a defined target is known as
A. Homing
B. Referencing
C. Searching
D. Defining
29. What causes the maximum usable frequency to vary?
A. The temperature of the ionosphere
B. The speed of the winds in the upper atmosphere
C. The type of weather just below the ionosphere
D. The amount of radiation received from the sun
30. What limits the sensitivity of a receiver?
A. The power supply of the receiver
B. The power output of a transmitter
C. The noise floor of the receiver
D. The distance between the transmitter and receiver
31. What is the standard test tone used for audio measurements?
A. 100 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 1000 Hz
D. 2000 Hz
32. What causes image interference?
A. Low gain
B. High IF
C. Poor front-end selectivity
D. Low signal-to-noise ratio
33. What frequency band is referred to as the metric waves?
A. VHF
B. UHF
C. HF
D. SHF
34. A waveguide passive component that brings a smooth change in the direction of axis
maintained perpendicular to the plane of polarization?
A. L bend
B. H bend
C. T bend
D. X bend
35. How far is the visual carrier from the lowest frequency in the spectrum of a monochrome
TV broadcast channel following the NTSC standard?
A. 1.5 MHz
B. 1.25 MHz
C. 4.5 MHz
D. 0.25 MHz
36. What aircraft deviation is measured by an ILS localizer?
A. Altitude
B. Ground speed
C. Vertical
D. Horizontal
37. Skip zone is otherwise known as
A. Empty zone
B. Shadow zone
C. Null zone
D. Zone of silence
38. In the American standard, the aural transmitter maximum radiated power is _____ of
peak visual transmitter power.
A. 10 %
B. 30 %
C. 20 %
D. 40 %
39. What character signifies the start of the test for Bisync?
A. STX
B. SOH
C. BCC
D. ETX
40. A low frequency audible periodic variation in pitch of sound output in high fidelity sound
reproduction system?
A. Flutter
B. Wow
C. String vibration
D. Radio sound
41. When can a corporation or association incorporated under the Philippine laws and with
foreign investors be granted radio station license?
A. When 60% of the capital is owned by Filipino citizens
B. When 50% of the capital is owned by Filipino citizens
C. When the chairman of the board is a Filipino
D. When the president of the corporation/association is a Filipino
42. ______ is a term in the test language for noise testing in telephone circuits that means a
one-syllable word consisting of a consonant, a vowel, and another consonant.
A. Logatom
B. Nosfer
C. Ore
D. Belcore
43. Why are frequency modulation transmitters more efficient?
A. Because their power is increased by class C amplifiers
B. Because their power is increased by class A amplifiers
C. Because their power is increased by class B amplifiers
D. Because their power is increased by class AB amplifiers
44. A 1000W carrier is amplitude modulated to a depth of 85%. Calculate the total power of
the modulated wave?
A. 1361.25 W
B. 680.62 W
C. 1425 W
D. 712.5 W
45. Which is not an ITU sector?
A. ITU-W
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-T
D. ITU-D
46. What is the process of cancelling the effect on internal device capacitance in radio
transmitters?
A. Degaussing
B. Neutralization
C. Ionization
D. Stabilization
47. Which of the following is the basic synthesizer circuit?
A. Frequency divider
B. Frequency multiplier
C. PLL
D. Mixer
48. Which one is not an important characteristic of the physical layer?
A. Electrical
B. Logical
C. Mechanical
D. All of the choices
49. What is the typical separation between the two conductors in a parallel wire line?
A. 0.001 to 0.01 m
B. 200 to 500 mm
C. 0.635 to 15.24 cm
D. 2.5 to 5 in.
50. In t-carrier system, t3 has a bit rate of
A. 560.160 Mbps
B. 44.376 Mbps
C. 44.736 Mbps
D. 560.106 Mbps
51. In radio signal emission designation, the fifth symbol means

A. Details of signals
B. Type of information transmitted
C. Nature of multiplexing
D. Nature of signal modulating the main carrier
52. What is the channel spacing for SITOR frequencies?
A. 500 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 300 Hz
D. 3 kHz
53. Which of the following is the new name of CCITT?
A. ITU-T
B. ITU-R
C. ITU-S
D. ITU-D
54. Which of the following frequencies is normally used for distress and safety
communications?
A. 4209.5 kHz
B. 490 kHz
C. 518 kHz
D. 2174.5 kHz
55. What is the difference between available power and power budget?
A. Power margin
B. Extra power
C. Fade margin
D. System gain
56. A matched termination in which the electromagnetic energy is absorbed by water.
A. Maximum power transfer
B. Load
C. Load water
D. Basin
57. What do you call the electrical conduction in a photosensitive material which is not
exposed to radiation?
A. Dark conductance
B. Pure conductance
C. Black out
D. Super conductance
58. How many sidebands are present in the J3E mode?
A. Two sidebands and a carrier
B. One upper sideband
C. One lower sideband
D. Two carriers and one sideband
59. A component that samples the microwave signal travelling in one direction down to the
transmission line
A. Isolator
B. Combiner
C. Directional coupler
D. Attenuator
60. What does OMB stand for?
A. Optical media board
B. Organization of medical biologist
C. Optical medium board
D. Optimum main board
61. A test method of comparing two audio systems by switching inputs so that the same
recording is heard in rapid succession over one given system and then the other.
A. B test
B. A test
C. AB test
D. C test
62. And ITU-T specification code that deals with the telephone circuits.
A. X series
B. T series
C. V series
D. I series
63. What digital carrier transmits a digital signal at 274.176 Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. T2
D. T4
64. What signal-to-noise ratio is required for satisfactory television reception?
A. 10 dB
B. 30 dB
C. 40 dB
D. 20 dB
65. How many telephone channels are there in AT 2 line?
A. 50
B. 90
C. 83
D. 96
66. What optical source radiates light uniformly in all directions?
A. Isotropic source
B. Lambertian source
C. Voltage source
D. Ideal source
67. What is the spectrum of stereophonic FM signal?
A. 19 to 38 kHz
B. 30 to 53 kHz
C. 59.5 to 74.5 kHz
D. 88 to 108 MHz
68. What is the required quality factor for an SSB filter with the following data: center
frequency= 1 MHz, the desired attenuation level of the unwanted sideband= 80 dB and
the separation between sidebands= 200 Hz?
A. 1,250
B. 12,500
C. 125,000
D. 25,000
69. What do you call the reflection of a part of incident light at the interface of two media
that have different refractive indices?
A. Snells reflection
B. Fresnel reflection
C. Lambertian reflection
D. Huygens reflection
70. Which conference in the ITU-structure does the telecommunication standardization

bureau report?
A. World telecommunication standardization conference
B. ITU-development sector
C. Radio regulation board
D. The secretary general
71. What region around a broadcasting transmitter in which satisfactory reception of
broadcasting signal is not obtained?
A. Fringe area
B. Primary are
C. Secondary area
D. Tertiary area
72. What do you call the random noise seen on radar display screen?
A. Impulse noise
B. Atmospheric noise
C. Grass
D. Johnson noise
73. Which of the following antennas receives signals equally well from all directions in a
horizontal plane?
A. Hetz antenna
B. Vertical Marconi antenna
C. Yagi antenna
D. Helical antenna
74. Where is the brightness control located in a TV?
A. The audio section
B. The video section
C. The grid-cathode circuit
D. The front panel
75. What is the term used in telephony and telegraphy for irregular disturbing radiation due
to various causes and in a particular produced by arc transmitters causing a rushing sound
in receiving telephones?
A. Fax tone
B. Mush
C. Hiss
D. Crosstalk
76. What device in a waveguide system used for stopping or diverting electromagnetic wave
as desired?
A. Mechanical switch
B. Electric switch
C. Push-button switch
D. Waveguide switch
77. What is the maximum power that can be obtained from a microwave tube at 10 GHz?
A. 500 W
B. 10 W
C. 50 W
D. 20 W
78. What do you call a cable consisting of twisted pairs of conductors, each separately
insulated?
A. Microstrip line
B. Strip line
C. Quad
D. Coaxial cable
79. What mixer type has the lowest spurious signals?
A. Double-balanced
B. Single-balanced
C. Super-heterodyner
D. Heterodyner
80. What are the electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths less than 300 angstroms?
A. X-rays
B. Ultraviolet rays
C. Infrared
D. Microwaves
81. What is known as the alignment of the three color guns to a common point?
A. Confetti
B. Divergence
C. Convergence
D. Synchronization
82. What is the department order that governs commercial radio operator?
A. Department Order No. 5
B. Department Order No. 23
C. Department Order No. 88
D. Department Order No. 44
83. The computer which initiates information transfer
A. Master
B. Station
C. Slave
D. Mainframe
84. Which of the following antennas require good grounding?
A. Yagi antenna
B. Hertz antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
85. Which circuit detects frequency modulated signal?
A. Modulator
B. Discriminator
C. Demodulator
D. Modem
86. What synchronization is provided so that the start and end of message is identified?
A. Carrier
B. Character
C. Bit
D. Clock
87. A form of regenerative repeater for transmitting signals over a long cable received
through a relay in a clearer form.
A. Active generator
B. Active repeater
C. Interpolator
D. Audio generator
88. What is the minimum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite?
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 600 ms
89. In measuring crosstalk using dBx unit the reference power is
A. 1 mW
B. 1 W
C. 1 pW
D. 6 mW
90. A spot on the suns visible surface where the magnetic flux lines converge?
A. Sunspot
B. Filament
C. Solar spot
D. Prominence
91. ______ is a slow moving large mass of plasma on the suns surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Proton flare
92. ______ is slow moving cord-like mass of plasma across the suns surface.
A. Filament
B. Solar flare
C. Prominence
D. Solar spot
93. At what particular wavelength is solar flux measured?
A. 10.7 mm band
B. 10.7 m band
C. 10.7 cm band
D. 10.7 nm band
94. What is the approximate intensity of the magnetic field at the earths surface?
A. 32,000 nT
B. 62,000 nT
C. 32,000 T
D. 62,000 T
95. What is the intensity of the magnetic field at the earths north pole?
A.
B.
C.
D.
32,000 nT
62,000 nT
32,000 T
62,000 T
96. What do you call a satellite weighing less than 1 kg?

A. Nanosat
B. Picosat
C. Femtosat
D. Microsat
97. The first creature in space was carried by which of the following spacecrafts in
November 3, 1957?
A. Sputnik 1
B. Sputnik 3
C. Sputnik 2
D. Explorer 1
98. The wireless evolution is achieved through the GSM family of wireless technology
platforms which include but except one of the following. Which one is NOT a member of
the GSM family?
A. GSM
B. EDGE
C. GPRS
D. CDMA
99. Which of the following is an enhancement of GSM including the GPRS?
A. 1G
B. 2.5G
C. 2G
D. 3G
100. A low power, short range wireless technology designed to provide a replacement for
serial cables is called ______.
A. WAP
B. GPRS
C. Bluetooth
D. EDGE
Noise Chapter 4 (3001 Questions in Communications Engineering-EXCEL REVIEW

CENTER)
1. What is the non-continuous noise of irregular pulses or spikes of duration with high
amplitudes?
A. Wander
B. Jitter
C. Hits
D. Singing
2. What theorem sets a limit on the maximum capacity of a channel with a given noise
level?
A. Nyquist theorem
B. Hartley law
C. Shannon-Hartley theorem
D. Shannon theorem
3. Quantizing noise occurs in
A. PCM
B. PLM
C. PDM
D. PAM
4. Noise always affects the signal in a communications systems at the ________.
A. transmitter
B. channel
C. information source
D. destination
5. _________ is the random and unpredictable electric signals from natural causes, both
internal and external to the system.
A. Interference
B. Attenuation
C. Distortion
D. Noise
6. Noise from random acoustic or electric noise that has equal energy per cycle over a
specified total frequency band.
A. Gaussian noise
B. Whiter noise
C. Thermal noise
D. All of the above
7. Which causes a quantization noise in PCM system?
A. Serial transmission errors
B. The approximation of the quantized signal
C. The synchronization between encoder and decoder
D. Binary coding techniques

8. A particular circuit that rids FM of noise
A. Detector
B. Discriminator
C. Phase Shifter
D. Limiter
9. What is the reference noise temperature in degrees Celsius?
A. 17
B. 273
C. 25
D. 30
10. Unwanted radio signal on assigned frequency.
A. Splatter
B. RFI
C. Noise
D. EMI
11. What is the reliable measurement for comparing amplifier noise characteristics?
A. Thermal agitation noise
B. Noise factor
C. Noise margin
D. Signal-to-noise
12. _________ is measured on a circuit when it is correctly terminated but does not have any
traffic.
A. White noise
B. Galactic noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Atmospheric noise
13. Which standard recommends crosstalk limits?
A. CCIT G.152
B. CCIT G.150
C. CCIT G.151
D. CCIT G.161
14. Which standard is utilized in intermodulation noise rates on PCM audio channels?
A. CCIT Rec. G.151
B. CCIT Rec. G.172
C. CCIT Rec. G.190
D. CCIT Rec. G.190
15. What is the reference frequency of CCIT phosphomeric noise measurement?
A. 800 Hz
B. 1000 Hz
C. 1500 Hz
D. 3400 Hz
16. Reference temperature use in noise analysis
A. 75 K
B. 250 K
C. 290 K
D. 300 K
17. Which noise is produced by lighting discharges in thunderstorms?
A. White noise
B. Extraterrestrial noise
C. Industrial noise
D. Atmospheric noise
18. Man-made noise is usually from _______.
A. transmission over power lines and by ground wave
B. sky-wave
C. space-wave
D. troposphere
19. nif stands for
A. Non-intrinsic figure
B. Noise improvement factor
C. Narrow intermediate frequency
D. Noise interference figure
20. Industrial noise frequency is between _____.
A. 0 to 10 KHz
B. 160 MHz to 200 MHz
C. 15 to 160 MHz
D. 200 to 3000 MHz
21. External noise fields are measured in terms of _______.
A. rms values
B. dc values
C. average values
D. peak values
22. Form of interference caused by rain or dust storms.
A. Precipitation static
B. Shot-noise
C. Galactic noise
D. Impulse noise
23. At 17 C, the noise voltage generated by 5k resistor, operating over a bandwidth of
20KHz is
A. 1.3 nV
B. 1.3 V
C. 1.3 pV
D. 1.3 mV
24. ________ is an electric noise produced by thermal agitation of electrons in conductor and
semiconductor.
A. External noise
B. Internal noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Flicker
25. Three identical circuits having 10 dB signal noise-to-noise ratio each are connected in
tandem with each other, what is the overall S/N?
A. 5.23 dB
B. 14.77dB
C. 30 dB
D. 40 dB
26. The noise figure of the first circuit in tandem connection is 10.5 dB while its power gain
is 15, what is the over all noise figure if the second circuit has a noise figure of 11 dB?
A. 11.59 dB
B. 11.23 dB
C. 10.79 dB
D. 10.5 dB
27. Is the interference coming from other communications channels?
A. Jitter
B. Crosstalk
C. RFI
D. EMI
28. What is the reference noise level?
A. 10 pW
B. 0 dBm
C. 1mW
D. -90 dBm
29. What is the unit of noise power of psophometer?
A. pWp
B. dBa
C. dBm
D. dBrn
30. A large emission of hydrogen from the sun that affects communications.
A. Solar flare
B. Cosmic disturbance
C. Ballistic disturbance
D. Solar noise
31. Atmospheric noise is known as _______noise.
A. static
B. cosmic
C. solar
D. lunar
32. Standard design reference for environmental noise temperature.
A. 300 K
B. 290 K
C. 32 F
D. 212F
33. Absolute temperature in Kelvin.
A. C +273
B. C+75
C. C+19
D. C +290
34. If bandwidth is doubled, the signal power is _________.
A. not changed
B. quadrupled
C. tripled
D. doubled
35. Name one or more sources of noise bearing on electronic communications.
A. Steam boiler
B. Galaxies
C. Internal combustion engine
D. Both B and C
36. The transmitter technique adopted to reduce the noise effect of the preceding question is
called
A. noise masking
B. anitnoise
C. noise killing
D. preemphasis
37. Deemphasis in the receiver in effect attenuates modulating signal components and noise
in what frequency range?
A. dc
B. low
C. intermediate
D. high
38. Atmospheric noise or static is not a great problem
A. at frequencies below 20 MHz

B. at frequencies below 5 MHz
C. at frequencies above 30 MHz
D. at frequencies above 1 MHz
39. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile station?
A. Apply shielding and filtering where necessary
B. Insulate a all plain sheet metal surfaces from each other
C. Apply anti-static spray liberally to all nonmetallic
D. Install filter capacitors in series with all dc wiring
40. Where is the noise generated that primarily determines the signal-to-noise ratio in a VHF
(150MHz) marine-band receiver?
A. Man-made noise
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the receiver front end
D. In the ionosphere
41. The difference between signal strength at a given point and a reference level is________.
A. power
B. dBm
C. level
D. ratio
42. Interfering effect of noise, C message weighted, is _________.
A. dBa
B. dBm
C. dBmc
D. dB
43. F1A weighting refers to ___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. dBrnc0
C. dBrnc
D. F1A handset
44. Reading a 58 dBrnC on your Western Electric 3A test set at a +7 test point is equal to
______ dBrnc0.
A. 58
B. 51
C. 65
D. 27
45. Reading a 58 dBrn, at a +7 test point is equal to ________ dBa0.
A. 26
B. 65
C. 51
D. 46
46. A reading of -50 dBm on the disturbing pair, and -80 on the disturbed pair equals _____
dB of crosstalk coupling.
A. 20
B. 30
C. 60
D. 25
47. Power is __________.
A. actual amount of power reference to 1mW
B. logarithmic ratio of two powers
C. definite amount of energy per time period
D. current flow per time period
48. 15 dBa F1A weighted, equals ___________.
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -85 dBm
D. -70 dBm
49. You are measuring noise in a voice channel with a Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network and a flat meter. Your meter reads -47dBm. What is this reading in dBa?
A. 77 dBa
B. 35 dBa
C. 38 dBa
D. 32 dBa
50. You are measuring noise at a +3 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -57dBm. This is ________dBa0.
A. 20
B. 15
C. 25
D. 17
51. You are measuring noise at a -6 dB level point, using the Lenkurt 601A, F1A weighting
network, and a flat meter. The meter reading is -59 dBm. This is _________ dBa0.
A. 24
B. 12
C. 23
D. 32
52. A measurement of -75 dBm, C-message weighted, would be _________ dBrnc.
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9
D. 15
53. Your Western Electric 3A test set meter reading is -23 dBm at at test point level of -8 dB.
This is ______ dBrnc0.
A. 75
B. 29
C. 30
D. 31
54. At what power level does a 1 KHz tone cause zero interference (144 weighted)?
A. 90 dB
B. 90 dBm
C. -90 dBm
D. -90 dBm
55. Reference noise is ___________.
A. a 1000 Hz, -90 dBm tone
B. a noise that creates the same interfering effect as a 1000Hz, -90dBm tone
C. a noise that creates zero dBrn in a voice channel
D. B and C above
56. A practical dBrn measurement will almost always in a _______ number.
A. positive
B. negative
C. imaginary
D. fractional
57. What is the reference level for noise measurement, F1A weighted?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
58. What is the reference tone level for dBrn?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
59. What is the reference tone level for dBa?
A. -90 dBm
B. -82 dBm
C. -67 dBm
D. -85 dBm
60. Atmospheric noise becomes less severe at frequencies
A. above 30 MHz
B. below 30 MHz
C. above 3000 kHz
D. below 3000kHz
61. Indicate the noise whose sources are in category different from that of the other three?
A. Solar noise
B. Cosmic noise
C. Atmospheric noise
D. Galactic noise
62. Indicate the false statement.
A. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type
B. Static is caused by lightning discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electric
disturbances occurring in the atmosphere
C. Distant stars are another source of man-made noise
D. Flourescent lights are another source of man-made noise
63. Which of the following is not a source of industrial noise?
A. Automobile ignition
B. Sun
C. Electric Motors
D. Leakage from high voltage line
64. Indicate the false statement
A. The noise generated in a resistance or the resistive component of any impedance is
random.
B. Random noise power is proportional to the bandwidth over which is measured
C. A random voltage across the resistor does not exist
D. All formula referring to random noise are applicable only to the value of such noise.
65. The value of the resistor creating thermal noise is doubled. The noise power generated is
therefore.
A. halved
B. quadrupled
C. doubled
D. unchanged
66. Indicate the false statement.
A. HF mixer are generally noisier than HF amplifiers.
B. Impulse noise voltage is dependent on bandwidth
C. Thermal noise is independent of the frequency at which is measured.
D. Industrial noise is usually of the impulse type.
67. An amplifier operating over the frequency range of 455 to 460 kHz has a 200 k input
resistor. What is the RMS noise voltage at the input to this amplifier if the ambient
temperature is 17C ?
A. 40 V
B. 4.0 V
C. 400 V
D. 4.0 mV
68. The first stage of a two-stage amplifier has a voltage gain of 10, a 600 input resistor, a
1600 equivalent noise resistance and 27k output resistor. For the second stage, these
values are 25, 81k, 19k, and 1M, respectively. Calculate the equivalent input-noise
resistance of this two stage amplifier.
A. 2,518 k
B. 2,518
C. 251.8
D. 12,518
69. The noise output of a resistor is amplified by a noiseless amplifier having a gain of 60
and a bandwidth of 20 kHz. A meter connected at the output of the amplifier reads 1mV
RMS. If the bandwidth of the amplifier is reduced to 5kHz, its gain remaining constant,
what does the meter read now?
A. 0.5 mV
B. 0.5 V
C. 5.0 mV
D. 5.0 V
70. The front-end of a television receiver, having a bandwidth of 7Mhz, and operating at a
temperature of 27C , consists of an amplifier having a gain of 15 followed by a mixer
whose gain is 20. The amplifier has a 300 input resistor and a shot noise equivalent
resistance of 500; for the mixer, these values are 2.2k and 13.5k respectively, and
the load resistance of the mixer is 470 k. Calculate the equivalent noise resistance for
this television receiver.
A. 8760
B. 875
C. 8.76
D. 0.876
71. One of the following is not a useful quantity for comparing the noise performance
receivers.
A. Input noise voltage
B. Equivalent noise resistance
C. Noise temperature
D. Noise figure.
72. Indicate the false statement. Noise figure is defined as
A. the ratio of the S/N power supplied at the input terminal of a receiver or amplifier to
the S/N power supplied to the output or load resistor
B. noise factor expressed in decibels
C. an unwanted form of energy tending to interfere with the proper and easy
reception and reproduction of wanted signals
D. S/N of an ideal system divided by S/N at the output of the receiver or amplifier under
test, both working at the same temperature over the same bandwidth and fed from the
same source
73. Calculated the noise figure of the amplifier whose Req equals 2518 (RT=600) if its
driven by a generator whose output impedance is 50.
A. 39.4
B. 3.94
C. 394
D. 0.394
74. Calculate the noise figure of the receiver whose RF amplifier has an input resistance of
1000 and an equivalent shot-noise resistance of 2000, a gain of 25 and load resistance
of 125 k. Given that the bandwidth is 1.0MHz and the temperature is 20C, and that the
receiver is connected to an antenna with an impedance of 75.
A. 30.3
B. 3.03
C. 303
D. .303
75. A receiver connected to an antenna whose resistance is 50 has an equivalent noise
resistance of 30. Calculate its equivalent noise temperature if the noise figure is equal
to 1.6.
A. 17.4 K
B. 174K
C. 1.74K
D. 17K
76. Most internal noise comes from
A. Shot noise
B. Transit-time noise
C. Thermal agitation
D. Skin effect
77. Which of the following is not a source of external noise?
A. Thermal agitation
B. Auto ignition
C. The sun
D. Fluorescent lights
78. Noise can be reduced by
A. widening the bandwidth
B. narrowing the bandwidth
C. increasing temperature
D. increasing transistor current levels
79. Noise at the input to the receiver can be as high as several
A. microvolts
B. milivolts
C. volts
D. kilo volts
80. Which circuit contributes most of the noise in a receiver?
A. IF amplifier
B. Demodulator
C. AF amplifier
D. Mixer
81. Which noise figure represents the lowest noise in receiver?
A. 1.6 dB
B. 2.1 dB
C. 2.7 dB
D. 3.4 dB
82. The transistor with the lowest noise figure in the microwave region is a
A. MOSFET
B. Dual-gate MOSFET
C. JFET
D. MESFET
83. What is the noise voltage across a 300 input resistance to a TV set with a 6MHz
bandwidth and temperature of 30C?
A. 2.3 V
B. 3.8V
C. 5.5V
D. 5.4V
84. Which of the following types of noise becomes of great importance at frequencies?
A. Shot noise
B. Random noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Transit-time noise
85. The solar cycle repeats the period of great electrical disturbance approximately every
A. 11 years
B. 10 years
C. 9 years
D. 8 years
86. The square of the thermal noise voltage generated by a resistor is proportional to
A. its resistance
B. its temperature
C. the bandwidth over which it is measured
D. All of the above
87. Noise occurring in the presence of signal resulting from a mismatch between the exact
value of an analog signal and the closet available quantizing step in a digital coder.
A. Quantizing noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Impulse noise
D. Crosstalk
88. Noise consisting of irregular pulses of short duration and relatively high amplitude,
A. Quantizing noise
B. Tone interference
C. Impulse noise
D. Cross talk
89. Noise that occurs via capacitive or inductive coupling in a cable.
A. Crosstalk
B. Quantizing noise
C. Reference noise
D. Tone interference
90. Sources of impulse noise induced in communication channels.
A. Erroneous digital coding bit caused by an error on a transmission facility
B. Transients due to relay operation
C. Crosstalk from dc signaling systems
D. All of these
91. Crosstalk due to incomplete suppression of sidebands or to intermodulation of two or
more frequency-multiplexed channels which is unintelligible is classified as
A. Impulse noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Quantizing noise
D. Miscellaneous noise
92. ___________ is device that measures the internal open circuit voltage of an equivalent
noise generator having an impedance of 600 and delivering noise power to a 600
load.
A. Psophometer
B. Barometer
C. Reflectometer
D. Voltmeter
93. External noise originating outside the solar system
A. Cosmic noise
B. Solar noise
C. Thermal noise
D. Lunar noise
94. A noise whose source is within the solar system.
A. Solar noise
B. Thermal noise
C. Cosmic noise
D. Johnson Noise
95. The total noise power present in a 1-Hz bandwidth .
A. Noise density
B. Noise figure
C. Noise limit
D. Noise intensity
96. Which of the following is not a way of minimizing if not eliminating noise?
A. Use redundancy
B. Increase transmitted power
C. Reduce signaling rate
D. Increase channel bandwidth
97. What is the primary cause of atmospheric noise?
A. Thunderstorm
B. Lightning
C. Thunderstorm and lightning
D. Weather condition
98. What do you call the noise coming from the sun and stars?
A. Black-body noise
B. Space noise
C. Galactic noise
D. All of these
99. The major cause of atmospheric or static noise are
A. Thunderstorms
B. Airplanes
C. Meteor showers
D. All of these
100. Which of the following low noise transistors is commonly used at microwave
frequencies?
A. MOSFET
B. GASFET
C. MESFET
D. JFET
Satellite Communications Chapter 10(3001 Questions in Communications EngineeringEXCEL REVIEW CENTER

1. Which of the following is the first active satellite?
A. Echo I
B. Telstar I
C. Early Bird
D. Sputnik I
2. Which of the following is the first commercial satellite?
A. Early Bird
B. Telstar
C. Explorer
D. Courier
3. What is the first passive satellite transponder?
A. Sun
B. Early Bird
C. Score
D. Moon
4. The first satellite to receive and transmit simultaneously
A. Intelsat I
B. Agila I
C. Syncorn I
D. Telstar I
5. A helical antenna is used for satellite tracking because of
A. circular polarization
B. maneuverability
C. beamwidth
D. gain
6. Repeaters inside communications satellites are known as
A. Trancievers
B. Transponders
C. Transducers
D. TWT
7. Considered as the unsolved problem in satellite system
A. Coverage
B. Cost
C. Access
D. Privacy
8. ___________ is a satellite that rotates around the earth in a low-altitude elliptical or
circular pattern.
A. Geosynchronous satellite
B. Nonsynchronous satellite
C. Prograde satellite
D. Retrograde satellite
9. Is the geographical representation of a satellite antenna radiation pattern
A. Footprint
B. Spot
C. Earth
D. Region
10. The smallest beam of a satellite antenna radiation pattern
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
11. A satellite beam that covers almost 42.4% of the earths surface.
A. Zone beam
B. Hemispheric beam
C. Spot beam
D. Global beam
12. What is the frequency range of C-band?
A. 8.5 to 12.5 GHz
B. 3.4 to 6.425 GHz
C. 12.95 to 14.95 GHz
D. 27.5 to 31 GHz
13. A satellite signal transmitted from a satellite transponder to earths station.
A. Uplink
B. Downlink
C. Terrestrial
D. Earthbound
14. Collects very weak signals from a broadcast satellite
A. Helical antenna
B. Satellite dish
C. LNA
D. TWT
15. What is a device that detects both vertically and horizontally polarized signals
simultaneously?
A. Orthomode transducer
B. Crystal detector
C. Optoisolator
D. Isomode detector
16. _________ detects the satellite signal relayed from the feed and converts it to an electric
current, amplifies and lower its frequency.
A. Horn antenna
B. LNA
C. Satellite receiver
D. Satellite dish
17. Is a loss of power of a satellite downlink signal due to earths atmosphere.
A. Atmospheric loss
B. Path loss
C. Radiation loss
D. RFI
18. What height must a satellite be placed above the surface of the earth in order for its
rotation to be equal to earths rotation?
A. 26,426.4 miles
B. 27,426.4 miles
C. 23,426.4 miles
D. 22,426.4 miles
19. Point on the satellite obits closest to the earth.
A. Apogee
B. Perigee
C. Prograde
D. Zenith
20. The earth area covered by a satellite radio beam.
A. Beamwidth
B. Bandwidth
C. Footprint
D. Zone
21. What is the local oscillator (mixer) frequency of the satellite with an uplink frequency in
GHz band?
A. 3500 MHz
B. 4500 MHz
C. 2225 MHz
D. 2555 MHz
22. What kind of battery panels are used in some advance satellites
A. Germanium based panels
B. Silicon based panel
C. Galium Phosphate solar panel array
D. Galium Arsenide solar panel array
23. Satellite engine uses
A. jet propulsion
B. ion propulsion system

C. liquid fuel
D. solar jet
24. A satellite batter has more power but lighter.
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
25. What kind of battery used by older satellites?
A. Lithium
B. Leclanche
C. Hydrogen
D. Magnesium
26. VSAT was made available in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1977
27. What band does VSAT first operate?
A. L-band
B. X-band
C. C-band
D. Ku-band
28. The first Philippine Mabuhay satellite has how many channels?
A. 30
B. 24
C. 48
D. 50
29. The first Philippine Agila I will have how many transpoders.
A. 36
B. 48
C. 24
D. 12
30. How may satellite orbital slots are requested by the Philippine Government from ITU?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
31. The location of AsiaSat I.
A. 105.5East
B. 151.5East
C. 115.5East
D. 170.5East
32. AsiaSat I covers how many countries in Asia?
A. 38
B. 10
C. 28
D. 15
33. The owner of AsiaSat 2 is
A. Asia Satellite Telecommunications Company (ASTC)
B. Japan Satellite System (JSAT)
C. China Great Wall Industry Corporation
D. Singapore Satellite Commision
34. What is the approximate path loss from satellite-to-earth station?
A. 100 dB
B. 150 dB
C. 175 dB
D. 200 dB
35. INTELSAT stands for
A. Intel Satellite
B. International Telephone Satellite
C. International Telecommunications Satellite
D. International Satellite
36. The frequency of Ku band for satellite communications.
A. 6/4 GHz
B. 14/11 GHz
C. 12/14 GHz
D. 4/8 GHz
37. A satellite cross-link means
A. Earth-to-satellite link
B. Satellite-to-earth link
C. Satellite-to-satellite link
D. None of these
38. Earth station uses what type of antenna
A. Despun antenna
B. Helical antenna
C. Toroidal antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
39. What is the delay time for satellite transmission from earth transmitter to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1.0 s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 ms
40. The bandwidth of C-band satellite frequency band in U.S.
A. 500 GHz
B. 1000 GHz
C. 1000 MHz
D. 500 MHz
41. The most common device used as an LNA is
A. zener diode
B. tunnel diode
C. IMPATT
D. Shockley diode
42. The radiation patterns of earth coverage antennas have a beamwidth of approxiamately
A. 21
B. 5
C. 17
D. 35
43. A mobile satellite array has usually how many elements?
A. 6
B. 88
C. 12
D. 14
44. In a typical mobile satellite array antenna if three elements are activated, how many
elements are deactivated?
A. 3
B. 11
C. 5
D. 9
45. What circuit is responsible in activating and deactivating adjacent antenna elements in a
mobile satellite array?
A. Radial divider
B. Divider/combiner
C. Radial combiner
D. Radial multiplexer
46. Most mobile satellite array uses ___________ in transforming 50 to 150 impedance.
A. stub
B. balun
C. quarter-wavelength transformer
D. microstrip tapers.
47. The switching from one element to the other element in a typical mobile satellite array.
A. Series
B. Radial
C. Matrix
D. Shunt
48. A method of multiple accessing where a given RF channel bandwidth is divided inot
smaller frequency band.
A. CDMA
B. ANIK-D
C. TDMA
D. FDMA
49. What is the delay time for satellite transmissions from earth transmitter to earth receiver?
A. 0.5 s
B. 1s
C. 5 ms
D. 0.25 s
50. As the height of a satellite orbit gets lower, the speed of the satellite _________.
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. None of the above
51. The main function of a communications satellite is a/ an
A. repeater
B. reflector
C. beacon
D. observation platform
52. The key electronic component in a communications satellite is the
A. telemetry equipment
B. on-board computer
C. command and control system
D. transponder
53. A circular orbit around the equator with a 24-h period is called a/an
A. elliptical orbit
B. geostationary orbit
C. polar orbit
D. transfer orbit
54. A satellite stay in orbit because the following two factors are balanced
A. Satellite weight and speed
B. Gravitational force and centrifugal force
C. Centripetal force and speed
D. Satellite weight and the pull of the moon and sun

55. What is the height of a satellite in a synchronous equatorial orbit?
A. 42000 mi
B. 6800 mi
C. 22,300 mi
D. 35,860 mi
56. Most satellites operate in which frequency band?
A. 30 to 300 MHz
B. 300 MHz to 3 GHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
D. Above 300 GHz
57. The main power sources for a satellite are
A. batteries
B. solar cells
C. fuel cells
D. thermoelectric generators
58. The maximum height of an elliptical orbit is called the
A. Perigee
B. Apex
C. Zenith
D. Apogee
59. Batteries are used to power all satellite subsystems
A. at all times
B. only during emergencies
C. during eclipse periods
D. to give the solar arrays a rest
60. The satellite subsystem that monitors and controls the satellite is the
A. propulsion subsystem
B. power subsystem
C. communications subsystem
D. telemetry, tracking, and command subsystem
61. What is the basic technique used to stabilize a satellite?
A. Gravity-forward motion balance
B. Spin
C. Thruster control
D. Solar panel orientation
62. The jet thrusters are usually fired to
A. maintain altitude
B. put the satellite into the transfer orbit
C. inject the satellite in the geosynchronous orbit
D. bring the satellite back to earth.

63. Most commercial satellite activity occurs in which band(s)?
A. L
B. C and Ku
C. X
D. S and P
64. How can multiple earth stations share a satellite on the same frequencies?
A. Frequency reuse
B. Multiplexing
C. Mixing
D. Frequency hopping
65. What is the typical bandwidth of a satellite band?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
66. Which of the following is not usually a part of a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. Mixer
C. Modulator
D. HPA
67. The satellite communications channels in a transponder are defined by the
A. LNA
B. bandpass filter
C. mixer
D. input signals
68. The HPAs in most satellite are
A. TWTs
B. Klystrons
C. Vacuum tubes
D. Magnetrons
69. The physical location of a satellite is determined by its
A. distance from the earth
B. latitude and longitude
C. reference to the stars
D. position relative to the sun
70. The receive GCE system in an earth station performs what function(s)?
A. Modulation and multiplexing
B. Up conversion
C. Demodulation and demultiplexing
D. Down conversion
71. Which of the following types of HPA is not used in earth stations?
A. TWT
B. Transistor
C. Klystron
D. Magnetron
72. What is the common up-converter and down-converter IF?
A. 36 MHz
B. 40 MHz
C. 70 MHz
D. 500 MHz
73. What type of modulation is used on voice and video signals?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
74. What modulation is normally used with digital data?
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. QPSK
75. Which of the following is not a typical output from a GPS receiver?
A. Latitude
B. Speed
C. Altitude
D. Longitude
76. The total space loss of transmission and reception for two ground stations with uplink
frequency 8GHz and a downlink of 6 GHz with angle of elevations of 3 and 7 A
respectively is
A. 403 dB
B. 100 dB
C. 20 dB
D. 215 dB
77. The maximum propagation delay of a geostationary satellite is
A. 278 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 300 ms
D. 250 ms
78. The total propagation delay time from transmission to reception of signals from a ground
transmitter to ground receiver with angle of elevation at 10 degrees respectively is
A. 273 ms
B. 239 ms
C. 275 ms
D. 260 ms
79. A satellite which simply reflects the signal without further amplification
A. Passive satellite
B. Active satellite
C. Geostationary satellite
D. Domestic satellite
80. Essentially a satellite ___________ is a radio repeater in the sky
A. transponder
B. comparator
C. duplexer
D. billboard
81. Satellite the orbits in a circular pattern with an angular velocity equal to that of the earth
A. Geostationary
B. Early Bird I
C. Syncorn I
D. Stationary satellite
82. Satellite that provide services within a single country
A. Domsat
B. Comsat
C. Regional
D. Global
83. The round-trip propagation delay between two earth stations through a geosynchronous
satellite is
A. 500 to 600 ms
B. 300 to 400 ms
C. 600 to 700 ms
D. 400 to 500 ms
84. The signal path from earth station satellite
A. Uplink signal
B. Reflected signal
C. Incident signal
D. Downlink signal
85. Designed to receive a signal from a transmitting station on the ground and retransmit it to
a receiving station located elsewhere
A. Communication satellite
B. Repeater
C. Relay station
D. Transponder
86. The signal path from satellite to earth-based receiver.
A. Downlink signal
B. Uplink signal
C. Incident signal
D. Reflected signal
87. A satellite position is measured by its __________ angle with respect to the horizon.
A. elevation
B. depression
C. azimuth
D. critical
88. The ________ angle measures the satellite position clockwise from the direction of true
north.
A. azimuth
B. elevation
C. depression
D. critical
89. incidentally propose the geostationary scheme or orbit of the satellite in 1940s
A. Arthur Clarke
B. Carl Friedrich Gauss
C. Samuel Morse
D. Stephen Gray
90. When the satellite are spaced 4 of the 360 complete circle, how many parking spaces or
orbit slots are available?
A. 90
B. 85
C. 95
D. 80
91. The control routine necessary to keep the satellite in position is referred to as
A. station keeping
B. station tracking
C. station monitoring
D. station maintaining
92. Refers to the satellite orientation with respect to the earth
A. Satellite altitude
B. Satellite position
C. Satellite location
D. Satellite orbit
93. The first intelsat satellite that was launched in 1965 was named
A. Early Bird I
B. Echo
C. Telstar I
D. Courier
94. The first satellite launched for a geosynchronous orbit but unfortunately lost during orbit
injection
A. Syncom I
B. Telstar I
C. Sputnik I
D. Early Bird I
95. When the elevation angle of a geostationary satellite is 23 and the transmitting frequency
is 3840 MHz, what is the free space loss in dB?
A. 196 dB
B. 200 dB
C. 150 dB
D. 100 dB
96. What is the propagation delay when a signal is transmitter by an earth station to a
geosynchronous satellite about 38,500 km above earths equator and then received by the
same earth station?
A. 256 msec
B. 128 msec
C. 300 msec
D. 400 msec
97. What is the free space attenuation of a satellite communications system operating at
36,000 km above the earth at 5.0 GHz?
A. 198 dB
B. 202 dB
C. 142 dB
D. 138 dB
98. Which of the following is the most common application of satellite?
A. Surveillance
B. Military application
C. Communications
D. Newscasting
99. Descending pass for a satellite means a pass from
A. North to South
B. South to North
C. East to West
D. West to East
100. Geostationary stationary satellites are located ___________ with respect to the equator.
A. 0longitude
B. 0 latitude
C. 90latitude
D. 45 latitude
3001 Questions in Communications Engineering EXCEL REVIEW CENTER

Chapter 6 - Antennas
1. What is the polarization of a discone antenna?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Circular
D. Spiral
2. If the antenna increases 3.3 times how much does the radiated power increase?
A. 3.3 times
B. 10.89 times
C. 9.9 times
D. 6.6 times
3. When speaking of antennas. ______ is a section which would be a complete antenna by itself.
A. image
B. top loading
C. bay
D. quarterwave
4. In what range of frequencies are most omnidirectional horizontally polarized antennas used?
A. VHF, UHF
B. VLF, LF
C. SH, EHF
D. MF, HF
5. If the current ratios of the two or more elements must be held 5% and the phase angle to 3 the
antenna is called a
A. end fire array
B. critical phased array
C. broadband array
D. wideband array
6. A device that converts high frequency current into electromagnetic wave.
A. Antenna
B. Loudspeaker
C. Microphone
D. Transducer
7. Which is a non-resonant antenna?
A. Rhombic antenna
B. Folded dipole
C. End-fire array
D. Yagi-Uda antenna
8. Gain of a half-wave dipole antenna over isotropic.

A. 2.15 dB
B. 1.76 dB
C. 1 dB
D. 0dB
9. Very low signal strength in antenna.
A. Minor lobes
B. Null
C. Antenna patterns
D. Major lobes
10. What is the gain of the Hertzian dipole over isotropic antenna?
A. 1.64 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 1.76 dB
D. 1.55 dB
11. ______ is the measurement of a unilateral antenna properties of directivity
A. Phase angle
B. Antenna gain
C. Beamwidth
D. Bandwidth
12. In testing transmitter to prevent interfering with other stations, which type of antenna must be
used?
A. Void antenna
B. Dummy antenna
C. Hertzian antenna
D. Isotropic antenna
13. The best solution to fading is _____.
A. space diversity
B. frequency diversity
C. polarization diversity
D. wavelength diversity
14. _____ is the amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols
A. Bandwidth
B. Enthalpy
C. Entropy
D. Quantum
15. If an antenna has a gain of 3 dB, it increases the output of the transmitter by
A. 10,000 times
B. 1000 times
C. 100 times
D. 1 million times
16. Top loading is used in an antenna in order to increase its ______.
A. practical height
B. beamwidth
C. effective height
D. input capacitance
17. A horizontal antenna is _____.
A. vertically polarized
B. horizontally polarized
C. centrally polarized
D. circularly polarized
18. All elements in a beam _____ antennas are in line
A. collinear
B. yagi
C. broadside array
D. log-periodic
19. Which does not use vertical polarization antenna?
A. AM Broadcasting
B. FM Broadcasting
C. Mobile Communications
D. Satellite Communications
20. Lightning rods must be mounted a top structure not less than ___ above the highest point.
A. 10 cm
B. 20 cm
C. 30 cm
D. 40 cm
21. _____ is an antenna with a number of half-wave antenna on it.
A. Antenna array
B. Tower
C. Omni-directional
D. Rhombic
22. Which antenna radiates an omnidirectional pattern in the horizontal plane with vertical
polarization?
A. Marconi antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Helical antenna
23. An antenna with very high gain and very narrow beamwidth.
A. Helical antenna
B. Discone antenna
C. Horn antenna
D. Parabolic dish antenna
24. What determines antenna polarization?
A. The frequency of the radiated wave
B. The direction of the radiated wave
C. The direction of the magnetic field vector
D. The direction of the electric field vector
25. _____ is the horizontal pointing angle of an antenna
A. Azimuth
B. Angle of elevation
C. Right angle
D. Beamwidth
26. A dipole antenna requires to be fed with 20 kW of power to produce a given signal strength
to a particular distant point. If the addition of a reflector makes the same field strength available
with an input power of 11kW. What is the gain in dB, obtained by the use if the reflector. (Gain
referred to this particular dipole).
A. 4.75
B. 2.6
C. 1.81
D. 4.24
27. What is the estimated medium wind loading in the Philippines for antenna tower design?
A. 300 kph
B. 100 kph
C. 200 kph
D. 250 kph
28. Discone radiation pattern is ______.
A. omnidirectional/vertical polarized
B. unidirectional
C. bidirectional
D. figure of eight
29. _____ is an open-ended slot antenna

A. Helical antenna
B. Rhombic antenna
C. Notch antenna
D. Cassegrain antenna
30. Which antenna is a properly terminated?
A. Marconi
B. Rhombic
C. Dipole
D. Yagi-Uda
31. What is the radiation characteristic of a dipole antenna?
A. Omnidirectional
B. Bidirectional
C. Unidirectional
D. Hemispherical
32. What is the theoretical gain of a Hertzian dipole?
A. 1.76 dB
B. 2.15 dB
C. 3 dB
D. 0 dB
33. An antenna with unity gain
A. Rhombic
B. Half-wave dipole
C. Isotropic
D. Whip
34. How will you increase the gain of an antenna?
A. By adding several antennas in parallel
B. By focusing the radiated energy in one desired direction
C. By making antenna rods thicker
D. By making the antenna size larger
35. An antenna which is one-tenth wavelength long
A. Hertzian dipole
B. Loop antenna
C. Marconi antenna
D. Elementary doublet
36. What is the minimum number of turns a helix antenna must have?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6
37. What is the gain of isotropic antenna?
A. 10
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
38. Which of the following improves antenna directivity?
A. Driven element
B. Reflector element
C. Director element
D. Parasitic element
39. The antenna radiates _____ polarized waves when the transmitter antenna is horizontally
installed.
A. Vertically
B. negatively
C. horizontally
D. circularly
40. The length of a Marconi antenna to operate with 985 kHz is ______.
A. 200 ft
B. 500 ft
C. 250 ft
D. 999 ft
41. What is the front-to-back ratio of an antenna which radiates 500 watts in a northernly
direction and 50 watts in a southernly direction?
A. 25000 dB
B. 10 dB
C. 100 dB
D. 20 dB
42. If 4 kW in antenna produces 50 V/m in a receiving antenna, a 15 kW will produce _____.
A. 200 V/m
B. 10 V/m
C. 100 V/m
D. 20 V/m
43. If the radiated power increase 10.89 times, the antenna current increases by ______.
A. 3.3 times
B. 6.6 times
C. 1.82 times
D. 10.89 times
44. The frequency of operation of a dipole antenna cut to a length of 3.4 m.
A. 88 MHz
B. 44 MHz
C. 22 MHz
D. 11 MHz
45. Comparing the signal strength arriving at the driven element from the desired direction to the
signal strength reaching the driver from the opposite direction.
A. Directivity
B. Sensitivity
C. Beamwidth
D. Front-to-back ratio
46. What is the capture area of a dipole operated at 75 MHz?
A. 4 mm
B. 2 m2
C. 2.088 m2
D. 4.088 m2
47. _____ of an antenna is a measure of how the antenna concentrates its radiated power in a
given direction.
A. Efficiency
B. Power
C. Gain
D. Polarization
48. Shortening effect of an antenna that makes it appear as if it were 5% longer.
A. End effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Skin effect
D. Capture effect
49. Harmonic suppressor connected to an antenna.
A. Low-pass filter
B. High-pass filter
C. M-derived filter
D. Constant-K
50. A simple half-wavelength antenna radiates the strongest signal

A. at 45 degrees to its axis
B. parallel to its axis
C. at right angles to its axis
D. at 60 degrees to its axis
51. The current maximum in a Marconi antenna is found at
A. the base of the antenna
B. the center of the antenna
C. some point between the base and the center of the antenna
D. the top of the antenna
52. If an antenna is too short for the wavelength being used, the effective length can be increased
by adding:
A. capacitance in series
B. inductance in series
C. resistance in parallel
D. resistance in series
53. Which of the following antennas is used for testing and adjusting a transmitter for proper
modulation, amplifier operation and frequency accuracy?
A. Elementary
B. Real
C. Isotropic
D. Dummy
54. The power fed to a two-bay turnstile antenna is 100 watts. If the antenna has a 2 dB power
gain, what is the effective radiated power?
A. 317 watts
B. 158 watts
C. 200 watts
D. 400 watts
55. What is the gain, in dB of a helical antenna with diameter of /3, 10 turns at pitch of /4,
used at 100 MHz?
A. 16
B. 41.1
C. 31.4
D. 1.25
56. How is it possible to lower the resonant frequency of Hertz dipole antenna?
A. By reducing the frequency at the transmitter
B. By connecting a capacitor in series with the antenna
C. By the connecting a resistor in series with the antenna
D. By connecting an inductor in series with the antenna
57. Which of the following antennas receive signals in the horizontal plane equality well from
all directions?
A. Horizontal Hertz antenna
B. Vertical loop antenna
C. Vertical Yagi antenna
D. A vertical antenna which is a quarter-wavelength long
58. If the length of a Hertz dipole is decreased
A. its resonant frequency will be lowered its distributed inductance will be increased
B. its distributed inductance will be decreased
C. its resonant frequency will be increased
D. its distributed capacitance between the antenna and ground will be increased.
59. A final amplifier of a radio transmitter draws 250 mA of plate current when the plate supply
voltage is 1400 volts. If the plate circuit efficiency is 80% and the transmitter is connected to an
antenna having a feed impedance of 70 ohms, what is the antenna current at the feed-point?
A. 4.0 A
B. 2.2 A
C. 1.25 A
D. 2.0 A
60. A one-quarter wavelength shunt-fed vertical Marconi antenna
A. has maximum radiation in a vertical direction
B. must have a horizontal receiving antenna for the best reception
C. must use a receiving antenna for the best reception
D. must have a vertical receiving antenna for the best reception
61. A shunt-fed quarter-wavelength Marconi antenna
A. has maximum RF impedance to ground at its feedpoint
B. has a current null at its feedpoint
C. has a zero DC resistance to ground
D. has zero RF resistance to ground
62. The parasitic element of an antenna system will
A. decrease its directivity
B. increase its directivity
C. give the antenna unidirectional properties
D. both B and C
63. If the length of an antenna is changed from 2.5 meters to 2.8 meters, its resonant frequency
will
A. increase
B. depend on the velocity factor so the resonant frequency can either be increased or
decreased
C. will be unchanged
D. decrease
64. What is the effect of adding a capacitor in series with an antenna?

A. The antennas resonant frequency will increase
B. The antennas resonant frequency will decrease
C. The antenna will be physically 5% longer than its electrical length
D. A capacitor is never added in series with an antenna
65. How does the electric field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance
from the antenna?
A. The field strength of a standard broadcast station vary with the distance from the
antenna
B. The field strength is directly proportional to the distance from the antenna
C. The field strength remains constant regardless of the distance from the antenna
D. The field strength varies inversely as the distance from the antenna
66. Stacking elements in a transmitting antenna system
A. increases the field strength at the receiving antenna
B. increases the directivity of the transmitter antenna
C. decrease the size of the lobe in the radiation pattern
D. both A and B
67. A vertical loop antenna has a
A. unidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
B. unidirectional radiation pattern in the vertical plane
C. omnidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
D. a bidirectional radiation pattern in the horizontal plane
68. In order to get maximum radiation to all surrounding points in the horizontal plane, the
antenna used is a
A. vertical loop
B. vertical quarter-wavelength rod
C. array which includes parasitic elements
D. a horizontal Hertz dipole
69. What is the electrical wavelength of a 500 MHz signal?
A. 60 centimeters
B. 6 meters
C. 0.06 meter
D. 60 meters
70. If the antenna current is doubled, the field strength at a particular position is
A. doubled
B. halved
C. multiplied by a factor of four
D. divided by a factor of four
71. The rhombic antenna is primarily used for

A. ground wave propagation
B. space wave propagation
C. ionosphere scatter propagation
D. sky wave propagation
72. What antenna radiates equally in all directions?
A. Vertical antenna
B. isotropic antenna
C. Horizontal antenna
D. Dipole antenna
73. Actual height of antenna should be at least
A. one wavelength
B. half wavelength
C. quarter wavelength
D. three-fourth wavelength
74. Which antenna is not properly terminated?
A. Resonant
B. Non-resonant
C. Isotropic
D. Whip
75. ______ is an antenna array which is highly directional at right angles to the plane of the
array?
A. Broadside array
B. End-fire array
C. Turnstile array
D. Log-periodic array
76. The directivity pattern of an isotropic radiator is
A. a figure-8
B. a sphere
C. a unidirectional cardioid
D. a parabola
77. An isotropic radiator is
A. in the northern hemisphere
B. an antenna high enough in the air
C. an antenna whose directive pattern is substantially incredible
D. a hypothetical, omnidirectional antenna
78. The purpose of stacking elements on an antenna.

A. Sharper directional pattern
B. increased gain
C. Improved bandpass
D. All of these
79. The advantage of using top loading in a shortened HF vertical antenna is
A. lower quality factor
B. greater structural strength
C. higher losses
D. improved radiation efficiency
80. Where are the voltage nodes in a half-wave antenna?
A. At the ends
B. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
C. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
D. At the feed point
81. A theoretical reference antenna that provides a comparison for antenna measurements.
A. Marconi antenna
B. Isotropic radiator
C. Yagi-Uda array
D. Whip antenna
82. A Hertz antenna is operating on a frequency of 2182 kHz and consists of a horizontal wire
that is hanged between two towers. What is the frequency of its third harmonic?
A. 727 kHz
B. 6546 kHz
C. 436 kHz
D. 6.546 kHz
83. In horizontal-dipole antenna, the polarization is
A. in the vertical direction
B. in the horizontal direction
C. circular
D. measured at the center of the antenna
84. Increasing the electrical length of an antenna means
A. add an inductor in parallel
B. add a capacitor in series
C. add an inductor series
D. add a resistor is series
85. Stacking antennas at various angles results in

A. a more omnidirectional reception
B. a more unidirectional reception
C. a more omnidirectional reception
D. an overall reception signal increase
86. What is driven element?
A. Always the rearmost element
B. Always the forward most element
C. The element fed by the transmission line
D. The element connected to the rotator
87. What is antenna bandwidth?
A. Antenna length divided by the number of elements
B. The angle between the half-power radiation points
C. The angle formed between two imaginary lines drawn through
D. The frequency range over which an antenna can be expected to operate
satisfactorily
88. To lengthen an antenna electrically, add a
A. resistor
B. battery
C. condult
D. coil
89. What is the gain of an antenna over a half-wavelength dipole when it has 6 dB gain over an
isotropic radiator?
A. 6.0 dB
B. 8.1 dB
C. 3.9 dB
D. 10.0 dB
90. What is the usual electrical length of a driven element in an HF beam antenna?
A. wavelength
B. wavelength
C. wavelength
D. 1 wavelength
91. What happens to the bandwidth of an antenna as it is shortened through the use of loading
coils?
A. It is increased
B. It is decreased
C. No change occurs
D. It becomes flat
92. To electrically decrease the length of an antenna.

A. add an inductor in series
B. add an inductor in parallel
C. add a resistor in series
D. add a capacitor in series
93. Strong interference from one particular station can be eliminated by the use of
A. noise limiters
B. squelch circuits
C. negative feedback
D. wave traps in the antenna circuitry
94. It is useful to refer to an isotropic radiator.
A. when comparing the gains of directional antennas
B. when testing a transmission line for standing wave ratio
C. when (in the northern hemisphere) directing the transmission
D. when using a dummy load to tune a transmitter
95. A disadvantage of using a trap antenna.
A. It will radiate harmonics
B. It can only be used for single-bad operation
C. It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
D. It must be neutralized
96. The input terminal impedance at the center of a folded dipole antenna is
A. 72
B. 300
C. 50
D. 73
97. When a capacitor is connected in series with a Marconi antenna?
A. Antenna open circuit stops transmission
B. An inductor of equal value must be added
C. No change occurs to antenna
D. Antenna resonant frequency increases
98. Where are the current nodes in a half-wave antenna?
A. At the ends
B. At the center
C. Three-quarters of the way from the feed point toward the end
D. One-half of the way from the feed point toward the end
99. For a shortened vertical antenna, where should a loading coil be placed to minimize losses
and produce the most effective performance?
A. As low as possible on the vertical radiator
B. Near the center of the vertical radiator
C. As close to the transmitter as possible
D. At a voltage node
100. The effect of adding parasitic elements of a Hertz dipole is to
A. make the antenna more omnidirectional
B. reduce its resonant frequency
C. increase the antennas power gain
D. All of these
101. Stacking antenna elements
A. increases sensitivity to weak signals
B. will suppress odd harmonics
C. decrease signal to noise ratio
D. increases selectivity
102. In the case if Marconi antenna, the actual length if the radiating element is
A. one-half wavelength
B. one-quarter wavelength
C. one wavelength
D. one-eight wavelength
103. The antenna efficiency of an HF grounded vertical antenna can be made comparable to that
of a half-wave antenna
A. By installing a good ground radial system
B. By isolating the coax shield from ground
C. By shortening the vertical
D. By lengthening the vertical
104. An antenna efficiency is computed by using one of the following equations.
A. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / transmission resistance)
B. Efficiency = (total resistance / radiation resistance) x 100%
C. Efficiency = (effective radiated power / transmitter output) x 100%
D. Efficiency = (radiation resistance / total resistance) x 100%
105. Increasing the resonant frequency of an end-fed Marconi antenna can be done by
A. adding a capacitor in series and reducing the physical length
B. adding an inductor in series
C. adding an inductor in series
D. All of these
106. Factors that determine the radiation resistance of an antenna

A. Transmission line length and height of antenna
B. The location of the antenna with respect to nearby objects
C. It is a constant for all antennas since it is physical
D. Sunspot activity and the time of day
107. _____ is the angle between the half-power radiation points
A. Critical angle
B. Beamwidth
C. Angle of elevation
D. Azimuth
108. What is the ratio of the maximum radiation intensity to the average radiation intensity?
A. Aperture gain
B. Directivity gain
C. Transmission gain
D. Power gain
109. Good grounding is important for
A. horizontal antennas
B. broadside array antennas
C. vertical antennas
D. Yagi-Uda antennas
110. An ungrounded antenna near the ground
A. acts as a single antenna of twice the height
B. is unlikely to need an earth mat
C. acts as antenna array
D. must be horizontally polarized
111. One of the following is very useful as a multiband HF receiving antenna.
A. Parabolic antenna
B. Elementary doublet
C. Log-periodic
D. Square loop
112. Which of the following antennas is best excited from a waveguide?
A. Biconical
B. Horn
C. Helical
D. Discone
113. Indicate which of the following reasons for using metal counterpoise with antennas is false.
A. Impossibly of a good ground connection
B. Protection of personnel working underneath
C. Provision of an earth for the antenna
D. Rockiness of the ground itself
114. Not a reason for the use of an antenna coupler.
A. To make the antenna look resistive
B. To provide the output amplifier with the correct load impedance
C. To discriminate against harmonics
D. To prevent re-radiation of the local oscillator
115. Which antenna is not a wideband?
A. Discone
B. Folded dipole
C. Helical
D. Marconi
116. One of the following is not a reason for the use of an earth mat
A. impossibility of a good ground connection
B. provision of an earth for the antenna
C. protection of personnel working underneath
D. improvement of the radiation pattern of the antenna
117. One of the following makes an antenna physically long but electrically short
A. Adding L in series
B. Adding C in series
C. Top loading
D. Both A and C
118. When antennas are closed to the ground, _______ polarization is ideal
A. horizontally polarized
B. vertically polarized
C. circularly polarized
D. both A and B
119. _____ is an antenna made up of a number of full wavelengths
A. Elementary doublet
B. Log-periodic
C. Long wire
D. Whip
120. Any energy which radiates in the form of radio waves, infrared waves, light waves, x-rays,
etc.
A. Radiant energy
B. Electromagnetic
C. Heat
D. Ultraviolet
121. Which one is an antenna coupling unit?
A. Coupler
B. Diplexer
C. Lecher wire
D. Duplexer
122. _____ polarization is employed in AM broadcasting
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Circular
D. Omnidirectional
123. ______ polarization is employed in FM broadcasting
A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Circular
D. Bidirectional
124. Which antenna is not grounded at one end?
A. Hertz
B. Marconi
C. Dipole
D. Whip
125. Which antenna does not use the ground?
A. Marconi
B. Yagi
C. Hertz
D. Rhombic
OPTICAL FIBER COMMUNICATIONS

1. Founded the wave theory of light
a. Francesco Grimaldi
b. Edward Appleton
c. James Clerk Maxwell
d. Christian Huygens
2. Proposed the use of clad glass fiber as a dielectric waveguide

a. Karpon and Keck
b. Karpon and Bockham
c. Bockham and Kao
d. Kao and Keck
3. Developed the first laser

a. Charles Townes
b. Theodore Maiman
c. Gordon McKenzie
d. Albert Einstein
4. The band of light wavelengths that are too long to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
5. The band of light wavelengths that are too short to be seen by the human eye
a. Amber
b. Visible
c. Infrared
d. Ultraviolet
6. Which color has the shortest wavelength of light?

a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
7. What generates a light beam of a specific visible frequency?

a. Laser
b. Maser
c. Infrared
d. Flashlight
8. Which of the following materials is sensitive to light?

a. Photoresist
b. Photosensitive
c. Light Sensitive
d. Maser
9. The core of an optical fiber has a

a. Lower refracted index than air
b. Lower refractive index than the cladding
c. Higher refractive index than the cladding
d. Similar refractive index with the cladding
10. Is the different angle of entry of light into an optical fiber when the diameter of the core
is many times the wavelength of the light transmitted.
a. Acceptance angle
b. Modes
c. Sensors
d. Aperture
11. The loss in signal power as light travels down a fiber is called
a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Absorption
d. Attenuation
12. The bandwidth of optical fiber
a.
b.
c.
d.
900MHz
900PHz
900THz
900EHz
13. If a mirror is used to reflect light, the reflected light angle is ____ as the incident angle
a. Smaller
b. Larger
c. The same
d. Independent
14. What is a specific path the light takes in an optical fiber corresponding to a certain angle
and number of reflection
a. Mode
b. Grade
c. Numerical Aperture
d. Dispersion
15. Is the width of the range of wavelengths emitted by the light source
a. Bandwidth
b. Chromatic Dispersion
c. Spectral width
d. Beamwidth
16. Which theory states that the light wave behaves as if it consists of many tiny particles?
a. Huygens theory
b. Wave theory of light
c. Nyquist theory
d. Quantum theory
17. Fiber optic cables operate at frequencies near

a. 20MHz
b. 200MHz
c. 2GHz
d. 800THz
18. When a beam of light enters one medium from another, which quantity will not change?
a. Direction
b. Speed
c. Frequency
d. Wavelength
19. Dispersion is used to describe the

a. Splitting of white light into its component colors
b. Propagation of light in straight lines
c. Bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another
d. Bending of a beam light when it strikes a mirror
20. Luminance efficiency is minimum for a

a. Fluorescent tube
b. High wattage light bulb
c. Mercury vapor lamp
d. Low wattage light bulb
21. An object farther from a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an _____
image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
22. An object nearer to a converging lens than its focal point always has a/an ______ image.
a. Inverted
b. The same in size
c. Virtual
d. Smaller size
23. The real image formed by a spherical mirror is ____ relative to its object
a. Erect
b. Inverted
c. Smaller
d. Larger
24. The wavelength of light has no role in

a. Diffraction
b. Interference
c. Polarization
d. Reflection
25. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit

a. Polarization
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Diffraction
26. ________ dispersion is caused by the difference in the propagation times of light rays
that take different paths down a fiber.
a. Material dispersion
b. Wavelength dispersion
c. Modal dispersion
d. Delay dispersion
27. What is the average insertion loss of fusion splice in fiber optics?
a. 0.09dB
b. 0.9dB
c. 0.19dB
d. 0.009dB
28. What is the insertion loss of connector-type splices for a single mode fiber optics?
a. 0.51dB
b. 0.31dB
c. 0.49dB
d. 0.38dB
29. What is the lifetime of LEDs?
a.
b.
c.
d.
200,000 minutes
200,000 hours
150,000 minutes
150,000 hours
30. What is the lifetime of ILDs?

a. 50,000 hours
b. 75,000 hours
c. 100,000 hours
d. 125,000 hours
31. Photodiodes used as fiber optic directors are

a. Unbiased to generate a voltage same as a solar cell
b. Forward bias
c. Reversed bias
d. Thermoelectrically cooled
32. What type of fiber has the highest modal dispersion?

a. Step-index multimode
b. Graded index multimode
c. Step-index single mode
d. Graded index mode
33. Laser light is ______ emission.

a. Coherent
b. Stimulated
c. Spontaneous
d. Coherent and stimulated
34. A dielectric waveguide for the propagation of electromagnetic energy at light frequencies
a. Stripline
b. Microstrip
c. Laser beam
d. Fiber optics
35. Is a non-coherent light source foe optical communications system.

a. ILD
b. LED
c. APD
d. PIN Diode
36. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
37. Which laser emits light in the visible range 400 to 700 nm?
a. Argon-ion
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon-dioxide
d. Neodymium-YAG
38. Which is the proper measurement of average power emitted by a pulsed laser?
a. Energy x time
b. Pulse energy x repetition rate
c. Pulse energy / repetition rate
d. Peak power x pulse length
39. What is the photon energy for an infrared wave with frequency of 10 12 Hz?
a. 10.6 x 1034 joules
b. 6.63 x 10-34 joules
c. 6.63 x 10-22 joules
d. 10.6 x 1022 joules
40. A positive lens with a focal length of 10 cm forms a real image of an object 20 am away
from the lens. How far is the real image from the lens?
a. 5 cm
b. 10 cm
c. 15 cm
d. 20 cm
41. Which of the following factor does not harm laser efficiency?
a. Atmospheric absorption
b. Excitation energy not absorbed
c. Problems in depopulating the lower laser level
d. Inefficiency in populating the upper laser level
42. Which of the following contributes to the broadening of laser emission bandwidth?
a. Doppler shift of moving atoms and molecules
b. Amplification within the laser medium
c. Coherence of the laser light
d. Optical pumping of the laser transition
43. The first laser emitted

a. Pulses of 694 nm red light
b. A continuous red beam
c. Pulses of white light from a helical flashlamp
d. Spontaneous emission
44. What is the stage of the sand becoming a silicon?

a. Liquid
b. Gas
c. Molten
d. Hot
45. Which of the following is used as an optical transmitter on the Fiber Optical
Communications?
a. APD
b. LSA diode
c. PIN diode
d. LED
46. Which of the following is used as an optical receiver in fiber optics communications
a. APD
b. Tunnel diode
c. Laser diode
d. LED
47. The numerical aperture of a fiber if the angle of acceptance is 15 degrees, is

a. 017
b. 0.26
c. 0.50
d. 0.75
48. The inner portion of the fiber cable is called

a. Cladding
b. Coating
c. Inner conductor
d. Core
49. Which type of laser is the simplest to modulate directly by changing its excitation?
a. Semiconductor
b. Ruby
c. Helium-neon
d. Neodymium-YAG
50. The laser frequency when the light has the wavelength 800 nm is
a. 375 x 10^12 Hz
b. 475 x 10^15 Hz
c. 375 x 10^9 Hz
d. 375 x 10^18 Hz
51. Which of the following is not a common application of fiber-optic cable?

a. Computer networks
b. Long-distance telephone systems
c. Closed circuit TV
d. Consumer TV
52. Total internal reflection takes place if the light ray strikes the interface at an angle with
what relationship to the critical angle?
a. Less than
b. Grater than
c. Equal to
d. Zero
53. The operation of the fiber-optic cable is based on the principle of

a. Refraction
b. Reflection
c. Dispersion
d. Absorption
54. Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic cable?

a. Single-mode step-index
b. Multimode graded-index
c. Single-mode graded-index
d. Multimode step-index
55. Cable attenuation is usually expressed in terms of

a. Loss per foot
b. dB/km
c. intensity per mile
d. voltage drop per inch
56. Which of the cable length has the highest attenuation?

a. 1 km
b. 2 km
c. 95 ft
d. 5500 ft
57. The upper pulse rate and information carrying capacity of a cable is limited by
a. Pulse shortening
b. Attenuation
c. Light leakage
d. Modal dispersion
58. The core of a fiber optic cable is made of

a. Air
b. Glass
c. Diamond
d. Quartz
59. The core of a fiber optic is surrounded by

a. Wire braid shield
b. Kevlar
c. Cladding
d. Plastic insulation
60. The speed of light in plastic compared to the speed of light in air is
a. Slower
b. Faster
c. The same
d. Either lower or faster
61. Which of the following is not a major benefit of fiber-optic cable?

a. Immunity from interference
b. No electrical safety problems
c. Excellent data security
d. Lower cost
62. The main benefit of light-wave communications over microwaves or any other
communications media is
a. Lower cost
b. Better security
c. Wider bandwidth
d. Freedom from interference
63. Which of the following is not part of the optical spectrum?

a. Infrafed
b. Ultraviolet
c. Visible color
d. X-rays
64. The wavelength of visible light extends from

a. 0.8 to 1.0 nm
b. 400 to 750 nm
c. 200 to 660 nm
d. 700 to 1200 nm
65. The speed of light is

a. 186,000 mi/h
b. 300 mi/h
c. 300,000 m/s
d. 300,000,000 m/s
66. Refraction is the

a. Bending of light waves
b. Reflection of light waves
c. Distortion of light waves
d. Diffusion of light waves
67. The ratio of speed of light in air to the speed of light in another substance is called the
a. Speed factor
b. Index of reflection
c. Index of refraction
d. Dielectric constant
68. A popular light wavelength in fiber-optic cable is

a. 0.7 um
b. 1.3 um
c. 1.5 um
d. 1.8 um
69. Which type of fiber optic cable is most widely used?

b. Multimode step-index
d. Multimode graded-index
70. Which type of fiber-optic cable is the best for very high speed data?
71. Which type of fiber-optic cable has the least modal dispersion?
a. Single mode step-index
72. Which of the following is not a factor in cable light loss?

a. Reflection
b. Absorption
c. Scattering
d. Dispersion
73. A distance of 8 km is the same as

a. 2.5 mi
b. 5 mi
c. 8 mi
d. 12.9 mi
74. A fiber-optic cable has a loss of 15 dB/km. The attenuation in a cable, 100 ft long is
a. 4.57 dB
b. 9.3 dB
c. 24 dB
d. 49.2 dB
75. Fiber-optic cables with attenuations of 1.8, 3.4, 5.9, and 18 dB are linked together. The
total loss is
a. 7.5 dB
b. 19.8 dB
c. 29.1 dB
d. 650 dB
76. Which light emitter is preferred for high speed data in a fiber-optic system
a. Incandescent
b. LED
c. Neon
d. Laser
77. Most fiber-optic light sources emit light in which spectrum?

a. Visible
b. Infrared
c. Ultraviolet
d. X-ray
78. Both LEDs and ILDs operate correctly with

a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B
79. Single-frequency light is called

a. Pure
b. Intense
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic
80. Laser light is very bright because it is

a. Pure
b. White
c. Coherent
d. Monochromatic
81. Which of the following is NOT a common light detector

a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Photodiode
d. Avalanche photodiode
82. Which of the following is the fastest light sensor

a. PIN photodiode
b. Photovoltaic diode
c. Phototransistor
d. Avalanche photodiode
83. Photodiodes operate property with

a. Forward bias
b. Reverse bias
c. Neither A or B
d. Either A or B
84. The product of the bit rate and distance of a fiber-optic system is 2 Gbits km/s. What is
the maximum rate at 5 km?
a. 100 Mbits/s
b. 200 Mbits/s
c. 400 Mbits/s
d. 1000 Gbits/s
85. Which fiber-optic system is better?

a. 3 repeaters
b. 8 repeaters
c. 11 repeaters
d. 20 repeaters
86. An important requirement for successful transmission system using light

a. Powerful, reliable light source
b. Strong glass
c. Reliable, high cost transmission medium
d. Powerful regenerators
87. What is used to block light from a laser and let other light through
a. Neutral density
b. Color
c. Interference
d. Spatial
88. ________ is a light that can be coherent

a. Spontaneous emission
b. Monochromatic and in-phase
c. Narrow beam divergence
d. Monochromatic
89. Coherence of laser light is important for _________

a. Light propagation
b. Getting laser light to pass through air
c. Drilling holes
d. Holography
90. The ultrapure glass used to manufacture optical fibers is approximately ___pure
a. 99.9 %
b. 99.99 %
c. 99.999%
d. 99.9999%
91. In fiber optics, PCS stands for

a. Plastic-clad-silica
b. Polyethylene-clad-silica
c. Personal carrier system
d. Personal communication
92. How many longitudinal modes can fall within a lasers gain bandwidth?
a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
d. No fixed limit, dependent on bandwidth and mode spacing
93. _________ is the result of photons of light that are absorbed by the atoms of the glass
core molecules
a. Ion resonance absorption
b. Ultraviolet absorption
c. Infrared absorption
d. Absorption loss
94. In fiber optics, SCS stands for

a. Suppressed-clad-silicon
b. Silicon base-class-silica
c. Silica-clad-silica
d. Serial-clad-silicon
95. Human laser was developed by A. Javen at Bell laboratory in

a. 1960
b. 1962
c. 1963
d. 1964
96. What parameter of light detector determines the range or system length that can be
achieved for a given wavelength?
a. Transit time
b. Spectral response
c. Dark current
d. Responsitivity
97. Dark current in light detectors is caused by

a. Thermally generated carriers in the diode
b. The absence of light input
c. Small leakage current
d. Its imperfection
98. What is the unit of responsitivity?

a. Ampere/volt
b. Ampere/watt
c. Watt/ampere
d. Volts/ampere
99. One of the following is not a characteristic of light detectors.

a. Responsitivity
b. Spectral response
c. Transmit time
d. Dispersion
100.
What is the typical wavelength of light emitted from epitaxially grown LEDs?
a. 840 nm
b. 490 nm
c. 480 nm
d. 940 nm
101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
SONET stands for

System Optical Network
Synchronous Optical Network
Silica Optic Network
System Optical Fiber Net
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Band loss is
A reduction in transmitter power caused by earths surface curvature
A reduction in strength of the signal caused by folded dipole bends
An attenuation increase caused by bends radiating from the side of the fiber
All of these
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Infrared range for fiber optics

400 700 nm
700 1200 nm
300 2000 nm
400 7000 nm
104.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is a disadvantage for plastic fiber optics?

Noise immunity
Electric hazards
Higher losses
All of these
105.
a.
b.
c.
d.
OTDR stands for

Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
Optical Transmit Direction Return
Optical Time Domain Time Regeneration
Overtime Direct Reference
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is determined by an OTDR?

Distance to trouble
Length of fiber
Refractive index
All of these
107.
Under normal condition, a single fiber should not be used for a two-way
communication mainly because of
a. Loss
b. Fading
c. Noise
d. Attenuation
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A single mode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.

0.1
0.01
0.2
0.05
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A step-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.

0.02
0.2
2
0.002
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The graded-index multimode optical fiber has a core diameter of _____ nm.
0.5
0.05
0.0005
5
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which is not a possible cause of optical fiber loss?

Impurities
Glass attenuation
Stepped index operation
Microbending
112.
The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum and the speed of light in the material
used.
a. S/N ratio
b. Refractive index
c. Intermodal dispersion
d. Monomode ratio
113.
Splicing fibers means
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fusion
Butt
Glue
Both fusion and butt
114.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An IC that represents a short distance one-way optical communications

Optoisolator
Insulator
Multivibrator
Optical IC
115.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, it produces a loss of

14 %
4%
10 %
1%
116.
When light strikes a flat polished end of a fiber, the fiber loss produced can be
reduced by
a. Splicing
b. Antireflection coating
c. Insulation jacket
d. All of these
117.
a.
b.
c.
d.
In fiber optics, higher-order mode refers to

Cladding boundary at high angle
Backscattering electromagnetic signals
Diffracting signals
All of these
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The following are the cause of light attenuation in fiber optics except
Backscattering
Absorption
Refraction
Microbends
119.
Why are visible-light LEDs not used for fiber optics?
a. It has high losses
b. It has short wave
c. It has low attenuation

d. It has weak signal
120.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Optical cable testers are used for

Checking refractive index
Light power out of a fiber
Non-calibrated light into a fiber
Checking maximum distance covered
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A function of an optic isolator

Cancels reflective waves
Amplifies signal transmitted
Filters unnecessary signals
All of these
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
An increase in light intensity produces fast optic switching due to

Increase in index of glass
Amplification of optical signal
High gain
Photoconductivity
123.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Light traveling in optical fiber follows which of the following principles.

Huygens principle
Reflection theory
Light theory
Snell;s law
124.
Optical fibers for telecommunications are typically about _____ mils thick and
consists of a glass core, a glass cladding of lower index of refraction, and a protective
coating
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Material dispersion is caused by the

Wavelength dependence of the index of refraction
Wavelength independence of the index of refraction
Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number
Independence of the propagation constant on the mode number
126.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Modal dispersion is caused by the

Dependence of wavelength on index of refraction
Dependence of propagation constant on index of refraction
Dependence of the propagation constant on the wavelength
Dependence of the propagation constant on the mode number
127.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The dominant loss mechanisms in silica fiber are

Absorption and radiation losses
Absorption and Rayleigh scattering
Coupling and radiation losses
Radiation and modal dispersion
128.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The bandwidth of a fiber is limited by

Mode
Wavelength
Dispersion
Frequency
129.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Fiber bandwidth is generally specified as the

Product of the bandwidth and distance
Sum of the bandwidth and distance
Difference of the bandwidth and distance
Quotient of bandwidth and distance
130.
The _____ of a detector is the fraction of incident photons that produce a
photoelectron or electron-hole pair
a. Responsitivity
b. Photon efficiency
c. Aperture
d. Quantum efficiency
131.
a.
b.
c.
d.
132.
In solid-state optical detectors, the excited charge is transported in the solid by

Holes and protons
Holes and electrons
Anion and cation
Protons and photons
One of the following is not a solid-state optical detector
a.
b.
c.
d.
APD
PIN
PMT
Phototransistors
133.
Optical detectors are square-law devices because they respond to _____ rather
than amplitude
a. Intensity
b. Light
c. Density
d. Photon
134.
The _____ is equal to the number of electrons emitted per second times the
electron charge
a. Intensity
b. Optical power
c. Photocurrent
d. Responsitivity
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which optical detector is used when high sensitivity and bandwidth are required?
PMT
APD
PIN
Phototransistor
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the average loss in fiber splice?

0.10 dB
0.15 dB
0.20 dB
0.25 dB
137.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following colors is not found in the visible light wave spectrum?
Red
White
Orange
Yellow
138.
What is the frequency limit of an optical fiber?
a. 20 GHz
b. 30 GHz
c. 40 GHz
d. 50 GHz
139.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The mechanical splice attenuation loss is _____ dB or less

0.1
0.01
0.001
1
140.
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____ is applied to protect core and cladding of the fiber

Insulation
Fiber insulation
Silica
Polymer jacket
141.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The energy of the photon is

Directly proportional to its bandwidth
Directly proportional to the Plancks constant
Directly proportional to Boltzmanns constant
Inversely proportional to the Plancks constant
142.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Refractive index of glass

1.0
1.2
1.4
1.5
143.
a.
b.
c.
d.
1.0
1.4
1.8
2.0
144.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the unit of light wavelength?

Micrometer
Angstroms
Mils
Fathom
Refractive index of diamond
145.
a.
b.
c.
d.
How much is the power loss of the fusion splice?

0.1 dB or less
0.01 dB or less
1 dB or less
10 dB or less
146.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Used to test a fiber optics splice

Spectrum analyzer
Oscilloscope
Optical power meter
Field strength meter
147.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A coupler which consists of a series of lenses and a partly reflective surface

Beam-splitting coupler
Reflective star coupler
Fused coupler
None of these
148.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Reflections in many directions

Diffuse reflection
Diffraction
Scattering
Dispersion
149.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Commonly used electro-optic crystal for polarization modulation

Lithium Niobate
Tourmaline
Sodium Chlorate
Sphalerite
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which modulation methods are the most widely used in optical systems?
Phase and frequency modulations
Polarization modulation and phase modulation
Intensity modulation and phase modulation
Intensity modulation and polarization modulation
BROADCASTING
1. Which of the following is the first component of any MATV system to receive
broadcast signals?
a. Filter
b. LNA
c. RF amplifier
d. Antenna
2. Is the most common technique where apartment house, hotels, schools,

condominiums, and multi-unit buildings distribute TV and FM signals to a number of
receivers, using a single head-end.
a. CCTV
b. CATV
c. MATV
d. Antenna
3. TV channel 2, 4 and 5 belong to

a. Low band UHF
b. High band VHF
c. Mid band UHF
d. Low band VHF
4. A mechanism or device which enables the TV camera to move in lateral and tilting
motion
a. Panning device
b. Scanner
c. Tilting
d. Pan/tilt device
5. Which of the following is a solid state imaging device?

a. VIDICON
b. ICONOSCOPE
c. Charge couple device
d. CCTV
6. What class of TV camera lens used to cover short distances?

a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom
7. What class of TV camera lens used to cover long distances?

a. Normal
b. Wide angle
c. Telephoto
d. Zoom
8. What is the local oscillator frequency in commercial AM broadcast if it is equal to

455 kHz?
a. 0 to 1500 kHz
b. 0 to 455 kHz
c. 540 to 1600 kHz
d. 955 to 2055 kHz
9. What is the allowable deviation ratio of commercial FM broadcast?

a. 20
b. 75
c. 5
d. 25
10. The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro
Manila is
a. 5 kW
b. 10 kW
c. 15 kW
d. 20 kW
11. KBP radio code mandates that station must provide a minimum of ___ minutes
a. 30
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60
12. What is the chroma subcarrier signal frequency for color television?
a. 3.8 MHz
b. 6.8 MHz
c. 7.8 MHz
d. 8.8 MHz
13. What is the frequency tolerance of an FM Radio Broadcast station?

a. 20000 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 200 Hz
d. 2000 Hz
14. The minimum frequency separation between frequency of AM broadcasting station

a. 9 kHz
b. 18 kHz
c. 36 kHz
d. 72 kHz
15. The aspect ratio HDTV is

a. 4:3
b. 18:5
c. 14:8
d. 16:9
16. A newscast is a distinct unit of a program with a minimum news content of _____
minute(s) excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
17. In accordance with existing provision of law and the KBP rules and the regulations,
all stations shall actively promote the growth ands the development of Filipino music
by playing _____ OPM every clock hour.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed ____ minutes for a one-hour program
outside Metro Manila
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30
19. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed _____ minutes for a one-hour program
outside Metro Manila.
a. 15
b. 16
c. 17
d. 20
20. Program interruption for airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
_____ breaks in every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not
exceed _____ breaks in every program hour
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
22. For Metro manila, the classification of prime time blocks for FM shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
23. For provincial station, the classification of prime time blocks for FM radio shall be
a. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM
b. 6:00 AM to 12:00 NN
c. 6:00 AM to 6:00 PM
d. 12:00 NN to 12:00 MN
24. All airtime classifications shall be submitted to and subject for approval by the
a. NTC
b. KBP-SA
c. DOTC
d. CCITT
25. _____ is the time circulation for one horizontal trace

a. 52 us
b. 62 us
c. 48 us
d. 50 us
26. Listing of the date and time of events, programs, equipment, tests, malfunctions and
corrections in communications system.
a. Reporting
b. Documentation
c. Log
d. File
27. Which of the following is not a low impedance microphone?

a. Dynamic
b. Velocity
c. Condenser
d. Crystal
28. Facsimile permits remote duplications of which of the following items?

a. Map
b. Pictures
c. Printed page
d. All of these
29. Television has a lot of features in common with

a. FM stereo
b. Telephone service
c. Motion picture
d. Magazine
30. The major component of the TV signal waveform is the

a. Video
b. Radar
c. Stereo
d. Antenna
31. For NTSC TV system, the image is scanned from

a. Top to bottom
b. Left to right
c. Right to left
d. Choices A and B above
32. One completes NTSC scanning cycle called field consists of how many lines
a. 500
b. 525
c. 625
d. 60
33. The field rate in the NTSC television system

a. 30 Hz
b. 120 Hz
c. 60 Hz
d. 15.75 Hz
34. What is the horizontal synchronous blanking pulse rate?

a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75Hz
d. 120 Hz
35. What is the vertical blanking pulse rate?

a. 30 Hz
b. 60 Hz
c. 15.75 Hz
d. 120 Hz
36. The pulses riding on the vertical blanking pulse

a. Equalizing (sync) pulses
b. Serrated vertical sync pulses
c. Black level pulses
d. Choices A and B above
37. Television camera pickup tube is called

a. Vidicon
b. Image orthicon
c. Plumbicon
d. All of the above
38. The television picture tube magnetic fields can be used for
a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
d. Beam modulation
39. What is the purpose of an indirectly-heated cathode in a cathode ray tube?

a. Beam focusing
b. Beam deflection
c. Beam production
d. Beam modulation
40. Video modulation for television is

a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband
41. Audio modulation for television is

a. Amplitude modulation
b. Frequency modulation
c. Vestigial sideband
d. Both amplitude modulation and vestigial sideband
42. What is the maximum frequency deviation for audio modulation in TV transmission?
a. 25 kHz
b. 30 kHz
c. 50 kHz
d. 75 kHz
43. The video carrier and the audio carrier are separated by ____ MHz.
a. 4.5
b. 5.5
c. 6.5
d. 7.5
44. In a practical image scanned at the NTSC rate, the spectrum will include components
clustered at the fundamentals and harmonics of _____ kHz
a. 15.75
b. 30
c. 12.25
d. 45.5
45. Brightness of an image is known as

a. Radiance
b. Chrominance
c. Reflectance
d. Luminance
46. The colors at the vertices of the color triangle are referred to as
a. Primary
b. White
c. Desaturated
d. All of the above
47. A color signal which originate in the camera itself with color television pickup?
a. Red
b. Green
c. Blue
d. All of these
48. What are the three separate signals derived from a matrix in a color TV transmitter?
a. Y, I and Q
b. P, D and Q
c. M, N and O
d. R, S and T
49. Range of a VHF television transmitter

a. 54 98 MHz
b. 54 216 MHz
c. 54 128 MHz
d. 54 166 MHz
50. Range of a UHF television transmitter

a. 470 670 MHz
b. 470 770 MHz
c. 470 890 MHz
d. 470 - 980 MHz
51. What is the approximate bandwidth occupied by the chrominance video signal for
color TV?
a. 0.8 MHz
b. 1.8 MHz
c. 8.1 MHz
d. 1.6 MHz
52. The colors found around the perimeter of the color triangle are said to be
a. Saturated
b. Dark
c. Light
d. Monochrome
53. At what position on the color triangle will saturated yellow be located?
a. Between red and blue
b. Between red and green
c. Between blue and green
d. At the center
54. What is the phase difference between the I and Q color signal carriers?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 60
d. 90
55. _____ is the most effective filter for separating luminance and chrominance
frequency components.
a. Low pass
b. Band pass
c. Notch
d. Comb
56. The chrominance processing circuits can be deactivated when monochrome

broadcasts are received by the
a. Color killer
b. SAW filter
c. NOT gate
d. All of the above
57. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25 %
0%
12.5 %
75 %
58. What is the percent video level, in percent PEV, for black?
a. 0 %
b. 25 %
c. 12.5 %
d. 70 %
59. What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white?
a. 0 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 25 %
d. 70 %
60. One should first perform _____ before a convergence setup is performed.
a. Gray tracking
b. Screen setting
c. Alignment
d. Degaussing
61. If there are too many harmonics, one should check the
a. Coupling
b. Tuning of circuits
c. Shielding
d. Any of these
62. In transmitter amplifier design, an even-order harmonics can be prevented or reduced

by
a. Using a push-pull amplifier
b. Operating class C
c. Operating class AB
d. All of these
63. The vertical and horizontal pulses are separated at the

a. Sync separator
b. AFC
c. High voltage
d. AGC
64. The reason why buffer stage is included in a transmitter is to

a. Present a constant load to the oscillator stage
b. Present a low impedance to the oscillator stage
c. Stop the oscillator from generating parasitic oscillations
d. All of these
65. Where is the operating position of a radio station?

a. On the bridge
b. At the control point
c. At the location of the receiver
d. At the location of the transmitter
66. The alignment of the three color guns to a common point is known as
a. Blooming
b. Confetti
c. Demodulation
d. Convergence
67. A _____ is equivalent to 525 scanning lines

a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set
68. A _____ represents one set of 262 scanning lines

a. Field
b. Frame
c. Cycle
d. Interface set
69. The number of scanning lines is _____ per second

a. 14750
b. 15570
c. 15750
d. 16550
70. Picture frames are repeated at the rate of _____ per second
a.
b.
c.
d.
25
30
40
50
71. Lack of raster is an indication of no

a. AGC
b. High voltage
c. Video signal
d. Television signal
72. The sound and video signals are separated at the _____ of the TV receiver
a. IF stage
b. Video amplifier
c. Video detector
d. Burst separator
73. The presence of color bars is an indication that there is a problem in the _____ circuit
a. Horizontal
b. Reactor
c. Burst separator
d. Chroma amplifier
74. Type of emission produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated by

a TV signal
a. A3F
b. F3F
c. A3C
d. F3C
75. What is emission A3F?

a. RTTY
b. SSB
c. TV
d. Modulated CW
76. What is emission F3F?

a. Facsimile
b. Modulated CW
c. Television
d. RTTY
77. Cause of slow rising white hum bars is the television
a. Pad filter
b. Bad rectifier
c. Bad picture tube
d. High voltage transformer
78. Adjusting the _____ may eliminate color confetti

a. Color chroma amplifier
b. Color killer
c. Color detector
d. Color oscillator
79. Video signal amplitude determine the picture quality called

a. Chrominance
b. Brightness
c. Contrast
d. Luminance
80. Part of broadcast day from midnight to local sunrise

a. Daytime
b. Experimental
c. Nighttime
d. Dawntime
81. Part of broadcast day from local sunset to local sunrise

a. Dawntime
b. Nighttime
c. Daytime
d. Experimental
82. What causes snow in television?

a. High Q in the tuned circuit
b. Excessive gain
c. Random noise in the signal
d. Insufficient wave traps
83. Vestigial sideband is known as _____ type of emission
a.
b.
c.
d.
CF3
C3F
B8E
A3E
84. Vestigial sideband modulation is commonly used in

a. TV broadcasting
b. Monaural broadcasting
c. Stereo broadcasting
d. HF point-to-point communications
85. Which of the following filters block FM radio band for TV channels (2 to 13)?
a. High-pass filter
b. Low-pass filter
c. Band pass filter
d. Band-reject filter
86. The FM broadcast band is from

a. 535 to 1600 kHz
b. 30 to 300 kHz
c. 88 to 108 MHz
d. 300 to 2000 MHz
87. The type of emission used by standard AM radio broadcast

a. A5C
b. A0
c. A3
d. F3
88. The standard AM radio broadcast belongs to which frequency band?

a. MF
b. HF
c. VHF
d. LF
89. When were UHF channels (14 83) of television added?
a. 1902
b. 1945
c. 1947
d. 1952
90. When was colored TV standards established in the United States?

a. 1904
b. 1945
c. 1953
d. 1960
91. What synchronizes the horizontal line of the TV picture tube?

a. HFC
b. HSC
c. HAFC
d. All of these
92. A measure of how well the receiver can respond to every weak signals/
a. Selectivity
b. Sensitivity
c. Fidelity
d. Quality factor
93. What is the allowable frequency deviation of a commercial FM broadcast band?

a. 15 kHz
b. 75 kHz
c. 5 kHz
d. 100 kHz
94. The final amplifier of either FM or AM transmitter is operated as

a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
95. Standard AM broadcasting use _____ for greater and efficient coverage
a. Circular polarized wave antenna
b. Horizontal polarized wave antenna
c. Both vertical and horizontal polarized wave antenna
d. Vertical polarized wave antenna
96. Receiver sensitivity means

a. The frequency allocation of the system
b. Input impedance of the receiver
c. The ability of picking up weak signal
d. The power to deliver the information
97. The main functions of the RF amplifier in a superheterodyne receiver is to

a. Provide improved tracking
b. Permit better adjacent-channel rejection
c. Improve the rejection of the image frequency
d. All of these
98. Local oscillator of a broadcast receiver always tunes to a frequency higher than the
incoming frequency in order
a. To help the image frequency rejection
b. To allow easy tracking
c. To allow adequate frequency coverage without switching
d. All of these
99. Type of filter used in TV receivers that separates the chroma signal from the
colorplexed video signal but leaves intact the Y-component
a. Comb filter
b. Bandpass filter
c. Color filter
d. Low pass filter
100.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the first letter-symbol for emission of unmodulated carrier?

A
N
H
F
101.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The channel for cable TV frequency range of 5.75 to 11.75 MHz

T-1
T-8
2
3
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The frequency range for cable TV channel T-13

23.75 29.75 MHz
60 66 MHz
41.75 47.55 MHz
5.75 11.75 MHz
103.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Channel 8 frequency range allocation in cable TV

54 60 MHz
66 72 MHz
180 186 MHz
204 210 MHz
104. The _____ of a television system is a measure of its ability to delineate picture
detail
a. Contrast
b. Resolution
c. Hue
d. Pixels
105. CCIR standards for the internal exchange of programmes on film for television
used
a. Rec 265-6
b. Rec 407-4
c. Rec 408-5
d. Rec 450-1
106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
CCIR transmission standards for FM sound broadcasting at VHF

Rec 601.2
Rec 501.2
Rec 500.4
Rec 450.1
107. ISO Rec 23 in 1976 is the standard for

a. Recorded characteristics for magnetic sound records on full cost 16 mm motion
picture film
b. Projector usage of 16 mm motion picture films for direct front projector
c. Camera usage of 35 mm motion picture film
d. Camera usage of 16 mm motion picture film
108. International broadcasting (short wave) uses frequency between _____

accordance with international agreements
a. 7012 and 26100 kHz
b. 6409 and 26100 kHz
c. 5950 and 26100 kHz
d. 10950 and 26100 kHz
109.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following station below is a regional channel?

Class I-A
Class II-D
Class III-B
Class IV
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The permissible power in kW of station II-A during nighttime is

0.25 50
10 50
15
None of these
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The television frequency which are now allocated to the land mobile services
806 and 192 MHz
800 and 806 MHz
668 and 674 MHz
776 and 782 MHz
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Numerical frequency band designation of channel 9

488 494 MHz
530 536 MHz
632 638 MHz
186 192 MHz
113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Cable TV systems originate from

Germany
Dallas, Texas
Pennsylvania
Japan
114. A term applied to third and higher order products, which can greatly degrade the
performance of a system
a. Composite triple beat
b. Single dual mode
c. Field strength
d. Noise
115. A station similar to a translator station in terms of equipment and service area but
is permitted to originate originate programming from virtually any source
a. DME
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
116. Three stations are licensed to eligible educational entities for the distribution of
program material to students enrolled in instructional curricula
a. Translator
b. LPTV
c. HDTV
d. ITFS
117.
a.
b.
c.
d.
ITFS means
International Television Frequency Standard
Instructional Telephone Frequency Service
Instructional Television Fixed Service
International telecommunications Frequency Standard
118.
a.
b.
c.
d.
MDS means
Multipoint Distribution Service
Multipoint Digital Service
Maritime Data Standards
Multipoint Drop Standards
119.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Direct broadcast satellite based allocation

12.2 12.7 GHz downlink
17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink
3.7 4.2 GHz for downlink
12.2 12.7 GHz for downlink and 17.3 17.8 GHz for uplink
120.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the channel number of an FM station with 88.1 MHz carrier?

201
202
203
204
121.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the carrier frequency of an FM station with channel number of 300?

107.5 MHz
101.1 MHz
107.9 MHz
99.5 MHz
122. If an FM station has an effective radiated power of 100 kW then it is under what
class?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
123.
as
a.
b.
c.
d.
The video signal amplitude determines the quality of the picture otherwise known
124.
a.
b.
c.
d.
_____ is defined as to send out in all direction

Broadcast
Announce
Media
All of these
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
The ultimate Dolby surround system is the

Dolby NR
Dolby Prologic
dBx
hall matrix
Hue
Luminance
Chrominance
Contrast
Microwave Communications
1. __________ is the progressive decrease of signal strength with increasing distance.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Radiation
Attenuation
Modulation
Propagation
2. Calculate the effective earths radius if the surface refractivity is 301.

A.
B.
C.
D.
8493 km
8493 mmi
6370 km
6370 mi
3. If k-factor is greater than 1, the array beam is bent

A.
B.
C.
D.
Away from the earth

towards the ionosphere,
towards the earth
towards the outer space
4. the antenna separations (in meters) required for optimum operation of a space diversity
system can be calculated from:
A.
B.
C.
D.
S = 2R/L
S = 3R/L
S = R/RL
S = R/L
where R = effective earth radius (m) and L = path length (m)
5. Rainfall is an important factor for fading of radio waves at frequencies above
A.
B.
C.
D.
10 GHz
100 GHz
1 GHz
100 MHz
6. Theoretically electromagnetic radiation field strength varies in inverse proportion to the

square of the distance, but when atmospheric attenuation effects and the absorption of the
terrain are taken into account the attenuation can be as high as the inverse _______ power
of the distance.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Third
Fourth
Fifth
Sixth
7. What do you call an attenuation that occurs over many different wavelengths of the
carrier?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Rayleigh fading
Rician fading
Wavelength fading
Slow fading
8. Which of the reception problems below that is not due to multipath?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Delayed spreading
Rayleigh fading
Random Doppler shift
Slow fading
9. Which causes multipath or frequency-selective fading?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Small reflector
Nearer reflector
Further reflector
Large reflector
10. In microwave transmission using digital radio, what causes most intersymbol
interference?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Delayed spreading
Rayleigh fading
Random Doppler shift
Slow fading
11. A shipboard equipment which measures the distance between the ships bottom and the
ocean floor.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fathometer
Echosounder
LORAN
SONAR
12. The cavity resonator

A.
B.
C.
D.
Is equivalent to an LC resonant circuit

In a reflect klystron has its output taken from the reflector plate
Produces a frequency which is independent of the cavity size.
Has a low Q factor for narrow operation.
13. At what position is the input signal inserted into a traveling-wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
At the cathode end of the helix

At the collector
At the collector end of the helix
At the control grid of the electron gun
14. Coupling into and out of a traveling-wave tube can be accompanied by a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Waveguide match
Cavity match
Direct coax-helix match
All of the above
15. a high-power microwave pulse of the order of megawatts can be generated by a
A.
B.
C.
D.
traveling-wave tube
magnetron
reflex klystron
Gunn diode
16. A traveling-wave tube (TWT) amplifies by virtue of

A.
B.
C.
D.
The absorption of energy by the signal from an electron stream

The effect of an external magnetic field
The energy contained the cavity resonators
The energy liberated form the collector
17. What is the purpose of the electromagnetic field which surrounds a traveling-wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
To accelerate the electron

To velocity modulate the electron beam
To keep the electrons from spreading out
To slow down the signal on the helix
18. Which of the following is used as an oscillator device in the SHF band?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Thyratron tube
Tunnel diode
Klystron tube
Both B and C
19. Microwave frequencies are normally regarded as those in the range of

A.
B.
C.
D.
1 to 500 MHz
1000 to 10,000 GHz
1 to 100 GHz
10 to 1000 GHz
20. The highest frequency which a conventional vacuum-tube oscillator can generate is not
limited by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electron transit time

Distributed lead inductance
Inter-electrode capacitance
Degree of emission from the cathode
21. As the electron beam moves through a klystrons intercavity drift space
A.
Frequency modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output
cavity
B.
Velocity modulation at the input cavity creates density modulation at the output
cavity
C.
Density modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output
cavity
D.
Phase modulation at the input cavity creates velocity modulation at the output cavity.
22. The frequency of the oscillation generated by a magnetron, is mainly determined by
A.
B.
C.
D.
The flux density of the external magnet

The ratio of the dc cathode voltage to the magnetic flux density
The number of the cavity resonators
The dimension of each cavity resonator
23. If the instantaneous RF potentials on the two sides of a magnetron cavity are of opposite
polarity, the operation is in the
A.
B.
C.
D.
mode
/2 mode
2 mode
/4 mode
24. The Gunn diode oscillator

A.
B.
C.
D.
Is capable of generating continuous microwave power of the order of kilowatt

Generates frequencies which are below 100 MHz
Operates over a positive resistance characteristic
Depends on the formation of charge domain
25. What ferrite device can be used instead of duplexer of isolate microwave transmitter and
receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isolator
Magnetron
Simplex
Circulator
26. To achieve good bearing resolution when using a pulsed-radar set, an important
requirement is
A.
B.
C.
D.
A narrow, antenna-beam width in the vertical plane

A narrow, antenna-beam width in the horizontal plane
A low repetition rate
A high duty cycle
27. When used in conjunction with a radar set, the purpose of an echo box is to provide an
artificial target.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Which may be used to tune the radar synchronizer

Which may be used to tune the radar receiver
To the tone of the pulse repetition
Tune the magnetron to the correct frequency
28. In a radar-set receiver, the usual mixer stage is

A.
B.
C.
D.
And FET
A tunnel diode
A silicon crystal
A Rochelle salts crystal
29. Klystron oscillators are most often used in the frequency range of
A.
B.
C.
D.
300 to 3000 MHz

3000 to 30000 MHz
30 to 30000 MHz
10 to 10000 MHz
30. Oscillators of a klystron tube are maintained
A.
B.
C.
D.
By bunches of electrons passing the cavity grids

By plate-to-cathode feedback
By feedback between the accelerating grid and the repeller
By circulating bunches of electrons within the cavities.
31. What allow microwave to pass in only one direction?

A.
B.
C.
D.
RF emitter
Capacitor
Varactor-triac
Ferrite emitter
32. In an SHF pulsed radar set, a reflex klystron can be used as a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Single mixer stage

Local oscillator
Transmitter oscillator
Duplexer stage
33. A Class-S Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)

A.
B.
C.
D.
Must be capable of floating or being secured to a survival

Must have its battery replaced after emergency use
May be tested during the first five minutes of any hour
All of these
34. A PPI cathode-ray tube as used on a radar set

A.
B.
C.
D.
Is used to check the percentage of modulation

Indicates both the range and azimuth of a target
Indicates only the range of a target
Is used for receiver alignment
35. The resonant frequency of a cavity resonator depends upon

A.
B.
C.
The mode of operation

Its electrical dimensions
Its physical dimensions
D.
The capacitor which tunes it
36. The maximum usable range of the usual radar set (on any particular range setting) is
determined by
A.
B.
C.
D.
The width of the transmitted pulses

The interval between transmitted pulses
The bandwidth of the receiver IF stages
The duty cycle
37. A reflex klystron is oscillating at the frequency of its resonant cavity. If the reflector
voltage is made slightly less negative, the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Oscillation will cease

Output power would increase
The frequency will decrease
Bunching would occur earlier in time
38. The coarse frequency adjustment of a reflex klystron is accomplished by

A.
B.
C.
D.
The AFC system

Adjusting the flexible wall of the resonant cavity
An adjustment in the synchronizer
Varying the repeller voltage
39. In a pulsed radar set, the STC circuit is used to

A.
B.
C.
D.
Improve the target bearing resolution

Increases receiver sensitivity for echoes from targets
Vary the pulse frequency in order to control the maximum target
Reduce interference from the effects of sea return
40. In a pulsed radar set, the function of the duplexer is to

A.
B.
C.
D.
Aid in calibrating the display unit

Prevent frequency drift in the klystron
Allow the transmitter and the receiver to operate from a common antenna
All of these
41. A magnetron is operated at a duty cycle of 0.001. It has a peak power output of 100
kilowatts. Its average power is
A.
B.
C.
D.
10,000 watts
100 watts
1,000 watts
1,000,000 watts
42. The aquadag coating on the inside of PPI tube is used

A.
B.
C.
D.
To focus the beam of primary electrons

To shield the electron beam from unidirectional magnetic
As a second anode and to prevent the build-up of secondary field
All of these
43. If the duration of the radar transmitted pulse, on a particular range of operation, is
increased, the required bandwidth of the receivers IF amplifiers
A.
B.
C.
D.
Must remain as before

Must be increased
May be decreased
Must be doubled
44. The main frequency determining element of a klystron is

A.
B.
C.
D.
The repeller voltage

The accelerating voltage
Its resonant cavity
Its mode of operation
45. A thin layer of dirt and grime coverts the reflecting surface of the parabolic dish of a
radar set. The particular effect on the performance of the radar will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
A decrease in range
A reduction in horizontal resolution
No noticeable effect
A decrease in gain
46. Which of the following permits a microwave signal to travel in one direction with
virtually no loss, but severely attenuates any signal attempting to travel in the reverse
direction?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isolator
Wave trap
Tunnel diode
Circulator
47. It is possible to increase the maximum range of a radar equipment by

A.
B.
C.
D.
Lowering the pulse frequency

Raising the peak power of the transmitter
Narrowing the beam width and increasing the pulse duration
All of these
48. When it is desired that short-range targets be clearly seen on a pulsed-radar set, it is
important that the receiver and display system have
A.
B.
C.
D.
A long time constant

Low-pass filters
The shortest possible time
The restricted high-frequency response
49. Which of the following is used as a high power microwave oscillator?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Thyratron
Magnetron
Klystron
Reflex-klystron
50. Which of the following operating frequencies is used for the modern loran navigational
system?
A.
B.
C.
Loran C: 100 kHz

Loran D: 10.2 kHz
Loran A: 1950 kHz
D.
Loran B: 900 kHz
51. Which ferrite device can be used instead of a duplexer to isolate a microwave transmitter
and receiver when both are connected to the same antenna?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Isolator
Magnetron
Simplex
Circulator
52. The pulse frequency is equal to

A.
B.
C.
D.
Duty cycle/pulse width

The reciprocal of the pulse repetition rate
Pulse width x peak power/average power
All of these
53. In a radar set, a blocking oscillator can be used to

A.
B.
C.
D.
Act as the local oscillator converter stage

Provide the sweep voltage for the PPI tube
Produce a trigger pulse for the transmitter
As a single local oscillator converter stage
54. The intensity of the echoes (target definition) on a PPI display is determined by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Radio frequency
Pulse frequency and antenna rotation rate
Duty cycle
Average power
55. A duplexer circuit allows a transmitter and a receiver to operate from the same antenna
with virtually no interaction. This circuit may be replaced by a (an)
A.
B.
C.
D.
loss waveguide
circulator
isolator
gyrator
56. Which of the following frequencies are used by a class-C Emergency Position-Indicating
Radio Beacon (E.P.I.R.B)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
156.65 MHz
121.5 MHz
156.76 MHz and 156.8 MHz
All of these
57. The repetition rate of a pulsed radar system indicates the

A.
B.
C.
D.
Frequency of the range-marker oscillator

Reciprocal of the duty cycle
Number of target echoes received on one second
Frequencies of the duty cycle
58. The radar set, sensitivity-time control circuit

A.
B.
C.
D.
Controls the width of the magnetron pulse

Is used to increase sea return
Can reduce sea-return response
Discriminates between targets that are very close together.
59. Which of the following is the ferrite device that buffers a microwave source from the
effects of a varying load, and thereby prevents the formation of standing waves?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Circulator
Duplexer
Isolator
Diplexer
60. Pulsed radar sets are primarily used to find the

A.
B.
C.
D.
Targets range and bearing

Size and speed of a target
Speed and course of a target
Targets range of speed
61. Which of the following factors is mainly concerned in the design of an antenna system
for pulsed radar set?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Duty cycle
Radio frequency
Pulse frequency
Pulse length
62. In a radar set receivers, an ac AFC system may be used to

A.
B.
C.
D.
Automatically maintain the correct magnetron frequency

Keep the IF stages on frequency
Maintain the desired klystron frequency
Provide automatic control of receiver gain
63. The input signal is introduced into the traveling-wave tube at the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cathode
Anode
Cathode end of the helix
Collector end of the helix
64. The display on the PPI scope of a radar set will have greater intensity under the following
conditions
A.
B.
C.
D.
Higher antenna rotation speeds

Lower pulse repetition rate
Lower antenna rotation speeds
Both lower antenna rotation speeds and higher pulse repetition
65. The operating frequency of loran C lies within the

A.
B.
C.
D.
LF band
VLF band
MF band
HF band
66. The PPI tubes have an aquadag coating on the inside of the tube. The purpose of this
coating is
A.
B.
C.
D.
To act as the second anode

To shield the tube magnetically
To decelerate the electron beam
To deflect the electron beam
67. A traveling-wave tube Is used at frequencies in the order of

A.
B.
C.
D.
30 MHz
300 MHz
8000 MHz
100 MHz
68. The main benefit of using microwaves is

A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower-cost equipment
Simpler equipment
Greater transmission distances
More spectrum space for signals
69. Radio communication are regulated in the Philippines by the

A.
B.
C.
D.
DOTC
KBP
NTC
Department of Defense
70. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of microwaves?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Higher-cost equipment
Line-of-sight transmission
Conventional components are not usable
Circuits are more difficult to analyze
71. Which of the following is a microwave frequency?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1.7 MHz
750 MHz
0.98 GHz
22 GHz
72. Which of the following is not a common microwave application?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Radar
Mobile radio
Telephone
Satellite communications
73. Coaxial cable is not widely used for long microwave transmission lines because of its
A.
B.
C.
D.
High loss
High cost
Large size
Excessive radiation
74. Stripline and microstrip transmission lines are usually made with
A.
B.
C.
D.
Coax
Parallel wires
Twisted pair
PCBs
75. The most common cross section of a waveguide is a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Square
Circle
Triangle
Rectangle
76. A rectangular waveguide has a width of 1 inch and a height of 0.6 in. Its cutoff frequency
is
A.
B.
2.54 GHz
3.0 GHz
C.
D.
5.9 GHz
11.8 GHz
77. A waveguide has a cutoff frequency of 17 GHz. Which of the following signals will not
be passed by the waveguide?
A.
15 GHz
B.
18 GHz
C.
22 GHz
D.
255 GHz
78. Signal propagation in a waveguide is by
A.
B.
C.
D.
Electrons
Holes
Electric and magnetic fields
Air pressure
79. When the electric field in a waveguide is perpendicular to the direction of wave
propagation, the mode is said to be
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transverse electric
Transverse magnetic
80. The dominant mode in most rectangular waveguide is

A.
B.
C.
D.
TE 1.0
TE 1.2
TM 0.1
TM 1.1
81. A magnetic field is introduced into waveguide by a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Probe
Dipole
Stripline
Capacitor
82. A half-wavelength, close section of a waveguide that acts as a parallel resonant circuit is
known as a(n)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Half-wave section
Cavity resonator
LCR circuit
Directional coupler
83. Decreasing the volume of a cavity causes its resonant frequency to

A.
B.
C.
D.
Increase
Decrease
Remain the same
Drop to zero
84. __________ is a popular microwave mixer diode.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Gunn
Varactor
Hot carrier
IMPATT
85. Varactor and step-recovery diodes are widely used in what type of circuit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplifier
Oscillator
Frequency multiplier
Mixer
86. Which diode is a popular microwave oscillator?

A.
B.
C.
D.
IMPATT
Gunn
Varactor
Schottky
87. Which type of diodes does not ordinarily operate with reverse bias?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Varactor
IMPATT
Snap-off
Tunnel
88. Low-power Gunn diodes are replacing

A.
B.
C.
D.
Reflex klystrons
TWTs
Magnetrons
Varactor diodes
89. Which of the following is not a microwave tube?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Traveling-wave tube
Cathode-ray tube
Klystron
Magnetron
90. In a klystron amplifier, velocity modulation of the electron beam is produced by the
A.
B.
C.
D.
Collector
Catcher cavity
Cathode
Buncher cavity
91. A reflex klystron is used as a(n)

A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplifier
Oscillator
Mixer
92. For proper operation, a magnetron must be accompanied by a

A.
B.
C.
Cavity resonator
Strong electric field
Permanent magnet
D.
High dc voltage
93. The operating frequency of klystrons and magnetrons is set by the

A.
B.
C.
D.
Cavity resonators
DC supply voltage
Input signal frequency
Number of cavities
94. A magnetron is used only as a/an

A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplifier
Oscillator
Mixer
95. A common application for magnetron is in

A.
B.
C.
D.
Radar
Satellites
Two-way radio
TV sets
96. In a TWT, the electron beam is density-modulated by a

A.
B.
C.
D.
Permanent magnet
Modulation transformer
Helix
Cavity resonator
97. The main advantage of a TWT over a klystron for microwave amplification is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Lower cost
Smaller size
Higher power
Wider bandwidth
98. High-power TWTs are replacing what in microwave amplifiers?

A.
B.
C.
D.
MESFETs
Magnetrons
Klystrons
IMPATT diodes
99. The most widely used microwave antenna

A.
B.
C.
D.
Half-wave dipole
Parabolic
Hyperbolic
Horn
100.
______________ is a measure of reliability expressed as the average number of
hours between successive failures.
A.
B.
C.
D.
MTBF
MTTR
Downtime
Outage time
101.
The free space attenuation between two microwave antennas 40 km apart
operating at 8 GHz is
A.
B.
C.
D.
102.
A.
B.
C.
D.
146.7 dB
142.55 dB
82.5 dB
86.7 dB
An active microwave radio repeater that can provide drops and inserts.
Broadband repeater
Baseband repeater
IF repeater
RF repeater
103.
If the correction factor k equals 4/3 of the earths curvature, the microwave beam
would have a curvature that is ___________ than that of the earth.
A.
B.
C.
D.
More
Less
Equal
Not related
104.
The optimum clearance from an obstacle in an microwave system is accepted as
__________ of the first fresnel zone radius.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.6
0.5
0.9
1.5
105.
The microwave beam curves the same than that of the earth when the value of the
correction factor k equals
A.
B.
C.
D.
0
4/3
2/3
Infinity
106.
The time from the transmission of a radar pulse to its reception is 0.12 ms. The
distance to the target is how many nautical miles?
A.
B.
C.
D.
107.
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.85 nmi
9.7 nmi
11.2 nmi
18.4 nmi
The ability of a radar to determine the bearing to a target depends upon the
Antenna directivity
Speed of light
Speed of the target
Frequency of the signal
108.
The pulse duration of a radar signal is 699ns. The PRF is 185 pulses per second.
The duty cycle is
A.
B.
C.
D.
109.
A.
B.
C.
D.
0.216 %
0.130 %
0.013 %
0.407 %
The Doppler effect allows which characteristics of a target to be measured?
Distance
Azimuth
Altitude
Speed
110.
The Doppler effect is a change in what signal characteristics produced by relative
motion between the radar set and a target?
A.
B.
C.
D.
111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
112.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Amplitude
Phase
Frequency
Duty cycle
The most widely used radar transmitter component is a
Klystron
Magnetron
TWT
Power transistor
Low-power radar transmitters and receivers use which component?
GaAs FET
Magnetron
Gunn diode
Klystron
113.
What component in a duplexer protects the receiver from the higher transmitter
output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Waveguide
Bandpass filter
Notch filter
Spark gap
Most radar antennas use a
Dipole
Broadside array
Horn and parabolic reflector
Collinear array
The most common radar display is the
A scan
Color CRT
LCD
PPI
116.
A radar antenna using multiple diploes or slot antennas in a matrix with variable
phase shifters is called a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
117.
A.
B.
C.
D.
118.
A scan
Phased array
Broadside
Circulator polarized array
Which of the following is a typical radar operating frequency?
60 MHz
450 MHz
900 MHz
10 GHz
A microwave system requires the use of repeaters when
A.
B.
C.
D.
The intervening terrain is favorable

The distances involve are grater
The required reliability is meet
The radio fading is unacceptable
119.
Are transmission lines which convey electromagnetic waves in highest
frequencies
A.
B.
C.
D.
120.
A.
B.
C.
D.
121.
A.
B.
C.
D.
122.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Twister pair of telephone wires

Waveguides
Power lines
Coaxial cables
A microwave band of 10.9 to 36. GHz is considered as
C-band
X-band
Q-band
K-band
A microwave communications system space loss calculation formula.
94.2 + 20 log f + 20 log d
92.4 + 20 log f + 20 log d
94.2 + 10 log f + 20 log d
92.3 + 10 log f + 20 log d
A waveguide is also a
Low pass filter
High pass filter
Band pass filter
Band stop filter
123.
A method of diversity reception where the signal is transmitted on two difference
frequencies over the same path
A.
B.
C.
D.
124.
A.
B.
C.
D.
125.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Space diversity
Frequency diversity
Polarization diversity
Wavelength diversity
A wire used to reduce the skin effect
AWG # 14
AWG # 15
Copper wire
Litz wire
Space diversity transmission means transmitting and receiving on two or more.
Different frequencies
Antennas operating on two different frequencies
Antennas operating on the same frequencies
Identical frequencies
126.
The best system configuration to overcome multipath fading of microwave system
over the water
A.
B.
C.
D.
Space diversity
Frequency diversity
127.
When the value of k increases, the effective result is _______ of the equivalent
curvature
A.
B.
C.
D.
128.
A.
Flattening
Bulging
Sharp curvature
All of these
A traveling wave tube consists of
Electron gun, helix and repeller
B.
C.
D.
Electron gun, helix and collector

Electron gun, repeller and collector
Buncher cavity and catcher cavity
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Advantage of periscope antenna in microwave

Reduce tower height
Minimize interference to and from other neighboring stations
Shorten waveguide length
Easy to install
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the cut-off frequency of a waveguide?

The highest frequency the waveguide operates
The lowest frequency the waveguide operates
The same as the operating frequency
The only frequency the waveguide operates.
131.
When the clearance above the obstruction is equal to the radii of even fresnel
zones at the point of reflection. The RSL is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Increased
Decreased
Constant
Above threshold
132.
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is the wavelength of a wave in a waveguide?

Greater than in free space
Depends only on the waveguide dimensions and the free-space wavelength
Inversely proportional to the phase velocity
Inversely proportional to the group velocity
133.
The CCIR hypothetical reference circuit covering a distance of 25000 km consists
of a total of how many hops?
A.
B.
5
10
C.
D.
134.
A.
B.
C.
D.
135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
24
54
Water causes more attenuation particularly on what frequency?
20 GHz
63 GHz
183 GHz
202 GHz
At what frequency does oxygen cause excessive attenuation?
60 GHz
50 GHz
40 GHz
30 GHz
Which of the following is an atmospheric attenuation?
Attenuation due to water vapor and oxygen
Attenuation due to mist and fog
Attenuation due to other gases
Attenuation due to rain.
137.
A microwave system operating at the 6 GHz band is carrying 600 voice channels.
What is the noise loading power in dBmO?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.78
26.78
27.78
10.25
138.
_________ is a microwave link between the down-town terminal and another out
of town terminal.
A.
B.
C.
STL
Uplink
Downlink
D.
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Terrestrial
Attenuator is used in the traveling wave tube to
Prevent oscillation
Increase gain
Prevent saturation
All of these
Is a method of diversity reception applied to reflective path to reduce fading.
Frequency diversity
Space diversity
What is the effective earths radius used in communications design?
4000 miles
K x 4000 miles
5000 miles
K x 5280 miles
IF bandwidth of a radar system is inversely proportional to
Pulse width
Pulse interval
Peak transmit power
All of these
EADI stands for
Electronic Air Data Indicator
Electronic Altitude and Distance Indicator
Electronic Altitude and Director Indicator
Electronic Air and Distance Indicator
144.
Which aircraft navigational system determines the time to station (TTS) or time to
go (TTG)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
ADF
DME
Timer
ATC
What frequency does a radio altimeter operate?
33500 kHz
43000 kHz
33500 MHz
43500 MHz
146.
What inflight system allows passengers to make telephone calls, send faxes, and
computer data shop and play computer games, etc.?
A.
B.
C.
D.
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Inflight Satellite System

Terrestrial Flight Telephone System
World Airline Entertainment System
Satellite Phone
ADF stands for
Audio Direction Findings
Automatic Direction Finder
Alternate Direction Finder
Automatic Distance Finder
RF carrier of the middle marker is modulated at ____ Hz.
1300
1400
1500
1600
149.
Which of the following is considered as the major advantage of using a helix
traveling wave tube?
A.
B.
C.
D.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cheaper
Less noise
High power
Wide bandwidth
RADAR stands for
Radio Distance and Ranging
Radio Detection and Ranging
Radio Direction and Ranging
Radio Distance and Range
Acoustics
1. An instrument designed to measure a frequency-weighted value of the sound pressure
level.
a. Sound-level meter
b. Transducer
c. Sound pressure meter
d. Sound analyzer
2. A unit of noisiness related to the perceived noise level
a. Noy
b. Sone
c. dB
d. phone
3. An agreed set of empirical curves relating octave-band osund pressure level to the center
frequency of the octave bands
a. C-message weighting curves
b. Psophometric weighting curves
c. Noise rating curves
d. F1A weighting curves
4. The frequency of free vibration
a. Resonant frequency
b. Natural frequency
c. Center frequency
d. Normal frequency
5. The transmission of sound from one room to an adjacent room, via common walls, floors
or ceilings.
a. Flanking transmission
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Reverberation
6. A measure of threshold hearing, expressed in decibels relative to a specifoed standard of
normal hearing.
a. Hearing loss
b. Sensation level
c. Hearing level
d. Sound pressure level
7. A certain machine with a slightly out-of-balance motor rotating at 1800/min is fixed on a
perfectly elastic mount with a static compression of 2.50 mm. Calculate the resonant
frequency of mount.
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
8. Calculate the lowest resonant frequency for a brick partition 120 mm thick, 4m by 2min
area with longitudinal wave velocity of 2350 m/s. (Assume that it is supported at its
edges.)
a. 10 Hz
b. 20 Hz
c. 30 Hz
d. 40 Hz
9. Velocity of sound in air.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 m/s
c. 1130 m/s
d. 344 m/s
10. What is the expected critical frequency for a 120 mm thick brick wall? Assume a
longitudinal wave velocity in brick of 2350 m/s and that the velocity of sound in air is
330 m/s.
a. 114.5 Hz
b. 214.5 Hz
c. 314.5 Hz
d. 414.5 Hz
11. The sound power level of a certain jet plane flying at a height of 1km is 160 dB (re10 12
W). Find the maximum sound pressure level on the ground directly below the flight
path assuming that the aircraft radiates sound equally in all directions.
a. 59.1 dB
b. 69.1 dB
c. 79.1 dB
d. 89.1 dB
12. Speaker is a device that
a. Converts sound waves into current and voltage
b. Converts current variations into sound waves
c. Converts elctrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Converts elctrical energy to electromagnetic energy
13. Which type of microphone operates on the principle that the electrical resistance of
carbon granules varies as the pressure on the granules vary?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Carbon
d. Ribbon-type
14. Bass response is
a. Maximum highfrequency response
b. Emphasizing the high audio frequency

c. Bypassing high audio frequencies
d. Bypassing low audio frequencies
15. Pure tone of sound used as standard on testing
a. 1 Hz
b. 10 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
16. ___________ is early reflection of sound.
a. Echo
b. Reverberation
c. Pure sound
d. Intelligible sound
17. Noise reduction system used for film sound in movie.
a. Dolby
b. dBa
c. dBx
d. dBk
18. What is the sound energy per unit area at right angles to the propagation direction per unit
time?
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound pressure
d. Sound intensity
19. ________ is the unit of loudness level of a sound.
a. Sone
b. Decibel
c. Mel
d. Phon
20. ____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction
through a cross-section area of 1 sqm at right angles to the direction.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
21. What is the unit of pitch?
a. Sone
b. Phon
c. Decibel
d. Mel
22. A measure of the intensity of sound in comparison to another sound intensity.

a. Phon
b. Decibel
c. Pascal
d. Watts
23. Sound wave has two main characteristics which are
a. Highness and loudness
b. Tone and loudness
c. Pitch and loudness
d. Rarefraction and compression
24. Which type of microphone operated by electromagnetic induction that generates an
output signal voltage?
a. Carbon
b. Dynamic
c. Crystal
d. Condenser
25. The exciter lamp in the optical sound part of a film projector draws 5 A at 10 V. How
much power in watts is this light consuming?
a. 10 watts
b. 20 watts
c. 40 watts
d. 50 watts
26. Assume the speed of sound is 1,130 ft/s. What frequency has a wavelength of 1 foot, 1.5
inches?
a. 500 Hz
b. 1000 Hz
c. 1500 Hz
d. 2000 Hz
27. The wire must bring 100 average watts to a 4 ohms loudspeaker must safely carry what
rms current?
a. 2 A
b. 4 A
c. 5 A
d. 6 A
28. A church has an internalvolume of 90.05 ft 3 (2550 m3). When it contains customary
sabine sof absorption (186 metric sabines), what will be its reverberation time in seconds.
a. 2.0
b. 2.2
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
29. If the RMs sound pressure is 5lb/ft 2, what is the sound presure level?
a. 7.6 dB
b. 108 dB
c. 88 dB
d. 10 dB
30. Speed that is faster than speed of sound.
a. Ultrasonic
b. Supersonic
c. Subsonic
d. Transonic
31. Sound waves travel faster in water at a ______ speed.
a. 12.4 miles/sec
b. 5000 ft/sec
c. 186,000 ft/sec
d. 3141 ft/sec
32. What is the sound power from a motor car whose SPL at a distance of 7.5 m is 87 dB
assuming that it radiates sound unifomly?
a. 0.15 W
b. 0.21 W
c. 0.24 W
d. 0.18 W
33. Crest-to-crest distance along the direction to wave travel.
a. Compression
b. Wavelength
c. Period
d. Sound wave
34. Sound intensity level is _________.
a. 10 log I/Iref
b. 10 log P/Pref
c. 20 log I/Iref
d. 30 log P/Pref
35. Sound pressure level is _________.
a. 20 log P/ Pref
b. 30 log P/ Pref
c. 10 log P/ Pref
d. 20 log I/Iref
36. The most important specification of loudspeakers and microphones.
a. Frequency response
b. Field strength
c. Power density
d. Gain
37. Lowest fequency produced by a musical instrument.
a. Midrange
b. Harmonic
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
38. Tendency of a sound energy to spread.
a. Diffraction
b. Rarefraction
c. Reflection
d. Refraction
39. Whenwaves bend away from straight lines of travel, it is called _________.
a. Reflection
b. Diffraction
c. Rarefraction
d. Refraction
40. Required time for any sound to decay to 60 dB.
a. Echo time
b. Delay time
c. Reverberation time
d. Transient time
41. The intensity needed to produce an audible sound varies with __________.
a. Frequency
b. Noise
c. Amplitude
d. Tone
42. Sound that vibrates too high for the human ear to hear (over 20 kHz).
a. Subsonic
b. Transonic
c. Ultrasonic
d. Stereo
43. Which microphone will be damaged if exposed to high temperature above 52C?
a. Dynamic
b. Crystal
c. Ribbon
d. Capacitor
44. A thin springy sheet of bakelite or metal that permits the voice coil in a dynamic
loudspeaker to move back and forth salong the core of its magnet.
a. Vibrator
b. Diaphragm
c. Hypex
d. Spider
45. One hundred twenty bars of pressure variation is equal to
a. 120 dB SPL
b. 57.78 dB SPL
c. 115.56 dB SPL
d. 41.58 dB SPL
46. The reverberation time of a 184.2 cubic meters broadcast studio is 0.84 sec. Find the
absorption effect of the materials used in metric sabines.
a. 35.3
b. 10.96
c. 379.8
d. 109.6
47. What is the microphone characteristic that results in a boost in bassfrequencies for close
microphone spacing?
a. Field effect
b. P.A. effect
c. Proximity effect
d. Reverberation
48. What is the audio frequency range?
a. 20 kHz to 20 MHz
b. 0 Hz to 20 kHz
c. 300 Hz to 400 Hz
d. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
49. What is the bass frequency range?
a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 40 kHz to 160 kHz
d. 10 Hz to 20 kHz
50. High frequency range of audio signals.
a. 2500 Hz to 5000 Hz
b. 5000 Hz to 10 kHz
c. 10 kHz to 20 kHz
d. 20000 Hz to 30 kHz
51. What is the dB SPL of a voice paging in an office?
a. 90
b. 65
c. 55-60
d. 80-85
52. What is the dB SPL of an auditorium with contemporary music?
a. 80-95
b. 85-90
c. 95-100
d. 100-105
53. What is the church dB SPL with speech reinforcement only?
a. 90
b. 80-85
c. 85-90
d. 90-95
54. Intensity can also be called as
a. Volume
b. Loudness
c. Sharpness
d. Strength
55. Tje loudness of a sound depends upon the energy of motion imparted to ________
molecules of the medium transmitting the sound.
a. Transmitting
b. Running
c. Moving
d. Vibrating
56. _________ is affected by the distance between the listener and the source of the sound
and its intensityvaries inversely with the square of its distance.
a. Volume
b. Bass
c. Treble
d. Loudness
57. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is doubled, the intensity is
reduced to
a.
b. 1/3
c. 2/3
d. 1/4
58. If the distance between the listener and the source of the sound is decreased to tye
original amount, the intensity of the sound would be
a. 2 times as great
b. 3 times as great
c. 4 times as great
d. 5 times as great
59. At a sensation level of 40 dB, 1000 Hz tone is
a. 1000 mels
b. 500 mels
c. 2000 mels
d. 100 mels
60. If the sound waves are converted to electrical waves by a microphone, what is the
frequency of the electric current?
a. 3 - 30 MHz
b. 25 8000 Hz
c. 4 40 Hz
d. 30 3000 Hz
61. For a music lover concert A is 440 Hz. If a musical note one octave higher were
played, it would be _______ that frequency.
a. One half
b. One-fourth
c. Double
d. Triple
62. In a 220 Hz, if a note was played one octave lower, it would be ______.
a. 22 Hz
b. 27.5 Hz
c. 440 Hz
d. 110 Hz
63. Much of music is generally reffered to in
a. Harmonics
b. Good hearing
c. Fidelity
d. Octaves
64. _________ is an undesired change in wave form as the signal passes through a device.
a. Noise
b. Vibration
c. Distortion
d. Harmonics
65. Distortion enhances intelligibly when an ________ is added.
a. Equalizer
b. Igniter
c. Exciter
d. Emulsifier
66. A class of signal processors.
a. Amplifiers
b. Equalizers
c. Microprocessors
d. Exciters
67. Half construction and internal finishes affect the final sound quality ________.
a. poorly
b. mildly
c. significantly
d. badly
68. Positioning a loudspeaker near a wall can dramatically alter its frequency response in two
distinct ways namely;
a. Gump and dump
b. Hump and notch
c. Fade and gone
d. Bad and worst
69. The acoustics of most auditoria are very ________ when the room is full compared to the
empty condition.
a. Different
b. Similar
c. Good
d. Bad
70. A _________ converts acoustical energy.
a. Electro-acoustic
b. Microphone transducer
c. Microphone
d. Electric Microphone
71. All microphone have two basic components namely, ___________.
a. Wired and body
b. Ceramic and crystal
c. Diaphragm and generating element
d. Coil and magnet
72. The kinds of generating elements are __________.
a. Expense and fidelity
b. Complexity and ruggedness
c. Longevity
d. All of these
73. When the average absorption is greater than 0.2, __________ formula is used to compute
the actual reverberation time.
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
74. At room temperature, what is the velocity of sound in meters/seconds?
a. 348.03 cm/s
b. 980 cm/s
c. 980 m/s
d. 341.8 m/s
75. Calculate the velocity of sound in ft./sec. if the temperature is 149 0C?
a. 1530.03 ft/sec
b. 1320 ft/sec
c. 1357.03 ft/sec
d. 1920.345 ft/sec
76. The wavelength of a sound of 20 kHz frequency is
a. 16.5 m
b. 16.5 cm
c. 16.5 mm
d. 16.5 um
77. The radio of frequencies is termed
a. Octave
b. Interval
c. Harmonics
d. Masking
78. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the pressure is doubled?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 6 dB
d. 4 dB
79. A term which is subjected but dependent mainly on frequency and also affected by
intensity,
a. Timbre
b. Quality
c. Frequency
d. Pitch
80. An effect that occurs in the ear where a louder sound can reduce or even stop the nerve
voltage generated by a weaker sound.
a. Piezoelectric effect
b. Skin effect
c. Lasing
d. Masking
81. For computation of ideal reverberation time, which formula is applicable?
a. Sabine
b. Stephen and Bate
c. Norris-Eyring
d. Notch
82. The __________ of the sound is a subjective effect which is a function of the ear and
brain.
a. Pitch
b. Frequency
c. Timbre
d. Loudness
83. Define as the time taken from the intensity of sound energy in the room to drop to one
millionth of its initial value.
a. Reverberation time
b. Transit time
c. Decaying time
d. Response time
84. __________ is the sound energy per unit area at right angles of the propagation direction,
per unit time.
a. Loudness
b. Coherence
c. Sound stress
d. Sound intensity
85. One octave above 600 Hz is
a. 601 Hz
b. 800 Hz
c. 1400 Hz
d. 1200 Hz
86. A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 m away. At this
distance, what is the sound power in watt?
a. 0.63
b. 1.26
c. 0.315
d. 0.56 x 10-6
87. The unit of loudness level
a. Sone
b. dB
c. Mel
d. Phon
88. Consist of a rapid succession of noticeable echoes.
a. Rarefaction
b. Refraction
c. Reflection
d. Flutter echo
89. Laid the foundations of acoustic theory of buildings.
a. Charles H. Townes
b. W.C Sabine
c. A. Javin
d. Stephen and Bate
90. An aural sensation by pressure variations in the air which are always produced by some
source of vibrations.
a. Music
b. Sound
c. Disturbance
d. Speech
91. Considered to be the threshold of hearing.
a. 10-12 W/cm2
b. 10-16 W/m2
c. 10-13 W/m2
d. 10-12 W/m2
92. The average absorption for a person is
a. 5.7 units
b. 4.7 units
c. 6.7 units
d. 3.7 units
93. The number of vibration or pressure fluctuations per seconds.
a. Frequency
b. Timbre
c. Quality
d. Pitch
94. Defined as the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction through
a cross-sectional area of 1 m2 at right angles to the direction.
a. Sound pressure
b. Loudness
c. Sound intensity
d. Pressure variation
95. What is the sound pressure level (SPL) of a sound having a RMS pressure of 200 N/m2 ?
a. 150 dB
b. 140 dB
c. 170 dB
d. 160 dB
96. The minimum sound intensity that can be heard is termed
a. Threshold of feeling
b. Threshold of pain
c. Threshold of sensation
d. Threshold of hearing
97. What is the intensity of the sound whose RMS pressure is 200 N/m2 ?
a. 96.9 W/m2
b. 97.9 W/m2
c. 95.9 W/m2
d. 94.9 W/m2
98. The unit of pitch.
a. sone
b. pitch
c. dB
d. Mel
99. What is the increase in sound pressure level in dB, if the intensity is doubled?
a. 2 dB
b. 3 dB
c. 4 dB
d. 6 dB
100.
The velocity of sound is considered to be constant at ________ for the purpose of
acoustics.
a. 300 m/s
b. 330 mm/s
c. 330 m/s
d. 330 cm/s
Radiation and wave propagation

1. ________ is the amount of voltage induced in wave by an electro magnetic wave.
a. receive voltage
b. magnetic induction
c. field strength
d. power density
2. An electro magnetic wave consists of ___________.
a. both electric and magnetic fields.
b. an electric field only
c. a magnetic field only
d. non-magnetic field only
3. What is the lowest layer of the ionosphere?
a. F1
b. F2
c. E
d. D
4. Who profounded electro magnetic radiation theory?
a. Sir Edward Appleton
b. James Clerk Maxwell
c. Christian Huygens
d. Sir Isaac Newton
5. The D, E and F layers are known as ____________.
a. Mark space Layers
b. Davinson- Miller Layers
c. Kennely Heaviside Layers
d. Appleton Layers
6. Different grouping of the electromagnetic spectrum.
a. band
b. bandwidth
c. channel
d. group
7. What is the relation in degrees of the electric and magnetic fields in an electromagnetic
wave?
a. 180 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 270 degrees
d. 45 degrees
8. A changing electric field gives rise to ________.
a. a magnetic field
b. sound field
c. electromagnetic waves
d. near and far fields
9. Frequencies in the UHF range propagate by means of
a. ground waves
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
10. In electromagnetic waves, polarization __________.
a. is caused by reflection
b. is due to the transverse nature of the waves
c. results from the longitudinal nature of the waves
d. is always vertical in an isotropic medium
11. Electromagnetic Waves are refracted when they ___________.
a. pass into a medium of different dielectric constants
b. are polarized at right angles to the direction of propagation
c. encounter a perfectly conducting surface
d. pass through a small slot in a conducting plane
12. What is the highest layer of the atmosphere?
a. ionosphere
b. stratosphere
c. troposphere
d. ozone layer
13. What is the thickest layer of the ionosphere?
a. F2
b. F1
c. D
d. E
14. Effective Earth radius to true earth radius ratio.
a. index of refraction
b. K factor
c. Fresnel zone
d. path profile
15. Fading due to interference between direct and reflected rays.
a. atmospheric-mutipath
b. Fresnel zone
c. reflection-multi path
d. Rayleigh fading
16. The layer that reflects very low frequency waves and absorbs medium frequency waves.
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
17. What layer is used for high-frequency day time propagation?
a. D Layer
b. E Layer
c. F1 Layer
d. F2 Layer
18. What is the highest frequency that can be sent straight upward and be returned to earth?
a. MUF
b. skip frequency
c. critical frequency
d. gyro frequency
19. High frequency range is from?
a. 0.3 to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. 3to 30MHz
20. Medium frequency range is from
a. 0.01 to 0.03 MHz
b. 0.03 to 0.3MHz
c. 0.3 to 3MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
21. In tropospheric scatter propagation, the attenuation is dependent on
a. scatter angle
b. take-off angle
c. antenna size
d. the troposphere
22. If the transmitter power remains constant, an increase in the frequency of the sky wave
will
a. lengthen the skip distance
b. increase the range of the ground wave
c. reduce the length of the skip distance
d. have no effect on the ground wave range
23. What is the unit of electric field strength?
a. volts per square meter
b. volt per square cm
c. volts per meter
d. milivolt per watt
24. Velocity of a radio wave in free space.
a. 186,000 miles per sec
b. 300x106 meters per sec

c. 162,000 nautical mile per sec
d. all of the above
25. Refers to the direction of the electric field vector in space.
a. polarization
b. directivity
c. radiation
d. ERP
26. An TEM wave whose polarization rotates.
a. vertically polarized
b. omnidirectional
c. horizontally polarized
d. circularly polarized
27. velocity of light in free space
a. 300x106m/s
b. 300x106km/s
c. 186,000km/s
d. 186,000m/s
28. What is the effective radiated power of a repeater with 200W transmitter power output,
4dB feed line loss, 4dB duplxer and circulator loss, and 10dB feed line antenna gain?
a. 2000W
b. 126W
c. 317W
d. 260W
29. Radio wave that is far from its sources is called
a. Plane wave
b. isotrpic wave
c. vertical wave
d. horizontal wave
30. Light goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of 40 degrees. The angle
of refraction is 30 degrees. The speed of light in B
a. is the same as that in A
b. is greater than that in A
c. maybe any of these, depending on the specific medium
d. is less than that in A
31. In a vacuum, the speed of an electromagnetic wave
a. depends on its constant
b. depends on its wavelength
c. depends on its electric and magnetic fields
d. is a universal constant
32. The depth of an object submerged in a transparent liquid

a. always seems more that its actual depth
b may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the object
c. always seems less than its actual depth
d. may seem less or more than its actual depth, depending on the transparent liquid
33. What is a wave front?
a. a voltage pulse in a conductor
b. a current in a conductor
c. a fixed point in an electromagnetic wave
d. a voltage pulse across a resistor
34. VHF ship station transmitters must have the capability of reducing carrier power to
a. 1W
b. 10W
c. 25W
d. 50W
35. Most of the effects an electro magnetic wave produces when it interacts with matter are
due to its
a. magnetic field
b. speed
c. frequency
d. electric field
36. A mobile receiver experiences dead areas of reception as a result of
a. atmospheric absorption
b. tropospheric scatter
c. sporadic E
d. shading of the RF signal by hills and trees
37. When the electric field is perpendicular in the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. elliptical
b. vertical
c. horizontal
d. circular
38. When the magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the earth, what is the
polarization of the TEM wave?
a. circular
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. elliptical
39. When the magnetic field is parallel to the surface of the earth, what is the polarization of
the TEM wave?
a. elliptical
b. horizontal
c. vertical
d. circular
40. What are the two interrelated fields considered to make up an electromagnetic wave
a. an electric field and a current field
b. an electric field and voltage field
c. an electric field and a magnetic field
d. a voltage and current fields
41. How does the bandwidth of the transmitted signal affect selective fading?
a. it is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths
b. it is equally pronounced at both narrow and wide bandwidths
c. it is more pronounced at wide bandwidths
d. the receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading
42. A wide-bandwidth communications systems in which the RF carrier varies according to
some predetermined sequence.
a. amplitude compandored single sideband
b. SITOR
c. spread spectrum communication
d. time-domain frequency modulation
43. A changing magnetic field gives rise to
a. sound field
b. magnetic field
c. electric field
d. nothing in particular
44. When a space-wave signal passes over a mountain ridge, a small part of the signal is
diffracted down the far side of the mountain. This phenomenon is called
a. discontinuity scattering
b. troposheric ducting
c. knife-edge diffraction
d. space-wave refraction
45. The index of refraction of a material medium
a. is greater than 1
b. is less than 1
c. is equal to 1
d. maybe any of the bove
46. At what speed do electromagnetic waves travel in free space?
a. approximately 468 million meters per second
b. approximately 186300 ft/s
c. approximately 300 million m/s
d. approximately 300 million miles/s

47. What is the effective earth radius when surface refractivity, and N equals 300?
a. 6370km
b.7270km
c.7950km
d. 8500km
48. If N = 250, what is the earth radius K-factor?
a. 1.23
b. 1.29
c. 1.33
d. 1.32
49. Electric field that lies in a plane perpendicular to the earths surface
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. circular polarization
d. elliptical polarization
50. Electric field that lies in a plane parallel to the earths surface
a. vertical polarization
b. horizontal polarization
c. circular polarization
d. elliptical polarization
51. Indicate which one of the following terms applies to trposcatter propagation
a. SIDs
b. fading
c. atmospheric storms
d. faraday rotation
52. VLF waves are used for some types of services because
a. of the low power required
b the transmitting antennas are of convenient size
c. they are very reliable
d. they penetrate the ionosphere easily
53. Indicate which of the following frequencies cannot be used for reliable beyond-thehorizon terrestrial communications without repeaters
a. 20KHz
b. 15MHz
c. 900MHz
d. 12GHz
54. High-frequency waves are
a. absorbed by the F2 layer
b. reflected by the D leayer
c. capable of use for long-distance communications on the moon

d. affected nby the solar cycle
55. Distances near the skip distance should be used for sky-wave propagation
a. to avaoid tilting
b. to prevent sky-wave and upper ray interference
c. to avoid the faraday effect
d. so as not to exceed the critical frequency
56. A ship-to-ship communications system is plague by fading. The best solution seems to be
the use of
a. a more directional antenna
b. a broadband antenna
c. frequency diversity
d. space diversity
57. A range of microwave frequencies more easily passed by the atmosphere than are the
others is called a
a. window
b. critical frequency
c. gyro frequency range
d. resonance in the atmosphere
58. frequencies in the UHF range normally propagate by means of
a. ground waves.
b. sky waves
c. surface waves
d. space waves
59. Tropospheric scatter is used with frequencies in the following range
a. HF
b. VHF
c. UHF
d. VLF
60. The ground wave eventually disappears as one moves away from the transmitter because
of
a. interference from the sky wave
b. loss of line of sight conditions
c. maximum single-hop distance limitation
d. tilting
61. in electromagnetic waves, polarization means
a. the physical orientation of magnetic field in space
b. the physical orientation of electric field in space
c. ionization
d. the presence of positive and negative ions
62. an electromagnetic waves travel in free space, only one of the following can happen to
them.
a. absorption
b. attenuation
c. refraction
d. reflection
63. the absorption of a radio waves by the atmosphere depends on
a. their frequency
b. their distance from the transmitter
c. the polarization of the waves
d. the polarization of the atmosphere
64. diffraction of electromagnetic waves
a. is caused by reflections from the ground
b. arises only with spherical wavefronts
c. will occur when the waves pass through a large slot
d. may occur around the edge of a sharp object
65. In an electromagnetic wave the electric field is

a. Parallel to both magnetic field and the wave direction
b. Perpendicular to both the magnetic field and the wave direction
c. Parallel to the magnetic field and perpendicular to the wave direction
d. Perpendicular to the magnetic field and parallel to the wave direction
66. The highest frequencies are found in
a. X-rays
b. Radio waves
c. Ultraviolet rays
d. Radar waves
67. Electromagnetic waves transport
a. Wavelength
b. Charge
c. Frequency
d. Energy
68. The ionosphere is a region of ionized gas in the upper atmosphere. The ionosphere is
responsible for
a. The blue color of the sky
b. Rainbows
c. Long distance radio communication
d. The ability of satellites to orbit the earth
69. Light of which the following colors has the shortest wavelength
a. Red
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Green
70. The quality in sound that corresponds to color in light is
a. Amplitude
b. Resonance
c. Waveform
d. Pitch
71. All real images
a. Are erect
b. Can appear on screen
c. Are inverted
d. Cannot appear on a screen
72. When a beam of light enters one medium from another, a quality that never changes is its
a. Direction
b. Frequency
c. Speed
d. Wavelength
73. Relative to the angle of incidence, the angle of refraction
a. Is smaller
b. Is larger
c. Is the same
d. Either A or B above
74. A light ray enters one medium from another along the normal. The angle of refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. Equal to the critical angle
d. Dependent on the indexes of refraction of the two media
75. What layer aids MF surface-wave propagation a little and reflects some HF waves in
daytime?
a. E layer
b. D layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
76. Dispersion is the term used to describe
a. The splitting of white light into its component colors in regraction
b. The propagation of light in straight lines
c. The bending of a beam of light when it goes from one medium to another
d. The bending of a beam of light when it strikes a mirror
77. The depth of an objects submerged in a transparent liquid

a. Always seems less than its actual depth
b. Always seems more than its actual depth
c. May seems more than its actual depth, depending on the index of refraction of the
liquid
d. May seem less or more than its actual depth depending on the angle of view
78. Total internal reflection can occur when light passes from one medium to another
a. That has a lower index of refraction
b. That has a larger index of refraction
c. That has the same index of refraction
d. At less than the critical angle
79. When the light ray approaches a glass-air interface from the glass side at the critical
angle, the angle of refraction is
a. 0
b. 90 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. Equal to the angle of incidence
80. The brightness of light source is called its luminous intensity , whose unit is
a. Candela
b. Lux
c. Lumen
d. Footcandle
81. Luminous efficiency is least for a
a. Low-wattage light bulb
b. Mercury vapour lamp
c. High-wattage light bulb
d. Fluorescent tube
82. The minimum illumination recommended for reading is
a. 8000 cd
b. 8000 lx
c. 8000 lm
d. 800W
83. Light enters a glass plate whose index of refraction is 1.6 at an angle of incidence of 30
degrees . the angle of refraction is
a. 18 degrees
b. 48 degrees
c. 19 degrees
d. 53 degrees
84. Light leaves a slab of transparent material whose index of refraction is 2 at an angle of
refraction of 0 degrees. The angle of incidence is
a. 0 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 90 degrees
85. Light enters a glass plate at an angle of incidence of 40 degrees and is refracted at an
angle refraction of 25 degrees. The index refraction of the glass is
a. 0.625
b. 1.52
c. 0.66
d. 1.6
86. An underwater swimmer shines a flash light beam upward at an angle of incidence of 40
degrees. The angle of refraction is 60 degrees. The index of refraction of water is
a. 0.67
b. 1.3
c. 0.74
d. 1.5
87. The critical angle of incidence for light going from crown glass (n=1.5) to ice (n=1.3) is
a. 12 degrees
b. 50 degrees
c. 42 degrees
d. 60 degrees
88. The solid angle subtended by a hemisphere about its ceter is
a. /2 sr
b. 2 sr
c. sr
d. depends on the radius of the hemisphere
89. the luminous flux emitted by a 60-cd isotropic light source is concentrated on an area of
0.5m2. the illumination of the area is
a. 9.6 lx
b. 377 lx
c. 120 lx
d. 1508 lx
90. Microwave signals propagate by way of the
a. Direct wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Standing wave
91. The ionosphere causes radio signals to be
a. Diffused
b. Absorbed
c. Refracted
d. Reflected
92. Ground wave communications is most effective in what frequency range?
a. 300KHz to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. Above 300MHz
93. The ionosphere has its greatest effect on signals in what frequency range?
a. 300KHz to 3MHz
b. 3 to 30 MHz
c. 30 to 300MHz
d. Above 300MHz
94. The type of radio wave responsible for long distance communications by multiple skips is
the
a. Groud wave
b. Direct wave
c. Surface wave
d. Sky wave
95. Line of sight communications is not a factor in which frequency range?
a. VHF
b. UHF
c. HF
d. Microwave
96. A microwave-transmitting antenna is 550ft high. The receiving antenna is 200ft high. The
minimum transmission distance is
a. 20 mi
b. 33.2 mi
c. 38.7 mi
d. 53.2 mi
97. To increase the transmission distance of UHF signal, which of the following should be
done?
a. Increase antenna gain
b. Increase antenna height
c. Increase transmitter power
d. Increase receiver sensitivity
98. States that power density is inversely proportional to the distance from its source.
a. Principle of reciprocity
b. Inverse square law
c. Huygens Princple
d. Faradays law
99.
gets in contact with the ionosphere and reflected by it.

a. Space wave
b. Sky wave
c. Surface wave
d. Satellite wave
100.
Highest layer in the ionosphere
a. F1
b. D
c. F2
d. E
101. Next lowest layer in the ionosphere.
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
102. What is the primary cause of ionization in the atmosphere?
a. Sun spot
b. Cosmic rays
c. Galactic disturbance
d. Ultraviolet radiation
103. Which layer does not disappear at night?
a. D
b. E
c. F1
d. F2
104. Which of the following uses surface wave propagation?
a. ELF
b. VLF
c. MF
d. All of these
105. The ability of the ionosphere to reflect a radio wave back to the earth is determined by
a. Operating frequency
b. Ion density
c. Angle of incidence
d. All of these
106. Highest frequency that can be used for skywave propagation between two given points
on earth.
a. Critical frequency
b. MUF
c. Cut off frequency
d. UHF
107. The shortest distance measured along the earths surface that a skywave is returned to
earth.
a. MUF
b. Quarter-wavelength
c. Skip distance
d. Skip zone
108. Fluctuation in the signal strength at the receiver.
a. Interference
b. Fading
c. Tracking
d. Variable frequency
109. Two or more antennas are used separated by several wavelengths
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
110. Two or more receivers are used using a single antenna.
a. Space diversity
b. Frequency diversity
c. Hybrid diversity
d. Polarization diversity
111. One of the following is not a cause of fading.
a. Interference between upper and lower rays of a sky wave.
b. Skywaves arriving at different number of hops
c. Interference due to ground reflected wave and skywave
d. Diversity
112. What do you call the gigantic emissions of hydrogen from the sun?
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Kennely-Heaviside
d. Sun spots
113. Sudden ionospheric disturbance
a. Solar flares
b. SIDs
c. Sun spots
d. Intertropical convergence
114. A means beyond the line of sight propagation of UHF signals.
a. Microwave propagation
b. Space wave propagation
c. Troposcatter propagation
d. Surface wave propagation
115. Two directional antennas are pointed so that their beams intersect in the troposphere.
a. Skywave
b. Surface wave
c. Microwave
d. Troposcatter
116. Super refraction.
a. Ducting
b. Trposcatter
c. Skywave
d. Space wave
117. A layer of warm air trapped above cooler air
a. Troposphere
b. SID
c. Duct
d. Huygens principle
118. Corresponds to voltage
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Gyro
d. Direction of propagation
119. Absence of reception
a. Skip distance
b. Maximum usable
c. Shadow zone
d. Twilight zone
120. Each point in a spherical waveform maybe a source of a secondary spherical wavefront.
a. Senlls law
b. Huygens principle
c. Rayleighs principle
d. De Morgans theore,
121. Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
a. Stratosphere
b. Troposphere
c. Ionosphere
d. Ozone layer
122. When is the E region most ionized?
a. At midday
b. At midnight
c. At duck
d. At dawn
123. Transequatorial propagation is best during
a. Night time
b. Afternoon or early evening
c. Noontime
d. Morning
124. Which of the following is most affected by knife-edge refraction?
a. Very high and ultra high frequencies
b. High frequencies
c. Medium frequency
d. Low frequency
125. Which ionosphere layer has an average height of 225km at night?
a. D layer
b. E layer
c. F1 layer
d. F2 layer
Transmission Fundamentals
1. What is the opposition to the transfer of energy which is considered the dominant
characteristic of a cable or circuit that emanates from its physical structure?
a. Conductance
b. Resistance
c. Reactance
d. Impedance
2. When load impedance equals to Zo of the line, it means that the load _____ all the power.
a. reflects
b. absorbs
c. attenuates
d. radiates
3. impedance matching ratio of a coax balun.
a. 1:4
b. 4:1
c. 2:1
d. 3:2
4. Which stands for dB relative level?
a. dBrn
b. dBa
c. dBr
d. dBx
5. Standard test tone used for audio measurement.
a. 800 Hz
b. 300 Hz
c. 100 Hz
d. 1000 Hz
6. When VSWR is equal to zero, this means
a. that no power is applied
b. that the load is purely resistive
c. that the load is a pure reactance
d. that the load is opened
7. _______ is the ratio of reflected voltage to the forward travelling voltage.
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. Reflection coefficient
d. ISWR
8. Transmission line must be matched to the load to ______.
a. transfer maximum voltage to the load
b. transfer maximum power to the load
c. reduce the load current

d. transfer maximum current to the load
9. Which indicate the relative energy loss in a capacitor?
a. Quality factor
b. Reactive factor
c. Dissipation factor
d. Power factor
10. What is the standard test tone?
a. 0 dB
b. 0 dBW
c. 0 dBm
d. 0 dBrn
11. The energy that neither radiated into space nor completely transmitted.
a. Reflected waves
b. Captured waves
c. Incident waves
d. Standing waves
12. Micron is equal to _______ meter.
a. 10-10
b. 10-9
c. 10-6
d. 10-3
13. 1 Angstrom (A) is equal to _______.
a. 10-3 micron
b. 10-10 m
c. 10-6 micron
d. 10-6 m
14. Why is it impossible to use a waveguide at low radio frequencies?
a. Because of the size of the waveguide
b. Due to severe attenuation
c. Due to too much radiation
d. All of these
15. ________ is the transmission and reception of information.
a. Modulation
b. Communications
c. Radiation
d. Emission
16. What is the loss of the circuit in dB if the power ration of output to input is 0.01?
a. 20
b. -20
c. 40
d. -40
17. Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to
a. Negative terminal
b. Reference
c. Ground
d. Positive terminal
18. The standing wave ratio is equal to _______ if the load is properly matched with the
transmission line.
a. Infinity
b. 0
c. -1
d. 1
19. ________ is the advantage of the balanced transmission line compared to unbalanced
line.
a. Low attenuation
b. Easy installation
c. Low radiation loss
d. Tensile strength
20. _______ is the method of determining the bandwidth of any processing system.
a. Fourier series
b. Spectral analysis
c. Frequency analysis
d. Bandwidth analysis
21. What causes the attenuation present in a waveguide?
a. The air dielectric filling the guide
b. The coating of silver inside
c. Losses in the conducting walls of the guide
d. Radiation loss
22. A device that converts a balanced line to an unbalanced line of a transmission line.
a. Hybrid
b. Stub
c. Directional coupler
d. Balun
23. What is the approximate line impedance of a parallel-strip line spaced 1 cm apart with the
length of 50 cm?
a. 10 ohms
b. 15 ohms
c. 18 ohms
d. 23 ohms
24. What is the average power rating of RG-58 C/u?

a. 25 W
b. 50 W
c. 75 W
d. 200 W
25. A coaxial cable used for high temperatures.
a. RG-58C
b. RG-11A
c. RG-213
d. RG-211
26. If you have available number of power amplifiers with a gain of 100 each, how many
such amplifiers do you need to cascade to give an overall gain of 60dB?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
27. You are measuring noise in a voice channel at a -4 dB test point level, the meter reads -73
dBm, convert the reading into dBrnCO.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 18
d. 21
28. The velocity factor for a transmission line
a. depends on the dielectric constant of the material used
b. increases the velocity along the transmission line
c. is governed by the skin effect
d. is higher for a solid dielectric than for air
29. Impedance inversion can be obtained by
a. a short-circuited stub
b. an open-circuited stub
c. a quarter-wave line
d. a half-wave line
30. Transmission lines when connected to antennas have
a. capacitive load
b. resistive load whose resistance is greater than the characteristic impedance of the line
c. resistive load whose resistance is less than the characteristic impedance of the line
d. resistive load at the resonant frequency
31. One of the following is not a bounded media.
a. Coaxial line
b. Two-wire line
c. Waveguide
d. Ocean
32. The impedance measured at the input of the transmission line when its length is infinite.
a. Input impedance
b. Open circuit impedance
c. Characteristic impedance
d. Short circuit impedance
33. The following are considered primary line constants except
a. conductance
b. resistance
c. capacitance
d. complex propagation constant
34. The dielectric constants of materials commonly used in transmission lines range from
about
a. 1.2 to 2.8
b. 2.8 to 3.5
c. 3.5 to 5.2
d. 1.0 to 1.2
35. Typically, the velocity factor (VF) of the materials used in transmission lines range from
a. 0.6 to 0.9
b. 0.1 to 0.5
c. 1.0 to 0.9
d. 0.6 to 0.8
36. For an air dielectric two-wire line, the minimum characteristic impedance value is
a. 85 ohms
b. 85 ohms
c. 90 ohms
d. 88 ohms
37. When a quarter-wave section transmission line is terminated by a short circuit and is
connected to an RF source at the other end, its input impedance is
a. inductive
b. capacitive
c. resistive
d. equivalent to a parallel resonant LC circuit
38. A transmitter operating at 30 MHz with 4 W output is connected via 10 m of RG-8A/u
cable to an antenna that has an input resistance of 300 ohms. Find the reflection
coefficient.
a. 0.71
b. 0.77
c. 0.97
d. 0.76
39. A quarter wave transformer is connected to a parallel wire line in order to match the line
to a load of 1000 ohms. The transformer has a characteristic impedance of 316.23 ohms.
The distance between centers is 4 inches. What is the percentage reduction in the
diameter of the line?
a. 85%
b. 83%
c. 86%
d. 90%
40. The concept used to make one Smith chart universal is called
a. ionization
b. normalization
c. rationalization
d. termination
41. What are the basic elements of communications system?
a. Source, transmission channel, transmitter
b. Transmitter, receiver, transmission channel
c. Information, transmission channel, receiver
d. Sender and receiver
42. ________ is the transmission of printed material over telephone lines.
a. Internet
b. Data communication
c. Telegraphy
d. Facsimile
43. ________ is a continuous tone generated by the combination of two frequencies of 350
Hz and 440 Hz used in telephone sets.
a. DC tone
b. Ringing tone
c. Dial tone
d. Call waiting tone
44. ________ are unidirectional amplifiers having 20-25 decibel gain that are placed about
75 km apart used to compensate for losses along the telephone line.
a. VF repeaters
b. Loading coils
c. Loop extenders
d. Echo suppressors
45. ________ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of interfacing
the handset to the local loop.
a. Resistor
b. Capacitor
c. Varistor
d. Induction coil
46. Pulse dialing has ________ rate.
a. 20 pulses/min
b. 10 pulses/min
c. 10 pulses/sec
d. 80 pulses/sec
47. ________ is a telephone wire that connects two central offices.
a. 2-wire circuit
b. Trunk line
c. Leased line
d. Private line
48. The central switching office coordinating element for all cell sites that has cellular
processor and a cellular switch. It interfaces with telephone company zone offices,
control call processing and handle billing activities.
a. MTSO
b. Cell site
c. PTSN
d. Trunk line
49. ________ in a cellular system performs radio-related functions for cellular site.
a. Switching system
b. Base station
c. Operation and support system
d. Mobile station
50. A technology used to increase the capacity of a mobile phone system.
a. Frequency re-use
b. Cell splitting
c. TDM
d. FDM
51. If the grade of service of a telephone system indicated P = 0.05, what does it mean?
a. Completed calls of 5%
b. Lost calls of 5%
c. Lost calls of 95%
d. Lost calls of 105%
52. ________ is the Out-of-Band signaling between Toll Central Offices (Bell System
Standard).
a. 3, 825 Hz
b. 3, 700 Hz
c. 2, 600 Hz
d. 800 Hz
53. In a telephone system, the customers telephone directory numbering is from 000 to 999,
what is the capacity of a telephone system numbering from 000 to 999?
a. 100 lines
b. 1000 lines
c. 10, 000 lines
d. 100, 000 lines
54. If the SWR is infinite, what type of load transmission line has?
a. Purely reactive
b. Purely resistive
c. Purely capacitive
d. Purely inductive
55. Not more than _______ digits make up an international telephone number as
recommended by CCITT REC. E. 161.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
56. One (1) Erlang is equal to _______.
a. 360 CCS
b. 36 CCS
c. 3.6 CCS
d. 100 CCS
57. Standard tariff for flat rate telephone service beyond the normal flat rate in that area.
a. WATS
b. OTLP
c. TIP
d. DTWX
58. The standard analog telephone channel bandwidth.
a. 300-3400 Hz
b. 1200 Hz
c. 200-3200 Hz
d. 300-3000 Hz
59. Type of switching in which a pair of wire from the telephone set terminates in a jack and
the switch is supervised by an operator.
a. Crossbar switching
b. Manual switching
c. Electronic switching
d. Step-by-step switching
60. Every time when the telephone is idle, the handset is in the _______ state.
a. On-hook
b. Off-hook
c. Busy
d. Spare
61. _______ is a component in the telephone set that has the primary function of
compensating for the local loop length.
a. Resistor
b. Varistor
c. Capacitor
d. Induction coil
62. What kind of receiver is used in conventional telephone handset?
a. Carbon
b. Electromagnetic
c. Ceramic
d. Capacitor
63. A voice-grade circuit using the PTN ha an ideal passband of
a. 0 to 4 Hz
b. 0 to 4 MHz
c. 0 to 4 kHz
d. 0 to 4 GHz
64. ________ is the minimum-quality circuit available using the PTN.
a. Basic voice grade (VG)
b. Basic voice channel (VC)
c. Basic voice band (VB)
d. Basic telephone channel
65. Direct distance dialing (DDD) network is called
a. Private-line network
b. PT network
c. Dial-up network
d. Trunk network
66. What is the advantage of sidetone?
a. Transmission efficiency is increased
b. Speaker increases his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
c. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
d. Assure the customer that the telephone is working
67. ________ is a special service circuit connecting two private branch exchanges (PBX).
a. Phantom line
b. Tie trunk
c. Tandem trunk
d. Private line
68. The published rates, regulation, and descriptions governing the provision of
communications service for public use.
a. Toll rate
b. Tariff
c. Bulk billing
d. Detailed billing
69. What is the power loss of a telephone hybrid?
a. 1 dB
b. 2 dB
c. 3 dB
d. 6 dB
70. Telephone channel has a band-pass characteristic occupying the frequency range of
_______.
a. 300-400 Hz
b. 300-3400 Hz
c. 300-3000 Hz
d. 300-2700 Hz
71. The first Strowger step-by-step switch was used in _______.
a. 1875
b. 1890
c. 1897
d. 1913
72. What is the phase delay of an 800 Hz voice signal if the phase shift is 15 degrees?
a. 52usec
b. 1.25usec
c. 83.33usec
d. 26usec
73. What is the CCITT recommendation for a preparation of loss plan, a variable loss plans
and a fixed loss plan?
a. G. 133
b. G. 141
c. G. 132
d. G. 122
74. What is the diameter of a copper wire to be used in a 16 km loop with a dc loop
resistance of 100 ohms/km?
a. 0.838 mm
b. 0.465 mm
c. 1.626 mm
d. 2.159 mm
75. What kind of cell is appropriate for load management, fast moving mobiles and lowusage areas?
a. Pico cells
b. Micro cells
c. Nano cells
d. Umbrella cells
76. In cellular networks, standard base station antennas are placed by _______.
a. adaptive array
b. flat plate antenna
c. dipole array
d. focused antenna
77. What is the basis of the first generation wireless local loop?
a. Digital cellular technology
b. Analogue cellular technology
c. PSTN
d. AMPS technology
78. When the calling party hears a busy tone on his telephone, the call is considered
a. lost
b. disconnected
c. completed
d. incomplete
79. Short-circuited stubs are preferred to open circuited stubs because the latter are
a. more difficult to make and connect
b. made of a transmission line with a different characteristic impedance
c. liable to radiate
d. incapable of giving a full range of reactances
80. What is the ratio of the reflected voltage to the incident voltage?
a. VSWR
b. ISWR
c. SWR
d. Coefficient of reflection
81. One method of determining antenna impedance.
a. Sub matching
b. Trial and error
c. Smith chart
d. Quarter-wave matching
82. ________ is a single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.
a. Single-wire line
b. Microstrip
c. Twin-lead
d. Coaxial line
83. Coaxial cable impedance is typically _______.
a. 150 to 300 ohms
b. 50 to 75 ohms
c. 30 to 45 ohms
d. 300 to 600 ohms
84. Waveguide becomes compulsory above what frequencies?
a. Above 3 GHz
b. Above 10 kHz
c. At 300 MHz
d. Above 10 GHz
85. Nominal voice channel bandwidth is _______.
a. 20 to 30 kHz
b. 0 to 3 kHz
c. 4 kHz
d. 55 kHz above
86. Echo suppressors are used on all communications system when the round trip
propagation time exceeds _______.
a. 50 ms
b. 30 ms
c. 100 ms
d. 1 ms
87. A radio transmission line of 300 ohms impedance is to be connected to an antenna having
an input impedance of 150 ohms. What is the impedance of a quarter-wave matching
line?
a. 212 ohms
b. 250 ohms
c. 200 ohms
d. 150 ohms
88. Quarter-wavelength line is used as _______.
a. impedance transformer
b. lecher line
c. transmission line
d. harmonic suppressor
89. The transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in higher modes is
usually called
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. power lines
d. twisted wire of telephone line
90. Why is nitrogen gas sometimes used in waveguide?

a. To increase the distributed capacitance
b. To keep the waveguide dry
c. To reduce the skin effect at the walls of the guide
d. To raise the guides wave impedance
91. The apparent speed of propagation along a waveguide based on the distance between
wavefronts along the walls of the guide is called
a. group velocity
b. phae velocity
c. normal velocity
d. abnormal velocity
92. How do you couple in and out of a waveguide?
a. Wrap a coil of wire around one end of the waveguide
b. Insertion of an E-probe into the waveguide
c. Insertion of an H-loop into the waveguide
d. Both B and C
93. A rectangular waveguide is operating in the dominant TE10 mode. The associated flux
lines are established
a. transversely across the narrow dimension of the waveguide
b. transversely across the wide dimension of the waveguide
c. in the metal walls parallel to the direction of propagation
d. in the metal walls perpendicular to the direction of propagation
94. For dominant mode of a rectangular waveguide, the distance between two instantaneous
consecutive positions of maximum field intensity (in a direction parallel to the walls of
the waveguide) is referred to as half of the
a. free-space wavelength
b. cutoff wavelength in the wide dimension
c. guide wavelength
d. group wavelength
95. The guide wavelength, in a rectangular waveguide is
a. equal to the free-space wavelength at the cutoff frequency
b. equal to the free-space wavelength for the same signal frequency
c. less than the free-space wavelength at the cut-off frequency
d. greater than the free-space wavelength at the same signal frequency
96. Using the TE10 mode, microwave power can only be transmitted in free rectangular guide
provided
a. the wider dimension is less than one-half of the wavelength in free space
b. the narrow dimension is less than one-quarter of the wavelength in free space
c. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the guide wavelength
d. the wide dimension is greater than one-half of the wavelength in free space
97. If the signal frequency applied to a rectangular guide is increased and the dominant mode
is employed
a. the free space wavelength is increased
b. the phase velocity increased
c. the guide wavelength is increased
d. the group velocity, Vg, is increased
98. If a 6 GHz signal is applied to a rectangular waveguide and the reflection angle is 20 o,
what is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 6.10 cm
b. 5.32 cm
c. 4.78 cm
d. 5.00 cm
99. The inner dimensions of a rectangular wavelength are 1.75 cm by 3.5 cm. The cutoff
wavelength for the dominant mode is
a. 1.75 cm
b. 3.5 cm
c. 7.0 cm
d. 0.4375 cm
100.
A signal whose wavelength is 3.5 cm is being propagated along a guide whose
inner dimensions are 2 cm by 4 cm. What is the value of the guide wavelength?
a. 3.12 cm
b. 3.89 cm
c. 3.57 cm
d. 6.30 cm
101.
The frequency range over which a rectangular waveguide is excited in the
dominant mode is limited to
a. the difference between the frequency for which the reflection angle is 90o and the
frequency for which angle is zero
b. the difference between the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to
the cutoff value and the frequency for which the free-space wavelength is equal to the
guide wavelength
c. the difference between the frequency at which the cutoff wavelength is twice the
narrow dimension
d. none of these
102.
If a rectangular waveguide is to be excited in the dominant mode, the E-probe
should be inserted
a. at the sealed end
b. at a distance of one quarter wavelength from the sealed end
c. at a distance of one-half wavelength from the sealed end
d. at a distance of three-quarters of a wavelength from the sealed end
103.
A quarter-wave line is connected to an RF generator and is shorted out at the far
end. What is the input impedance to the line generator?
a. A low value of resistance
b. A high value of resistance
c. A capacitive resistance which is equal in the value to the lines surge impedance
d. An inductive resistance which is equal to the value to the lines surge impedance
104.
If the SWR on a transmission line has a high value, the reason could be
a. an impedance mismatch between the line and the load
b. that the line is non-resonant
c. a reflection coefficient of zero at the load
d. that the load is matched to the line
105.
If a quarter-wave transmission line is shorted at one end
a. there is minimum current at the shorted end
b. the line behaves as a parallel-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
c. the line behaves as a series-tuned circuit in relation to the generator
d. there is a minimum voltage at the shorted end
106.
A 50-ohm transmission line is feeding an antenna which represents a 50 ohm
resistive load. To shorten the line, the length must be
a. any convenient value
b. an odd multiple of three quarters of a wavelength
c. an odd multiple of half a wavelength
d. an even multiple of a quarter of a wavelength
107.
The outer conductor of the coaxial cable is usually grounded
a. at the beginning and at the end of the cable
b. only at the beginning of the cable and only at the end of the cable
c. only at the end of the cable
d. at the middle of the cable
108.
A feature of an infinite transmission line is that
a. its input impedance at the generator is equal to the lines surge impedance
b. its phase velocity is greater than the velocity of light
c. no RF current will be drawn from the generator
d. the impedance varies at different positions on the line
109.
When the surge impedance of a line is matched to a load, the line will
a. transfer maximum current to the load
b. transfer maximum voltage to the load
c. transfer maximum power to the load
d. have a VSWR equal to zero
110.
A lossless line is terminated by a resistive load which is not equal to the surge
impedance. If the value of the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the VSWR is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 15
111.
Ratio of the mismatch between the antenna and the transmitter power.
a. Standing wave pattern
b. Reflection coefficient
c. SWR
d. Index of refraction
112.
Emission designation for a facsimile.
a. H3E and A4E
b. R3E and A4E
c. F4E and J3E
d. F3C and A3E
113.
Commonly used telephone wire.
a. AWG #19
b. AWG #18
c. AWG #30
d. AWG #33
114.
What is the distance traveled by a wave in the time of one cycle?
a. Frequency
b. Hop
c. Wavelength
d. Crest
115.
The velocity factor is inversely proportional with respect to the _______.
a. square of the dielectric constant
b. square root of the dielectric constant
c. dielectric current
d. square root of refractive index
116.
________ is a hollow structure that has no center conductor but allows waves to
propagate down its length.
a. Waveguide
b. Hybrid
c. Pipe
d. Directional coupler
117.
To connect a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, _______ is used.
a. hybrid circuit
b. balun
c. directional coupler
d. quarter-wave transformer matching circuit
118.
What length for which the input power has been halved for a transmission line
with an attenuation of 6 dB/km?
a. 1.5 km
b. 0.5 km
c. 63 km
d. 2 km
119.
Ina waveguide, _______ is a specific configuration of electric and magnetic fields
that allows a wave to propagate.
a. set-up
b. coupler
c. channel
d. mode
120.
A rectangular waveguide has dimensions of 3 cm x 5 cm. What is the dominant
mode cut-off frequency?
a. 2 GHz
b. 3 GHz
c. 2.5 GHz
d. 3.5 GHZ
121.
________ are transmission lines which can convey electromagnetic waves only in
higher order modes?
a. Coaxial cables
b. Twisted pairs of telephone wire
c. Power cables
d. Waveguides
122.
The amount of uncertainty in a system of symbols is also called
a. bandwidth
b. loss
c. entropy
d. quantum
123.
The twists in twisted wire pairs
a. reduced electromagnetic interference
b. occur at a 30-degree angle
c. eliminate loading
d. were removed due to cost
124.
An example of a bounded medium is
a. coaxial cable
b. waveguide
c. fiber-optic cable
d. all of the above
125.
Loading means the addition of
a. resistor
b. capacitor
c. bullet
d. inductance
126.
What is the most commonly used transmission line for high frequency
application?
a. Two-wire balance line
b. Single wire
c. Three-wire line
d. Coaxial
127.
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon its
a. length
b. conductor diameter
c. conductor spacing
d. dielectric material
128.
One of the following is not a common transmission line impedance.
a. 50 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 120 ohms
d. 300 ohms
129.
For maximum absorption of power at the antenna, the relationship between the
characteristic impedance of the line Zoand the load impedance ZL should be
a. Zo = ZL
b. Zo > ZL
c. Zo < ZL
d. Zo = 0
130.
The mismatch between antenna and transmission line impedance cannot be
corrected for by
a. using LC matcging network
b. adjusting antenna length
c. using a balun
d. adjusting the length of transmission line
131.
________ is a pattern of voltage and current variations along a transmission line
not terminated in its characteristic impedance.
a. An electric field
b. Radio waves
c. Standing waves
d. A magnetic field
132.
Which is the desirable SWR on a transmission line?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Infinity
133.
A 50ohm coax is connected to a 73-ohm antenna. What is the SWR?
a. 0.685
b. 1
c. 1.46
d. 2.92
134.
What is the most desirable reflection coefficient?
a. 0
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. Infinity
135.
What is the ratio expressing the percentage of incident voltage reflected on a
transmission line?
a. Velocity factor
b. Standing-wave ratio
c. Reflection coefficient
d. Line efficiency
136.
The minimum voltage along a transmission line is 260 V, while the maximum is
390 V, the SWR is
a. 0.67
b. 1.0
c. 1.2
d. 1.5
137.
One meter is one wavelength at a frequency of
a. 150 MHz
b. 164 MHz
c. 300 MHz
d. 328 MHz
138.
At very high frequencies, transmission lines act as
a. Tuned circuits
b. Antennas
c. Insulators
d. Resistors
139.
A shorted quarter-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
140.
A shorted half-wave line at the operating frequency acts like a/an
a. Capacitor
b. Inductor
c. Series resonant circuit
d. Parallel resonant circuit
141.
A medium least susceptible to noise?
a. Shielded pair
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic
d. Coaxial
142.
A medium most widely used in LANs?
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Twisted pair
c. Fiber-optic cable
d. Coaxial
143.
The most commonly used transmission line in television system.
a. Parallel-wire line
b. Coaxial cable
c. Waveguide
d. Open-wire ceramic supports
144.
The impedance of a TV transmission line depends on several factors. Which is not
one of those factors?
a. Diameter
b. Length of the wire
c. Dielectric material
d. Separation between conductors
145.
DC blocks are used in coaxial transmission line for the purpose of
a. passing DC while blocking AC
b. passing AC voltage but prevent DC
c. preventing AC voltage from reaching the pre-amplifier
d. preventing AC power supply voltage from being shorted by a balun or band
splitter
146.
_______ is a type of interference caused by off-air TV channels 2 and 4, plus a
satellite dish operating on channel 3.
a. Adjacent channel interference
b. Ghost
c. Co-channel interference
d. Crosstalk
147. Dithering (in TVRO communication) is a process of
a. Reducing the effect of noise on the TVRO video signal
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
b. Centering the video fine tuning on TVRO channels

c. Moving the feedhorn rotor to the precise angle
d. Moving the actuator exactly onto the desired satellite beam
A network that has an input of 75dB and an output of 35dB. The loss of the network
is
a. -40db
b. 40db
c. 40dBm
d. -4dBm
Important useful quantities describing waveforms.
a. Time and frequency
b. Voltage and current
c. Frequency and voltage
d. Power and frequency
Halving the power means
a. 6-dB gain
b. 3-dB loss
c. 3-dB gain
d. 6-dB loss
One Neper (Np) is how many decibels?
a. 8.866
b. 8.686
c. 8.688
d. 8.868
A signal is amplified 100 times in power. The dB gain is
a. 20dB
b. 119dB
c. 15dB
d. 25dB
Which of the following is used to measure SWR?
a. Spectrum analyzer
b. Reflectometer
c. Oscilloscope
d. Multimeter
214-056 twin lead which is commonly used for TV lead-in has a characteristic
impedance of
a. 52 ohms
b. 75 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 300 ohms
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which is to act a s a

quarterwave matching transformer between a 175 ohms transmission line and 600
ohms load?
a. 300.04 ohms
b. 324.04 ohms
c. 310.04 ohms
d. 320.04 ohms
What is the EIRP in dBW of a 50dB antenna connected to a transmitter with an
output of 10kW through a transmission line with loss of 5dB?
a. 85dBW
b. 955 dBW
c. 90 dBW
d. 80 dBW
A coaxial cable is a good example of a/an
a. Unbounded medium
b. Transmission channel
c. Non-metallic medium
d. Bounded medium
If a quarterwave transformer is required to match a 180 ohm load to a transmission
line with and impedance of 300 ohms, what should be the characteristic impedance of
the matching ransformer? Assume that the matching transformer is to be connected
directly to the load.
a. 180 ohms
b. 232 ohms
c. 300 ohms
d. 480 ohms
A transmitter of 100W RF power output, 100% modulated is operating on a
frequency of 169MHz. The antenna transmission line consists of a 50 ohms coaxial
cable 150ft long. The coaxial inner conductor outer diameter is 0.162in. determine
the outside diameter of the outer conductor if the outer conductor has a thickness of
0.05 in(assume K=1).
a. 1.0 in
b. 0.9in
c. 0.7in
d. 0.5in
In the preceding problem , calculate the line current.
a. 1.7A
b. 1.3A
c. 1.5A
d. 1.0A
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
167.
Determine also the total attenuation of the line in the preceding problem.
a. 2.0dB
b. 1.5 dB
c. 2.5 dB
d. 1.0 dB
What is the maximum subscriber loop length, in ft, of a telephone system if the
signalling resistance is 1800ohms using a telephone cable pair of gauge #26 with
loop resistance of 83.5 ohms per 100ft. Assume the telephone set resistance is equal
to 200 ohms.
a. 15,161.7 feet
b. 19,161 feet
c. 15,300 feet
d. 20,000 feet
If the same subscriber loop above limits the voice attenuation to a maximum of 6dB,
what is the maximum allowable subscriber loop length, in feet, using the same gauge
#26 telephone wire? Assume a 2.7dB loss per mile.
a. 20,000 ft
b. 13,900 ft
c. 15,280ft
d. 11,733ft
The input is 0.1W and the network gain is 13dB, the output is
a. 2.0W
b. 2.5W
c. 1.5W
d. 1.8W
Known as one-tenth of a neper.
a. dB
b. dBm
c. dBp
d. dNp
the input impedance of a quarterwave short-circuited transmission line at its resinant
frequency is
a. 0 ohms
b. Infinite or an open circuit
c. Ohm
d. 70 ohms
The ratio of the largest rms value to the smallest rms value of the voltage in the line
is called
a. SWR
b. ISWR
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
c. VSWR
An open-wire, two-wire transmission line is to be connected to a dipole antenna
through a quarter-wave matching stub. At a frequency of 10 MHz, compute the
length of the dipole
a. 20 meters
b. 7.5 meters
c. 15 meters
d. 25 meters
From the preceding problem, compute also the length of the quarterwave stub.
a. 15 meters
b. 7.5 meters
c. 20 meters
d. 25 meters
To find the characteristic impedance of a coaxial cable, measurements are made with
(a) the far end open circuited and (b) far end short circuited, the corresponding
readings being a) Ro=3ohms and Xc=55 ohms, capacitive b) RS = 10 ohms and XL =
90 ohms, inductive. What is the characteristic impedance Zo of the line?
a. 75.7-j2.0 ohms
b. 70.7+j1.19 ohms
c. 87.5 j5 ohms
d. 70.7 j1.97 ohms
A TV antenna receives a signal measured at 200mV and is immediately amplified by
a preamplifier with a 15dB gain. This amplified signal then passes through a coaxial
cable with 3dB loss, what is the resulting input to the TV set, in dBmV?
a. 1.98
b. 13.98
c. -1.98
d. -13.98
The characteristic impedance of a transmission line does not depend upon
its___________.
a. Conductor spacing
b. Conductor diameter
c. Length
d. Conductor radius
What does a power difference of -3dB mean?
a. A loss of one third of the power
b. A loss of one half of the power
c. A loss of three watts of power
d. No significant change
174.
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
Which of the following is an advantage of the balance transmission line?

a. Easy installation
b. Outer shield eliminates radiation losses
c. Low attenuation
d. None of these
Waveguides are used mainly for microwave transmission because
a. They are bulky at lower frequencies
b. Losses are heavy at lower frequencies
c. They depend on straight line propagation
d. No generators are powerful enough to excite them
The input is 1W and the network loss is 27dB, the output is
a. 1mW
b. 3mW
c. 2mW
d. 4mW
A combiner has two inputs +30dBm and +30dBm, what is the resultant output?
a. +36 dBm
b. +30 dBm
c. +60 dBm
d. +33 dBm
The ratio of the smallest to the largest rms current value is called
a. SWR
b. VSWR
c. ISWR
If the ratio of the maximum current to minimum current in a transmission line is 2:1
then the ratio of the maximum voltage to minimum voltage is
a. 4:1
b. 1:2
c. 1:4
d. 2:1
Two wires of 600 ohms characteristic impedance is to be constructed out of a number
12 wire (81 mils). Find the attenuation of the line at 0.6GHz per 100feet length
a. 0.05 dB
b. 0.55 dB
c. 0.44 dB
d. 0.35 dB
In the preceding problem, determine the spacing between wires from center to center.
a. 6 in
b. 4 in
182.
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
c. 5 in
d. 3 in
A lossless transmission line has a shunt capacitance of 100nF/m and a series
inductance of 4mH/m. What is the characteristic impedance?
a. 500 ohms
b. 400ohms
c. 300ohms
d. 200hms
A ten times power change in transmission system is equivalent to
a. 10dBm
b. 1dB
c. 20dB
d. 100dB
A type of transmission line employed where balanced properties are required.
a. Balun
b. Parallel-wire line
c. Coaxial line
d. Quarterwave line
What is the characteristic impedance of a transmission line which has a capacitance
of 40nF/ft and an inductance of 0.5mH/ft
a. 111.8 ohms
b. 110.8 ohms
c. 112.8 ohms
d. 109.8 ohms
The input power to a loss-free cable is 5W. If the reflected power is 7dB down on the
incident power, the output power to the load is
a. 4W
b. 5W
c. 6W
d. 7W
To be properly matched the ratio of a maximum voltage along a transmission line
should be equal to
a. 1
b. 10
c. 50
d. 2
A coaxial line with an outer diameter of 6mm has a 50 ohms characteristic
impedance. If the dielectric constant of the insulation is 1.60., calculate the inner
diameter.
a. 2.09cm
189.
190.
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
b. 2.09in
c. 2.09mm
d. 2.09mm
If an amplifier has equal input and out impedance, what voltage ratio does the gain of
50dB represent?
a. 316.2
b. 325.2
c. 320.1
d. 315.0
What is the inductance per foot of a cable that has a capacitance of 50 pF/ft and a
characteristic impedance of 60 ohms?
a. 0.167uH/ft
b. 0.178 uH/ft
c. 0.19 uH/ft
d. 0.18 uH/ft
The ratio between the energy absorbed by a surface to the total energy received by
the surface.
a. Reflection coefficient
b. Absorption coefficient
c. Linear coefficient
d. Thermal coefficient
When the diameter of the conductors of a wire transmission line is held constant, the
effect of decreasing the distance between the conductors is
a. Increase the surge impedance
b. Increase the radiation resistance
c. Decrease the SWR
d. Decrease the impedance
The higher the gauge number if a conductor
a. The bigger the diameter
b. The higher the resistance or the smaller the diameter
c. The higher the resistance
d. None of the above
A short length transmission line used to reduce/eliminate standing waves in the main
transmission line.
a. Stub
b. Balun
c. /4 transformer
d. slot
ratio of reflected power to incident power?
a. Incidence
196.
197.
198.
199.
200.
b. Reflectance
c. Reflection index
d. None of these
A quarter wave transformer is used to match a 600 ohms lad antenna to a ling of 52
ohms impedance, the characteristic impedance of the matching transformer is
a. 200 ohms
b. 150 ohms
c. 176 ohms
d. 300 ohms
What is the capacitance of 55 miles #44 copper wire spaced 18 inches? From wire
tables, #44 wire has a radius to 0.10215 in.
a. 0.476uF
b. 0.476nF
c. 0.476pF
d. 0.476fF
A two-transmission line consists of No. 12 wire AWG (81mils). The distance
between wire centers is 10 inches. What is the characteristic impedance of the line?
a. 650 ohms
b. 300 ohms
c. 600 ohms
d. 660 ohms
In the preceding problem, what is the attenuation in dB per 100ft of the line for a
frequency of 4 MHz?
a. 0.05
b. 0.03
c. 0.04
d. 0.06
What is the SWR when a transmission line is terminated in a short circuit?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Infinite
d. indeterminate
1. Typical speech power

A. 10 to 1000 W
B. 100 to 1000 mW
C. 10 to 1000 nW
D. 100 to 1000 pW
2. The maximum intelligibility for voice frequency is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
3. The maximum voice energy is located between
A. 250 and 500 Hz
B. 1000 and 3000 Hz
C. 500 and 1000 Hz
D. 3000 and 5000 Hz
4. A device used to measure speech volume.
A. speech meter
B. volume meter
C. volume unit meter
D. speedometer
5. By definition, for a sine wave
A. 0 dBm = 0 V.U.
B. 0 dBW = 0 V.U.
C. 0 dBa = 0 V.U.
D. 0 dBf = 0 V.U.
6. Presently, this is the standard frequency bandwidth for voice transmission.
A. 0 to 4000 Hz
B. 100 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 300 to 3000 Hz
7. Which of the following is commonly used wire for subscriber loop design?
A. AWG # 19
B. AWG # 18
C. AWG # 30
D. AWG # 33
8. The resistance limit for No. 2 Crossbar Exchange (US) is
A. 1300
B. 2000
C. 1250
D. 1200
9. AWG # 26 has a typical loss of
A. 0.21 dB/1000 ft.
B. 0.32 dB/1000 ft.
C. 0.41 dB/1000 ft.
D. 0.51 dB/1000 ft.
10. What is the standard voice channel spacing?
A. 44 MHz
B. 40 kHz
C. 4 kHz
D. 40 MHz
11. Which tester is used to measure SWR?
A. Multimeter
B. Oscilloscope
C. Spectrum analyzer
D. Reflectometer
12. What is singing?
A. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce
a tone having a frequency equal to the sum of the frequencies of the signals
intermodulated.
B. The result of intermodulating two or more signals of different frequencies to produce
a tone having a frequency higher than that of the signal having the highest frequency.
C. An undesired self-sustained oscillation in a system, generally caused by excessive
positive feedback.
D. An art or form of entertainment that can make one rich.
13. Which stage increases the selectivity of the circuit in an AM receiver?
A. Detector
B. IF stage
C. Modulator
D. Mixer
14. The ________ of radio receiver amplify weak signal and produce a desirable
intelligence at the output speaker.
A. sensitivity
B. selectivity
C. reliability
D. fidelity
15. Full-duplex transmission means
A. One-way transmission
B. 24-hour transmission
C. Broadcast transmission
D. Two-way simultaneous transmission

16. What is a multidrop line?
A. A piece of wire with a thick insulating material that serves to protect the conductive
materials from damage in the event the wire is dropped.
B. A line designed to withstand high pressure.
C. A line or circuit interconnecting several situations.
D. A bus line
17. A passive _________ is an electronic device which reduces signal strength by a
specified amount in dB.
A. Splitter
B. Filter
C. Trimmer
D. Attenuator
18. The signal quality of the calls is constantly monitored by the base station, when the
quality of the calls drops below a certain specified level. The base request the MTSO to
try and find a better cell site.
A. Hand-off
B. Cell splitting
C. Roaming
D. Frequency reuse
19. A digital identification associated with a cellular system.
A. SAT
B. SID
C. ESN
D. MIN
20. How many seconds does facsimile transmit a stranded page?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 20
D. 25
21. A kind of recording used in facsimile.
A. Electrolytic recording
B. Electrothermal recording
C. Electropercussive recording
D. Electrostatic recording
22. A type of distortion a facsimile produce when it becomes out of synchronization?
A. Pincushion
B. Barrel
C. Skewing
D. Fattening
23. What is an acoustic coupler?

A. A device that radiates audible signals via a transmitting antenna
B. A device that converts electric signals into audio signals, enabling data to be
transmitted over the public telephone network via a conventional telephone
handset
C. A device that receives audible signals and retransmits them at VHF frequencies
D. A transducer
24. Cause a herringbone pattern in facsimile
A. Single-frequency interference
B. Crosstalk
C. Phase jitter
D. Noise
25. The _______ in an FM receiver causes a stronger signal to dominate over a weaker
signal on the same frequency.
A. Capture effect
B. Flywheel effect
C. Hall effect
D. Skin effect
26. A device that converts a 2-wire circuit to a 4-wire circuit.
A. RS-232 interface
B. Hybrid circuit
C. Balun
D. Stub
27. ______ theory is deciding between a set of hypothesis when given a collection of
imperfect measurements.
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
28. ______ of a data reduction says that when reducing a set of data into the form of an
underlying mode, one should be maximally non-committal with respect to missing data.
A. Jaynes maximum entropy principle
B. Kullback principle of minimum discrimination
C. Minimum discrimination\
D. Maximum entropy
29. _______ is selecting the best value of a parameter from a continuum of possible values
when gives a collection if imperfect measurements
A. Estimation
B. Traffic
C. Decision
D. Nyquist
30. Combination of madulator, channel, and detector.
A. Transceiver
B. Transponder
C. T/R channel
D. Discrete channel
31. What is the frequency band of DECT?
A. 1.88 1.90 GHz
B. 1.68 1.70 GHz
C. 1.48 1.50 GHz
D. 1.28 1.30 GHz
32. How many simultaneous calls does each DECT system can support?
A. 96
B. 12
C. 24
D. 49
33. How many simultaneous calls does a DECT radio transceiver can assess at any given
time?
A. 120
B. 240
C. 480
D. 960
34. The AGC voltage of a radio receiver is always _______.
A. Present before adjustments can be made
B. DC, but may have either polarity positive DC
C. Positive DC
D. Negative
35. What is a concentrator?
A. A system that improves the signal-to-noise ratio by compressing the volume range of
a signal.
B. A device that varies the characteristics of a carrier signal in accordance with the
waveform of a modulating signal which contains useful information
C. A switching system that lets a large number of telephone or data processing
subscribers use a lesser number of transmission lines or a narrow bandwidth
D. Equipment in the central office.
36. If you find that an SAW filter output is 6 dB down from the input of a receiver during
test, ______
A. This is normal.
B. The device if faulty
C. The receiver is improperly terminated
D. The filter is not resonating

37. A triple conversion superheterodyne receiver, diode mixer stages are
A. Operated in the linear region
B. Operated in the nonlinear region
C. Operated as Class-A amplifiers
D. Operated as Class-B amplifiers
38. What is a leased line?
A. A piece of wire used in a local area network in one building
B. A piece of wire connecting a telephone set to a PABX
C. A temporary connection of one computer to a mainframe via a modern and a
telephone line
D. A permanent circuit for a private use within a communication network
39. If two FM signals of different strengths are received on the same frequency
A. One steady heterodyne will appear in the AM output
B. Both will appear in the AF output
C. Only the stronger will appear in the AF output
D. Neither signal will be intelligence unless the weaker signal is at least 10 times
40. Cellular mobile system was first operated in
A. 1979
B. 1981
C. 1983
D. 1985
41. TACS is a cellular system with ______ channels.
A. 666
B. 1000
C. 832
D. 200
42. Supervisory Audio Tone (SAT) has _______ frequency.
A. 5960 Hz
B. 6000 Hz
C. 6040 Hz
D. 1004 z
43. What is the number of channels of a cellular system with an allocated spectrum of 25
MHz and with a channel of 30 kHz bandwidth?
A. 833
B. 240
C. 1000
D. 666
44. GSSM uses what digital modulation technique?
A. QAM
B. GFSK
C. BPSK
D. GMSK
45. What is the power output of Personal Communication System (PCS)?
A. 10 mW
B. 75 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 10 W
46. RG-B8 cable has a loss of about ______ dB at cellular frequencies up to 15 ft. length.
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
47. The signals designed to keep the receivers and transmitters aligned.
A. Carrier frequencies
B. Pilot carrier signals
C. Synchronizing signals
D. Reference signals
48. If the spacing of a two-wire open air transmission line is 12 inches and the conductor
diameter is 0.25 inch, the characteristic impedance is
A. 547
B. 357
C. 273
D. 300
49. The impedance of the quarterwave transformer used to match a 600 line to a 300
load is
A. 382
B. 424
C. 565
D. 712
50. When a line and a load are match the reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
51. When line is terminated in an open circuit load, the reflection coefficient is
A. Unity
B. Zero
C. Positive infinity
D. Negative infinity
52. A 300 ohms line is terminated in a resistance load of 200 ohms, the VSWR is
A. 0.65
B. 1.5
C. Unity
D. Zero
53. If the reflection coefficient is 0.5, the standing wave ratio is
A. 0.33
B. Unity
C. 3
D. Zero
54. To least the fault of the given line, a signal is fed to the line, 30 s later the signal
returned. What is the distance of the fault?
A. 9000 m
B. 300 m
C. 100 m
D. 4500 m
55. The telephone set is powered by the central office on the ring side at
A. 42 to 52 Vdc
B. 42 to -52 Vdc
C. 24 to 64 Vdc
D. 24 to 64 Vdc
56. The telephone voice band frequency is from
A. 300 to 4 kHz
B. 400 to 3400 Hz
C. 300 to 3400 Hz
D. 400 to 4 kHz
57. Which of the following wire is used to transmit the signal?
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green
58. The corresponding frequency for digit 7 in the touch tone telephone is
A. 770 & 1477 Hz
B. 852 & 1209 Hz
C. 852 & 1336 Hz
D. 770 & 1336 Hz
59. The physical connection between the telephone set and the switching equipment is
called the
A. Trunk line
B. Link
C. Subscriber loop
D. Leased line
60. What is the local loop of a telephone system?
A. It is a two-wire or four-wire communication circuit between the customers
premise and the central office
B. It is a group of wires connecting a telephone set to a modern
C. It is a four-wire circuit connecting a facsimile machine to a computer
D. It is a single piece of wire connecting the subscribers telephone set to another set in
an adjacent room.
61. Which of the ff. equipment is used in long loop design?
A. Dial long lines
B. Voice repeater
C. Loop range extender
D. All of the above
62. What is a two-wire circuit?
A. A circuit usually in the subscriber loop, between the telephone set and the local
central office.
B. A circuit having only two terminals, both terminals having the same instantaneous
voltage.
C. A circuit with one input terminal, one output terminal, and a common ground.
D. A circuit consisting of two transmission lines.
63. 1 mW is equal to
A. 90 dBm
B. 0 dBm
C. -30 dBm
D. 120 dBm
64. Which of the following responds to the request of a subscriber by sending a dial tone?
A. Line finder
B. First selector
C. Connector
D. Line equipment
65. The other name of Class 2 office in the North American Switching Plan.
A. Primary center
B. Section
C. Regional center
D. Toll points
66. A cell in the cellular telephone system means
A. A power source
B. Small area
C. Large area
D. Service area
67. What is the linking point between cell phone and regular telephone?
A. Base station
B. Control office
C. C.O.
D. MTSO
68. What is the typical power output of a cellular phone?
A. 5 W
B. 10 W
C. 1 W
D. 3 W
69. When a single cell is divided into smaller cells that process is called
A. Cell splitting
B. Cell division
C. Reuse
D. Cell sharing
70. The first cell shape is a square
A. Square
B. Circle
C. Rectangle
D. Triangle
71. In order to provide 100% coverage without overlap, cellular telephone system can use
A. Hexagon cell shape
B. Triangle
C. Rectangular
D. All of the above
72. What is the beamwidth of the reflector of the receiving antenna in the base station
A. 20 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 50 degrees
D. 60 degrees
73. A cellular phone operates on
A. Half duplex
B. Full duplex
C. Echoplex
D. Lincomplex
74. Cellular phones transmit in the band from
A. 825 to 845 MHz
B. 835 to 855 MHz
C. 825 to 855 MHz
D. 825 to 865 MHz

75. Cell phone receives in the band from
A. 860 to 880 MHz
B. 870 to 890 MHz
C. 870 to 880 MHz
D. 860 to 890 MHz
76. What is the frequency separation between the transmit and the receive channels?
A. 30 MHz
B. 45 MHz
C. 55 MHz
D. 40 MHz
77. For channel 1, transmit/receive frequency is
A. 825.030/870.030 MHz
B. 835.03/880.03 MHz
C. 825.015/870.015 MHz
D. 825.15/870.15 MHz
78. The number of transmit/receive channels in the cellular system is
A. 625
B. 645
C. 655
D. 666
79. The transmission range of cellular telephony is generally about
A. 80 km
B. 65 km
C. 160 km
D. 16 km
80. One of the following is not an advantage of a cellular telephone system
A. Privacy
B. Large service area
C. No interference
D. Mobility
81. When the message is transferred from one cell site transmitter to another cell site
transmitter as the caller crosses a boundary __________ process takes place.
A. Shifting
B. Hand off
C. Give off
D. Turn over
82. What is the sensitivity of a cellular receiver?
A. 20 dB
B. 40 dB
C. 50 dB
D. 60 dB
83. What is the frequency deviation of the cellular telephone system?
A. 15 kHz
B. 30 kHz
C. 12 kHz
D. 75 kHz
84. Hailing channel is otherwise known as
A. Conversation channel
B. Calling channel
C. Signaling channel
D. Remote channel
85. What is an Erlang?
A. It is a unit of magnetic field intensity measured around a conductor
B. It is the number of erroneous bits received per unit of time
C. It a unit of electrical energy radiated in space.
D. It is equal to the number of simultaneous calls originated during a specific
hourly period.
86. All of the cell base stations are linked together by _______ which serves as the central
office and management node for the group.
A. MTS
B. IMTS
C. MSTO
D. MTSO
87. Provides interface between the mobile telephone switching office and the mobile units.
A. Database
B. Cell site
C. Terrestrial link
D. Radio transmitter
88. A phone call over the cellular network actually requires
A. Simplex channels
B. Half duplex channels
C. Full duplex channels
D. Full/full duplex
89. A method of expressing the amplitudes of complex non-periodic signals such as speech.
A. Volume
B. Pitch
C. Frequency
D. Wavelength
90. _______ is signal returned to the talker after one or more round trips between the talker
and the listener.
A. Singing
B. Echo
C. Jitter
D. Crosstalk
91. ______ is a voice operated device that inserts a high loss in the opposite direction of
transmission of the talking party.
A. Hybrid
B. 2-wire circuit
C. Echo suppressor
D. VNL
92. _____ is picking up of the same station at two nearby points on the receiver dial.
A. Double spotting
B. Hot shot
C. Image frequency
D. Bail shot
93. When one channel picks up the signal carried by another channel.
A. Echo
B. Crosstalk
C. Party line
D. Crosslink
94. What type of connector arrangement wherein a customer may move to another location
and still retain the same telephone number.
A. TPL
B. Bridge
C. TPS
D. Party line
95. It is an advantage of sidetone.
A. Transmission efficiency is increased
B. Speaker increase his voice resulting in a strengthened signal
C. No dissipation of energy in the balancing network
D. Assures the customer that the telephone is working
96. Radio communications between points using a single share frequency.
A. Simplex
B. Full duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full/full duplex
97. The transmission of information from multiple sources occurring on the same facility
but not as the same time.
A. FDM
B. TDM
C. WDM
D. CDM
98. When human voice and music are transmitted, the type of communication employed is
known as
A. Raditechnology
B. Audio frequency
C. Wired audio
D. Radiotelephony
99. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into baseband electric signal
by the process of
A. Copying
B. Scanning
C. Modulation
D. Light variation
100.
What is the most commonly used light sensor in a modern fax machine?
A. Phototube
B. Phototransistor
C. Liquid-crystal display
D. Charge couple device
101.
In FM fax, the frequencies for black and white are ______ repectively.
A. 1500 and 2300 Hz
B. 2300 and 1500 Hz
C. 1300 and 2400 Hz
D. 1070 and 1270 Hz
102.
Which resolution produces the best quality fax?
A. 96 lines per inch
B. 150 lines per inch
C. 200 lines per inch
D. 400 lines per inch
103.
Group 2 fax uses which modulation?
A. SSB
B. FSK
C. Vestigial sideband AM
D. PSK
104.
The most widely used fax standard is
A. Group 1
B. Group 2
C. Group 3
D. Group 4
105.
Group 3 fax uses which modulation?
A. QAM
B. ASK
C. PSK
D. GFSK
130.
Block calls held condition specified the held probability at a time period equal to
an average holding time.
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C. Erlang D
D. Poisson
131.
What is an Echo?
A. A signal of the same amplitude but 180 degrees out of phase from the original signal
and mixed with the original signal at the transmitter to produce a more intelligible
output signal
B. A wave which has been reflected or otherwise returned with the sufficient
magnitude and delay for it to be perceptible in some manner as a wave distinct
from that directly transmitted.
C. The signal having a higher frequency than the original and transmitted back to earth
by a passive satellite.
D. A reflected signal.
132.
What is the system used by Personal Communication Network (PCN)?
A. TACS
B. Modified GSM
C. AMPS
D. CDMA
133.
Termination refers to
A. Cutting both ends of a conductor
B. Disconnecting a line from a transmitter
C. Looking back impedance of a line with no load
D. Load connected to the output end of a transmission line
134.
The multiple access used by Digital European Cordless Telephone (DECT)
A. CDMA
B. FDMA
C. TDMA
D. CDMA/FDMA
135.
Blocked calls delay condition specified delay probability
A. Erlang B
B. Erlang C
C.
D.
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
137.
A.
B.
C.
D.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
141.
A.
B.
C.
D.
142.
A.
B.
C.
D.
143.
A.
Erlang D
Poisson
Status information provided by telephone signaling.
Busy tone, dial tone and ringing
Congestion and call charge data
All of the above
None of the above
The modulation technique used by DECT.
GFSK
ASK
QAM
PSK
What is a four-wire circuit?
Is used between serving central offices for long-distance connections, with one
pair being used for each direction of transmission.
Is a circuit with three output terminals and one input terminal
Is an oscillator that produces four different frequencies simultaneously
A circuit consisting of four transmission lines.
Cellular CDMA system uses what modulation method?
GFSK
ASK
QAM
BPSK
PABX means
Private All-purpose Broadcasting Exchange
Private Automatic Branch Exchange
Public Access Bi-directional Exchange
Public Automatic Branch Exchange
What is the voted cellular digital standard at TIA?
Digital AMPS
GSM
CDMA
TACS
What is the number of channels for Band A and for Band B in Digital AMPS
832
416
666
888
The mobile-to-base frequency assignment for GSM system is
890-915 MHz
B. 935-960 MHz
C. 870-890 MHz
D. 825-845 MHz
144.
The range (in miles) of a cellular CDMA system.
A. 13
B. 30
C. 45
D. 20
145.
In a cellular system, ________ is used to measure the spectrum efficiency.
A. Radio efficiency
B. Diversity
C. Frequency reuse
D. Radio capacity
146.
Which of the following echo is completely out of control?
A. Worst echo
B. Reverberation
C. Singing
D. Feedback
147.
Which of the following devices increase the battery voltage on a loop and extends
its signaling range?
A. Loop extender
B. VF repeater
C. VF amplifier
D. All of these
148.
Under ordinary circumstances, the CCITT recommends that the number of
circuits in tandem must not exceed
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12
149.
What is the system capacity of AMPS?
A. 30,000
B. 60,000
C. 100,000
D. 120,000
150.
NAM means
A. Non Alternable Memory
B. Numeric Allocation Module
C. Numeric Assignment Module
D. Numeric Access Module
Modulation Chapter 3
1. ______ is the maximum sideband suppression value using filter system.
A. 50 dB
B. 60 dB
C. 40 dB
D. 30 dB
2. _______ determines the number of sideband components in FM.
A. carrier frequency
B. modulation frequency
C. modulation index
D. deviation ratio
3. One of the following transmits only one sideband.
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. A3E
D. B8E
4. What produces the sidebands on FM?
A. signal amplitude
B. carrier harmonics
C. baseband frequency
D. broadband frequency
5. Which test instrument displays the carrier and the sidebands amplitude with frequency to
frequency?
A. oscilloscope
B. spectrum analyzer
C. frequency analyzer
D. amplitude analyzer
6. Mixer is also known as a ________.
A. modulator
B. suppressor
C. converter
D. beater
7. Which one of the following emission transmits the lower sideband and half of the upper
sideband?
A. A5C
B. J3E
C. A3J
D. A3H
8. An FM receives signal ______.
A. vary in amplitude with modulation
B. vary in frequency with modulation
C. vary in frequency and amplitude with wideband modulation
D. is not immune to noise
9. The process of impressing intelligence on the carrier is called
A. modulation
B. detection
C. mixing
D. impression
10. ______ is an electronic instrument used to show both the carrier and the sidebands of a
modulated signal in the frequency domain.
A. spectrum analyzer
B. oscilloscope
C. digital counter
D. frequency counter
11. What part of the carrier is varied by the intelligence during modulation in an AM system?
A. phase
B. frequency
C. amplitude
D. both a and c
12. The difference between the RF carrier and the modulating signal frequencies is called the
A. USB
B. LSB
C. Sideband
D. Carrier frequency
13. What stage in a radio transmitter isolates the oscillator from the load?
A. Oscillator
B. Buffer
C. Separator
D. Mixer
14. The frequency of the unmodulated carrier in FM system is
A. modulating frequency
B. center frequency
C. carrier frequency
D. deviation frequency
15. The ratio of maximum deviation to the maximum modulating frequency is called
A. carrier swing
B. deviation ratio
C. modulation factor
D. modulation index
16. A carrier signal has
A. constant amplitude
B. a frequency of 20 kHz and above
C. a varying amplitude
D. the information content
17. The modulated peak value of a signal is 125 V and the unmodulated carrier value is 85 V.
What is the modulation index?
A. 0.47
B. 0.68
C. 0.32
D. 1.47
18. An 891 kHz carrier having an amplitude of 80 V is modulated by a 4.5 kHz audio signal
having an amplitude of 45 V. The modulation factor is
A. 0.56
B. 0.65
C. 1.78
D. 1.25
19. What is the modulation index of an FM signal having a carrier swing of 75 kHz when the
modulating signal has frequency of 3 kHz?
A. 25
B. 12.5
C. 0.04
D. 0.08
20. In a FM system, if modulation index is doubled by having the modulating frequency, what
will be the effect on the maximum deviation?
A. No effect
B. Maximum deviation doubles
C. Decreases by
D. Increases by
21. Which of the following is considered as an indirect method of generating FM?
A. Reactance modulator
B. Balanced modulator
C. Varactor diode modulator
D. Armstrong system
22. To generate an SSB or DSB signal one must use a circuit known as
A. filter modulator
B. ring modulator
C. balanced modulator
D. reactance modulator
23. Which is the first radio receiver?
A. TRF receiver
B. Superheterodyne receiver
C. Crystal radio receiver
D. Heterodyne receiver
24. An interfering signal with a frequency equal to the received signal plus twice the IF is called
A. image frequency
B. center frequency
C. rest frequency
D. interference frequency
25. Double sideband full carrier emission type
A. A3J
B. H3E
C. R3A
D. A3E
26. Single sideband reduced carrier emission type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
27. A single sideband suppressed carrier emission type.

A. H3e
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
28. Independent sideband emission type
A. H3E
B. R3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
29. Vestigial sideband emission type
A. C3F
B. J3E
C. R3E
D. B8E
30. Single sideband full carrier emission type.
A. R3E
B. H3E
C. J3E
D. B8E
31. Phase modulation emission type.
A. F3E
B. F3C
C. F3F
D. G3E
32. Which one is not an advantage of SSB over AM?
A. Power saving
B. Requires half the bandwidth
C. Wider area of reception
D. Better fidelity
33. The advantage of a high level modulated AM transmitter is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion
34. The advantage of a low-level modulated AM transmitter is
A. Less audio power required
B. Better fidelity
C. Higher value of operating power
D. Less distortion
35. _____ is the bad effect caused by overmodulation in AM transmission.
A. Increase in noise
B. Deviation in the operating frequency
C. Interface to other radio services
D. Decrease in the output power
36. Which characteristic of a radio receiver refers to its ability to reject an unwanted signal?
A. Sensitivity
B. Selectivity
C. Fidelity
D. Quality
37. What type of emission is frequency modulation?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. A3E
D. B3E
38. AM transmission power increases with ________.
A. Frequency
B. Source
C. Load
D. Modulation
39. _______ locks the FM receiver to a stronger signal.
A. Hall effect
B. Capture effect
C. Image frequency
D. Homing
40. What is the highest percentage of modulation for AM?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 80%
41. In FM, the Carsons Rule states that the bandwidth is equal to twice the sum of the
modulating frequency and ______.
A. Carrier signal
B. Modulating signal
C. Frequency deviation
D. Image frequency
42. What is the carrier swing of an FM transmitter when modified by 75%?
A. 53.2 kHz
B. 48 kHz
C. 56.25 kHz
D. 112.5 kHz
43. The modulation system inherently more resistant to noise
A. Single sideband suppressed carrier
B. Frequency modulation
C. Pulse-position modulation
D. Amplitude shift keying
44. Subcarriers that are arranged so that the channels occupying adjacent frequency bands with
some frequency space between them is known as
A. Guard bands
B. AM bands
C. Band gap
D. Void band
45. Modulation of an RF amplifier carrier results in

A. Multiple channels
B. Smaller antennas
C. Directional propagation
D. All of the above
46. A process which occurs in the transmitter
A. Mixing
B. Modulation
C. Heterodyning
D. Demodulation
47. A process which occurs in the receiver
A. Beating
B. Modulation
C. Mixing
D. Demodulation
48. One part of the transmitter that protects the crystal oscillator from pulling.
A. Buffer amplifier
B. Modulator
C. Power amplifier
D. Antenna coupler
49. What aspect of the carrier is changed by modulation?
A. Frequency
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Depends on the type of modulation
50. The amplitude of a sine wave which is modulated by a musical program will
A. Be complex
B. Contain fundamental frequencies
C. Contain harmonic frequencies
D. All of the above
51. What will be the result of the gain level being too high for signals entering the modulator?
A. Receiver noise
B. Excessive volume of receiver output
C. Oscillator disturbances
D. Distortion and splatter
52. Amplitude modulation causes the amount of transmitter power to
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Double
53. When a carrier is modulated 100%, the total power increases by what percentage over that of
the carrier alone?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
54. When the amplitude of the modulating voltage is increased for AM, the antenna current will
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. Decrease exponentially
55. An increase in transmitter power from 25W to 30W will cause the antenna current to increase
from 700mA to
A. 800 mA
B. 750 mA
C. 767 mA
D. 840 mA
56. A second modulating tone having the same amplitude but a different frequency is added to
the first at the input to the modulator. The modulation index will be increased by a factor of
A.
B.
C. 2
D. 3
57. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated by a 2500Hz tone. One frequency component of the
modulated signal is
A. 1200 Hz
B. 5000 Hz
C. 1002.5 kHz
D. 2500 Hz
58. A 1200 kHz carrier is amplitude-modulated by two tones of 500 Hz and 700 Hz. Which one
is a frequency component of the modulated wave?
A. 1195 kHz
B. 1199.3 kHz
C. 1199.7 kHz
D. 1205 kHz
59. Identify a modulation method, or methods in use for a common-emitter configuration
A. Base modulation
B. Emitter modulation
C. Collector modulation
D. Both A and C
60. The RF signal injected into a balanced modulator is 10MHz and the modulating frequency is
1 kHz. Which frequency, or frequencies, will not appear in the output?
A. 9.999 MHz
B. 10 MHz
C. 10.0001 MHz
D. Both A and B
61. Unwanted sidebands in SSB equipment can be suppressed by one or more of the following
methods.
A. Phasing method
B. Filter method
C. Decoder method
D. Both A and B
62. Envelope detection is concerned with the process of

A. Mixing
B. Heterodyning
C. Modulation
D. Rectification
63. Diagonal clipping in envelope detection will result in
A. Distortion
B. Phase reversal
C. Reduced sensitivity
D. Amplitude damage
64. Product detection requires the process of
A. Rectification
B. Heterodyning
C. Decoding
D. Phase shifting
65. A sine wave which is coherent with carrier has identical
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase angle
D. Both B and C
66. Frequency modulation and phase modulation are collectively referred to as
A. Stereo
B. Angle modulation
C. High fidelity modulation
D. FCC modulation
67. In FM, the change in carrier frequency is proportional to what attribute of the modulating
signal?
A. Angle
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Tone
68. A louder sound, when generating the modulating waveform for FM, will cause a greater
A. Carrier amplitude
B. Angle amplitude
C. Distortion at the receiver
D. Frequency deviation
69. If a positive change in modulation signal level of 200 mW will cause a positive frequency
deviation of 10 kHz, what will be the frequency deviation for a negative change of 10 mV in
the level of the modulating signals?
A. 0
B. -5 kHz
C. +5 kHz
D. +0 kHz
70. A particular 15 kHz modulation tone results in a peak frequency deviation of 75 kHz. What
is the modulation index?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 75
D. 3
71. A 15 kHz sine wave frequency modulates an 88 MHz carrier. A sideband frequency will be
found at
A. 87.970 MHz
B. 87.985 MHz
C. 88.015 MHz
D. All of these
72. A device whose capacitance is deliberately made to be a function of the applied voltage
A. Varactor diode
B. UJT
C. SAW
D. Variable capacitor
73. A reactance modulator is one method of obtaining
A. Indirect FM
B. Direct FM
C. Demodulation
D. Low frequency filtering
74. A device, now available in IC form, is useful for direct FM and as one element in the phselocked loop.
A. AFC
B. AGC
C. VCO
D. LPF
75. _____ is a frequency change process, whereby the phase deviation and frequency deviation
are multiplied by some fixed constant.
A. Translation
B. Multiplication
C. Division
D. Addition
76. A circuit that has the function of demodulating the frequency-modulated signal.
A. AFC
B. Envelope detector
C. Decoder
D. Foster-Seeley discriminator
77. The ratio detector is superior to the slope detector because
A. It is less sensitive to phase modulation
B. It is less sensitive to noise spikes
C. It is less sensitive to interference causing AM
D. Both B and C
78. One implementation of a pulse averaging discriminator is
A. A free-running multivibrator
B. A crystal-controlled oscillator
C. A quartz crystal filter
D. A triggered multivibrator
79. A 10% increase in the frequency of a constant-width pulse train should cause what change in
its average value?
A. -10%
B. -1%
C. +1%
D. +10%
80. Two different signals can be coherent if they
A. Have the same amplitude
B. Are both sine waves of different frequencies
C. Originate in the same physical equipment simultaneously
D. Have the same frequency
81. A quadrature detector requires that
A. Four gates bee provided
B. The inputs are coherent
C. The inputs are incoherent
D. The inputs are identical
82. In a phase-locked loop, the VCO is the abbreviation for
A. Variable coherent output
B. VHF communication oscillator
C. Voltage-controlled oscillator
D. Vien-count oscillator (neutralized)
83. Identify an advantage, or advantages of a properly designed FM system.
A. Relative immunity to atmospheric noise (lightning)
B. Reduced bandwidth required
C. No noise of any kind
D. The noise figure is inversely proportional to the modulation index
84. The output of a balanced modulator
A. LSB and USB
B. LSB
C. USB
D. Carrier
85. If the modulation index of an AM wave is changed from 0 to 1, the transmitted power is
A. Unchanged
B. Halved
C. Doubled
D. Increased by 50%
86. Which of the following is not a baseband signal of modulation?
A. Audio signal
B. Video signal
C. RF carrier
D. Binary coded pulses
87. If the unmodulated level peak carrier amplitude is doubled in an AM signal, the perfect
modulation is ________.
A. 20
B. 50
C. 100
D. 200
88. Balanced modulator circuit when inserted in the equivalent suppresses the ___________
A. Carrier
B. Upper sideband
C. Lower sideband
D. Baseband signal
89. The carrier of a 100% modulated AM wave is suppressed, the percentage power saving is __.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 83%
D. 66.66%
90. If the modulation index if an AM wave is doubled, the antenna current is also doubled, the
AM system being used is
A. H3E
B. J3E
C. C3F
D. A3E
91. 100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by _______.
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 25%
92. A single-tone amplitude modulated wave has _______.
A. 2 components
B. 3 components
C. 4 components
D. 2n + 1 components
93. A carrier signal has ________.
A. Constant peak amplitude
B. Frequency range of 20 20,000 Hz
C. A varying amplitude
D. The information
94. The modulating system is _________ if the modulating frequency is doubled, the modulation
index is halved, and the modulating voltage remains constant.
A. Amplitude modulation
B. Phase modulation
C. Frequency modulation
D. Pulse modulation
95. What is the modulation index of an FM signal if its modulating frequency is doubled?
A. No effect
B. Twice the original index
C. Four times the original index
D. One-half the original index
96. An AM transmitter is rated 1000 W at 100% modulation. How much power required for the
carrier?
A. 1000 W
B. 666.6 W
C. 333.3 W
D. 866.6 W
97. Standard way of designating AM
A. A3E
B. B3E
C. AHE
D. C3F
98. _____ is the circuit used to detect frequency modulated signal.
A. Discriminator
B. Modulator
C. Modem
D. Detector
99. _____ is an information signal that is sent directly without modulating any carrier.
A. C-band
B. Q-band
C. Baseband
D. Broadband
100. Both frequency and phase modulation utilize ______ modulation.
A. Digital
B. Phase
C. Amplitude
D. Angle
101. It is the width of frequencies within the spectrum occupied by a signal and used by the
signal for conveying information.
A. Band
B. Bandwidth
C. Electronic spectrum
D. Frequency band
102. Which transmit only one sideband?
A. H3E
B. C3F
C. A3E
D. B8E
103. ______ is kind of modulation in which the modulated wave is always present.
A. Carrier modulation
B. Continuous modulation
C. Log-periodic modulation
D. Square-wave modulation
104. A type of modulation in which no signal is present between pulses.
A. Pulse modulation
B. FSK
C. QAM
D. PAM
105. What describes the amount of amplitude change present in an AM waveform?
A. Percent modulation
B. Modulation constant
C. Envelope of modulation
D. Coefficient of modulation
106. _______ is a form of amplitude distortion introduced when the positive and negative
alternations in the AM modulated signals are not equal.
A. Envelope distortion
B. Spurious emission
C. Carrier shift
D. Johnson noise
107. What is the advantage of phase modulation over direct FM frequency modulation?
A. Multipliers can be used
B. The deviation is smaller
C. Simplicity and practicality
D. The oscillator is crystal-controlled
108. If the spectrum is shifted in frequency with no other changes, this is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Sideband movement
C. Baseband reorientation
D. Frequency translation
109. A device which is capable of causing frequency translation
A. High-Q tank circuit
B. Balanced modulator
C. Low-Q tank circuit
D. IF strip
110. If the frequency of each component in a signal spectrum is increased by the same fixed
amount, this known as
A. Modulation
B. Frequency translation
C. Up conversion
D. Both B and C
111. A particular amplifier is designed to be a frequency doubler. If the input signal frequency
is 15.4 MHz, a circuit in the output will be tuned to
A. 7.7 MHz
B. 15.4 MHz
C. 30.8 MHz
D. 61.6 MHz
112. A sine wave of 293 MHz is phase-modulated to achieve a maximum phase deviation of
0.2 radian. After passing through a frequency tripler, the maximum phase deviation will be
A. 0.2 radian
B. 0.3 radian
C. 0.4 radian
D. 0.6 radian
113. Any device to be used as a frequency multiplier must be
A. Active
B. Passive
C. Linear
D. Nonlinear
114. A particular amplifier circuit used for frequency doubling.
A. Push-push
B. Push-pull
C. Pull-push
D. Pull-pull
115. Frequency division is useful in the implementation of a
A. AM demodulator
B. Frequency synthesizer
C. AGC circuit
D. FM demodulator
116. Frequency division by 12 will require how many flip-flops in the counter?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 12
117. Identify an electronic device, not specifically designed for the purpose, which can be
used as a phase detector.
A. Wien bridge
B. Colpitts oscillator
C. Balanced modulator
D. Butterworth filter
118. A particular frequency synthesizer contains only a single crystal. What words describe
this synthesizer?
A. Crystal modulated
B. Inexact
C. Indirect
D. Deficient
119. A recognizable feature of a CW transmitter is
A. Keyed transmitter
B. Power amplification
C. Frequency generation
D. All of these
120. The term pulling refers to
A. The change of the crystal oscillator frequency by loading
B. One half-cycle operation of a push-pull amplifier
C. Loading on the transmitter caused by the antenna connection
D. Reduction of the power supply terminal voltage as the transmitter is keyed.
121. When frequency modulation is achieved by initial phase modulation, this is called
A. Angular modulation
B. Direct FM
C. Indirect FM
D. Indirect synthesis
122. A disadvantage of direct FM is the need for
A. AGC
B. AFC
C. A frequency synthesizer
D. Phase modulation
123. Direct FM can be achieved by
A. A reactance tube modulator
B. A varactor diode
C. And AGC circuit
D. Both A and B
124. A receiver in which all RF amplifier stages require manual tuning to the desired RF is
called
A. Superheterodyne
B. Autodyne
C. TRF
D. AFC
125. Why is it often necessary to precede the demodulator by amplifier stages in a receiver?
A. To improve fidelity
B. To reduce receiver noise
C. To eliminate image response
D. Weak antenna signals
126. A serious disadvantage of the TRF receiver.
A. Bandwidth variations over the tuning range
B. The weight and cost
C. The requirements for a closely regulated power supply
D. The requirements for a half-wave antenna
127. Identify which is not a part of a superheterodyne receiver.
A. Local oscillator
B. Modulator
C. IF amplifier
D. Demodulator
128. Which major element will not be found in every superheterodyne receiver?
A. RF amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
129. Which major element of a superheterodyne receiver must be nonlinear?
A. R-F amplifier
B. Mixer
C. Local oscillator
D. IF amplifier
130. The change of the modulated carrier frequency from the original RF to the IF of the
superheterodyne receiver is known as
A. Frequency multiplication
B. Frequency allocation
C. Frequency substitution
D. Frequency translation
131. The key to achieving receiver sensitivity is the reduction of
A. Image response
B. Mixer harmonic products

C. Spurious frequency response
D. Internal noise
132. Which of the following receiver design objectives is not impossible?
A. Elimination of galactic noise
B. Elimination of atmospheric noise
C. Elimination of man-made noise
D. Reduction of receiver internal noise
133. In comparing the S/N ratio for the input to the receiver with the S/N ratio for the output,
the latter is
A. Smaller
B. The same
C. Greater
D. Infinite
134. The characteristic of a receiver that specifies the self-generated noise.
A. Noise immunity
B. Noise factor
C. Noise figure
D. Noise margin
135. An FM receiver with an I-F of 10.7 MHz is tuned to 98.7 MHz. What is the numerical
value of the image frequency?
A. 77.3 MHz
B. 88.0 MHz
C. 109.4 MHz
D. 120.1 MHz
136. A source of RF interference exists at 109.9 MHz. For which frequency in the FM
broadcast band will this be the image frequency?
A. 21.4 MHz
B. 88.5 MHz
C. 99.2 MHz
D. 110.7 MHz
137. The ratio of the superheterodyne receiver response at the desired carrier frequency to that
at the image frequency is called
A. The sensitivity
B. The selectivity
C. The image frequency
D. The image rejection ratio
138. The core of an IF transformer usually contains
A. Teflon
B. Computer nylon
C. Powdered iron
D. Laminated steel
139. Shape factor is a measure of
A. Bandwidth
B. Skirt steepness
C. Coupling coefficient
D. Critical coupling
140. _______ is the function which tends to maintain the sound volume level of a voice
receiver nearly constant for a large signal strength range.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
141. The function which tends to silence the receiver in the absence of transmitted carrier.
A. Squelch
B. Muting
C. AGC
D. AFC
142. What device is incorporated in a communications receiver to reduce impulse noise?
A. Front-end processor
B. Squelch circuit
C. AGC
D. Noise blanker
143. What type of signal in which a receiver selectivity of 2.4 kHz in the I-F circuitry is
optimum?
A. FM voice
B. Double-sideband AM voice
C. FSK data
D. SBB voice
144. If the input to a detector stage is an amplitude-modulated (A3E) IF signal then the output
from the stage is
A. A lower frequency carrier
B. The audio voice information
C. A Morse-code signal
D. The upper or lower set of sidebands
145. In a capacitive type, reactance-tube modulator connected across an oscillator tuned
circuit, a more negative voltage on the grid of the reactance tube will cause
A. An increase of the oscillator frequency
B. An decrease of oscillator frequency
C. An increase of the reactance-tube capacitance
D. An increase of the reactance tube ac plate current

146. The limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver is
A. The noise floor of the receiver
B. Power supply output ripple
C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion
D. The input impedance to the detector
147. When a communications receiver is tuned to a strong signal, the AGC bias is measured
and found to be zero. The fault cannot be caused by a/an
A. Defective IF stage
B. Defective local oscillator
C. Defective RF stage
D. Open circuit in the AGCs filter capacitor
148. The term used to refer to the condition where the signals from a very strong station are
superimposed on other signals being received
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
149. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Behaves as a low-pass filter
B. Limits the amplitude of the IF signal to the required level
C. Behaves as a high-pass filter
D. Behaves as a bandstop filter
150. Motorboating (low-frequency oscillations) in an amplifier can be stopped by
A. Grounding the screen grid
B. Connecting a capacitor between the B+ and lead ground
C. By passing the screen grid resistor with a 0.1 F capacitor
D. Grounding the plate
151. An effect in which, the modulation of an unwanted signal is transferred to the desired
carrier.
A. Crossmodulation
B. Intermodulation
C. Modulation mixing
D. Image-channel interference
152. Leads should be kept as short as possible in radio circuit so that
A. Skin effect is reduced
B. There is less hysteresis effect
C. There is less dielectric loss
D. Stray coupling is minimized
153. The number of voice transmissions that can be packed into a given frequency band for
amplitude-compandored single-sideband systems over conventional FM-phone systems.
A. 2
B. 18
C. 16
D. 4
154. Neutralization of an RF amplifier stage can be necessary in order to
A. Increase the amplifiers gain
B. Prevent the generation of spurious oscillations
C. Reduce the amplifiers gain
D. Reduce the level of the output harmonics
155. The ability of a communications receiver to perform well in the presence of strong
signals outside the band of interest is indicated by what parameter?
A. Blocking dynamic range
B. Noise figure
C. Signal-to-noise ratio
D. Audio output
156. Stages that are common to both AM and FM receivers
A. Tuner, local oscillator, detector, AF amplifier
B. RF amplifier, mixer, IF amplifier, AF amplifier
C. Local oscillator, RF amplifier, frequency discriminator, detector
D. Tuner, IF amplifier, detector, AF amp
157. Occurs during CW reception if too narrow a filter bandwidth is used in the IF stage of a
receiver
A. Filter ringing
B. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
C. Output-offset overshoot
D. Cross-modulation distortion
158. What stage mainly determines a communication receivers sensitivity?
A. IF amplifier
B. Mixer stage
C. Detector stage
D. RF amplifier
159. What is the main advantage of FM over AM?
A. Better signal-to-noise-ratio
B. Narrower bandwidth
C. Greater propagation range
D. Total freedom from adjacent-channel interference
160. An amplitude modulation created in an amplifier before the final RF stage.
A. Low-level modulation
B. High-level modulation
C. Direct modulation
D. Indirect modulation
161. Receiver desensitizing can be reduced by
A. Increasing the transmitter audio gain
B. Decreasing the receiver squelch gain
C. Increasing the receiver bandwidth
D. Ensuring good RF shielding between the transmitter
162. In a narrow-band FM system, the deviation ratio is commonly one and the highest audio
frequency is generally limited to
A. 300 Hz
B. 10,000 Hz
C. 3,000 Hz
D. 7,500 Hz
163. A type of emission is produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated
by a facsimile signal
A. A3F
B. F3F
C. A3C
D. F3C
164. Where is the noise generated which primarily determines the signal to noise ratio in a
VHF (150 MHz) marine band receiver?
A. In the detector
B. In the atmosphere
C. In the ionosphere
D. In the receiver front end
165. Cross-modulation in a receiver can be reduced by
A. Installing a filter at the receiver
B. Using a filter at the receiver
C. Increasing the receivers RF gain while decreasing the AF
D. Adjusting the pass-band tuning
166. What is the emission designation for FM telephony?
A. F3E
B. G3E
C. J3E
D. H3E
167. What is the cause of receiver desensitizing?
A. The presence of a strong signal on a nearby frequency
B. Audio gain adjusted too low
C. Squelch gain adjusted too high
D. Squelch gain adjusted too low

168. In a phase-modulated signal (indirect FM), the frequency deviation is directly
proportional to the
A. Carrier amplitude only
B. Amplitude of the modulating tone and frequency of the carrier
C. Carrier frequency only
D. Modulating signal amplitude only
169. An RF stage precedes the mixer stage in a superhet receiver. One advantage of including
this RF stage is
A. Better selectivity
B. Better rejection ratio
C. Greater sensitivity
D. Improved signal-to-noise-ratio
170. Two factors that determine the sensitivity of a receiver.
A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept
B. Cost and availability
C. Bandwidth and noise figure
D. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range
171. What is an undesirable effect of using too-wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a
receiver?
A. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage
B. Output-offset overshoot
C. Thermal-noise distortion
D. Filter ringing
172. A system containing a limiter stage, a discriminator, and a de-emphasis circuit?
A. Direct FM transmitter
B. Indirect FM transmitter
C. Single sideband AM receiver
D. FM receiver
173. The limiter stage of an FM receiver
A. Prevents any amplitude modulation of the IF signal
B. Limits the amount of frequency deviation in the IF signal
C. Limits the overall bandwidth of the IF stages
D. Corrects any deviation in carrier frequency
174. High selectivity occurs when the degree of coupling between a receivers RF stages is
A. Tight
B. Loose
C. Critical
D. Adjusted for maximum power transfer
175. A carrier is phase modulated by a test tone. If the amplitude and the frequency of the tone
are both doubled, the amount of the deviation is
A. Doubled
B. Unchanged
C. Halved
D. Multiplied by four
176. The degree of selectivity desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband receiver.
A. 1 kHz
B. 2.4 kHz
C. 4.2 kHz
D. 4.8 kHz
177. The component most apt to break down in the radio circuit is the
A. Crystal
B. Resistor
C. Transformer
D. Diode
178. The base in an RF amplifier is grounded in order to
A. Avoid the requirement of neutralizing the stage
B. Raise the input impedance
C. Lower the output impedance
D. Obtain maximum power output
179. The AM detector performs two basic functions in the receiver.
A. Rectifies and filters
B. Amplifiers and filters
C. Buffer and amplifier
D. Buffer and detector
180. A varactor diode can be used in a/an
A. Direct FM modulator circuit
B. AFC circuit in a direct FM transmitter
C. Phase-modulator circuit
D. All of these
181. Receiver interference is not reduced by including a/an
A. Crystal filter
B. Insulating enclosures around the receiver
C. Wave trap
D. RF stage
182. What is the emission C3F?
A. RTTY
B. SSB
C. Television
D. Modulated CW
183. What is the approximate dc input power to a class AB RF power amplifier stage in an
unmodulated carrier transmitter when the PEP output is 500 W?
A. Approximately 1000 W
B. Approximately 800 W
C. Approximately 250 W
D. Approximately 600 W
184. Which of the following stages in an FM receiver is responsible for drastically reducing
the effect of static noise during the reception of a signal
A. De-emphasis circuit
B. Mixer stage
C. Squelch circuit
D. Limiter stage
185. The letters SSSC stands for
A. Single sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, single channel
C. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
D. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
186. For many types of voices, what is the ratio of PEP-to-average power during a modulation
peak in a single-sideband phone signal?
A. Approximately 1.0 to 1
B. Approximately 25 to 1
C. Approximately 100 to 1
D. Approximately 2.5 to 1
187. In most mixers, the oscillator frequency is ______ than the carrier frequency of the input
signal.
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. The same
D. 10 kHz above
188. Features of a transmitters buffer stage include
A. High stage
B. Harmonic generation
C. Improvement in frequency stability of the oscillator
D. Low input impedance
189. Type of emission produced when an amplitude modulated transmitter is modulated by a
television signal
A. F3F
B. A3C
C. F3C
D. A3F
190. A network is
A. A network consisting entirely of four inductors or four capacitors
B. A power incidence network
C. An antenna matching network that is isolated from ground
D. A network consisting of one inductor and two capacitors
191. How is G3E FM-phone signals produced?
A. A network consisting modulator on the audio amplifier
B. With a reactance modulator on the final amplifier
C. With a reactance modulator on the oscillator
D. With a balanced modulator on the oscillator
192. A way of eliminating auto interference to radio reception
A. Installing resistive spark plugs
B. Installing capacitive spark plugs
C. Installing resistors in series with the spark plugs
D. Installing two copper-braid ground strips
193. The carrier in an AM transmitter is the
A. Transmitters output signal when the modulation is present
B. Transmitters output signal when the modulation is zero
C. Output signal from the crystal oscillator
D. RMS value of the AM signal
194. What stage feeds the discriminator of an FM receiver?
A. Local oscillator
B. Mixer stage
C. Final IF amplifier, which also acts as a limiter stage
D. Buffer
195. In an FM receiver, the stage that has the IF signal is input and the audio signal output.
A. Limiter
B. Audio amplifier
C. IF amplifier
D. Discriminator
196. What is capture effect?
A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver
B. The loudest signal received is the only demodulated signal
C. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver
D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal
197. A double-sideband phone signal can be generated by
A. Feeding a phase-modulated signal into a low-pass filter
B. Modulating the plate voltage of a class-C amplifier
C. Using a balanced modulator followed by a filter
D. Detuning a Hartley oscillator

198. Pre-emphasis is used in FM transmitters to improve the signal-to-noise ratio of
A. High modulating frequencies
B. Low modulating frequencies
C. All modulating frequencies
D. Frequencies carrier
199. The result of cross-modulation is that
A. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signal
B. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signals
C. Of receiver quieting
D. Of inverting sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
200. Which of the following contains de-emphasis circuit?
A. FM transmitter
B. FM receiver
C. VHF transmitter
D. VHF receiver
201. What is emission F3F?
A. AM
B. Facsimile
C. Television
D. RTTY
202. What type of emission is produced when a frequency modulated transmitter is modulated
by a facsimile signal?
A. F3C
B. A3C
C. F3F
D. A3F
203. Two AM transmitting antennas are close together. As a result the two modulated signals
are mixed in the final RF stage of both transmitters. What is the resultant effect on other
station?
A. Harmonic interference
B. Intermodulation interference
C. Spurious interference
D. Crossmodulation interference
204. The term used to refer to the reduction of receiver gain caused by the signal of a nearby
station transmitter in the same frequency band?
A. Quieting
B. Cross-modulation interference
C. Squelch gain rollback
D. Desensitizing
205.
What is the bandwidth occupied by the carrier, both sidebands and harmonics?
A. Authorized bandwidth
B. Bandwidth of emission and occupied bandwidth
C. Operating bandwidth
D. All of these
206. A class-C RF amplifier is collector amplitude modulated and its average dc level
collector current does not change. This means
A. A normal condition
B. Excessive drive to the base
C. Insufficient drive to the base
D. Insufficient audio modulation
207. What determines the percentage modulation of an FM transmitter?
A. Amplitude of the carrier
B. Modulating frequency
C. Carrier frequency
D. Amplitude of the modulating signal
208. Deviation ratio of an FM transmitter is the ratio of the
A. Maximum frequency swing to the highest modulating frequency
B. Operating frequency of the assigned frequency
C. Frequency swing to the modulating frequency
D. Highest modulating frequency to the minimum frequency
209. The main purpose of the beat frequency oscillator (BFO) is to generate
A. A 1 kHz not for Morse reception
B. Aid in the reception of weak voice-modulated signals
C. An output, whose frequency differs from the IF by 1 kHz
D. A signal, whose frequency is the same as intermediate frequency
210. Normally, a linear class BRF power amplifier operates with a bias approximately equal to
A. Twice cut-off
B. Ten times cut-off value
C. 50% of cut-off value
D. Projected cut-off
211. The purpose why an RF amplifier is operated under linear class-B conditions (as opposed
to class-C) is to
A. Generate only even harmonics
B. Generate only odd harmonics
C. Increase the efficiency
D. Amplify of an AM signal
212. The term used to refer to the condition where the signal from a very strong station are
superimposed on other signal being received.
A. Cross-modulation interference
B. Intermodulation distoriotion
C. Receiver quieting
D. Capture effect
213. _________ is the amplitude of the maximum negative excursion of a signal as viewed on
an oscilloscope.
A. Peak-to-peak voltage
B. Inverse peak positive voltage
C. RMS voltage
D. Peak negative voltage
214. The type of emission that suffer most from selective fading.
A. CW and SSB
B. SSB and TV
C. FM and double sideband AM
D. SSTV and CW
215. In an FM-phone signal, ________ is the ratio between the actual frequency deviation to
the maximum frequency deviation.
A. FM compressibility
B. Modulating index
C. Percentage of modulation
D. Quieting index
216. _______ is used to refer to the reception blockage of one FM-phone signal by another
FM-phone signal.
A. Capture effect
B. Desensitization
C. Cross-modulation interference
D. Frequency discrimination
217. A receiver selectivity of 10 kHz in the IF circuitry is optimum for what type of singals?
A. SSB voice
B. Facsimile
C. FM
D. Double-sideband AM
218. If the envelope of modulation is constant in amplitude this means
A. Zero beat
B. Under-modulation
C. Zero-modulation
D. Over-modulation
219. What is the approximate bandwidth of an FM with a modulation factor of 12.5 and a
modulating frequency of 10 kHz?
A. 20 kHz
B. 270 kHz
C. 250 kHz
D. 45 kHz
220. Amplitude modulation is the same as
A. Linear mixing
B. Analog multiplication
C. Signal summation
D. Multiplexing
221. The negative half of the AM wave is supplied by a/an _______ on a diode modulator.
A. The tuned circuit
B. Transformer
C. Capacitor
D. Inductor
222. One of the following can produce AM.
A. Having the carrier vary a resistance
B. Having the modulating signal vary a capacitance
C. Varying the carrier frequency
D. Varying the gain of an amplifier
223. Amplitude modulators that vary the carrier amplitude with the modulating signal by
passing it through an attenuator network is the principle of
A. Rectification
B. Amplification
C. Variable resistance
D. Absorption
224. Which component is used to produce AM at very high frequencies?
A. Varactor diode
B. Thermistor
C. Cavity resonator
D. PIN diode
225. A collector modulator has a supply voltage of 48 V. What is the peak-to-peak amplitude
of the modulating signal for 100 percent modulation?
A. 24 V
B. 48 V
C. 96 V
D. 120 V
226. What circuit recovers the original modulating information from an AM signal?
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Mixer
D. Crystal set
227. What is the most commonly used amplitude demodulator?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Envelope detector
Balanced modulator
Mixer
Crystal set
228. What circuit generates the upper and lower sidebands and suppresses the carrier?
A. Amplitude modulator
B. Diode detector
C. Class C amplifier
D. Balanced modulator
229. _________ is a widely used balanced modulator.
A. Diode bridge circuit
B. Full-wave bridge rectifier
C. Lattice modulator
D. Balanced bridge modulator
230. In a diode ring modulator, the diodes act like
A. Variable resistors
B. Switches
C. Rectifiers
D. Variable capacitors
231. The output of a balanced modulator is
A. AM
B. FM
C. SSB
D. DSB
232. The principal circuit in the popular 1496/1596 IC balanced modulator is a
A. Differential amplifier
B. Rectifier
C. Bridge
D. Constant current source
233. The most commonly used filter in SSB generators uses
A. LC networks
B. Mechanical resonators
C. Crystals
D. RC networks and op amps
234. In the phasing method of SSB generation, one sideband is canceled out due to
A. Phase shifting
B. Sharp selectivity
C. Carrier suppression
D. Phase inversion
235. A balanced modulator used to demodulate a SSB signal is call a/an
A.
B.
C.
D.
Transponder
Product detector
Converter
Remodulator
236. Frequency translation is done with a circuit called a
A. Summer
B. Multiplier
C. Divider
D. Mixer
237. Mixing for frequency conversion is the same as
A. Rectification
B. AM
C. Linear summing
D. Filtering
238. Which of the following is not a major advantage of FM over AM?
A. Greater efficiency
B. Noise immunity
C. Capture effect
D. Lower complexity and cost
239. The primary disadvantage of FM is its
A. Higher cost and complexity
B. Excessive use of spectrum space
C. Noise susceptibility
D. Lower efficiency
240. Noise is primarily
A. High-frequency spikes
B. Lowe-frequency variations
C. Random level shifts
D. Random frequency variations
241. The receiver circuit that rids FM of noise is the
A. Modulator
B. Demodulator
C. Limiter
D. Low-pass filter
242. The AM signals generated at a low level may only be amplified by what type of
amplifier?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. All of the above
243.
SSB means
A. Single sideband with suppressed carrier
B. Single sideband with carrier
C. Double sideband with no carrier
D. Single sideband with reduced carrier
244. A circuit used to select the desired output from a mixer
A. Transformer
B. Resonant circuit
C. Filter
D. Phase-shift circuit
245. What is the output of a balanced modulator?
A. AM
B. DSB
C. SSB
D. ISB
246. The acronym SSSC refer to
A. Suppressed sideband, single carrier
B. Suppressed sideband, suppressed carrier
C. Single sideband, suppressed carrier
D. Single sideband, single carrier
247. Which process occurs in the receiver?
A. Demodulation
B. Reception
C. Modulation
D. Recreation
248. What is usually used to demodulate SSB or CW signal?
A. PLL
B. BFO
C. Ratio detector
D. All of these
249. Which of the following is the most widely used amplitude modulator
A. Diode detector
B. PLL circuit
C. VCO
D. All of these
250. Which of the following is the most widely used balanced modulator
A. Full-wave bridge circuit
B. Balanced bridge modulator
C. Lattice modulator
D. None of these

Multiple Choice Questions in Communications Engineering

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN:

Test yourself- Exam 1-10

Test Yourself Exam 01

ECE Board Exam March 1996

B. less amplification for low signal levels

D. effective isotropic radiated power

20. ECE Board Exam March 1996

A car horn outdoors produces a sound intensity level of 90 dB at 10 ft away. At this

A. bearing and distance indication

56. ECE Board Exam March 1996

62. ECE Board Exam March 1996

74. ECE Board Exam March 1996

80. ECE Board Exam March 1996

Transmission lines are either balanced or unbalanced with respect to _________.

Test Yourself Exam 02

ECE Board Exam November 1996

The maximum power suggested by KBP on 919-1312 AM broadcast station in Metro

51. ECE Board Exam November 1996

64. ECE Board Exam November 1996

C. the same in all modern computer

____________ is the average rate of transmission of sound energy in a given direction

90. ECE Board Exam November 1996

Test Yourself Exam 03

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A single conductor running from the transmitter to the antenna.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

To couple a coaxial line to parallel line, it is better to use a ______.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Transmission sent in both directions simultaneously.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Industrial noise frequency is between _________.

200 to 3000 Mhz

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Reference noise temperature.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

What is the reference frequency of CCITT psophometric noise measurement?

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Which does not effect noise in a channel?

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

The most common unit of noise measurement in white noise testing.

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Unit of noise power of psophometer

ECE Board Exam April 1997

100% modulation in AM means a corresponding increase in total power by:

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

What particular circuit that rids FM of noise?

ECE Board Exam April 1997

What is the advantage of PTM over PAM?

ECE Board Exam April 1997

ECE Board Exam April 1997

A carrier signal has ______.

Constant peak amplitude

ECE Board Exam April 1997

Which transmit only one sideband?

ECE Board Exam April 1997