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Applied Logic
Mortuus est Dei filius; credible est quia ineptum est:
et sepultus resurrexit; certum est quia impossibile est.
-TERTULLIAN
My claim is the following: the Bible is not entirely true. For suppose the
contrary; that is, suppose the Bible is entirely true. However, before I begin my
discourse it is necessary to explore what the Bible actually claims in regards to its
own authenticity. In Proverbs 30, Agur the son of Jakeh is speaking to Ithiel and
Ucal. Passing over the philological exegesis of the characters, the text clearly
depicts Agurs lack of answers for philosophical questions and his gradual
acceptance of the Bible as inerrant truth: Every word of God is tested (Proverbs
30: 5). The original Hebrew manuscript uses the word
when you see the abomination of desolation standing where it should not be then
be on the lookout for those days will be a time of tribulation, a time that has not
occurred until now (Mark 13: 14-19). Note, the abomination of desolation is a
reference to Daniel 11:31 where Antiochus IV Epiphanes sacks the Jewish temple
after his defeat in Egypt. Jesus then praises the Lord for cutting these days short
to allow for some of the elect few to survive (Mark 13: 20) and admits, But take
heed; behold, I have told you everything in advance (Mark 13:23). Jesus finishes
his prophecy relaying the events post-tribulation: The sun will be darkened and the
moon will not give its light, and the stars will be falling from heaven (Mark 13: 2425), the Son of Man will come in clouds with great power and glory (Mark 13: 26),
and He will gather the elect from the four winds (Mark 13: 27). This is yet more
Old Testament references: Isaiah 13: 10 paralleled in Ezekiel 32: 7, Joel 2: 10, 31, 3:
15; Isaiah 34: 4; Daniel 7: 13; and Zechariah 2: 6.
Although the gospels give a slightly varying account of what Jesus said after
his prophecy, each gospel accounts that Jesus told and explained the parable of the
fig (Matthew 24: 32-35, Mark 13: 28-29, Luke 21: 29-31), plainly states Jesus
exclaimed, Truly I say to you, this generation will not pass away until all these
things take place (Matthew 24: 34, Mark 13: 30, Luke 21: 32), and reasserts this
vigil with at least one more parable- told and then explained- (Matthew 24: 35-51,
Mark 13: 31-37, Luke 21: 33-36).
We know all of this to be true based on assumption, based on belief. We also
know that of any event, it either happened, did not happen but will happen, or did
not happen and will not happen for this is of common sense, an axiomatic
trichotomy. Therefore suppose there exists a universal set U such that:
U={ X , Y , Z } ,
Where X = the event happened,
Y = the event did not happen but will happen,
Z = the event did not happen and will not happen.
Extending this theory, suppose the event P is the prophecy Jesus spoke about
in Mark 13, then logically, we know that either the prophecy was fulfilled (1), the
prophecy did not happen but will occur (2) or the prophecy did not happen and will
not happen (3).1
PX ,
(2) P Y ,
(3) P Z .
(1)
PU
(P element of U) implies
mutually exclusive sets; therefore, only one of the three sets is nonempty and the
other two sets must be empty (cannot occur).
Clearly if sets Y and X are both empty, then equation (3) must hold which
would provide a contradiction. Therefore, lets explore each of these sets in detail.
Suppose Y is a nonempty set; that is, suppose the prophecy has yet to
happen. This is most commonly known as a futurist approach and is widely
accepted by modern Christians. 2 Its argument is rather unbiblical, for they posit the
existence of their claim in the wording of the original Greek text of Mark 13: 30, and
turn a blind eye to personal words from Jesus to be ready or on the lookout.
The specific Greek text in question is the translation of the word
(generation). In my Bible, I have a footnote for Mark 13: 30 that leads me to the
footnote in Matthew 24: 34- its parallel verse- which says No one living when Jesus
spoke these words lived to see all these things come to pass. However, the Greek
word can mean race or family, which makes good sense here; i.e., the Jewish race
will be preserved, in spite of terrible persecution, until the Lord comes. I am a bit
confused here for I believe the Bible to be true but this annotator claims that we
should change the problematic word in print to reach a broader claim in order to
justify the futurist notion?
To amend this illogical loophole, I will offer a litany the clergy can relate to:
2 Surprisingly, 23% of Americans believe that Jesuss Parousia will occur by 2050.
Further evidence lies in the Pauline (Marcionite) letters and the testimonies of St.
Peter & James the Just:
1st Corinthians 7: 29: But this I say, brethren, the time has been
shortened, so that from now on those who have wives should be as
though they had none.
1st Thessalonians 4: 16-17: For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven
with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God,
and the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive and remain
will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the
air, and so we shall always be with the Lord.
II Peter 3: 9: The Lord is not slow about His promise, as some count
slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing for any to perish but for
all to come to repentance.
I Peter 4: 7: The end of all things is near; therefore, be of sound judgment
and sober spirit for the purpose of prayer.
James 5: 8-9: You too be patient; strengthen your hearts, for the coming of
the Lord is near. Do not complain, brethren, against one another, so that
you yourselves may not be judged; behold, the Judge is standing right at
the door.
The futurists then usually invoke Mark 13: 32 as well as II Peter 3: 8 to defend
their position in spite of the contradiction of their unchanged claim. For a quick
recap, Mark 13: 32 states But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the
angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone. II Peter 3: 8 states But do not
let this one fact escape your notice, beloved, that with the Lord one day is like a
thousand years, and a thousand years like one day. The latter verse was not
spoken by Jesus in his Olivet discourse nor anywhere else in the New Testament, but
bares resemblance to Mark 13: 32 in that the Father alone knows the time. More
precisely, II Peter 3: 8 is a reference to Psalm 90: 4.
Applying II Peter 3: 8, the futurists claim that (2) holds. However, this
application is a case of claiming
is true and
provides a contradiction by the same author, The end of all things is near.
Therefore, either II Peter 3: 8 can be interpreted in a futuristic fashion or I Peter 4: 7
is true. Given all of the Bible is true, it must be the case that the individual verse I
Peter 4: 7 is true, implying II Peter 3: 8 cannot be interpreted in such a fashion.
This leaves only Mark 13: 32 to explore. The argument implored by the
futurist is as follows: because the exact time of Christs return is unknown, then
Christ has not yet returned but will return. 3
Let
J K .
K J .
Equation 5 states that if Christ will return in the apostolic era, then the exact
time of Christs return was made known to the disciples. By hypothesis we know
both K (Mark 13: 30) and J (Mark 13: 32) are true, therefore we can construct the
following truth table:
K J
Thus, given the Bible is entirely true, we have reached a contradiction: (5) must
be false and the contrapositive of (5), (4), must also be false; that is, if the exact
time of Christs return is unknown, then it is not the case that Christ has not
returned but will return.
Due to the lack of Biblical evidence for a futuristic approach and the
contradiction it poses to the authenticity of the Bible, the set Y must be not
can only be Y:
Y U Z
(
|
P K the Bible is completely true implies P
the Bible is completely true); however, given Y and Z are mutually exclusive events,
then either Y is the case or Z is the case. Because
is an apparent contradiction,
is the only case that requires analysis.
nonempty (empty); that is, given the Bible is entirely true, then it cannot be the
case that the prophecy depicted in Mark 13 has not but will happen.
Now suppose that X is a nonempty set, specifically, suppose the prophecy
happened. (This is known as the preterist perspective.) Given the Bible is true,
then the apocalyptic events prophesized in Mark 13 (wars and rumors of wars
marking the beginning of the end of times, the abomination of desolation ushering
in the days of tribulation, a short interval between the days of tribulation and
Christs return, Christ returning: The sun will be darkened and the moon will not give
its light, the stars will be falling from heaven and the Son of Man will be coming in
clouds with great power and glory, and finally Christs gathering of the elect- the
chosen ones referred to in Isaiah 45:4) all must have occurred in the lifetime of the
disciples (30 80 C.E.)
The preterist believes such prophecies have been fulfilled in the successive link
of the following events: the wars under Nero- starting with the Roman-Parthian War
(58 63 C.E.) and ending with the First Jewish-Roman War (66 73 C.E.)- serve as
the beginning of the end of times, the Siege of Jerusalem (70 C.E.) and the
destruction of the Jewish temple mark the beginning of the days of tribulation
(abomination of desolation), then there was a short period of time where Christs
return was awaited (August 70 C.E. March 20, 71 C.E.) and finally, the eclipse on
March 20, 71 C.E.4 accommodates the description of Christs return.
All of these dates are verifiable and fit the description of Mark 13 perfectly.
However, we have glossed over one prophecy, namely when Jesus returns he would
send angels to gather the elect from the four winds (Mark 13: 27). The elect are
those chosen by God: those with the Spirit and divine understanding. According to
Acts 2: 4, the Holy Spirit filled all twelve disciples; therefore, all twelve disciples- if
still alive- must have been gathered up by angels around March 20, 71 C.E.
Notwithstanding, John the son of Zebedee is attributed to writing John; I, II & III John;
and Revelation with authorship circa 85-90 C.E. Clearly, John- being of the twelve
disciples- was among the elect and would have been gathered up by angels before
he got around to publishing his works. Since this is not the case, then John was not
of the elect, did not possess the Holy Spirit, and Biblical truth becomes slandered
through his penmanship. Therefore, given the Bible is entirely true, then it cannot
be the case that the prophecy depicted in Mark 13 has happened (X must also be
empty).
Thus, given the Bible is entirely true, then Jesuss apocalyptic prophecy must
have occurred or has yet to occur; however, X and Y have both been shown to be
empty sets which implies the universal set U for the specific event P is comprised
4 The eclipse of April 30, 59 C.E. and the eclipse of March 20, 71 C.E. are both depicted in the book of
Revelation- chapters 6 and 12 respectively. More specifically, after the eclipse of 71 C.E., Revelation
12:10 states Then I heard a loud voice in heaven, saying, Now the salvation, and the power, and the
kingdom of our God and the authority of His Christ have come. This claim is certified in Revelation
19: 11 where the eclipse of 71 C.E. is once again depicted, using similar allegories as the former two
cited chapters, and linking the event to Christs return. Moreover, the fulfilment of Christs return as
an eclipse should come as no surprise since Jesus never claims to return physically nor does He even
speak of the matter in any of his OWN words, but merely references Old Testament passages.
solely of Z which implies (3) holds; that is, given the Bible is entirely true, the
prophetic message in Mark 13 did not and will not happen! Obviously our initial
hypothesis was wrong (the Bible is entirely true), and therefore the Bible has been
shown to not be entirely true by contradiction.