K

KUNDAN
PRACTICE SET
IBPS CWE Clerk
Test-I: Reasoning Ability
Directions (Q. 1-6): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions:
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight persons sitting in a
circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same
order.
B is second to the right of D. G is third to the right of
E. C is second to the left of A, who is second to the left of
F, who is not an immediate neighbour of B and D.
1. Who among the following sits between F and G?
1) E 2) H 3) A
4) C 5) None of these
2. Who among the following sits third to the right of C?
1) E 2) F 3) A
4) H 5) None of these
3. Who sits on the immediate right of H?
1) B 2) A 3) G
4) F 5) Cant be determined
4. In which of the following combinations is the first
person sitting between the second and the third
person?
1) ABC 2) EFH 3) FGH
4) BCA 5) None of these
5. Which of the following statements is true?
1) C is opposite E.
2) E is second to the left of F.
3) B is opposite H.
4) G is on the immediate right of D.
5) None of these
6. Who sits on the immediate right of A?
1) B 2) F 3) E
4) C 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 7-11): The following questions are
based on the diagram given below:
(i) The rectangle represents MBBS.
(ii) The triangle represents young people.
(iii) The circle represents clerks.
(iv) The square represents graduates.
7. Who among the following are young, graduate and
MBBS?
1) D and A 2) A and B 3) A and E
4) I and B 5) None of these
8. Which of the following groups represents graduates?
1) FEALI 2) LGBIE 3) AIEBF
4) EIGHB 5) None of these
9. Which of the following groups represents only MBBS
and only clerks respectively?
1) DK, HJ 2) GHJ, LKD 3) CL, HJ
4) FC, DK 5) None of these
10. Which of the following groups represents young
graduates and clerks but not MBBS?
1) B, I 2) A, B 3) B 4) I 5) None of these
11. Which of the following statements is true?
1) All young are MBBS and clerk.
2) Some graduates are MBBS.
3) All clerks are MBBS but not young.
4) All MBBS are clerks.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 12-16): In each question below is given
a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/
symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out
which of the combinations correctly represents the group
of letters based on the following coding system and mark
the number of that combination as the answer. If none of
the four combinations correctly represents the group of
letters, mark 5), ie None of these, as the answer.
Conditions:
1) If the first and the last letters are consonants, both
are to be coded as the code for the first letter.
2) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is
as vowel their codes are to be interchanged.
3) If both the first and the last letters are vowels, both
are to be coded as the last letter.
12. TABDRE
1) 93#2@7 2) 73#@29 3) 93#@27
4) 73#@27 5) None of these
13. QHFKAN
1) 4$134 2) 4$138 3) $134
4) 41$34 5) None of these
14. IAJEPI
1) %367$ 2) %367% 3) %367 %
4) 6%367 5) None of these
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15. NRJTBP
1) 26#9@ 2) %269 3) 962#
4) 269# 5) None of these
16. JATHQE
1) 73946 2) 63947 3) 63946
4) 73947 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 17-18): Four of the following five are
alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is
the one that does not belong to that group?
17. 1) Kinship 2) Diversity 3) Sameness
4) Conformity 5) Similarity
18. 1) Refute 2) Confute 3) Crunch
4) Concur 5) Quash
19. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word
SURRENDER, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
1) None 2) One 3) Two
4) Three 5) None of these
20. In a certain code HCKVJ is the code for FAITH and
TKIJ V is the code for RIGHT. In the same code
language ETQYP is the code for which of the
following?
1) BROWN 2) CREAM 3) CROWN
4) AMONG 5) None of these
21. What will come next in the given alphabetical series?
XVU WUT VTS USR ?
1) TRQ 2) RST 3) SRQ 4) TUV 5) None of these
Directions (Q. 22-26): In these questions, a
relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two
conclusions. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I is true.
2) if only conclusion II is true.
3) if either conclusion I or II is true.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.
5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
22. Statements: F s N, R > N, H >R
Conclusions: I. H >F II. R s F
23. Statements: M <T, K s T, N <K
Conclusions: I. N >M II. T >N
24. Statements: T >H, W >H, M s W
Conclusions: I. T >W II. H > M
25. Statements: D =M, L > P, M >P
Conclusions: I. P <D II. M >P
26. Statements: J > B, R =F >T, B <R
Conclusions: I. J >T II. T > B
Directions (Q. 27-30): Each of the questions below
consists of a question and two statements numbered I and
II given below it. You have to decide whether the data
provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read both the statements and give answer
1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement
II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are not sufficient to answer the question.
5) if the data in both the statements I and II together
are necessary to answer the question.
27. Among five persons J, K, L, M and N sitting in a row,
who is in the middle of the row?
I. K is between L and M, neither of whom is at the
extreme ends.
II. J and N are at the extreme ends and L is to the right
of J.
28. Is R greater than T among P, Q, R, S and T?
I. P is greater than or equal to R. Q is greater than S,
who is greater than or equal to T. Q is equal to R.
II. T is greater than P, who is equal to S. R is greater
than Q, who is smaller than S.
29. How is A related to C?
I. A is daughter of B.
II. As fathers only sibling X is Cs paternal aunt.
30. Among A, B, C and D, who is the shortest?
I. B and D are shorter than C but not shorter than A.
II. A is as tall as B but shorter than C.
Directions (Q. 31-35): In each question below are
given two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements
to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements, disregarding commonly
known facts. Give answer
1) if only conclusion I follows.
2) if only conclusion II follows.
3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
5) if both conclusions I and II follow.
(31-32):
Statements: Some mice are keyboards.
No keyboard is a key.
All keys are rings.
31. Conclusions: I. Some rings are not keyboards.
II. All mice being keys is a
possibility.
32. Conclusions: I. Some mice are rings.
II. All rings being mice is a
possibility.
33. Statements: All bags are books.
Some books are boxes.
Conclusions: I. All boxes being bags is a
possibility.
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II. Some bags are boxes.
34. Statements: No kite is an aeroplane.
Some aeroplanes are birds.
Conclusions: I. Some birds are definitely not kites.
II. No aeroplane is a kite.
35. Statements: Some pots are belts.
No belt is a shirt.
Conclusions: I. Some shirts are not pots.
II. All shirts are definitely not belts.
Directions (Q. 36-40): Study the following information
carefully and answer the given questions:
Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows containing
5 persons each in such a way that there is an equal distance
between adjacent persons. In the 1st row E, F, G, H and I are
sitting and all of them are facing south. In the 2nd row T, U,
V, W and Z are sitting, but not necessarily in the same
order. In the given seating arrangement each member sitting
in a row faces another member of the other row.
The one who is an immediate neighbour of H is facing
W. F does not sit at the extreme ends of the row. V and Z
are immediate neighbours. Only one person sits between I
and G. Z sits second to the left of the person who faces I. E
faces the person who is on the immediate left of Z. T sits at
the left end of the row. E and H are not immediate
neighbours.
36. Who among the following sits between G and I?
1) H 2) F 3) E
4) T 5) None of these
37. Who among the following faces G?
1) U 2) V 3) H
4) Z 5) None of these
38. Who among the following sits second to the right of
the person who faces U?
1) F 2) I 3) W
4) V 5) None of these
39. How many persons sit between E and H?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three
4) Cant be determined 5) None of these
40. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way
based on the given seating arrangement and hence
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
1) GZ 2) FV 3) WI
4) UH 5) EV
Test-II: English Language
Directions (Q. 41-50): Read the following passage
carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain
words/phrases in the passage are printed in bold to help
you locate them while answering some of the questions.
At the sight of Vidura, Yudhishthira anxiously
inquired: "Why are you so cheerless? Is it well with all our
relations in Hastinapura? Are the king and the princes
well?"
Vidura acquainted him with his mission: "Everyone in
Hastinapura is well. How fares it with you all? I have come
to invite you on behalf of King Dhritarashtra to come and
see the newly erected hall of games. A beautiful hall has
been erected there even like yours. The king would like
you to come with your brothers, see everything, have a
game of dice and return to your capital."
Yudhishthira seemed to ask counsel of Vidura:
"Wagering games create quarrels among Kshatriyas. A wise
man will avoid them if he can. We are ever abiding by your
advice. What would you have us do?"
Vidura replied: "Everyone is aware that the playing of
dice is the root of many evils. I did my best to oppose this
idea. Still the king has commanded me to invite you and I
have come. You may do as you like." Despite this warning,
Yudhishthira went to Hastinapura with his brothers and
retinue.
It may be asked why the wise Yudhishthira responded
to the invitation. Three reasons may be given. Men rush
consciously on their ruin impelled by lust, gambling and
drink. Yudhishthira was fond of gambling. The Kshatriya
tradition made it a matter of etiquette and honour not to
refuse an invitation to a game of dice. There is a third
reason too. True to the vow he took at the time, Vyasa had
warned him of the quarrels that would arise leading to
destruction of the race. Yudhishthira would not give any
occasion for displeasure or complaint by refusing the
invitation of Dhritarashtra. These causes conspired with
his natural inclination to make Yudhishthira accept the
invitation and go to Hastinapura. The Pandavas and their
retinue stopped in the magnificent palace reserved for them.
Yudhishthira rested on the day of arrival and, after the
daily routine of duties, went to the hall of games the next
morning.
After the exchange of customary greetings, Sakuni
announced to Yudhishthira that the cloth for playing the
game had been spread and invited him to it.
Yudhishthira at first said: "O king, gambling is bad. It
is not through heroism or merit that one succeeds in a
game of chance. Asita, Devala and other wise rishis who
were well-versed in worldly affairs have declared that
gambling should be avoided since it offers scope for deceit.
They have also said that conquest in battle is the proper
path for the Kshatriyas. You are not unaware of it."
But a part of himself, weakened by addiction to
gambling, was at war with his judgment and in his heart of
hearts Yudhishthira desired to play. In his discussion with
Sakuni, we see this inner conflict. The keen-witted Sakuni
spotted this weakness at once and said: "What is wrong
with the game? What, in fact, is a battle? What is even a
discussion between Vedic scholars? The learned man wins
victory over the ignorant. The better man wins in every
case. It is just a test of strength or skill, that is all, and there
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is nothing wrong in it. As for the result, in every field of
activity, the expert defeats the beginner, and that is what
happens in a game of dice also. But if you are afraid, you
need not play. But do not come out with this worn excuse
of right and wrong."
Yudhishthira replied: "Well, who is to play with me?"
Duryodhana said: "Mine is the responsibility for finding
the stakes in the form of wealth and gems to play the game.
My uncle Sakuni will actually cast the dice in my stead."
Yudhishthira had thought himself secure of defeating
Duryodhana in play but Sakuni was a different matter, for
Sakuni was a recognised expert. So he hesitated and said:
"It is not, I think, customary for one man to play on behalf
of another."
Sakuni retorted tauntingly: "I see that you are forging
another excuse."
Yudhishthira flushed and, casting caution to the winds,
replied: "Well, I shall play."
The hall was fully crowded. Drona, Kripa, Bhishma,
Vidura, and Dhritarashtra were seated there. They knew
that the game would end viciously and sat unhappily
witnessing what they could not prevent. The assembled
princes watched the game with great interest and
enthusiasm.
41. Why did Duryodhana ask Sakuni to cast the dice in
his place?
1) Because Sakuni was interested in playing with
Yudhishthira.
2) Because Sakuni was honest in each of his throws.
3) Because Sakuni was a recognised expert in
gambling.
4) Because Sakuni had no mind to defeat the
Pandavas.
5) None of these
42. Despite the warning given by Vidura, why did
Yudhishthira go to Hastinapur to play the dice match?
(A) Because Yudhishthira was fond of gambling.
(B) The Kshatriya tradition made it a matter of
etiquette not to refuse an invitation to a game of
dice.
(C) Yudhishthira did not want to give any occasion
for displeasure among his relatives.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B)
3) Only (C) 4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) Only (A) and (C)
43. Why have rishis declared that gambling should be
avoided?
1) Because it offers scope for drinking wine
2) Because it offers scope for deceit
3) Because it is a game which involves misbehaviour
4) Because it is a game which can lead to fight
5) None of these
44. Why has gambling been described as bad and a game
of chance by Yudhishthira?
(A) Because it is not through merit that one succeeds
in a game of gambling.
(B) Because it involves dishonesty.
(C) Because it allows even slaves to be staked at.
1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) and (C)
3) Only (B) 4) Only (A) and (C)
5) Only (A) and (B)
45. According to the passage, which of the following
statements is not true?
1) The learned man wins over the ignorant.
2) Gambling brings in a lot of money and hence should
be revered.
3) The better man wins in every case.
4) Gambling is a test of skill and strategy.
5) None of these
Directions (Q. 46-48): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
46. Conspired
1) disagreed 2) neglected 3) colluded
4) promoted 5) advised
47. Viciously
1) peacefully 2) kindly 3) cordially
4) horribly 5) roughly
48. Hesitated
1) continued 2) stumbled 3) stayed
4) attacked 5) persisted
Directions (Q. 49-50): Choose the word/group of
words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/
group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
49. Conquest
1) surrender 2) annex 3) invade
4) takeover 5) overthrow
50. Impelled
1) compelled 2) influenced
3) obliged 4) moved
5) discouraged
Directions (Q. 51-55): Read each sentence to find out
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The
number of that part is the answer. If there is No error,
the answer is 5). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
51. 1) All of the defendants are accused of involved / 2) in
the killings of intellectuals, political opponents and
secularists / 3) in the brutal war / 4) of independence
in 1971. / 5) No error
52. 1) The essence of Jhumpa Lahiris work lies / 2) in the
conflicted inner lives of her characters, / 3) their trials
and tribulations around difficult lives choices, and
their perpetual struggles / 4) to negotiate their
emotions vis-a-vis a hostile universe. / 5) No error
53. 1) Despite so much global concern and international
support, / 2) satisfactory recovery of tiger population
/ 3) still elude us / 4) in all the tiger-range countries. / 5)
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No error
54. 1) If one wants to use the film medium for social and
political causes, / 2) the film-maker has to be adapt in
the language of cinema, / 3) like a soldier who has to
be a master / 4) of his weapons to survive on the
battlefront. / 5) No error
55. 1) A new compound developed at the Tokyo Institute
of Technology / 2) shows highly unusual conducting
properties / 3) this could be used / 4) in future
electronic components. / 5) No error
Directions (Q. 56-60): Pick out the most effective
word from the given words to fill in the blank(s) to make
the sentence meaningfully complete.
56. Two political scions who _______ as young Members
of Parliament ________ a decade ago are now
ministers with key infrastructure portfolios like
telecom, shipping and corporate affairs.
1) launched, scarcely 2) opened, merely
3) took, hardly 4) began, around
5) debuted, nearly
57. Tarun Tejpal publicly shouted from the rooftop against
sexual harassment and privately ________ in morally
suspect behaviour ________ the same roof.
1) entertain, in 2) indulged, under 3) gratify, at
4) oblige, beneath5) cater, below
58. The Ghaziabad court may have given the ________
in the Aarushi Talwar case, but a lot many loose ends
still remain.
1) award 2) decree 3) sentence
4) verdict 5) conclusion
59. There comes a moment in the life of a nation when the
usurper rises from the ________ of disenchantment
and ________ the comforting ________ of the time.
1) recesses, shatters, certainties
2) break, crack, surety
3) interval, impair, lock
4) intermission, smash, stock
5) nook, crush, store
60. Set against the Congresss ________ headquarters
and ________ state branches, BJP has the advantage
of a galvanising general at the top and able warriors in
the provinces.
1) declined, shabby 2) slackened, damaged
3) diminished, dilapidated 4) reduced, shaky
5) subsidised, battered
Directions (Q. 61-65): In the following questions, a
sentence has been given with some of its parts in bold. To
make the sentence grammatically correct, you have to
replace the bold part with the correct alternative given
below. If the sentence is correct as it is, give 5) as your
answer (ie No correction required).
61. Energy have a key role to play in the uninterrupted
growth of Indian economy.
1) has a key role to be played
2) had a key role played
3) has a key role to play
4) had a key role being played
5) No correction required
62. Raman Singh is aman of many a sobriquets.
1) people of many 2) man of many
3) person of much 4) human of most of
5) No correction required
63. Delhis three-time chief minister was known for her
ability to read the pulse of voters.
1) has been known for 2) has known for
3) has been knowing for 4) had knew about
5) No correction required
64. Proteins are the primary building brick of the human
body.
1) building fabric 2) construction slabs
3) building blocks 4) framework entity
5) No correction required
65. Doing something for the first time can be difficult and
frustrated.
1) a difficulty and frustration
2) difficult and frustrating
3) difficult to frustrate
4) difficult with frustration
5) No correction required
Directions (Q. 66-70): Rearrange the following six
sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer
the questions given below.
(A) In economic terms, any product being capable of
giving customer satisfaction needs to have place
and time utility.
(B) For an effective conclusion of marketing, the
functioning of other elements in the chain is as
important as that of the producer.
(C) This is provided by the Distribution function
of marketing mix.
(D) One of the four Ps of marketing mix is place or
Distribution.
(E) In the normal goods distribution process, entities
other than the producers are also associated and
there is a chain between the producer and the
consumer.
(F) All endeavours of production will come to nought,
if the products do not reach the consumers for
consumption.
66. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence
after rearrangement?
1) F 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D
67. Which of the following should be the SECOND
sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) F 5) E
68. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence
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after rearrangement?
1) E 2) B 3) F 4) C 5) A
69. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH)
sentence after rearrangement?
1) B 2) C 3) E 4) D 5) F
70. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence
after rearrangement?
1) A 2) F 3) E 4) B 5) C
Directions (Q. 71-80): In the following passage, some
of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated
by a number. Find the suitable word from the options given
against each number and fill up the blanks with
appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningfully
complete.
The framework released by the RBI for entry and
expansion of foreign banks in India makes sense. If foreign
banks do enter India, it would drive local banks to become
(71) efficient and encourage mergers and acquisitions.
These banks will also bring (72) technology and expertise
to foster financial inclusion. The RBIs final rules provide a
foreign bank nearly the (73) freedom as a private sector
bank in opening branches if it takes the form of a local
subsidiary. New or existing (74) will have to set up wholly-
owned arms if they are systemically important foreign
banks, or banks that have a complex (75) or those that do
not have adequate disclosure requirement in their home
jurisdictions or offer home residents preferential protection
in case of a problem.
However, those present in India before August 2010
Citi, HSBC and Standard Chartered have the (76) to
continue as branches. Rightly, the regulator must encourage
their conversion into local subsidiaries, following Indian
laws. It will ring-fence the capital and assets of the bank
within India and (77) effective risk control. Incentives by
way of operational freedom could persuade some banks to
(78) into wholly-owned subsidiaries. India is a growing
market and more branches would do no harm. However,
technology has made physical branch networks much less
(79) today. An example is the credit card (80) of foreign
banks that has far surpassed their branch-network size.
71. 1) less 2) added 3) further
4) more 5) also
72. 1) down 2) in 3) up
4) around 5) forward
73. 1) equivalent 2) likely 3) duplicate
4) different 5) same
74. 1) contestants 2) aspirant 3) entrants
4) candidates 5) petitioners
75. 1) structure 2) construction 3) architecture
4) texture 5) configuration
76. 1) discretion 2) free will 3) prerogative
4) option 5) claim
77. 1) endow 2) enable 3) qualify
4) approve 5) let
78. 1) manipulate 2) mutate 3) transfer
4) turn 5) convert
79. 1) relevant 2) compatible 3) suited
4) admissible 5) proper
80. 1) field 2) work 3) business
4) function 5) occupation
Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude
Directions (Q. 81-100): What should come in place
of question mark (?) in the following questions?
81.
24 . 10 84 . 7
=?
1) 12.48 2) 10.12 3) 9.64 4) 8.96 5) 8.24
82. 73174 29617 +43156 31619 =?
1) 55094 2) 54684 3) 53874
4) 52124 5) None of these
83.
5 . 11 2209
=?
1) 544.5 2) 542.5 3) 540.5 4) 538.5 5) 536.5
84.
?
7 6 3 2
357 267 192
=


1) 70184 2) 72624 3) 74484
4) 76364 5) None of these
85. 319.24 106.89 +431.65 240.33 =?
1) 407.67 2) 421.27 3) 403.67
4) 424.57 5) None of these
86. 48% of 1735 +36% of 1545 =?
1) 1184 2) 1216 3) 1278 4) 1324 5) 1389
87.
? 04 . 23 96 . 1 = +
1) 3.8 2) 3.4 3) 2.8
4) 2.6 5) None of these
88. 0.748 0.044 =20% of ?
1) 125 2) 105 3) 85 4) 65 5) 45
89. 658 ? 8 =94752
1) 14 2) 16 3) 18 4) 22 5) 24
90. 17
2
+23
2
=
?
1) 1600 2) 274576 3) 374544
4) 669124 5) None of these
91. (2)
3.7
(32)
1

16
1
=(2)
?
1) 12.7 2) 2.7 3) 5.3 4) 3.7 5) None of these
92.
? 84 . 295 =
1) 16.8 2) 17.2 3) 17.4 4) 17.6 5) 16.6
93. 56 21.8 8 +18.6 =?
1) 165 2) 168.4 3) 171.2 4) 174 5) 176.8
94. 16.4 7.75 12 =?
1) 1122.6 2) 1426.8 3) 1628.4 4) 1525.2 5) 1320
95.
? 17576 68921
3 3
= +
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1) 61 2) 63 3) 65 4) 67 5) 69
96. (16807)
2
(49)
7

343
1
=(7)
?
1) 1 2) 3 3) 7 4) 2 5) 5
97. 24.8% of 1550 13.2% of 1125 =?
1) 231.1 2) 235.9 3) 239.4 4) 243 5) 246.5
98.
7
4
of
9
5
of
11
8
of 7623 =?
1) 1320 2) 1540 3) 1760 4) 1980 5) 2120
99. 48% of 325 +987 47 =125% of ?
1) 1296 2) 1416 3) 1524 4) 1684 5) 1704
100.
? 888 4356 6084 = +
1) 66 2) 68 3) 72 4) 74 5) 76
101. At what rate of simple interest per annum does a person
get an interest of `4706.1 on the principal amount of
`11205 after 7 years?
1) 4% pa 2) 6% pa 3) 8% pa 4) 12% pa5) 14% pa
102. The difference of a two-digit number and the number
obtained after interchanging its two digits is 36. If the
sum of the two digits of the number is 12, then what is
the number?
1) 57 2) 75 3) 84 4) 93 5) None of these
103. In how many different ways can the letters of the word
BOTTLE be arranged?
1) 60 2) 360 3) 120 4) 720 5) 36
104. The ratio of the length to the breadth of a rectangular
field is 16 : 9. If the area of the field is 11664 sq m, what
is its perimeter?
1) 420m 2) 450m 3) 480m 4) 520m 5) 560m
105. What will be the next number in the following number
series?
9155, 6961, 5627, 4901, 4555, ?
1) 4343 2) 4337 3) 4433 4) 4413 5) 4403
106. An amount of `110000 is invested at compound
interest payable annually. If the rate of interest is
11% pa, what will be the total interest after two years?
1) `23481 2) `25531 3) `24200
4) `26416 5) None of these
107. An item is sold for `1652 at a profit of 18%. What
would have been the gain or loss per cent had it been
sold for `1512?
1) 6% 2) 8% 3) 10% 4) 12% 5) 14%
108. The difference between 72% of a number and
5
7
of
the same number is 125.8. What is 40% of that number?
1) 64 2) 68 3) 72 4) 74 5) 78
109. The cost of 16 pens and 20 pencils is `124. What will
be the cost of 28 pens and 35 pencils?
1) `284 2) `251 3) `227
4) `217 5) `208
110. The average age of 12 persons is 32 years. If the age
of one more person is added, the average decreases
by one year. What is the age of the new person?
1) 19 years 2) 23 years 3) 25 years
4) 21 years 5) 27 years
111. The rate of growth of population of a city is 10% per
annum. If in the year 2010 the population of the city
was 22 lakh then what will be its population in the year
2013?
1) 27.142 lakh 2) 28.436 lakh 3) 29.282 lakh
4) 30.012 lakh 5) 31.64 lakh
112. A 175-metre-long train is running at a speed of 58 kmph.
In what time will it cross a man who is walking in the
opposite direction at a speed of 5 kmph?
1) 9 seconds 2) 8 seconds 3) 20 seconds
4) 10 seconds 5) 12 seconds
113. Sandeep incurred a loss of 30% on selling an article
for `5670. What is the cost price of the article?
1) `9600 2) `9200 3) `8700
4) `8900 5) `8100
114. What is the area of a circle whose diameter is 33.6 cm?
1) 814.02 sq cm 2) 834.8 sq cm 3) 864.84 sq cm
4) 887.04 sq cm 5) 896.6 sq cm
115. There is a rectangular room whose length, breadth
and height are 15m, 9m and 4m respectively. What will
be the cost of painting the four walls of the room if the
rate of painting is `8.40 per square metre?
1) `1484.6 2) `1548.2 3) `1612.8
4) `1712.4 5) `1804.6
116. A man can row 42 km upstream and 68 km downstream
in 10 hours. Also, he can row 56 km upstream and 85
km downstream in 13 hours. What is the speed of the
man in still water?
1) 18 kmph 2) 16 kmph 3) 14 kmph
4) 12 kmph 5) 8 kmph
117. Out of the given fractions, which is the largest?
1)
3
1
2)
7
2
3)
19
8
4)
14
5
5)
11
4
118. The area of a circle is equal to the area of a rectangle
whose perimeter is equal to 69 m and whose breadth is
equal to 13.5m. What is the area of the circle?
1) 278.5 sq m 2) 281.5 sq m 3) 283.5 sq m
4) 287.5 sq m 5) 296.5 sq m
119. There is sufficient food for 200 men for 45 days. After
24 days 95 men left. For how many days will the
remaining food last for the remaining men?
1) 28 days 2) 30 days 3) 32 days
4) 36 days 5) 40 days
120. A can do a piece of work in 36 days, while B alone can
do the same piece of work in 30 days. With the help of
C they finish the work in 9 days. In how many days
can C alone do the same piece of work?
1) 20 days 2) 24 days 3) 25 days
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4) 36 days 5) 40 days
Test-IV: General Awareness
(with Special Reference to Banking Industry)
121. Joachim Gauck, who visited India recently, is the
President of which of the following countries?
1) Spain 2) Germany 3) New Zealand
4) Italy 5) None of these
122. The Finance Minister P Chidambaram presented
Interim Budget for 2014-15 in the Lok Sabha recently.
This was the ________budget of the Union Govt.
1) 81st 2) 82nd 3) 83rd 4) 84th 5) 85th
123. Finance Minister P Chidambaram allocated an
additional `1,000 cr to the Nirbhaya Fund while
presenting the Interim Budget recently. Nirbhaya Fund
is aimed at which of the following?
1) Checking female foeticide
2) Employment generation for women
3) Safety and empowerment of women
4) Providing loan to women entrepreneurs
5) None of these
124. What does the letter P denote in the abbreviation
FIPB, a term we often read in the financial newspapers?
1) Preference 2) Promotion 3) Protection
4) Prohibition 5) Proposal
125. Different stakeholders have raised concerns over
RBIs Nachiket Mor panels recommendation to create
dedicated banks for rural inclusion. These banks will
be known as which of the following?
1) Development banks 2) Payments banks
3) Permanent banks 4) Priority banks
5) None of these
126. Defence spending has been raised by 10 per cent from
the previous year in the recent Interim Budget. What
is size of the fund allocated for defence spending for
2014-15?
1) `2.11 tn 2) `2.24 tn 3) `2.44 tn
4) `3.25 tn 5) `3.85 tn
127. J nanpith Awardee Amar Kant, who passed away
recently, was a noted writer of which of the following
languages?
1) Hindi 2) Urdu 3) Bengali
4) Telugu 5) Tamil
128. Brendon McCullum and BJ Watling made 352 runs
recently for the sixth wicket, which is the highest by
any pair in Test cricket so far. Both the players play for
which of the following countries?
1) Australia 2) West Indies 3) South Africa
4) New Zealand 5) None of these
129. Which of the following is NOT a money/finance-
related term?
1) Reti opening 2) Dividend 3) Divestment
4) M-Cap 5) Actuaries
130. The RBI has repeatedly stressed that investors and
users should exercise caution before using Bitcoins
as a consistent means of exchange. Bitcoin is a
1) Digital currency 2) Regional currency
3) Fictitious money 4) Symbolic currency
5) None of these
131. India has emerged as the fourth-largest country to
grow biotech or genetically modified (GM) crops in
2013. Which of the following countries is the largest
grower of GM crops as of now?
1) Brazil 2) Canada 3) US
4) Spain 5) Portugal
132. Which of the following cellular operators has acquired
Mumbai based Loop Mobile for about ` 700 cr
recently?
1) Vodafone 2) Maxis 3) Telenor
4) Idea 5) Bharti Airtel
133. Om Prakash Singh Karhana gave the lone gold to India
in the 6th Asian Indoor Athletics Championships event
held at Hangzhou (China) recently. He plays which of
the following games?
1) Billiards 2) Pole vault 3) Triple jump
4) Shot put 5) None of these
134. Tier I capital of banks, also termed as core capital,
consists of which of the following?
1) Share capital
2) Disclosed reserves
3) Certain reserves and subordinate debts
4) All the above
5) Only 1) and 2) minus goodwill, if any
135. Capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR) is arrived
at by dividing the capital of the bank with aggregated
risk-weighted assets. These risk-weighted assets
belong to
1) Credit risk 2) Market risk
3) Operational risk 4) Only 1) and 2)
5) All 1), 2) and 3)
136. Hamad bin Isa Al Khalifa, who visited India on a three
day official visit recently, is the present king of which
of the following countries?
1) Oman 2) Jordan 3) Yemen
4) Bahrain 5) None of these
137. Which of the following states in India has been
declared as the best state in the country for
implementing Rural Tourism Project and has been
conferred the National Tourism Award 2012-13
recently?
1) Sikkim 2) Kerala
3) Andhra Pradesh 4) Maharashtra
5) Rajasthan
138. Which of the following countries ordered the
immediate recall of its Ambassador in India, Daniele
Mancini, for consultations recently?
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1) Spain 2) Italy 3) Norway
4) Sweden 5) None of these
139. Forward Contract, Options and Swaps are the examples
of which of the following?
1) Derivative 2) Gilt-edged securities
3) Preferential shares 4) IPOs
5) None of these
140. Every bank is required to maintain, at the close of
business every day, a minimum proportion of their net
demand and time liabilities as liquid assets in the form
of cash (book value), gold (current market value) and
balances in unencumbered approved securities. It is
termed as
1) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
2) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
3) Marginal Standing Facility (MSF)
4) Excess reserve
5) None of these
141. The 22nd session of the World Economic Forum
(WEF) was held in the Swiss city of Davos recently.
Which of the following is correct about WEF? It is a/
an
1) UN body
2) US agency
3) Independent international organisation
4) World Bank institution
5) None of these
142. The issue of the pepper spray incident in the Lok
Sabha, which saw widespread outrage and
condemnation, was referred by the Lok Sabha Speaker
Meira Kumar to the Privileges Committee with punitive
powers. Who is heading the Committee?
1) PC Chacko 2) P Chidambaram
3) Kamal Nath 4) Mallikarjun Kharge
5) None of these
143. India has been ranked at which of the following
positions in the recently released World Press
Freedom Index published by the media watchdog
Reporters Without Borders (RSF)?
1) 140th 2) 158th 3) 172nd 4) 173rd 5) 175th
144. Which of the following is a leading electronic-payment
technology firm?
1) Nifty 2) Visa 3) Max
4) APEC 5) None of these
145. LIBOR, which is acronym for London Inter Bank
Offered Rate, is the interest rate at which banks offer
to lend funds to who among the following?
1) Govts
2) Interbank market
3) Major infrastructure projects
4) Acquisitions by firms
5) None of these
146. Which of the following countries had launched its
first lunar rover Yutu or the Jade Rabbit, which has
now been declared dead after attempts to revive it
failed recently?
1) Japan 2) Russia 3) France
4) India 5) China
147. Who among the following took over as the new
chairperson of Broadcasting Content Complaints
Council (BCCC), a self-regulatory body for non-news
channels in India?
1) Indira Jaising
2) Justice Mukul Mudgal
3) Justice Asok Kumar Ganguly
4) Justice Swatanter Kumar
5) Justice SH Kapadia
148. Which of the following has become the first rail system
in the world to be awarded the Gold Standard
foundation a globally accepted certification
standard for carbon mitigation projects recently?
1) Delhi Metro 2) New York Metro
3) London Metro 4) Kolkata Metro
5) None of these
149. We often read about decreasing or increasing different
rates and ratios by the RBI by certain basis points.
One basis point is equal to which of the following?
1) 1% 2) 0.1% 3) 0.01%
4) 0.001% 5) None of these
150. An Individual having a Basic Savings Bank Deposit
Account in a bank cannot have which of the following
types of accounts in that bank?
1) Savings account 2) Term/Fixed Deposit
3) Recurring Deposit 4) All the above
5) None of the above
151. Who among the following has authored the recently
published book titled Catch Up: Developing
Countries in the World Economy?
1) Ratnesh Dwivedi 2) Deepak Nayyar
3) Pankaj Mishra 4) Jaswant Singh
5) None of these
152. Yulia Vyacheslavovna Lipnitskaya became the
youngest athlete (15 years old) to win Gold at Winter
Olympics held in Sochi (Russia) recently. She belongs
to which of the following countries?
1) Ukraine 2) Russia
3) Czech Republic 4) Kazakhstan
5) None of these
153. Harish Rawat was sworn in as the new chief minister
of which of the following states recently?
1) Chhattisgarh 2) Karnataka
3) Himachal Pradesh 4) Uttarakhand
5) None of these
154. KYC is an acronym for Know Your Customer, a term
used for customer identification process. It does not
help banks in which of the following?
1) Determining true identity of account holder
2) Source of funds
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KUNDAN
3) Nature of customers business
4) Increase profitability
5) All the above
155. The banking ombudsman scheme provides an
expeditious and inexpensive forum to bank customers
for resolution of complaints. Introduced by the RBI
with effect from 1995, the scheme covers which of the
following types of banks?
1) Public Sector Banks
2) Private Banks
3) Regional Rural Banks
4) Scheduled Primary Co-Operative Banks
5) All the above
156. Under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme introduced
by the RBI, all resident individuals, including minors,
are allowed to freely remit up to USD 75,000 per financial
year. Remittances directly or indirectly to which of the
following countries is not permitted under the scheme?
1) Pakistan 2) Mauritius 3) Nepal
4) Bhutan 5) All the above
157. Which of the following teams won the 2013-14 season
of the Ranji Trophy cricket tournament recently?
1) Karnataka 2) Maharashtra 3) Punjab
4) Delhi 5) None of these
158. Moulaye Ould Mohamed Laghdaf resigned along with
his entire cabinet recently as the prime minister of
which of the following countries? He had been holding
the post since 2008.
1) Mauritania 2) Fiji
3) Trinidad and Tobago 4) Nigeria
5) Surinam
159. Who among the following will head the 7th Central
Pay Commission set up by the Union Govt?
1) Meena Agarwal 2) Rathin Roy
3) Vivek Rae 4) Ashok Kumar Mathur
5) None of these
160. World Cancer Day is observed on which of the
following dates annually?
1) 1 Feb 2) 2 Feb 3) 3 Feb 4) 4 Feb 5) 5 Feb
Test-V: Computer Knowledge
161. Memory in a PC is normally addressable through
1) bits 2) bytes 3) nibble
4) All of these 5) None of these
162. The command that is used to format a drive through
command prompt is
1) Scandisk 2) X Format 3) Chkdisk
4) Format 5) None of these
163. Information on a computer is stored as
1) analog data 2) digital data 3) watts data
4) modem data 5) None of these
164. The default header for a worksheet is
1) your name 2) the date and time
3) the sheet tab name 4) the worksheet name
5) None of these
165. ________ contains location of file on the disk.
1) Boot sector 2) File allocation table
3) Data area 4) Root folder
5) Memory unit
166. Hub is applicable in ________ layer.
1) physical 2) datalink 3) network
4) transport 5) application
167. The QWERTY keyboard ________.
1) is the most popular keyboard.
2) is the fastest keyboard.
3) is the keyboard that is rarely used.
4) is the keyboard having complex key layout.
5) None of these
168. What type of computer can support hundreds of
people at a time?
1) Desktop 2) Super Computer
3) Micro Computer 4) Mini Computer
5) Mainframe Computer
169. ________ uses viruses to destroy computer hardware
and software.
1) Spoofing 2) Tunneling 3) Sabotage
4) Phishing 5) Flooding
170. How many types of data can be entered in a worksheet?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two
4) Five 5) Six
171. Which type of protocol is used for accessing internet/
web on mobile phones?
1) PPP 2) HTTP 3) FTP 4) WAP 5) SMTP
172. It is easier to change the name of file using ________
process.
1) Transforming 2) Christening 3) Renaming
4) Retagging 5) None of these
173. A series 100 POST error code indicates a problem with
which of the following?
1) Hard drive 2) RAM or ROM 3) System board
4) Video adapter 5) None of these
174. To access a mainframe or supercomputer, users often
use a
1) terminal 2) node 3) desktop
4) handheld 5) None of these
175. Deleted data remains on a disk until
1) the data is overwritten.
2) the recycle bin is emptied.
3) a file compression utility is used.
4) the disk is scanned.
5) None of these
176. Which of the following displays the contents of an
active cell?
1) Toolbar 2) Menu bar 3) Namebox
4) Formula bar 5) None of these
177. The ________ tells the computer how to use its
components.
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1) utility 2) network
3) operating system 4) application program
5) None of these
178. The ability of an OS to run more than one application
at a time is called
1) multitasking
2) object-oriented programming
3) multi-user computing
4) time-sharing
5) None of these
179. Name the component which is required to process
data into information and consists of integrated
circuits.
1) Hard disk 2) RAM 3) CPU
4) ROM 5) None of these
180. Which of the following parts of the computer displays
the work done?
1) RAM 2) Printer 3) Monitor
4) ROM 5) None of these
181. You can print
1) a selected range of cells
2) a single worksheet
3) an entire workbook
4) All the above
5) None of these
182. 10 Base 2 type of ethernet uses ________ topology.
1) ring 2) bus 3) star 4) mesh 5) tree
183. The local antenna for satellite connections is called a
1) VSAT 2) modem 3) terminal
4) DTA 5) MSAT
184. In relational model, a tuple is referred as a
1) field 2) record 3) file
4) data item 5) data base
185. Uniform resource locator is another name of ________
1) web bar 2) web address 3) title bar
4) address 5) formula bar
186. Which of the following commands is used to create a
directory?
1) Dir 2) Mkdir 3) Md
4) Both 2) and 3) 5) Both 1) and 2)
187. What is the default font size of a cell content in Excel?
1) 8 2) 9 3) 10
4) 11 5) 12
188. When you want to move some text from one page to
another, the best method is
1) delete and replace 2) find and replace
3) cut and paste 4) drag and drop
5) move and paste
189. The output of an AND gate with three inputs, A, B,
and C, is HIGH when
1) A =1, B =1, C =0 2) A =0, B =0, C =0
3) A =1, B =1, C =1 4) A =1, B =0, C =1
5) None of these
190. ________ is a collection of web pages and a ________
is the very first page that we see on opening a website
1) Home page, Web page 2) Website, Home page
3) Web page, Home page 4) Web page, Website
5) None of these
191. Windows Explorer is a ________.
1) PC 2) drive 3) browser
4) network 5) file manager
192. To open search option for computer press________
1) window key +E 2) window key +F
3) window key +E +CTRL 4) window key +F +CTRL
5) window key +M
193. Binary numbers need more places for counting because
1) They are always big numbers
2) Any number of 0s can be added in front of them
3) Binary base is small
4) 0s and 1s have to be properly spaced apart
5) None of these
194. ________ operating systems are used in robotics,
multimedia and animation.
1) MAC 2) Window 3) Real-Time
4) UNIX 5) None of these
195. Which of the following types of data cant be entered
into a worksheet cell?
1) Value 2) Formula 3) Date and time
4) Label 5) None of these
196. What is the most common type of compatibility that a
software manufacturer will provide for new versions
of their software?
1) Both backward and forward compatibility
2) Neither backward nor forward compatibility
3) Backward compatibility but not forward
compatibility
4) Forward compatibility but not backward
compatibility
5) None of these
197. In Baudot code, how many numbers of bits per symbol
are used?
1) seven 2) five 3) six 4) eight 5) two
198. The name of a file in MS Word cannot contain
1) Letter 2) Space 3) Number
4) Underscore 5) None of these
199. A storage device used to compensate the differences
in rates of flow of data from one device to another is
1) Buffer 2) Channel 3) Call
4) Chip 5) None of these
200. A device that generates the periodic signals used to
control the timing of all CPU operations is called
1) COM 2) Collate 3) Chip
4) Clock 5) None of these
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Answers
(1-6):
1. 2 2. 1 3. 3 4. 4 5. 3
6. 3
7. 2 8. 3 9. 1 10. 4 11. 2
12. 2; Condition (2) applies
13. 1; Condition (1) applies
14. 3; Condition (3) applies
15. 4; Condition (1) applies
16. 1; Condition (2) applies
17. 2; Except diversity all are synonyms.
18. 4; Except concur all are synonyms.
19. 3;
20. 3;
Similarly,
So,
21. 1; Each corresponding letter moves one
letter backward in the alphabet.
22. 1; Statements: F s N ... (i)
R > N ... (ii)
H >R ... (iii)
Combining all these statements, we get
F s N s R <H
Thus, F < H or H > F is true. Hence
conclusion I is true.
Again, F s R or R > F is true. Hence conclusion
II (R s F) is not true.
23. 2; Statements: M <T ... (i)
K s T ... (ii)
N <K ... (iii)
Combining all these statements, we get
M <T > K >N
We cant compare M and N. Hence I is not
true. But T >N. Hence II is true.
24. 4; Statements: T >H ... (i)
W >H ... (ii)
M s W ... (iii)
Combining all these statements, we get
T >H <W > M
We cant compare T and W or H and M.
Hence neither conclusion I nor II is true.
25. 1; Statements: D =M ... (i)
L > P ... (ii)
M >P ... (iii)
Combining all these statements, we get
Thus, D > P or P < D is true. Hence
conclusion I is true.
But, M > P is a restatement. Hence,
conclusion II does not follow.
26. 4; Statements: J > B ... (i)
R =F >T ... (ii)
B <R ... (iii)
Combining all these statements, we get
J > B <R =F >T
We cant compare J and T or B and T.
Hence, neither conclusion I nor II is true.
27. 1; From I.
K is between L and M. Hence, I alone is
sufficient to answer the question.
28. 1; From I.
Hence, R >T.
From II.
Hence, I alone is sufficient to answer the
question.
29. 5; From I.
From II.
From both I and II.
A being female is sister of C. Hence, both I
and II are sufficient to answer the question.
30. 1; From I. C >B, D >A
Thus A is the shortest and statement I alone
is sufficient.
From II. C >A =B
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Hence I I alone is not sufficient to answer
the question.
31. 1; No keyboard is a key (E) +All keys
are rings (A) =E +A =O* =Some rings are
not keyboards. Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, Some mice are keyboards (I ) +No
keyboard is a key (I) =I +E =O =Some mice
are not keys. Thus, the possibility in II does
not exist. Hence, conclusion I I does not
follow.
32. 4; I +E =O =Some mice are not keys +
All keys are rings (A) =O +A =No conclusion.
Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
There is a negative statement. Therefore,
the possibility may not exist. Hence,
conclusion II does not follow.
33. 1; There is no negative statement.
Hence, conclusion I follows.
Again, All bags are books (A) +Some books
are boxes (I) =A +I =No conclusion. Hence,
conclusion II does not follow.
34. 5; No kite is an aeroplane (E) +Some
aeroplanes are birds (I) =E +I =O* =Some
birds are not kites. Hence, conclusion I
follows.
Again, No kite is an aeroplane conversion
No aeroplane is a kite. Hence, conclusion
II follows.
35. 2; Some pots are belts (I) +No belt is a
shirt (E) =I +E =O =Some pots are not
shirts. Hence, conclusion I does not follow.
Again, No belt is a shirt conversion No
shirt is a belt. Hence, conclusion II follows.
(36-40):
36. 2 37. 4 38. 1 39. 3 40. 5
41. 3 42. 4 43. 2 44. 5 45. 2
46. 3 47. 4 48. 2 49. 1 50. 5
51. 1; Replace involved with involvement
or being involved
52. 3; Replace lives with life
53. 3; Replace elude with eludes
54. 2; Replace adapt with adept
55. 3; Replace this with that
56. 5 57. 2 58. 4 59. 1 60. 3
61. 3 62. 2 63. 5 64. 3 65. 2
(66-70): DACFEB
66. 5 67. 2 68. 4 69. 1 70. 3
71. 4 72. 2 73. 5 74. 3 75. 1
76. 4 77. 2 78. 5 79. 1 80. 3
81. 4; 24 . 10 84 . 7 =2.8 3.2 =8.96
82. 1; 73174 +43156 29617 31619
=116330 61236 =55094
83. 3; ? = 2209 11.5 =47 11.5 =540.5
84. 2; ? =
7 6 3 2
357 267 192


=72624
85. 3; ? =319.24 +431.65 106.89
240.33 =750.89 347.22 =403.67
86. 5; ? =
100
1545 36
100
1735 48
+

=832.8 +556.2 =1389

87. 4; ? =
04 . 23 96 . 1 +
= 8 . 4 96 . 1 + = 76 . 6 =2.6
88. 3; 20% of ? =
044 . 0
748 . 0
=17
or, ? =
20
100 17
=85
89. 3; 658 ? 8 =94752
? =
8 658
94752

=18
90. 4; ? =289 +529 =818
? =(818)
2
=669124
91. 2; 2
?
=(2)
3.7
(2
5
)
1

4
2
1
=(2)
3.7
(2)
5
(2)
4
=(2)
3.7+5 4
=(2)
2.7
? =2.7
92. 2; ? = 2 . 17 2 . 17 84 . 295 = =17.2
93. 3; ? =
8
8 . 21 56
+18.6
=152.6 +18.6 =171.2
94. 4; ? =16.4 7.75 12 =127.1 12
=1525.2
95. 4; ? = 67 26 41 17576 68921
3 3
= + = +
96. 1; 7
?
=(7
5
)
2
(7
2
)
7
(7)
3
=(7)
10+14 3
=(7)
1
? =1
97. 2; ? =24.8
100
1550

100
1125
2 . 13
=384.4 148.5 =235.9
98. 3; ? =
1760
11 9 7
7623 8 5 4
=


99. 2;
47
987
100
325 48
+

=
100
? 5 . 12
or,
177 121 156
100
? 5 . 12
= + =

? =
1416
5 . 12
17700
=
100. 4;
4356 6084
?
888
+ =
= 66 78+ =
144
=12
? =
12
888
=74
101. 2; SI =
100
t r p
Now,
4706.1 =
100
7 r 11205
r =
7 11205
100 1 . 4706

=6% pa
102. 3; Let the number be 10x +y.
Then, according to the questions,
x +y =12 ... (i)
Again, according to the question,
10x +y (10y +x) =36
or, 9(x y) =36
x y =4 ... (ii)
Solving eqn (i) and (ii), we get
x =8, y =4
Number =10 8 +4 =84
103. 2; I n the word BOTTLE there are 6
letters and T occurs twice.
Number of ways of arrangement =
! 2
! 6
=360
104. 2; Let its length and breadth be x m and
y m respectively.
According to the question,
y
x
=
9
16
or, 9x =16y ... (i)
And the area of the rectangle =l b
Then, xy =11664 ... (ii)
From eqn (i) and (ii), we get
x =144, y =81
Perimeter of the rectangle =2(144 +81)
=450m
105. 3; The series is 13
3
+3, 11
3
3,
9
3
+3, 7
3
3, ...
106. 2; CI = P
100
r
1 P
n
|
.
|

\
|
+
Now,
2
100
111
110000 |
.
|

\
|

110000
=135531 110000 =`25531
107. 2; Cost price =1652
118
100
=`1400
If SP becomes ` 1512,
then % profit
=
1400
1400 1512
100 =
14
112
=8%
108. 4; Let the number be x.
Then,
5
x 7

100
x 72
=125.8
or,
5
x 7

25
x 18
=125.8
or, 17x =125.8 25
x =185
Now, 40% of x =185
100
40
=74
109. 4; Let the cost of a pen and a pencil be
`x and `y respectively.
K
KUNDAN
Then, 16x +20y =124 ... (i)
On multipling eqn (i) by
4
7
, we get
16x
4
7
+20y
4
7
=124
4
7
or, 28x +35y =`217
110. 1; Total age of 12 persons =12 32
=384 years
Total age of (12 +1) persons =13 31
=403 years
Now, age of new person =403 384
=19 years
111. 3; Population of the city in 2013
=22
100
110

100
110

100
110
=29.282 lakh
112. 4; Length of the train =175m
Relative speed =58 +5 =63 kmph
=
18
5
63
m/s
Time taken by the train the cross the man
=
18
5
63
175

=
5 63
18 175

=5 2 =10 seconds
113. 5; Cost price =5670
70
100
=`8100
114. 4; Diameter of the circle =d
=2r =33.6 cm
r =16.8 cm
Area of the circle =tr
2
=
7
22
16.8 16.8 =887.04
115. 3; Area of four walls
=2 (length +breadth) height
=2 (15 +9) 4
=2 24 4 =192 sq m
Cost of painting =8.40 192 =`1612.8
116. 4; Let the speed upstream be x kmph
and downstream be y kmph.
Then,
y
68
x
42
+
=10
or, 21u +34v =5 ... (i)
(where
x
1
=u,
y
1
=v)
Again,
13
y
85
x
56
= +
or, 56u +85v =13 ... (ii)
(where v
y
1
, u
x
1
= = )
Solving eqn (i) and (ii),
u =
7
1
and v =
17
1
x =7 kmph and y =17 kmph
Speed of person in still water =
2
17 7+
=
2
24
=12 kmph
117. 3;
3
1
=0.333,
7
2
=0.285,
19
8
=0.421
14
5
=0.357,
11
4
=0.363
118. 3; Let the length of the rectangle be
x m.
Then, x =
2
69
13.5 =34.5 13.5 =21m
Area of the rectangle =21 13.5
=283.5 sq m =Area of the circle.
Hence, area of the circle =283.5 sq m
119. 5; For 200 men food left for 45 24
=21 days
For 1 man food left will last for
21 200 days.
For 105 men food left will last for
105
200 21
=40 days
120. 1; As 1 days work =
36
1
Bs 1 days work =
30
1
Now, (A +B +C)s 1 days work =
9
1
Cs 1 days work =
30
1

36

9
1 1
=
540
18 15 60
=
540
27
=
20
1
C can complete the work in 20 days
121. 2 122. 3 123. 3 124. 2 125. 2
126. 2 127. 1 128. 4 129. 1 130. 1
131. 3 132. 5 133. 4 134. 5 135. 5
136. 4 137. 1 138. 2 139. 1 140. 2
141. 3 142. 1 143. 1 144. 2 145. 2
146. 5 147. 2 148. 1 149. 3 150. 1
151. 2 152. 2 153. 4 154. 4 155. 5
156. 5 157. 1 158. 1 159. 4 160. 4
161. 2
162. 4; Format drive name is used to format
a drive through command prompt.
163. 2 164. 5 165. 2 166. 1 167. 1
168. 5 169. 3
170. 1; Three types of data, ie number/char-
acter, text and formulas can be entered in a
worksheet.
171. 4; Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)
is used in mobile phones. A mobile phone has
a built-in screen for wireless access to email
and web.
172. 3 173. 3 174. 1 175. 2 176. 4
177. 3 178. 1 179. 3 180. 3 181. 4
182. 2 183. 1 184. 2 185. 2 186. 4
187. 4 188. 3 189. 3 190. 2 191. 5
192. 4 193. 3 194. 3 195. 5 196. 3
197. 2 198. 5 199. 1 200. 4