GEOGRAPHY.

GEOGRAPHY. Show all posts Friday, January 6, 2012 Land and The People It is the 7th largest country in the world. India covers an area of 32,87,263 sq k. The mainland extends between latitudes 804 and 3706 north, lngitudes 6807 and 97025 east and measures about 3,214 km from north to south between the extrem latitudes and about 2,933 km from east to wet between the extreme longitudes. It has a land frontier of about 15,200 km. the total length of the coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman & Nicobar Islands is 7,516.6 km. India is the tenth industrialized country in the world. It is the sixth nation to have gone into outer space. India lies entirely in the northern hemisphere. Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by trhe Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar. India is the world largest, oldest, continuous civilization. India never invaded any country in her last 10000 years of history. India invented the Number System. Zero was invented by Aryabhatta. The Worlds first university wwas established in Takshashila in 700BC. More than 10,500 students from all ove r the world studied more than 60 subjects. The University of Nalanda built in the 4th century BC was one of the gretest achievements of ancient India in the field of education. Sanskrit is the mother of all the European languages. Sanskrit is the most suitable language for computer software - a report in Forbes magazine, July 1987. Ayurveda is the earliest school of medicine known to humans. Charaka, the father of medicine consolidated Ayurveda 2500 years ago. Today Ayurveda is fast regaining its rightful p lace in our civilization. The art of Nagivation was born in the river Sindhu 6000 years ago. The very world Navigation is derived from the Sanskrit word NAVGATIH. The world navy is also derived from Sanskrit Nou . Bhaskaracharya calculated the time taken by the earth to orbit the sun hundreds of years before the astronomer Smart. Time taken by earth to orbit the sun : (5th cenury) 365.258756484 days. The value of pi was first calculated by Budhayana, and the explained the concept of what is known as the Pythagorean Theorem. He descovered this in the 6th century long before the European mathematicians. Algebra, trigonometry and calculus came from India. Quadratic equations were by Sridharacharya in the 11th century. The largest numbers the Greeks and the Romans used were 106 whereas Hindus used numbers as big as 10**53 (10 to the power of 53) with specific names as early as 5000 BC during the Vedic period. Even today, the largest used number is Tera 10*12(10 to the powre of 12). Sushruta is the father of surgery. 2600 years ago he and health scientists of his time conducted complicated surgeries like ceasreans, cataract, artificial limbs, fractures, urinary stones and even plastic surgery and brain surgery. Usage of anesthesia was well known in

ancient India. Over 125 surgical equipmentwere used. Deep knowledge of anatomy, physiology, etiology, embryology, digestion, metabolism, genetics and immunity is also found in many texts. The four religions born in India, Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism, are followed by 25% of the worlds population. There are 300,000 active mosques in India, more than in any other country, including the Muslim world. The name India is derived from the River Indus, the valleys around which were the home of the early settler s. The Aryan worshippers referred to the river Indus as the Sindhu. The place value system, the decimal system was developped in India in 100 BC. India is the only English speaking nation in the world. India is the only country other than US and Japan, to have built a super computer indigenously. The Worlds FirstGranite Temple is the Brihadeswara Temple at Tanjavur, Tamil Nadu. The shikhara of the temple is made from a single 80-tonner piece of granite. This magnificent temple was built in just five years, (between 1004 AD and 1009 AD) during the reign of Rajaraja Chola. The largest religious building in the world is Angkor Wat, a Hindu Temple in Cambodia built at the end of the 11th century. The Vishnu Temple in the city of Tirupathi built in the 10th century, is the worlds largest religious pilgrimage destination. Larger than either Rome or Mecca, an average of 30,000 visitors donate $6 million (US) to the temple everyday. Martial Arts were first created in India, and later spread to Asia by Buddhist missionaries. Yoga has its origins in India and has existed for over 5,000 years. Physical Features The plains of the Ganga and the Indus are one of the worlds greatest stretches of flat alluvium and also one of the most densely populated areas on the earth. The Peninsular Plateau is marked off from the palins of the Ganga and the Indus by a mass of mountain and hill ranges varying from 460 to 1,220 metres in height. Prominent among these are the Aravalli, Vanidhya, Satpura, Maikala and Ajanta. The southern point of plateau is formed by the Nilgiri Hills where the Eastern and the Western Ghats meet. The Cardamom Hills lying beyond may be regarded as a continuation of the Western Ghats. Geological Structure The Indo-Ganga plains are a great alluvial tract that separate the Himalayas in the north from the Peninsula in the south. The Peninsula is a region of relative stability and occasional seismic distubances. Highly metamorphosed rocks of the earliest periods, dating back as far as 380 crore years, occur in the area; the rest being covered by the coastal-bearing Gondwana formations, lava flows belonging to the Deccan Trap formation and younger sediments. River Systems The river systems of India can be classified into four groups viz., Himalayan rivers Deccan rivers

Coastal rivers, and Rivers of the inland The Himalayan rivers are formed by melting snow and glaciers and therefore, continuously flow throughout the year. The Deccan rivers on the other hand are rainfed and therefore fluctucate in volume. Many of these are non-perennial. Coastal streams, especially on the west coast are short in length and have limited catchment areas. Most of them are non-perennial. The streams of inland drainage basin of western Rajasthan are few and far apart. River System of India I. The Indus System Name Source Outflow Information Its mountain tributaries are Gilit, Shyok, Shigoo. 1. Indus (2900 Km.) Tibet, near Mansarovar lake Arab Sea Its plain tributaries are Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Satluj and Beas

2. Jhelum (1,800 Km.)

Varinag

Arab Sea

Its basin is between Great Himalayas and Pir Panjal Range

3. Chenab (1,800 km.)

Kullu Hills Himachal)

Arab Sea

It is the largest tributary of Indus. It flows between Great Himalayas and Pir Panjal Range.

4. Ravi (759 km.)

Kullu Hills (Himachal) (Pradesh)

Arab Sea It is the second largest tributary of Indus River. It enters India through Shipki La It joins Satluj near Harike

5. Satluj (1050 km) in India

Rakas Lake (Tibet)

Arab Sea

6. Beas (460 km. in India) II. The Ganga System

Near Rohtang

Ara Sea

III. The Brahmaputra System Name Brahmaputra or Tsangpo (2900 Km.) IV. The Godvari System Name Source Outflow Infomation It is the largest river of Penisular India. Godavari (1,450 Km.) Trimbak Plateau (Near Nasik) Bay of Bengal Its left bank tributaries are Penganga, Wardha, Indrawati, Wainganga, and Sabri. Its right bank tributaries is Manjra. V. The Krishna System Name Source Outflow Infomation Source Outflow Infomation Its important tributaries are Subansiri, Kameng, Dihang, Dhansiri, Tista, Lohit, Manas and Torsa.

Chemayung- dung Glacier Bay of (Kailash) Bengal

It is the second largst riger of Penisular India Krishna (1,290 Km.) North of Mahabaleshwar Bay of Bengal Its important tributaries are Bhima, Tungbhadra, Ghat Prabha,Malprabha, Koyna.

Other Penisular Rivers

Flora India can be divided into eight distinct-floristic-regions, namely, the western Himalayas the eastern Himalayas Assam the Indus plain the Ganga plain the Deccan Malabar 8. the Andamans. The Western Himalayan region extends from Kashmir to Kumaon. Its temperate zone is rich in forests of chir, pine, other conifers and broad-leaved temperate trees. Higher up, forests of deodar, blue pine, spruce and silver fir occur. The alpine zone extends fromthe upper limit of temperate zone of about 4,750 metres of even highter. The characteristic trees of this zone are high-level silver fir, silver birchand junipers. The easternHimalayan region extends from Sikkim eastwards and embraces Darjeeling, Kurseong and the adjacent tract.

The temperate zone has forests of oaks, laurels, maples, rhododendrons, alder and birch. Many conifers, junipers and dwarf willows also grow here. The Assam region comprises the Brahamaputra and the Surma valleys with evergreen forests, occasional thick clumps of bamboos and tall grases. The Indus plain region comprises the plains of Punjab, western Rajasthan and northern Gujarat. It is dry and hot and supports natural vegetation. The Ganga plain region covers the area which is alluvial plain and is under cultivationfor wheat, sugarcane and rice. The Deccan region comprises the entire table land of the Indian Peninsula and supports vegetation of various kinds fromshurbs jungles to mixed deciduous forests. The Malabar region covers the excessively humid belt ofmountain country parallel to the west coast of the Peninsula. Besides being rich in forest vegetation, this region produces important commercial crops, such as oconut, betel nut, pepper, coffee and tea, rubber and cashew nut. The Andaman region abounds in evergreen, mangrove, beach and diluvial forests. Available data place India in the tenth position in the world and fourth in Asia in plant diversity. From about 70 per cent geographical area surveyed so far, over 46,000 species of plants have been described by the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata. The vascular flora, which forms the conspicuous vegetation cover, comprises 15,000 species. More than 800 plant species of ethno-botanical interest have been collected and identified at different centres. About 1,336 plant species are considered vulnerable and endangered. About 20 species of higher plants are categorised as possibly extinct as these have not been sighted during the last 6-10 decades. The BSI brings out an inventory of endagered plants in the form of a publication titled Red Data Book. Fauna The Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), with its headquarters inKolkata and 16 regional stations is responsible for surveying the faunal resources of India. India has great variety of fauna numbering over 90,000 scpecie. Anthropoda 69,906 is the biggest phyllum. Rivers and lakes harbour crocodiles and gharials, the latter being the only representative of crocodilian order in the world. The salt water crocodile is found along the eastern coast and in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. A project for breeding crocodiles which started in 1974, has been instrument in saving the crocodile from extinction. Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 10:11 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions:

Saturday, November 5, 2011 ANIMALS & PLANTS Animals, Mammals and Birds (and places where they are found) lbatross: Sea birds; North Pacific, off the American coast. Alpaca: Animal found in Chile (South America). Anatolian goat: Angora wool is sheered from this goat. Beaver: found in Europe (Russia and Poland) and North America. It is a genus of mammals of the Rodentia order with short scaly ears and webbed hind feet and broad flat muscular tail. It attains a length of 2.5 to 3 ft. Its skin is of considerable commercial value. It is noted for ingenuity and industry in building houses and damming shallow streams. It is also valued for its reddish brown fur and a secretion castoreum (caster oil) used in medicines and perfumes. Camel: Found in deserts of Arabia and India. It has long legs with padded feet, a long neck with a hump on its back. Its hump is made up of fat and is a store-house for food. It can also store water in the stomach and can go for days without a drink. Caribou: is an animal, also called reindeer. Chameleon: It is a family of lizards of which these are numerous species. The common chameleon is a native of Africa. It is about 12 inches long including tail. Chameleon is remarkable for its power of changing colour to resemble its surroundings when surpriseda power that is due to the presence of pigment bearing cells beneath the skin. It is slow in movement. Chamois: a species of antelope and a native of Western Europe and Asia; from its flesh, chamois leather is made. It is not much larger than a goat and lives in mountainous regions. It possesses wonderful leaping power and is difficult to capture. Cheeta: Found in India and Africa. Cod: are well-known food-fish. These are found in abundance on the British coast and on the banks laying off Newfoundland. The extraction of oil which these cod fish yield forms an important industry. Corals: Small marine animals closely related to sea-anemone, found mainly in the Mediterranean; also found in the Pacific and in the Indian Ocean. Dinosaur: a group of extinct reptiles of the Mesozoic period, some of which were of immense size. Diplodocus is one of the best known of the extinct mammoth dinosaurs. Fossil remains have been discovered in the Jurassic rocks of the United States. Some reach a length of over 80 ft. Dinosaurs roamed the earth about 180 million years ago. Elephant: Found in Africa and India. It is the largest existing quadruped 8 to 14 ft. in height weighing up to five tons. Usually dark grey in colour, small eyes, large ears and nose extending to form trunk which almost reaches the ground and is flexible. Both males and females have large ivory tusks of considerable commercial value. The Indian elephant is domesticated and used as a beast of burden. An elephant can carry up to 2,000 lbs. on long journeys maintaining a pace of about 6 km per hour. Emu: running bird of Australia. It is the largest of living birds after the Ostrich. Giraffe: Found in Africa and South Sahara except in the Congo forests. It is the tallest of existing animals reaching a height of 18 to 20 ft. when fully grown. It is of high fawn colour marked with dark spots and has a prehensile tongue. Its sloping back and elongated neck seem to be the natural evolution of an animal that has to feed on the branches of trees. Gnu: Animal found in East Africa. Guano: Bird; west coast of South America; Africa. Hamdaryad: Large snake 12-14 ft. long extremely poisonous; found in India, Philippines and South China. Herring: a common sea-fish abounding in northern seas and found in large numbers round the British coasts. Ibex: wild goats of several species, the male having exceedingly curved ridged horns; found in the mountain regions of Europe, Asia and Africa. Ilama: a dwarf camel-like animal found in South America. It has no hump, but has a long neck and is used as a beast of burden. Kangaroo: is a pouched (marsupial) mammal of Australia and adjacent islands. It can leap in a succession of springly bounds 10-20 ft. long, the fore-feet not touching the ground. It can reach a height of over 6 ft. Kiwi: flightless bird; found in New Zealand; now very rare. It is little larger than a domestic hen and lays astonishingly large eggs for their size. It is nocturnal in habit. Its feathers are hair-like and it has rudimentary wings concealed by the plumage. Koala: Animal found in Australia. Ladybird: It is an insect usually of a red or yellow colour with small coloured or black spots. Lion: Found in Gujarat Kathiawar jungles in India; Africa. Musk-deer: Animal found in North Canada. Mustang: Animal found in American prairies. Nightingale: A singing bird found in India. Octopus: a genus of marine molluscs with eight tentacles that bear suckers. Ostrich: is the largest living bird now found only on the sandy plains of Africa and parts of South West Asia. The male has beautiful

white plumes on wings and tails. The wings are useless for flight, but the birds have a fleetness of foot exceeding that of the swiftest horse. Its egg weighs 3 lbs. Penguin: is a genus of large birds with small wings and webbed feet. They exist in enormous numbers in the Southern Ocean and Antarctic Sea. Penguins breed on the rocky coast, and in the season are to be seen in vast numbers standing erect over their eggs. They are facile swimmers, and live on fish. Plover: Bird; common in all continents except Africa and South America. Puma: a carnivorous quardruped of North America. It is called American Lion. It is smaller than lion. It seldom attains a l ength of more than 40 in., exclusive of tail and a height of 2 ft. Reindeer: A genus of deer horned in both sexes; Siberia. It is also called Rhinoceros: In the swamps of Assam and Sunderbans; South-East Asia; Africa. Seal: Fish found in Northern Russia. Sea Lions: One of the families of Seal found in the Pacific. Shark: a large and powerful ocean fish, mostly found in tropical seas. Oil is obtained from its liver. Trout: A fresh water fish of the Salmonidoe family; found in Kashmir. Walrus: A very large marine mammal related to the Seals; Arctic Sea. Yak: A curious long-haired ox, found in Tibet. Yeti: or the abominable snow-man of the high Himalayas is variously described as being from 6 to 12 ft. tall half-Gorrilla-like, with shaggy body and hairless face. His foot-prints have been seen and photographed many times. Zebra: African quadruped of whitish-grey colour with regular black stripes.

Wild Animals in India Black Bear: is found in Kashmir, some other parts of the Himalayas and to some extent in the Terai forests. Deer (spotted): is widely distributed in India. It is also found in Sri Lanka. Elephants: are found in the forests of Western Ghats, Karnataka and in parts of the districts of Coimbatore, Nilgiri, Palni, and Madura hills in South India; to some extent in the eastern parts of Vishakhapatnam and in Orissa State, east of Mahanadi river. Lion and Panther: Occur all over India. Lions are mostly found in Gir Forest (Gujarat State). Rhinoceros (Indian): found in Chitwan forests of Nepal Terai of Gandak river, Bengal and Assam. PLANTS, TREES ETC.

Common Trees (where grown and their usefulness) Ash: grown in North Africa. Its wood is elastic and tough and valuable in cabinet work and barrel staves. Mauna, a medical material is extracted from the flowering ash. Ashes from tree also make a good fertilizer. Bamboo: grown in tropical and sub-tropical lands. The tabular stems are used as pipe, boat-masts, fishing poles, lathies etc. It is used in building material. Its seeds and tender shoots are edible. Flutes are also made of it. Camphor: grown in China, Japan and Formosa (Taiwan). It is used for the manufacture of celluloid, perfumes, disinfectants, medicine and explosives. It is used to stimulate the skin as in camphorated oil. Cinchona: the tree is native to the Andes which is famous for its barksource of the drug quinine. It was introduced into Sri Lanka, India, and Jawa, the latter becoming the main supplier of quinine. Coconut Palm: grows in all tropical countries, but thrives best near the sea. Its fruit is eaten. Its oil is used for the hair, for cooking and for making face cream. Its fibre is used for stuffing mattresses and ropes. Its wood is also valuable. Walnut: grown in England, North America and India. It yields valuable furniture wood; juice from the husk of walnuts is used to stain the skin. The fruit resembles a plum, but the stone is edible portion furnishing the well -known wrinkled fleshy kernel. Trees, Plants, Flowers, Fruits, Vegetables and Stones (Description, where grown or found etc.) Cacao: an evergreen tree, from 16 to 40 feet high. It grows abundantly in tropical America, West Africa, the West Indies and Sri Lanka Carnation: garden plant, Great Britain.

Chrysanthemum: National flower of Japan. Coca: shrub, South America. Dates: fruits of the date palm tree; Iraq, Arabia and Iran. Ebony: hard wood; Mauritius, East Indies and Sri Lanka. Eucalyptus: a family of plants originated from Australia; oil is extracted from its leaves for use in soap-making, medicines and disinfectants. Gooseberry: Shrub; northern hemisphere. Jasmine: originally a Persian plant now planted in almost all parts of the world. A graceful climber belonging to olive with odoriferous blossom. Two of its species (the common and the Spanish jasmine) yield oil which is used in perfumery. Juniper: a genus of hardy evergreen trees grown in the northern hemisphere. Ladies Finger: vegetable; India. Love Apple: vegetable; south west of America. Mistletoe: a parasitic plant found growing on many trees, particularly the apple tree; Europe. Mulberry: tree; Central Asia. Natural Rubber: is a plant product which is chemically known as latex. Oak: tree; North America. Olive trees: These grow in the Mediterranean type regions. Pine: a coniferous tree that flourishes in most northern latitudes, in the mountains of India, Tibet and China. Sandal Wood: tree; Karnataka. Spinach: a flowering plant grown in South and Central Europe. Teak: a tree grown in the East Indies and Myanmar. Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 8:40 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions: Tribes and Races Afridis: A war-like race of hill men on the north-west frontier of Pakistan (tribal area of Waziristan). Bedouins: Nomadic tribe of Arabia, spread over the whole of Northern Africa and Western Asia. Bhils: a primitive Dravidian race inhabiting Central India. Boer: a name applied to South Africans of Dutch or Huguenot descent, especially to early settlers of Transvaal and the Orange Free State and their descendants. Bushmen: They live in the Kalahari desert. They are probably the descendants of the earliest inhabitants of Africa. They rank among the most uncivilized and backward peoples in the world. Their food consists almost entirely of meat, often raw or decomposed, and in times of scarcity they will eat insects, snakes etc. Cossacks: Peasants of the south-eastern border land of Poland, or Ukraina are known as Cossacks. Many of them belong to Turkic people while many others are of a mix descent. Eskimos: Race living in the Arctic regions: Greenland, Alaska, Labradors and the extreme north-east corner of Siberia. Karbis: are natives of Assam. Khasis: are a tribe inhabiting the Khasi and Jaintia hills in the north-eastern hilly tracts in Meghalaya State of India. The Khasis have their own distinctive language and culture. Kikuyu: are a race of Bantu negroes who live in the north of Mount Kenya. They combine agriculture with pastoralism. Kirghiz: of Central Asia are an example of people adopted to a grassland environment. They are pastoral nomads who move from pasture to pasture with the flocks and herds of horses, camels, oxen, sheep and goats. Meat forms only a small portion of their food. The Kirghiz are fearless horsemen, and even their children are expert riders. Kiwis: inhabit New Zealand. Lambadies: are concentrated in Karnataka State of India. Lepchas: are aborigins of Sikkim and Darjeeling. They are one of the Scheduled Tribes of the Hills, recognised by the Government of

India. Magyars: the Hungarian race who came to Eastern Europe from south-west Asia and settled in Hungary in the 10th century. Mahsud: Hill-tribe living in north-west of Pakistan. Maoris: are the original inhabitants of New Zealand. The Maoris are tall, muscular, handsome people, with brown skin and black hair. They are greatly skilled in stone and wood-carving. Masai: of the east African Plateau are the example of pastoral people. They are tall, strong, warlike race, partly negroid in type. They treat their cattle with great respect and affection and do not kill them for food or for sale as meat. Moplas: A Muslim tribe of Malabar (Kerala, India). Mayas: A large group of American Indians living in the highlands of Gauatemala. Munda: They are mostly located in the State of Madhya Pradesh in India. Nagas: Hill tribe of Nagaland (India). Negritos: are the ancient tribes of Andamans. Negro: A race of men distinguished by dark skin, fuzzy hair, broad and protruding lips, living in south-west and Central Africa. Red Indians: Race living in U.S.A. between the rocky Mountains and the Missouri River. They are original inhabitants of America. Santhals: Aboriginal natives of Orissa and Chhotanagpur. Semangs: are tribal people living in Malaysia. Todas: They are aboriginal tribe of the Nilgiris (India). Zulus: are a race of negroid people in Natal (South Africa), having close ethnic, linguistic and cultural ties with the Swazis and the Bantus. Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 8:36 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions: Chief Crops and Producing States Bajra (millets): Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. Barley: U.P., Bihar, Haryana. Its cultivation requires cool climate. Cardamom: Karnataka. India is the largest producer of cardamom in the world. Cashewnut: Kerala. Cinchona: Tamil Nadu (Nilgiri Hills); West Bengal (Darjeeling). Coconut: Kerala is the leading producer of coconut in India. A coconut tree normally yield 60-70 nuts in a year. Coffee: Karnataka, Tamil Nadu (Nilgiri Hills) and Kerala. It is a tropical shrub. Cotton: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Punjab and Maharashtra. Cotton Seeds: Maharashtra, Punjab, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Gram and Pulses: U.P., Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Punjab, Maharashtra and Karnataka. Groundnut: Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh. Hemp: Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and U.P. Jute: Assam, West Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. Linseed: Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Orissa, U.P., Maharashtra and West Bengal. Maize: U.P., Bihar and the Punjab. Mustard and Rape-seed (Sarson): U.P., West Bengal, Punjab, Bihar and Orissa. Poppy (opium plant): U.P., Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir. Rice: Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Tamil Nadu and Orissa. Rice is sown on the largest acreage in India. Rubber: Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka. Saffron: Jammu and Kashmir. It is obtained from the stigma of the saffron plant. Silk: Karnataka, Jammu & Kashmir, West Bengal and Assam. Spices: Pepper in Kerala and West Bengal; Chillies in West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra; Cardamom in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu; Betelnuts in West Bengal and South India.

Sugarcane: U.P., Bihar, West Bengal, Punjab and Maharashtra. Tea: Assam, West Bengal, Kerala and Tamil Nadu (Nilgiri Hills), Uttarkhand (Dehradun) and Himachal Pradesh (Kangra Hills). Tobacco: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, U.P., West Bengal, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. Wheat: U.P., Punjab, Haryana and Madhya Pradesh. To some extent in Bihar, Rajasthan and Maharashtra. It is sown in OctoberNovember and reaped in April. (The first mentioned is the chief producing State) Kharif and Rabi Crops Kharif Crops: are crops raised in autumn as a result of sowing done in June-July. These are cotton, rice, maize and millets. Rabi Crops: are winter crops sown in October and November and reaped in April. These are wheat, gram, linseed and mustard. Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 8:31 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions: Favourable climate and soil conditions for the growth of certain crops

Wheat: Its plant requires a cool climate in the beginning, warm and dry weather at the time of harvesting and rainfall at intervals between 20 to 30. A clayey soil is very favourable. Barley: cool climate and a soil poorer than that required for wheat. Rice: hot and moist climate with rainfall from 40 to 80 or over and rich soil. The plant is required to remain under water for several days in the beginning. A marshy soil is very suitable. Sugarcane: an evenly high temperature with sufficient rainfall about 40. It needs a fertile soil, having lime and salt in it. Tobacco: hot and moist climate; rich soil. Spices: (pepper, cinnamon, cardamom, cloves, nutmegs) hot, moist and even climate. Opium: It requires hot and moist climate with a rich soil. Maize: warm and moist (but not very moist) climate. Cotton: It requires warm, moist and even climate where summer is long and where the soil contains salt. Sea-breeze is beneficial for quality of the fibre. The ideal situation for plantation is lowlands near the sea coast or on islands in semi-tropical latitudes. Jute: It requires a high temperature with a minimum of about 80F during the period of growth. It also needs rich sandy soil, sufficient rainfall well distributed over the period of growth, ample supply of water for soaking of plants and for washing the stripped fibre. It also needs suitable and sufficient labour to handle the crop at the proper time. Rubber: The plantation of rubber trees is better adapted to areas where the climate is warm and humid. Tea: (Tea is dried leaves of an evergreen shrub). It requires warm and moist climate. It is grown on mountain slopes. At least 60 annual rainfall in showers is needed for the new leaves to sprout. If water is allowed to stay, the roots are destroyed. So mountain slopes on which water does not accumulate are necessary. Soil containing iron is an additional advantage. Coffee: requires warm and moist climate and a height between 457 metres and 762 metres rainfall above 60. The plant cannot stand extreme cold. When young, the plant is required to be protected from strong sunshine. Millets: (Jawar and Bajra) require a hot and sufficiently dry climate and poor soil. Groundnuts: require a hot climate and moderate rainfall 29 to 40. Soil should be light and sandy. Oilseeds: require hot and moist climate and a rich soil. Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 8:30 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY

Reactions: Mineral Resources of India India possesses huge mineral wealth but it is not much exploited. Coal, gold, mica, building materials, salt, petroleum, manganese ore, iron ore, copper ore and ilmenite are produced in quantities to be of real importance to industry and other sectors of economy. Out of these, mica, manganese ore and ilmenite are largely exported. India has, however, adequate resources of industrial clay, steatite, bauxite, chromite, titanium ore etc. (The first-mentioned is the State in which the mineral is chiefly found) Aluminium: Kerala. It is extracted from Bauxite. Antimony: Antimony deposits are found in the Punjab and Karnataka. Asbestos: Karnataka and Rajasthan. Barytes: (Barium Sulphate) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Manbhum and Singhbhum districts of Jharkhand. Bantonite: Rajasthan and Jammu and Kashmir. Bauxite: Ranchi and Palamau districts of Jharkhand, Belgaum, Kharia and Thana districts of Maharashtra; Balaghat, Jabalpur, Mandia and Bilaspur districts of Madhya Pradesh. It is an ore of aluminium. Beryllium Sands: Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Kashmir and Bihar. Cement: Katni in M.P., Lakheri in Rajasthan, Jabalpur (M.P.), Guntur (Andhra Pradesh), Jhinkapani (Singhbhum district of Jharkhand), Surajpur (Haryana). China Clay: Rajmahal Hills, Singhbhum district of Bihar, Kerala. Chromite: Singhbhum and Bhagalpur (Jharkhand); Ratnagiri, Salem (Tamil Nadu); Karnataka; Keonjhar (Orissa); Ladakh (Kashmir). Coal: Raniganj (West Bengal); Jharia, Giridih, Karanpur (Bihar); Bokaro, (Jharkhand) Panch Valley and Chanda (M.P.); Singareni (Andhra Pradesh) and Mukum (Assam). Cobalt: Rajasthan and Kerala. Copper: Jharkhand (Singhbhum and Barajamda); Rajasthan (Khetri). Corborundum: Khasi Hills (Assam); Rewa (M.P.); Salem (Tamil Nadu); Karnataka and Jammu & Kashmir. Diamond: Diamond mines are found in Panna district of Madhya Pradesh. Feldspar: Burdwan (West Bengal); Rewa (M.P.); Tiruchirapalli (Tamil Nadu); Alwar and Ajmer (Rajasthan). Fullers Earth: (soft clay used in soap-making) is found in Rajasthan, M.P. and Karnataka. Gold: Kolar gold-fields (Karnataka). Graphite: Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Orissa and Kerala. Gypsum: Bikaner and Jodhpur (Rajasthan), Tiruchirapalli (Tamil Nadu), Gujarat and Himachal Pradesh. Heavy Water: Talchar in Orissa; Kota in Rajasthan; Baroda in Gujarat; Tuticorin in Tamil Nadu; Nangal in Punjab. Ilmenite: Kerala. Occurs in the Bank Sands of the beaches near Quilon. Iron Ore: Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Keonjhar and Mayurbhanj (Orissa). Kaynite: largest deposits occur at Kharswan near Jamshedpur, Singhbhum (Bihar). Lac: W. Bengal. Lead: Zawar in Udaipur and at the Banjavi mines in Jaipur (Rajasthan). Lignite: Neyveli in South Arcot district (Tamil Nadu). Limestone: Singareni and Singhbhum (Jharkhand), Panchmahal (Gujarat), Balaghat, Bhandara, Chhindwara, Nagpur, Indore, Vishakhapatnam, Sandur (Tamil Nadu). Manganese: Madhya Pradesh. Marble: Jaipur (Rajasthan). Mica: Koderma in Hazaribagh district, Monghyr (Bihar), Nellore in Andhra Pradesh. Monazite Sands: are found in abundance in Travancore coast (Kerala State). Thorium is processed from Monazite sands. Nitre: Bihar, U.P., Tamil Nadu and Punjab. Petroleum: Digboi, Badarpur, Musimpur and Patharia fields of Assam, Cambay basin near Baroda where oilfields have been discovered and production has started. Large-scale drilling for oil is in progress in India in Bombay and Gujarat. Pitchblende: Gaya (Bihar). Red Stone: Jodhpur (Rajasthan). Salt: Sambhar Lake (Rajasthan), and is also obtained from ocean water of Ranns of Kutch, on the north-western and south-eastern littoral (sea-shore) of India. Saltpetre: Punjab, U.P. and Bihar. Silmanite: Khasi Hills (Assam); Rewa (M.P.). Silmanite is used in the manufacture of furnace-lining in iron and steel industry. It is

also used in glass and ceramic industry. Silver: Karnataka; Singhbhum and Manbhum (Jharkhand); Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Steatite: Guntur (Andhra Pradesh), Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, U.P., Karnataka and Rajasthan. Tin: (Bihar) Hazaribagh district. Thorium: (Processed from monazite sand) Travancore (Kerala). Tungsten: Bihar, Nagpur (Maharashtra) and Marwar. Uranium: Bihar. Zinc: from Zawar mines in Udaipur (Rajasthan). Zircon: occurs in the beach sands of Kerala and Cape Comorin. Bihar produces 40% of the mineral wealth of India. Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 8:26 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions: Worlds Largest Producers of Crops, Minerals, Industrial goods etc. Aluminium: U.S.A., Canada Norway, Switzerland, France and India. Asbestos: Canada leads in the world in production of Asbestos. Carpets: Iran, India. Cheese: U.S.A., England, Netherlands and Australia. Coal: U.S.A., England, Germany, Russia, Australia and India. Cocoa: Ghana, S. America and West Indies. Coffee: Brazil, Indonesia, India. Copper: Chile. Cotton: U.S.A., Russia, Egypt, India, Brazil, Argentina and Pakistan. Electric Bulbs: England, U.S.A., India. Gold: South Africa, Australia, Canada, S. America, India. Ilmenite: India. Iron ore: U.S.A., CIS, U.K., France, Germany, India and Spain. Jute: Bangladesh, India. Manganese: India is largest producer of Manganese in the world. Gabon Republic situated on the western coast of South Africa is known as having one of the richest deposits at Moanda. Mercury: Italy, Spain and U.S.A. Monazite: India, supplies 88% of the worlds need. Petroleum: U.S.A., Venezuela, Russia, Middle East countries, Iran and Myanmar. Plastic Goods: U.S.A., England. Rock Phosphate: Morocco is worlds leading supplier. Rubber: Malaysia, Indonesia and Sri Lanka. About 40% of the worlds natural rubber is produced by Malaysia. Silk: China, U.S.A., France. Silver: Mexico, U.S.A., Peru and India. Steel: U.S.A., Germany, CIS and England. Sugar: Cuba. Tea: India, China, Sri Lanka, Japan and Indonesia. Tin: Malaysia, Indonesia. Wool: Australia, Argentina, New Zealand and South Africa. (The first-mentioned country in each case shown in italics is the largest producer)

Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 8:24 PM 0 comments Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions: Sunday, October 9, 2011 RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2007 Geography (Held on 23-12-2007)

1. Kayals are found in (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Rajasthan (D) Tamil Nadu Ans : (B) 2. Which one of the following rivers originates from Amarkantak ? (A) Mahanadi (B) Narmada (C) Son (D) Godavari Ans : (B) 3. Which one of the following ports is the leading exporter of iron ore ? (A) Marmagaon (B) Paradwip (C) Vishakhapatnam (D) Kochi Ans : (C) 4. Which one of the following types of forests occupies the highest percentage in India ? (A) Tropical deciduous (B) Savanna and desert vegetation (C) Equatorial evergreen (D) Conifers and pines Ans : (A) 5. Which one of the following is the highest peak of India ? (A) Nanda Devi (B) Kanchanjunga (C) Makalu (D) Everest Ans : (A) 6. Noonmati Oil Refinery of India is located in (A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra

(C) Assam (D) Kerala Ans : (C) 7. Isohyets are (A) Lines on a map showing equal rainfall (B) Lines on a map having same mean temperature (C) Lines on a map having same barometric pressure (D) Lines on a map showing equal height from mean sea level Ans : (A) 8. Which one of the following is not a suitable method for showing urban population ? (A) Circle (B) Shade (C) Sphere (D) Divided circle Ans : (D) 9. Arrange the following States in respect of coal reserves and select the correct answer from the code given below 1. Jharkhand 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Orissa 4. West Bengal Codes : (A) 1 4 2 3 (B) 1 3 4 2 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2 Ans : (B) 10. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The Bhanger land belongs to the Pleistocene period. Reason (R) : The Karewas of Kashmir are the Pleistocene deposits. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (B) 11. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The concept of differential heating about the origin of Indian Monsoon was given by Helley. Reason (R) : The concept of differential heating explains the origin of Indian monsoon. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (A) 12. Namdhapa Tiger Reserve is in the State of (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Bihar Ans : (A) 13. Pensi La connects (A) Srinagar with Leh (B) Sikkim with Tibet (C) Himachal Pradesh with Kargil (D) Himachal Pradesh with Tibet Ans : (A) 14. Agricultural Location Theory was developed by (A) Von Thunen, J.H. (B) Stamp, D. (C) Thompson, W.S. (D) Weber, A. Ans : (A) 15. The term Conurbation was coined by (A) Harvey, D. (B) Patrick Geddes (C) Dickinson, R. E. (D) Ullman Ans : (B) 16. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? (A) Mega City P. Geddes (B) Primate City C. O. Sauer (C) C. B. D. C. C. Colby (D) Rank Size Rule G. K. Zipf Ans : (D) 17. The Theory of Industrial Location was propounded by (A) Alfred Weber (B) C. C. Colby (C) Rostov, W. W. (D) Christaller, W. Ans : (A) 18. Which one of the following States is the leading producer of bauxite ? (A) Jharkhand (B) Orissa (C) Maharashtra (D) Gujarat Ans : (B) 19. Which one of the following States is the leading producer of Gypsum ? (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Rajasthan (C) Orissa (D) Tamil Nadu Ans : (B) 20. In which of the following States the highest percentage of Wallastonite is mined ? (A) Rajasthan

(B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Bihar Ans : (A) 21. The first scientific attempt for the demarcation of agricultural regions of the world was made by (A) Stamp, D. (B) Whittlesey, D. (C) Hartshorne (D) Johnston, R. J. Ans : (B) 22. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? (A) Kaiga Tamil Nadu (B) Kalpakkam Andhra Pradesh (C) Rawatbhata Rajasthan (D) Kundankulam Kerala Ans : (C) 23. Singhbhum Iron Ore Fields lie in the State of (A) Orissa (B) Jharkhand (C) Karnataka (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (B) 24. Which one of the following areas has the largest petroleum deposits in India ? (A) Mumbai-High (B) Godavari Basin (C) Gujarat Coast (D) Brahmaputra Valley Ans : (A) 25. In which of the following States uranium is not found ? (A) Meghalaya (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Assam (D) Uttarakhand (Uttaranchal) Ans : (D) 26. Which of the following districts in Rajasthan fall under Bwhw climatic region ? (A) Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Ganganagar (B) Dungarpur, Banswara, Jhalawar (C) Dholpur, Karauli, Bharatpur (D) Jaipur, Ajmer, Bhilwara Ans : (A) 27. Which one of the following is not suitable for the generation of geo-thermal energy in India ? (A) East coast of Tamil Nadu (B) Puga Valley of Ladakh (C) Manikaran Area (Himachal Pradesh) (D) West coast of Maharashtra Ans : (A)

28. Ideal conditions for generation of solar energy is found in (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Rajasthan (C) Uttarakhand (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (B) 29. Which one of the following lakes is of potable (sweet) water ? (A) Sambhar Lake (B) Dhebar Lake (C) Phalodi (D) Didwana Ans : (B) 30. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Alwar Sabi, Ruparel (B) Udaipur Banas, Berach (C) Karauli Jagar, Gambhir (D) Dungarpur Banganga, Morel Ans : (D) 31. Lohagarh Fort is located at (A) Jaipur (B) Alwar (C) Bharatpur (D) Dholpur Ans : (C) 32. Which one of the following districts has the highest percentage of literacy (2001) ? (A) Jaipur (B) Kota (C) Udaipur (D) Sikar Ans : (B) 33. Jayal Gravel Ridge is found in the district of (A) Barmer District (B) Nagaur District (C) Jalore District (D) Churu District Ans : (B) 34. Bankapatti area is found in the district of (A) Jodhpur (B) Ajmer (C) Nagaur (D) Jhunjhunu Ans : (C) 35. The source of the Chambal river is (A) Kumbhalgarh Plateau (B) Mt. Abu (C) Alwar Hills (D) Janapau Hills

Ans : (D) 36. Which one of the following districts has highest percentage of forest area ? (A) Karauli (B) Udaipur (C) Sirohi (D) Banswara Ans : (A) 37. Which one of the following countries supported Greening Aravalli Project in Rajasthan ? (A) Germany (B) Norway (C) Japan (D) England Ans : (C) 38. Desert Development Programme in Rajasthan was started in (A) 1974-75 (B) 1982-83 (C) 1977-78 (D) 1986-87 Ans : (C) 39. Lathi Series belongs to (A) Triassic Period (B) Permian Period (C) Silurian Period (D) Ordovician Period Ans : (A) 40. Khoh Dariba region is associated with the mining of (A) Lead and Zinc (B) Copper (C) Manganese (D) Silver Ans : (B) 41. Which one of the following rivers drains into Sambhar Lake ? (A) Kantli (B) Bandi (C) Mendha (D) Mashi Ans : (C) 42. Rajasthan is the leading producer in the country in (A) Gram (B) Mustard (C) Cotton (D) Wheat Ans : (B) 43. Which one of the following districts are not included in Drought Prone Area Programme ? (A) KotaBaran (B) DungarpurBanswara

(C) TonkSawai Madhopur (D) AlwarBharatpur Ans : (D) 44. Which one of the districts has the largest deposits of Tungesten ? (A) Ajmer (B) Nagaur (C) Sirohi (D) Jaipur Ans : (B) 45. Which one of the following districts is the leading producer of Maize ? (A) Chittorgarh (B) Bhilwara (C) Raj Samand (D) Udaipur Ans : (D) 46. Which one of the following trees is known as Kalp Taru of Rajasthan ? (A) Sagawan (B) Mango (C) Neem (D) Khejari Ans : (D) 47. Main Sanctuary of Dangland is (A) Bhainsrorgarh Sanctuary (B) Kaladevi Wildlife Sanctuary (C) Sita Mata Sanctuary (D) Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary Ans : (B) 48. Menal Waterfall is located in the district of (A) Chittorgarh (B) Bundi (C) Bhilwara (D) Rajsamand Ans : (C) 49. Which one of the following districts accounts for lowest density of population (2001) ? (A) Jodhpur (B) Jaisalmer (C) Barmer (D) Jalore Ans : (B) 50. Dabok Airport is associated with (A) Jodhpur (B) Jaipur (C) Kota (D) Udaipur Ans : (D) 51. Which one of the following States has the highest growth rate of population (1991 2001) ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Rajasthan (D) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (C) 52. Which one of the following districts has the highest growth rate of urban population (1991 2001) ? (A) Jodhpur (B) Bhilwara (C) Jaipur (D) Hanumangarh Ans : (C) 53. Arrange the following in a chronological order and select the correct answer using the code given below 1. Gunj 2. Mindal 3. Riss 4. Wurm Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 1 2 4 (C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 1 2 4 3 Ans : (A) 54. The dinosaurs first appeared on the earth surface during the (A) Permian (B) Jurassic (C) Cretaceous (D) Triassic Ans : (B) 55. Which one of the following is the most fine grained extrusive rock ? (A) Granite (B) Peridotite (C) Basalt (D) Conglomerate Ans : (C) 56. The Aurora Borealis occurs in the (A) Exosphere (B) Ionosphere (C) Ozonosphere (D) Stratosphere Ans : (B) 57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below List-I (Ridge/Plateau) (a) AmsterdamSt. Paul Plateau (b) Challenger Rise (c) Dolphin Rise (d) Juan De-Fuca List-II (Ocean)

1. North Pacific Ocean 2. Indian Ocean 3. South Atlantic Ocean 4. North Atlantic Ocean Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 4 3 1 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 3 2 4 1 Ans : (B) 58. Which one of the following has the largest number of satellites ? (A) Uranus (B) Neptune (C) Jupiter (D) Saturn Ans : (C) 59. The Present is the Key to the Past. This statement was made by (A) Dutton (B) Strahler (C) Hutton (D) Dana Ans : (C) 60. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The islands along the mid Atlantic Ridge are highly prone to volcanic activity. Reason (R) : The sea floor spreading is the main cause of earthquakes in the Atlantic Ocean. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (B) 61. The salinity of the oceans is maximum in the (A) Equatorial region (B) Sub-Tropical region (C) Sub-Polar region (D) Tropical region Ans : (B) 62. Arrange the following lakes in descending order according to area and select the correct answer using the code given below 1. Huron 2. Michigan 3. Superior 4. Victoria Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (A) 63. Which one of the following soils has the largest percentage of the land area of the world ? (A) Alfisols (B) Entisols (C) Inceptisols (D) Aridisols Ans : (D) 64. The concept of Peneplain was propounded by (A) Penck (B) L. C. King (C) Davis (D) Lawson Ans : (C) 65. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below List-I (Country) (a) Austria (b) Albania (c) Hungary (d) Slovenia List-II (Capital) 1. Budapest 2. Ljubljana 3. Vienna 4. Tirana Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 3 4 2 1 (C) 4 3 1 2 (D) 4 2 3 1 Ans : (A) 66. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Tokyo is the largest urban centre (B) Kyushu is bigger than Shikoku (C) Japan consists of 4000 islands (D) The Ainu of Hokkaido belongs to yellow race Ans : (C) 67. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) Cook Strait lies between North and South Islands of New Zealand (B) Bass Strait lies between Australia and New Zealand (C) Foveaux Strait lies between Stewart Island and North Island of New Zealand (D) Torres Strait lies between New Guinea and Australia Ans : (B) 68. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through which one of the following countries ? (A) Botswana (B) Swaziland (C) Zambia (D) Zimbabwe

Ans : (A) 69. Which one of the following is not correct ? (A) Rio de Janeiro is known as the magnificent city (B) Rio de Janeiro has been the capital of Brazil (C) Sao Paulo is a Mega City (D) Sao Paulo is a Sea-Port Ans : (D) 70. Brazilian Plateau is rich in (A) Petroleum (B) Copper (C) Nickel (D) Iron ore Ans : (D) 71. Which one of the following is the largest city of Africa ? (A) Durban (B) Lagos (C) Nairobi (D) Cairo Ans : (D) 72. The marshy lands of rivers are known as Sudd in which of the following countries ? (A) Sudan (B) Ethiopia (C) Nigeria (D) Egypt Ans : (A) 73. Which one of the following is not a land -locked country ? (A) Mali (B) Niger (C) Chad (D) Sudan Ans : (D) 74. The island of Socotra belongs to (A) Yemen (B) United Arab Emirates (UAE) (C) Oman (D) Saudi Arabia Ans : (A) 75. Mt. Kota Kinabalu is the highest peak in (A) Myanmar (B) Indonesia (C) Thailand (D) Malaysia Ans : (D) 76. Which one of the following countries has the highest density of population ? (A) Japan (B) India

(C) China (D) Indonesia Ans : (A) 77. Which one of the following is the most busy navigable river ? (A) Volga (B) Sein (C) Rhine (D) Danube Ans : (C) 78. Hoover Dam is located on (A) Colorado River (B) Nile River (C) Rhine River (D) Niger River Ans : (A) 79. Worlds deepest Ocean Trench is (A) Kermadec Trench (B) Marianas Trench (C) Indonesian Trench (D) Kuril Trench Ans : (B) 80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below List-I (Climatic type) (a) Tropical Rain forest (b) Tropical Savanna climate (c) Mediterranean climate (d) Humid Sub-tropical climate List-II (Region) 1. Just at the fringe of Sahara 2. Western Africa near Equator 3. North-West USA 4. South Africa Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 2 1 4 3 (C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 1 2 3 4 Ans : (B) 81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below List-I (Ocean Current) (a) Agulhas Current (b) El Nino Current (c) Kuroshio Current (d) Benguela Current List-II (Name of Ocean) 1. North Pacific Ocean 2. South Atlantic Ocean 3. South Pacific Ocean

4. Indian Ocean Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 3 1 2 (B) 4 3 2 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 Ans : (A) 82. The International Airport of Washington D.C. is known as (A) George Bush International Airport (B) Dulles International Airport (C) Heathrow International Airport (D) Gatwick International Airport Ans : (B) 83. The concept of Continental Drift was propounded by (A) Holms (B) Wegener (C) Kober (D) Daly Ans : (B) 84. The Tetrahedral Theory was propounded by (A) Wegener (B) Joly (C) Lowthian Green (D) Jaffreys Ans : (C) 85. The author of Anthropogeography was (A) Ratzel F. (B) Semple (C) Ritter C. (D) Huntington Ans : (A) 86. The main contribution of Al-Idris was in the field of (A) Astronomy (B) Cartography (C) Historical Geography (D) Physical Geography Ans : (B) 87. The prime meridian of the classical Indian geographers used to be drawn through the city of (A) Patliputra (B) Ujjain (C) Indra Prastha (D) Kannauj Ans : (B) 88. Which one of the following has the highest rank in Human Development ? (A) Vietnam (B) Malaysia

(C) Philippines (D) Indonesia Ans : (B) 89. The shelter of Badwins tribe is known as (A) Khaima (B) Igloo (C) Kraal (D) Reed-Hut Ans : (D) 90. Man is a product of earth surface. This statement was made by (A) Semple (B) Kant (C) Humboldt (D) Ritter Ans : (A) 91. Which one of the following is the longest river in the world ? (A) Nile (B) Amazon (C) Niger (D) Congo Ans : (A) 92. Which one of the following is a Mega City in the world ? (A) Tokyo (B) Hyderabad (C) Nairobi (D) Frankfurt Ans : (A) 93. The R.F. of 45 N/13 will be (A) 1 : 25,000 (B) 1 : 10,000 (C) 1 : 50,000 (D) 1 : 100,000 Ans : (C) 94. The line joining the points of equal height above sea level is known as (A) Isobar (B) Isotherm (C) Isohyet (D) Contour Ans : (D) 95. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) For Baltic region and France the conical projection with two standard parallel is most appropriate (B) Trans-Siberian railways can best be shown on conical projection with one standard parallel (C) International map projection is a modified Bonnes projection (D) Bonnes projection is a modified conical projection Ans : (C) 96. The concept of base level was given by

(A) Powell (B) Davis (C) King (D) Penck Ans : (A) 97. The principle of Interaction was introduced by (A) Martone (B) Richthofen (C) Brunhes (D) Vidal de La Blache Ans : (C) 98. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The Mollweid Projection was propounded by a British Cartographer. Reason (R) : Mollweid Projection is an equal area projection. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (D) 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below List-I (Projection) (a) Bonnes Projection (b) Galls Projection (c) Cylindrical Projection (d) Mercators Projection List-II (Property) 1. Length of equator is 2R 2. Pole is a straight line 3. All parallels are standard parallels 4. The scale along the parallels and meridians is the same at a point Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 2 4 1 (B) 3 1 2 4 (C) 1 3 4 2 (D) 1 3 2 4 Ans : (A) 100. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : Hydergraph is based on rainfall and temperature data was developed by Griffith Taylor. Reason (R) : Hydergraph was developed by Griffith Taylor. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (A) Posted by GENERAL STUDIES FOR PSC at 1:42 PM 0 comments

Email ThisBlogThis!Share to TwitterShare to Facebook Links to this post Labels: GEOGRAPHY Reactions: R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2008 Geography (Held on 7-1-2009)

1. Which of the following statements about the shape of the Earth is correct ? (A) It is oblate spheroid (B) It bulges slightly at the poles (C) It is a little flattened at the Equator (D) It is exactly spherical in shape without any bulge at any place 2. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion ? (A) Gorge, flood plain, piedmont plain, delta (B) Gorge, piedmont plain, flood plain, delta (C) Gorge, piedmont plain, delta, flood plain (D) Piedmont plain, gorge, flood plain, delta 3. Spring equinox falls on (A) March 21 (B) June 21 (C) September 23 (D) December 22 4. Relative humidity refers to (A) Absolute amount of water vapour in the atmosphere (B) The amount of hygroscopic nuclei in the atmosphere (C) Saturated vapour pressure (D) Rate of actual amount of water vapour in the air to the amount it could hold at that temperature 5. Solar energy which reaches the earth surface is called (A) Radiated energy (B) Radiant (C) Sunlight (D) Conduction 6. A broad channel where the waters of a river and a sea mingle is called (A) a delt

a (B) an estuary (C) a harbour (D) a strait 7. Assertion (A) : In orographic nature of rainfall, the windward slope of a mountain range gets more rainfall than the lea ward slope. Reason (R) : The warm and humid air that descends down the slope get warmed up and dry. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 8. During which period did the domestication of plants and animals take place ? (A) Paleolithic period (B) Mesolithic period (C) Neolithic period (D) Dark age 9. What is the main occupation of Eskimos ? (A) Summer cultivation (B) Winter woodwork (C) Fishing and Hunting (D) Handicrafts 10. The process of gradual spread over space of people or ideas from the centre of origin is known as (A) Distribution (B) Diffusion (C) Innovation (D) Decentralization 11. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (A) Masai Matagonia (B) Kirghiz Kazakhstan (C) Melanesians Malaysia (D) Pygmies Tanzania 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Tribe) (a) Jarwa (b) Todas (c) Angami (d) Saura List-II (Occupation) 1. Shifting cultivation 2. Terraced cultivation 3. Pastoral 4. Food gathering Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 3 4 1 2 (B) 4 3 1 2

(C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 4 2 1 13. Which one of the following agricultural pattern is not practiced in Western Europe ? (A) Dairy farming (B) Mixed farming (C) Market gardening (D) Intensive subsistence farming 14. Which of the following statements are correct ? 1. Lignite and low grade bituminous coal were formed during the Quaternary period. 2. Dolomite is used as refractory material and flux in iron and steel industry. 3. Chhota Nagpur Plateau is the most extensive, rich and diversified mineral belt. Select the correct answer using the codes given below : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3 15. Assertion (A) : All biotic resources are renewable. Reason (R) : Biotic resources can reproduce and regenerate their population as long as environmental conditions remain favourable. Of these statements (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is false but (R) is true. (D) (A) is true but (R) is false. 16. Which of the folllowing pairs are correctly matched ? Industrial Region Major Industrial Centres 1. Ukraine 2. Kuzbas 3. Central Asia 4. Volga Krivoy Rog Novosibirsk Karaganda Moscow

Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes : (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 17. The extensive coffee plantation in Brazil is called (A) Fazendas (B) Trasil (C) Corrals (D) Estancias 18. Myanmar is industrially backward because of

(A) Easy livelihood from agriculture (B) Uneven land surface (C) Limited local market (D) Lack of iron ore and coal 19. If the map drawn to a scale of 1 cm to 30 km is to be enlarged three times, then representative fraction of the enlarged map will be (A) 1 : 1,000,000 (B) 1 : 3,000,000 (C) 1 : 6,000,000 (D) 1 : 9,000,000 20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Instruments) (a) Planimeter (b) Pantograph (c) Parallex bar (d) Clinometer List-II (Purpose) 1. Measures angles and slopes on ground 2. Calculation of areas on maps 3. Enlargement and reduction of maps 4. Measures the elevation from the photographs Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 4 2 3 1 (B) 2 1 3 4 (C) 2 3 4 1 (D) 1 3 4 2 21. The contours merge and run as a single line for a short distance in the case of a (A) Cliff (B) Knobe (C) Gorge (D) Re-entrant 22. What are Cadastral maps used for ? (A) To show the boundaries of fields and buildings (B) To show urban areas (C) To demarcate wasteland (D) To demarcate land use pattern 23. Ergograph relates to (A) Relative humidity and rainfall (B) Temperature and rainfall (C) Climate and growing season of crops (D) Rainfall and winds 24. A line on a map joining points in the oceans that have equal salinity is called (A) Isobath (B) Isocline (C) Isohaline (D) Isogonic

25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Mountains) (a) Andes (b) Appalacian (c) Vesuvius (d) Catskill List-II (Type) 1. Old folded 2. New folded 3. Residual 4. Volcanic Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 4 3 (B) 1 4 3 2 (C) 3 2 4 1 (D) 4 3 2 1 26. Conventional storms in the Atlantics are known as (A) Hurricanes (B) Typhoons (C) Cyclones (D) Tornadoes 27. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : Podzol soils are poor in bases. Reason (R) : They develop in tropical areas. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 28. The largest number and widest variety of plants and animals would be found in (A) Tropical grasslands (B) Tropical forests (C) Temperate forests (D) Temperate grasslands 29. A natural region has the similarity of (A) climate and natural vegetation (B) climate and occupation (C) soil and drainage (D) economic base and natural vegetation 30. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The population of the world has experienced an unprecedented growth during the 20th Century. Reason (R) : Rapid advances in medical technology reduced death rate of population very significantly during the 20th Century. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

31. Which one of the following is the most significant ecological determinant of population distribution in the world ? (A) Physical features (B) Mortality rate (C) Land fertility (D) Climate 32. Population growth in most of the developing countries of Asia is determined by (A) Birth rate and migration (B) Migration and death rate (C) Birth rate, death rate and migration (D) Birth rate and death rate 33. The people of which country are known as Magyars ? (A) Hungary (B) Slovakia (C) Austria (D) Romania 34. Non-commercial pastoral nomadism is a way of life in the (A) Velds of South Africa (B) Steppes of Mangolia (C) Prairies of Canada (D) Australian downs 35. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : When British Rule ended in India, many Anglo-Indians migrated to Australia. Reason (R) : Some migrations are caused by religious attraction. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 36. Hunting and fishing is the main occupation of the people living in (A) Equatorial regions (B) Polar regions (C) Temperate grasslands (D) Semi-desertic regions 37. There are rich fishing grounds off the coast of Peru and Chile for the reason of (A) Shallow continent shelf (B) Convergence of cold and warm currents (C) Upwelling of water from deeper layers (D) Flow of warm ocean currents 38. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below : Assertion (A) : The boundary marking the termination of tree growth is known as timber line. Reason (R) : Its location is determined by the amount of moisture, exposure, evaporation and depth of snow. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

39. The breed of sheep which produces the best quality wool is (A) Kutchi (B) Merino (C) Chokla (D) Magra 40. Agriculture involving both crops and livestock is called (A) Intensive farming (B) Extensive farming (C) Mixed farming (D) Double farming 41. Laterization process forms (A) A layer rich in minerals (B) A layer rich in iron contents (C) A layer rich in living organisms (D) A layer rich in calcium 42. Which one of the following countries leads in export of condensed milk ? (A) India (B) Belgium (C) Italy (D) Netherlands 43. Which one of the following is not true about Singapore, the smallest country in Southeast Asia ? (A) Has no natural resources (B) Has the highest per capita income in whole of Southeast Asia (C) Has non-strategic location (D) Has well-educated population 44. Which one of the following countries in Southwest Asia has the largest well-irrigated farmland ? (A) Lebanon (B) Syria (C) Iraq (D) Jordan 45. Which one of the following regions is called as rust belt of Japan ? (A) Northern Honshu (B) Southern Honshu (C) Shikoku Islands (D) Kyushu Islands 46. Which one of the following countries in East Asia adopted Great Leap Forward policy for its rapid socio -economic transformation ? (A) Japan (B) Korea (C) Taiwan (D) China 47. Which one of the following statements is not true about U.S.A. ? (A) Is the largest market economy in the world (B) Has a federal system of governance (C) Is a highly urbanised and metropolized country

(D) Rural areas in Southern America are highly rich 48. Two Russian terms which entered the English language during Mikhail Gorbachevs restructuring of the Soviet Unio n in the late 1980s were (A) Bolshevik and Menskevik (B) Perestroika and Zaibatsu (C) Novgoroad and Glasnost (D) Perestroika and Glasnost 49. Russias main trading partner(s) is/are (A) Other CIS countries (B) China (C) Western Europe (D) Japan 50. The Mount Everest falls along the natural boundary between (A) India and Nepal (B) India and China (C) Nepal and China (D) Pakistan and China 51. The correct monsoon sequence (Season/Climatic conditions) is (A) Summer/Wet; Winter/Dry (B) Summer/Dry; Winter/Wet (C) Summer/Cold; Winter/Warm (D) Summer/Mild; Winter/Wet 52. Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline ? (A) Maharashtra (B) Tamil Nadu (C) Karnataka (D) Andhra Pradesh 53. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with 1. Excessive rainfall 2. Deforestation 3. Excessive Cultivation 4. Overgrazing Codes : (A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (D) 2 and 4 are correct 54. Which one of the following types of forest grows in the shaded portion of the given rough outline map of India ?

(A) Mixed deciduous (B) Tropical Savannah (C) Semi-arid Scrub lands (D) Mangrove forests 55. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : Offshore fishing in Malabar coast is more developed than that in the Coromandel coast. Reason (R) : Malabar coast has better facilities to export sea fish to African countries. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 56. The group of States having the forest cover of more than 75 per cent to the total geographical area is (A) Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland (B) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland (C) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland (D) Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland 57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Cattle Breed) (a) Gir (b) Alambadi (c) Dangi (d) Deoni List-II (State) 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Maharashtra 3. Gujarat 4. Andhra Pradesh Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 1 4 2 (D) 3 1 2 4 58. Which one of the following States has the highest livestock density in the country ? (A) Rajasthan (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Maharashtra 59. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : Indian agriculture is no longer the gamble of the monsoons. Reason (R) : There is recent expansion of dry land farming in India. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 60. Which one of the following is associated with Indian Agriculture ? (A) I.C.A.R. (B) I.C.C.R. (C) I.C.M.R. (D) I.C.W.A. 61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Name of Crop) (a) Rice (b) Jowar (c) Jute (d) Coffee List-II (State Growing) 1. Maharashtra 2. Orissa 3. Karnataka 4. West Bengal Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 1 4 3 62. Which of the following dams has generation of power more than irrigation as its main aim ? (A) Gandhi Sagar (B) Hirakud (C) Periyar (D) Tunghabhadra 63. Consider the following 1. Hematite 2. Magnetite 3. Limonite

4. Siderite Which of the above are iron ore ? (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 64. Which Government agency is responsible for mapping and exploration of minerals in India ? (A) Survey of India (B) Geological Survey of India (C) Minerals Development Corporation (D) Indian School of Mines 65. Which one of the following is not a source of geothermal energy ? (A) Hot Geyser (B) Hot Spring (C) Coal (D) Volcano 66. Malvika Steel Plant, the first fully integrated steel plant in North, India, was set up in (A) Bihar (B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Punjab 67. Which of the following places is not associated with fertilizers ? (A) Panipat (B) Alwaye (C) Namrup (D) Ranchi 68. The New Industrial Policy was introduced in India in the year (A) 1987 (B) 1991 (C) 1993 (D) 1998 69. During which Census decade, sex-ratio in India registered the sharpest decline ? (A) 1911-12 (B) 1921-31 (C) 1951-61 (D) 1961-71 70. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of population of the four metropolis as per 2001 Census ? (A) Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai (B) Kolkata, Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai (C) Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi (D) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai 71. What is the most favoured location of settlements in the mountainous regions ? (A) Valley bottoms (B) Ridge tops (C) Valley side slopes

(D) Hill top 72. Largest buyers of goods exported from India is (A) Asia and Oceania region (B) North America (C) Latin America (D) Western European region 73. The following countries are the major trading partners of India. Using codes given below their names, put these countries in sequential order of their share in total trade of India 1. U.S.A. 2. China 3. Hong Kong 4. United Arab Emirates (UAE) Codes : (A) 1, 4, 3 and 2 (B) 2, 1, 4 and 3 (C) 4, 3, 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 74. Which one of the following public sector agencies in India is not associated with promotion of international trade ? (A) State Trading Corporation (STC) (B) Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC) (C) Projects and Equipment Corporation of India (PEC) (D) Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL) 75. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The Rajasthan desert is covered with shifting sand dunes. Reason (R) : For want of rain and surface flowing of water, the work of wind is felt everywhere. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Summit) (a) Dodabetta (b) Nanda Devi (c) Amarkantak (d) Guru Sikhar List-II (Mountain Range) 1. Nilgiri Hills 2. Himalaya Mountains 3. Aravali Range 4. Maikal Range Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 2 1 3 4 (B) 3 2 1 4 (C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 4 1 2 3 77. The climate around Bikaner can be described as

(A) Mediterranean type (B) Semi-arid steppe (C) Hot desert (D) Tropical monsoon 78. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the soils found in Western Rajasthan ? (A) Contain sand interrupted by low rocky projections (B) Contain a lot of soluble salts in the top layer (C) Are the least leached soils and lack in humus also (D) Are poor in phosphate but rich in nitrogen 79. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the vegetation found in Rajasthan ? (A) Height of trees and density of plant cover is low (B) Xerophytic plants are common (C) The nature of vegetation does not change with variations of habitat (D) Available forests are a good source of fuel wood and minor forest products 80. Which one of the following statements is not true about Western Arid region of Rajasthan ? (A) This is the largest area size region in the State (B) Bajra is the most prominent crop of the region (C) Rural settlements are highly disperse and small in size (D) Rainfall goes on increasing as one moves from east to west direction in the region 81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List-I (Livestock Breed) (a) Rathi (b) Kankrej (c) Mallani (d) Gir List-II (District) 1. Nagaur 2. Jaisalmer 3. Sirohi 4. Ajmer Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 3 1 4 82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below List-I (Mining Area) (a) Lunkaransaur (b) Zawar Mines (c) Deogarh (d) Champa-gudha List-II (Mineral Wealth) 1. Berryllium 2. Gypsum 3. Lead and Zinc 4. Mica Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 2 1 (D) 4 2 1 3 83. Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (A) According to 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest population size districts in Rajasthan State are Jaipur and Jaisalmer, respectively (B) At 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest area size districts in Rajasthan State were Jaisalmer and Dholpur, respectively (C) Five new districts were created in Rajasthan between 1991 and 2001 Census decades (D) According to 2001 Census, the highest and the lowest literacy districts in Rajasthan State were Jaipur and Dungarpur, respectively 84. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of decadal growth of population in the four districts of Rajasthan State during 1991-2001 ? (A) Jaipur, Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer (B) Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jaipur, Bikaner (C) Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur (D) Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur, Jaisalmer 85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below List-I (Lake) (a) Nakki Talab (b) Sambhar (c) Pichola (d) Gadsisar List-II (District) 1. Jaisalmer 2. Udaipur 3. Sirohi 4. Jaipur Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 3 4 2 1 86. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : Rajasthan is mainly a region of interior drainage. Reason (R) : It is mainly a structural basin surrounded by hill ranges. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 87. Which one of the following statements is not correct about River Luni ? (A) The Luni is a river of Western Rajasthan (B) It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range in Ajmer District (C) It is also known as Lavanavari river (D) The Luni and its tributaries drain the eastern slopes of the Aravali range 88. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi Canal) draws its water from the river (A) Sutlej

(B) Yamuna (C) Chambal (D) Sutlej and Beas 89. Chambal is the joint project of (A) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar (C) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan (D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar 90. Which one of the following problems is not encountered in Indira Gandhi Canal command area ? (A) Increase in soil salinity (B) Progressive waterlogging (C) Aeolian silting of canal (D) Decline in water supply 91. What are Didwana and Pachpadra famous for ? (A) Copper (B) Lead and Zinc (C) Salt (D) Gypsum 92. In List-I industrial sectors has been listed, while in List-II are listed the location of industrial complexes. Match the two lists using the correct code, given ahead List-I (Industrial Sector) (a) Gems and Jewellery (b) Hosiery (c) Ceramics (d) Textiles List-II (Location of Industrial Complex) 1. Pali 2. Khara (Bikaner) 3. Bhiwadi 4. Jaipur Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 3 2 1 93. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of irrigated area in percentage under the four crops grown in Rajasthan State ? (A) Wheat, Gram, Oilseeds, Cotton (B) Wheat, Cotton, Gram, Oilseeds (C) Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram, Cotton (D) Cotton, Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram 94. Rajasthan, which is one of the five top ranking States in wind power potentials, has a number of very good wind power sites in the State. Match the wind power sites with districts of their location, using the correct code. List-I (Wind power site) (a) Devgarh (b) Harhnath (c) Khodal

(d) Mohangarh List-II (District of Location) 1. Sikar 2. Barmer 3. Jaisalmer 4. Chittorgarh Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1 (C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 1 2 3 95. National Highway No. 15 linking Punjab with Gujarat State passes through the territory of a number of districts in Rajasthan State. The number of such districts in the State is (A) Five (B) Six (C) Four (D) Seven 96. Thar link express train running between Jodhpur and Munabao railway stations covers nearly a distance of (A) 150 km (B) more than 200 km (C) less than 300 km (D) more than 300 km 97. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below Assertion (A) : The area falling east of the Aravalli in Rajasthan State has higher road density than that of those falling west of the Aravalli. Reason (R) : Relief plays an important effect in regional distribution of roads in the State of Rajasthan. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true 98. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the regional distribution of rural settlements in Rajasthan State ? (A) Rural settlements in the Rajasthan plain are small, compact and sparsely distributed due to limited water supply and cultivable land (B) In excessive arid areas having sand dunes, hamleted settlements are noticed near the water-bodies (C) In eastern parts of Rajasthan large compact villages are a common sight (D) Indira Gandhi Canal has, however, failed to encourage compact settlements similar to Punjab in northwestern parts of Rajasthan 99. The total number of urban settlements in Rajasthan State, according to 2001 Census has been (A) more than 300 (B) between 150 and 200 (C) more than 250 (D) between 200 and 250 100. Which one of the following is not the objective of forestry in Rajasthan State during the XI Five Year Plan ? (A) To achieve 33.0 per cent tree cover in the State by 2016 (B) To check desertification and restore the ecological status of the Aravallis (C) To conserve gene-pool and improve bio-diversity of flora and fauna (D) To elicit peoples participation for institutionalization of Joint Forest Management (JFM)

Answers : 1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B) 11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C) 21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C) 41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C) 51. (A) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (A) 61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A) 71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D) 81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (D) 91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (C)

ECONOMY. Show all posts

SATURDAY, MARCH 17, 2012

Economics: The Basics

Economics When wants exceed the resources available to satisfy them, there is scarcity. Faced with scarcity, people must make choices. Economics is the study of the choices people make to cope with scarcity. Choosing more of one thing means having less of something else. The opportunity cost of any action is the best alternative forgone. Microeconomics - The study of the decisions of people and businesses and the interaction of those decisions in markets. The goal of microeconomics is to explain the prices and quantities of individual goods and services. Macroeconomics - The study of the national economy and the global economy and the way that economic aggregates grow and fluctuate. The goal of macroeconomics is to explain average prices and the total employment, income, and production. Positive statements - Statements about what is. Normative statements - Statements about what ought to be. Ceteris paribus - Other things being equal or if all other relevant things remain the same.

The fallacy of composition - What is true of the parts may not be true of the whole. What is true of the whole may not be true of the parts. The post hoc fallacy - The error of reasoning from timing to cause and effect. Economic efficiency - Production costs are as low as possible and consumers are as satisfied as possible with the combination of goods and services that is being produced. Economic growth - The increase in incomes and production per person. It results from the ongoing

advance of technology, the accumulation of ever larger quantities of productive equipment and ever rising standards of education. Economic stability - The absence of wide fluctuations in the economic growth rate, the level of employment, and average prices. The Modern economy Economy - A mechanism that allocates scarce resources among alternative uses. This mechanism achieves five things: What, How, When, Where, Who. Decision makers - Households, Firms, Governments. Household - Any group of people living together as a decision-making unit. Every individual in the economy belongs to a household. Firm - An organization that uses resources to produce goods and services. All producers are called firms, no matter how big they are or what they produce. Car makers, farmers, banks, and insurance companies are all firms. Government - A many-layered organization that sets laws and rules, operates a law-enforcement mechanism, taxes households and firms, and provides public goods and services such as national defense, public health, transportation, and education. Market - Any arrangement that enables buyers and sellers to get information and to do business with each other. Role of Government Not so very long ago, economic planning and public ownership of the means of production were the wave of the future. Planners cannot find out what needs to be done to co-ordinate the production of a modern economy. Even if a technically feasible plan could be drawn up, there is no reason to believe it will be implemented. How could a central planner know better than the consumers what the individual woman wants? Planners can only provide users with what they believe they should want. Because prices bear no relation to costs, there is no way to calculate what production needs to increase and what production needs to be reduced. The state has three functions:

To provide things - known as public goods - that the market cannot provide for itself; To internalize externalities or remedy market failures; To help people who, for a number of reasons, do worse from the market or are more vulnerable to what happens within it than society finds tolerable.

In addition to providing public goods, governments directly finance or provide certain merit goods. Such goods are consumed individually. But society insists on a certain level or type of provision. The role of the state in a modern market economy is, in short, pervasive. The difference between poor countries and richer ones is not that the latter do less, but that what they do is better directed (on the whole) and more competently executed (again, on the whole). The first requirement of effective policy is a range of qualities credibility, predictability, transparency and consistency. The more the government focuses on its essential tasks and the less it is engaged in economic activity and regulation, the better it is likely to work and the better the economy itself is likely to run. If one needs a large number of bureaucratic permissions to do something in business, the officials have an opportunity to demand bribes. Once it is known that a government is prepared to create such exceptional opportunities, there will be lobbying to create them. Then there is not just the corruption of the government, but the waste of resources in such 'rentseeking' or 'directly unproductive profit-seeking activities'. Governments are natural monopolies over a given territory. One of the strongest arguments for an open economy is that it puts a degree of competitive pressure on government.

Factors of Production Factors of production - The economys productive resources; Labor, Land, Capital, Entrepreneurial ability. Land - Natural resources used to produce goods and services. The return to land is rent. Labor - Time and effort that people devote to producing goods and services. The return to labour is wages. Capital - All the equipment, buildings, tools and other manufactured goods used to produce other goods and services. The return to capital is interest. Entrepreneurial ability - A special type of human resource that organizes the other three factors of production, makes business decisions, innovates, and bears business risk. Return to entrepreneurship is profit. Economic Coordination Markets - Coordinate individual decisions through price adjustments. Command mechanism - A method of determining what, how, when, and where goods and services are produced and who consumes them, using a hierarchical organization structure in which people carry out the instructions given to them. Market economy - An economy that uses a market coordinating mechanism. Command economy - An economy that relies on a command mechanism.

Mixed economy - An economy that relies on both markets and command mechanism. Production Possibility Frontier The quantities of goods and services that can be produced are limited by the available resources and by technology. That limit is described by the production possibility frontier. Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) - The boundary between those combinations of goods and services that can be produced and those that cannot. Production efficiency - When it is not possible to produce more of one good without producing less of some other good. Production efficiency occurs only at points on the PPF. Economic growth - Means pushing out the PPF. The two key factors that influence economic growth are technological progress and capital accumulation. Technological progress - The development of new and better ways of producing goods and services and the development of new goods. Capital accumulation - The growth of capital resources. Absolute Advantage - If by using the same quantities of inputs, one person can produce more of both goods than some one else can, that person is said to have an absolute advantage in the production of both goods. Comparative Advantage - A person has a comparative advantage in an activity if that person can perform the activity at a lower opportunity cost than anyone else. Law of Demand Demand curve - Shows the relationship between the quantity demanded of a good and its price, all other influences on consumers planned purchases remaining the same. Other things remaining the same, the higher the price of a good, the smaller is the quantity demanded. 1. Substitution effect 2. Income effect.

As the opportunity cost of a good increases, people buy less of that good and more of its substitutes. Faced with a high price and an unchanged income, the quantities demanded of at least some goods and services must be decreased. Substitute - A good that can be used in place of another good. Complement - A good that is used in conjunction with another good. Normal goods - Goods for which demand increases as income increases. Inferior goods - Goods for which demand decreases as income increases. If the price of a good changes but everything else remains the same, there is a movement along the demand curve. If the price of a good remains constant but some other influence on buyers plans changes, there is a

change in demand for the good. A movement along the demand curve shows a change in the quantity demanded and a shift of the demand curve shows a change in demand. Law of Supply Law of supply Other things remaining the same, the higher the price of a good, the greater is the quantity supplied. Supply of a good depends on: 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. The price of the good; The prices of factors of production; The price of other goods produced; Expected future prices; The number of suppliers; Technology.

Supply curve - Shows the relationship between the quantity supplied and the price of a good, everything else remaining the same. If the price of a good changes but everything else influencing suppliers planned sales remains constant, there is a movement along the supply curve. If the price of a good remains the same but another influence on suppliers planned sales changes, supply changes and there is a shift of the supply curve. A movement along the supply curve shows a change in the quantity supplied. The entire supply curve shows supply. A shift of the supply curve shows a change in supply. Equilibrium Equilibrium: A situation in which opposing forces balance each other. Equilibrium in a market occurs when the price is such that the opposing forces of the plans of buyers and sellers balance each other. The equilibrium price is the price at with the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied. The equilibrium quantity is the quantity bought and sold at the equilibrium price. When both demand and supply increase, the quantity increases. The price may increase, decrease, or remain constant. When both demand and supply decrease, the quantity decreases. The price may increase, decrease, or remain constant. When demand decreases and supply increases, the price falls. The quantity may increase, decrease, or remain constant. When demand increases and supply decreases, the price rises and the quantity increases, decreases, or remains constant. Elasticity

The total revenue from the sale of a good equals the price of the good multiplied by the quantity sold. An increase in price increases the revenue on each unit sold. But an increase in price also leads to a decrease in the quantity sold. Whether the total expenditure increases or decreases after a price hike, depends on the responsiveness of demand to the price. Price elasticity of demand A measure of the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good to a change in its price, other things remaining the same. It is the percentage change in demand divided by percentage change in price. Inelastic demand - If the percentage change in the quantity demanded is less than the percentage change in price, then the magnitude of the elasticity of demand is between zero and 1, and demand is said to be inelastic. If the quantity demanded remains constant when the price changes, then the elasticity of demand is zero and demand is said to be perfectly inelastic. Elastic demand - If elasticity is greater than 1, it is elastic. If the quantity demanded is indefinitely responsive to a price change, then the magnitude of the elasticity of demand is infinity, and demand is said to be perfectly elastic. When markets do not work Price ceiling - A regulation that makes it illegal to charge a price higher than a specified level. When a price ceiling is applied to rents in housing markets, it is called a rent ceiling. Black market - An illegal trading arrangement in which buyers and sellers do business at a price higher than legally imposed price ceiling. Minimum wage law - A regulation that makes hiring labor below a specified wage illegal. Externalities Social costs, but no private costs. Consumption & Utility A households consumption choices are determined by

Budget constraint Preferences

Utility - The benefit or satisfaction that a person gets from the consumption of a good or service. Total utility - The total benefit or satisfaction that a person gets from the consumption of goods and services. Marginal utility - The change in total utility resulting from a one-unit increase in the quantity of a good consumed. Consumer equilibrium - A situation in which a consumer has allocated his or her income in the way that, given the prices of goods and services, maximizes his or her total utility. Understanding Costs

Short run - Period of time in which the quantity of at least one input is fixed and the quantities of the other inputs can be varied. Long run - Period of time in which the quantities of all inputs can be varied. Inputs whose quantity can be varied in the short run are called variable inputs. Inputs whose quantity cannot be varied in the short run are called fixed inputs. Firms total cost - The sum of the costs of all the inputs it uses in production. Fixed cost -The cost of a fixed input. Variable cost - The cost of a variable input. Total fixed cost - The total cost of fixed inputs. Total variable cost - The cost of the variable inputs. Marginal cost - The increase in total cost for increasing output by one unit. Average fixed cost (AFC) - Total fixed cost per unit of output. Average variable cost (AVC) - Total variable cost per unit of output. Average total cost (ATC) - Total cost per unit of output. Long-run average cost curve - Traces the relationship between the lowest attainable average total cost and output when both capital and labor inputs can be varied. Economies of scale - As output increases, long-run average cost decreases. Diseconomies of scale - As output increases, long run average cost increases. Perfect Competition There are many firms, each selling an identical product. There are many buyers. There are no restrictions on entry into the industry. Firms in the industry have no advantage over potential new entrants. Firms and buyers are completely informed about the prices of the product of each firm in the industry. Firms in perfect competition are said to be price takers. A price taker is a firm that cannot influence the price of a good or service. Imperfect Competition Monopoly - An industry that produces a good or service for which no close substitute exists and in which there is one supplier that is protected from competition by a barrier preventing the entry of new firms. Price discrimination - The practice of charging some customers a lower price than others for an identical good or of charging an individual customer a lower price on a large purchase than on a small one, even though the cost of servicing all customers is the same. Monopolistic competition - A market structure in which a large number of firms compete with each other by making similar but slightly different products. Oligopoly - A market structure in which a small number of producers compete with each other.

Business Cycles Economic developments should be judged in the context of trends and cycles. Trends - The trend is the long-term rate of economic expansion. Cycles - The cycle reflects short-term fluctuations around the trend. There are always a few months or years when growth is above trend, followed by a period when the economy contracts or grows below trend. Long-term growth - In the long term the growth in economic output depends on the number of people working and output per worker. Output per worker grows through technical progress and investment in new plant, machinery and equipment. Investment and productivity are therefore the basis for continued and sustained economic expansion. Recession - A period during which real GDP decreases the growth rate of real GDP is negative for at least two successive quarters. Consumption expenditure - The amount spent on consumption goods and services. Saving is the amount of income remaining after meeting consumption expenditures. Savings What remains out of income after consuming. Capital - The plant, equipment, buildings, and inventories of raw materials and semi-finished goods that are used to produce other goods and services. The amount of capital in the economy is a crucial factor that influences GDP growth. Investment - The purchase of new plant, equipment, and buildings and the additions to inventory. Investment increases the stock of capital. Depreciation is the decrease in the stock of capital that results from wear and tear and the passage of time. Government Purchases - Governments buy goods and services, called government purchases, from firms. Net taxes - Taxes paid to governments minus transfer payments received from governments. Transfer payments - Cash transfers from governments to households and firms such as social security benefits, unemployment compensation, and subsidies. Measuring Economic Activity Total economic activity may be measured in three different but equivalent ways. Add up the value of all goods and services produced in a given period of time, such as one year. Money values may be imputed for services such as health care which do not change hands for cash. Since the output of one business (for example, steel) can be the input of another (for example, automobiles), double counting is avoided by combining only "value added", which for anyone activity is the total value of production less the cost of inputs such as raw materials and components valued elsewhere. A second approach is to add up the expenditure which takes place when the output is sold. Since all spending is received as incomes, a third option is to value producers' incomes.

Gross domestic product - GDP is the total of all economic activity in one country, regardless of who owns the productive assets. For example, Indias GDP includes the profits of a foreign firm located in India even if they are remitted to the firm's parent company in another country. Gross national product - GNP, is the total of incomes earned by residents of a country, regardless of where the assets are located. For example, Indias GNP includes profits from Indian-owned businesses located in other countries. Omissions in GDP Deliberate omissions: There are many things which are not in GDP, including the following.

Transfer payments - For example, social security and pensions. Gifts. For example, $10 from an aunt on your birthday. Unpaid and domestic activities. If you cut your grass or paint your house the value of this productive activity is not recorded in GDP, but it is if you pay someone to do it for you. Barter transactions. For example, the exchange of a sack of wheat for a can of petrol. Second-hand transactions. For example, the sale of a used car (where the production was recorded in an earlier year). Intermediate transactions. For example, a lump of metal may be sold several times, perhaps as ore, pig iron, part of a component and, finally, part of a washing machine (the metal is included in GDP once at the net total of the value added between the initial production of the ore and its final sale as a finished item). Leisure. An improved production process which creates the same output but gives more recreational time is recorded in the national accounts at exactly the same value as the old process. Depletion of resources. For example, oil production is recorded at sale price minus production costs and no allowance is made for the fact that an irreplaceable part of the nation's capital stock of resources has been consumed. Environmental costs. GDP figures do not distinguish between green and polluting industries. Allowance for non-profit-making and inefficient activities. The civil service and police force are valued according to expenditure on salaries, equipment, and so on (the appropriate price for these services might be judged to be very different if they were provided by private companies). Allowance for changes in quality. You can buy very different electronic goods for the same inflation-adjusted outlay than you could a few years ago, but GDP data do not take account of such technological improvements.

Unrecorded transactions GDP may under-record economic activity, not least because of the difficulties of keeping track of new small businesses and because of tax avoidance or evasion. Deliberately concealed transactions form the black, grey, hidden or shadow economy. This is largest at times when taxes are high and bureaucracy is heavy. Estimates of the size of the shadow economy

vary enormously. For example, differing studies put America's at 4-33%, Germany's at 3-28% and Britain's at 2-15%. What is agreed, though, is that among the industrial countries the shadow economy is largest in Italy, at perhaps one-third of GDP, followed by Spain, Belgium and Sweden, while the smallest black economies are in Japan and Switzerland at around 4% of GDP. The only industrial countries that adjust their GDP figures for the shadow economy are Italy and America and they may well underestimate its size. Expenditure The expenditure measure of GDP is obtained by adding up all spending: consumption (spending on items such as food and clothing) + investment (spending on houses, factories, and so on) = total domestic expenditure + exports of goods and services (foreigners' spending) = total final expenditure - imports of goods and services (spending abroad) = GDP Government consumption - The level of government spending reflects the role of the state. Government consumption is generally 10-20% of GDP, although it is higher in countries such as Denmark and Sweden where the state provides many services. Changes in government spending tend to reflect political decisions rather than market forces. Private consumption - This is also called personal consumption or consumer expenditure. It is generally the largest individual category of spending. In the industrialised countries, consumption is around 60% of GDP. The ratio is much higher in poor countries which invest less and consume more. Investment - Investment is perhaps the key structural component of spending since it lays down the basis for future production. It covers spending on factories, machinery, equipment, dwellings and inventories of raw materials and other items. Investment averages about 20% of GDP in the industrialised countries, but is nearer 30% of GDP in East Asian countries. Income The income measure of GDP is based on total incomes from production. It is essentially the total of: wages and salaries of employees; income from self-employment; trading profits of companies; trading surpluses of government corporations and enterprises; income from rents. These are known as factor incomes. GDP does not include transfer payments such as interest and dividends, pensions, or other social security benefits. The breakdown of incomes sheds additional light on economic behaviour because it is the counterpart to expenditure in what economists call the

circular flow of money. It also provides a useful basis for forecasting inflation. Unemployment Labour force or workforce - The number of people employed and self-employed plus those unemployed but ready and able to work. Three factors affect the size of the labour force: population, migration and the proportion participating in economic activity. Population. Birth rates in most industrial countries fell to replacement levels or lower in the 1980s. This implies an older workforce and higher old-age dependency rates (the number of retired people as a percentage of the population of working age) in the future. 15-20% of the population in industrial economies will be over 65 years of age. Developing countries have young populations with up to 50% under 15 years. This suggests an expanding working-age population with potential problems for housing and job creation. Migration. In the industrial countries inflows of foreign workers increased since the late 1980s and a substantial number of illegal immigrants were granted amnesty in America, France, Italy and Spain. Foreign-born persons account for over 5% of the labour force in America, Germany and France; around 20% in Switzerland and Canada; and over 25% in Australia. Inward migration may be a bonus for some economies. For example, German unification boosted that country's productive potential. However, large numbers of refugees seeking asylum can have significant adverse effects on income per head. Wealthier developing countries, especially oil producers, have large proportions of foreigners in their labour forces. Workers frequently make a substantial contribution to the balance of payments in their home countries by remitting savings from their salaries. Participation. Participation rates (the labour force as a percentage of the total population) generally increased in the 1980s and 1990s with earlier retirement for men, especially in France, Finland and the Netherlands, generally offset by more married women entering the labour force, especially in America, Australia, Britain, New Zealand and Scandinavia. Women account for a smaller proportion of the workforce in Muslim countries (20%) and a greater proportion in Africa (up to 50%) where they traditionally work on the land. The unemployment rate. Usually defined as unemployment as a percentage of the labour force (the employed plus the unemployed). National variations are rife: Germany excludes the self-employed from the labour force; Belgium produces two unemployment rates expressing unemployment as a percentage of both the total and the insured labour force. By changing the definition, which governments are inclined to do, the unemployment rate can be moved up or, more usually, down by several percentage points. The Balance Of Payments Accounting conventions- Balance of payments accounts record financial flows in a specific period such as one year. Financial inflows are treated as credits or positive entries. Outflows are debits or

negative entries. When a foreigner invests in the country, there is a capital inflow which is a credit entry. Conversely, the acquisition of a claim on another country is a negative or debit entry. Debits = credits. The accounts are double entry, that is, every transaction is entered twice. For example, the export of goods involves the receipt of cash (the credit) which represents a claim on another country (the debit). By definition, the balance of payments must balance. Debits must equal credits. Current = capital. One side of each transaction is treated as a current flow (such as a receipt of payment for an export). The other is a capital flow (such as the acquisition of a claim on another country). Arithmetically current flows must exactly equal capital flows. Balances The accounts build up in layers. Balances may be struck at each stage. What follows reflects the IMF'S methodology in the fifth edition of the

Balance of Payments Manual Net exports of goods (exports of goods less imports of goods) = the visible trade or merchandise trade balance + net exports of services (such as shipping and insurance) = the balance of trade in goods and services + net income (compensation of employees and investment income) + net current transfers (such as payments of international aid and workers' remittances) = the current-account balance (all the following entries form the capital and financial account) + net direct investment (such as building a factory overseas) + other net investment (such as portfolio investments in foreign equity markets) + net financial derivatives + other investment (including trade credit, loans, currency and deposits) + reserve assets (changes in official reserves), sometimes known as the bottom line = overall balance + net errors and omissions = zero Thus the current account covers trade in goods and services, income and transfers. Non-merchandise items are known as invisibles. All other flows are recorded in the capital and financial account. The capital part of the account includes capital transfers, such as debt forgiveness, and the acquisition and/or disposal of non-produced, non-financial assets such as patents. The financial part includes direct, portfolio and other investment. The balance of payments must balance. When we talk about a balance of payments deficit or surplus, we mean a deficit or surplus on one part of the accounts.

Fiscal Indicators Fiscal indicators are concerned with government revenue and expenditure. Level of government - Various problems of definition arise because of different treatment of financial transactions by central government, local authorities, publicly owned enterprises, and so on. In an attempt to standardise, international organisations such as the OECD focus on general government, which covers central and local authorities, separate social security funds where applicable, and province or state authorities in federations such as in North America, Australia, Germany, Spain and Switzerland. There is scope for manipulation, Spending can be shifted to publicly owned enterprises which are generally classified as being outside general government. Net lending to such enterprises is part of government spending, but it is not always included in headline expenditure figures. Classification Public spending may be classified in several different ways. By level of government: central and local authorities, state or provincial authorities for federations, social security funds and public corporations. By department: agriculture, defence, trade, and so on. By function: such as environmental services, which might be provided by more than one department. By economic category: current, capital, and so on. Breaking down the economic effect of public spending into current and capital spending is a useful way to interpret it. Current spending Major categories of current spending include the following. Pay of public-sector employees: this generally seems to rise faster than other current spending. Other current spending: on goods and services such as stationery, medicines, uniforms, and so on. Subsidies: on goods and services such as public housing and agricultural support. Social security: including benefits for sickness, old age, family allowances, and so on; social assistance grants and unfunded employee welfare benefits paid by general government. Interest on the national debt. Taxes Taxes can be Progressive or regressive Progressive taxes take a larger proportion of cash from the rich than from the poor, such as income tax where the marginal percentage rate of tax increases as income rises. Proportional taxes take the same percentage of everyone's income, wealth or expenditure, but the rich pay a larger amount in total. Regressive taxes take more from the poor. For example, a flat rate tax of Rs. 5000, takes a greater proportion of the income of a lower-paid worker than of a higher-paid worker.

Indirect taxes. Levied on goods and services, these include the following: Value-added tax (VAT) charged on the value added at each stage of production; this amounts to a single tax on the final sale price. Sales and turnover taxes which may be levied on every transaction (for example, wheat, flour, bread) and cumulate as a product is made. Customs duties on imports. Excise duties on home-produced goods, sometimes at penal rates to discourage activities such as smoking. Indirect taxes tend to be regressive, as poorer people spend a bigger slice of their income. They are charged at either flat or percentage rates. Budget deficits (spending exceeds revenues) boost total demand and output through a net injection into the circular flow of incomes. As with personal finances, a deficit on current spending may signal imprudence. However, a deficit to finance capital investment expenditure helps to lay the basis for future output and can be sustained so long as there are private or foreign savings willing to finance it in a non-inflationary way. Budget surpluses (revenues exceed expenditure) may be prudent if a government is building up a large surplus on its social security fund in order to meet an expected increase in its future pensions bill as the population ages. Tighter or looser. Fiscal policy is said to have tightened if a deficit is reduced or converted into a surplus or if a surplus is increased, after taking into account the effects of the economic cycle. A move in the opposite direction is called a loosening of fiscal policy.
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WEDNESDAY, NOVEMBER 30, 2011

Child Welfare Programmes

S.No. Child Welfare Year of Programmes Beginning Objectives/Description It is aimed at enhancing the health, nutrition and learning opportunities of infants, young children (O-6 years) and their mothers.

Integrated Child Development Services

1975

(ICDS) Creche Scheme for the children of 2006 working mothers Overall development of children, childhood protection, complete immunisation, awareness generation among parents on malnutrition, health and education. To provide quality Integrated and sustainable Primary Health Care services to the women in the reproductive age group and young children and special focus on family planning and Immunisation. To eradicate poliomyelitis (polio) in India by vaccinating all children under the age of five years against polio virus. All children in school, Education Guarantee Centre, Alternate School, ' Back-to-School' camp by 2003; all children complete five years of primary schooling by 2007 ; all children complete eight years of elementary schooling by 2010 ; focus on elementary education of satisfactory quality with emphasis on education for life ; bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by 2007 and at elementary education level by 2010 ; universal retention by 2010 To ensure access and quality education to the girls of disadvantaged groups of society by setting up residential schools with boarding facilities at elementary level. Improving the nutritional status of children in classes I VIII in Government, Local Body and Government aided schools, and EGS and AIE centres.Encouraging poor children, belonging to disadvantaged sections, to attend school more regularly and help them concentrate on classroom activities. Providing nutritional support to children of primary stage in droughtaffected areas during summer vacation. Provisions for shelter, nutrition, health care, sanitation and hygiene,

Reproductive and Child Health Programme

1951

Pulse Polio Immunization Programme

1995

Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

2001

Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya

2004

Mid-day meal Scheme

1995

Integrated 1993 programme for

Street Children

safe drinking water, education and recreational facilities and protection against abuse and exploitation to destitute and neglected street children.

The National Rural Health Mission

2005

Reduction in child and maternal mortality, universal access to public services for food and nutrition , sanitation and hygiene and universal access to public health care services with emphasis on services addressing women's and children's health universal immunization, etc.

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Anti Poverty Programmes

S.No. Anti Poverty Programmes Year of Beginning Objective/Description To make the poorest families of the village economically independent (only in Rajasthan) Assistance is given to the poor families living below the poverty line in rural areas for taking up self employment.

Antodaya Yojana 1977

Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar 1999 Yojana (SGSY)

Sampoorna Gramin Rozgar Yojana (SGRY)

2001

Providing gainful employment for the rural poor.

Employment Assurance Scheme

1993

To provide gainful employment during the lean agricultural season in manual work to all able bodied adults in rural areas who are in need and desirous of work, but can not find it.. Focus on village level development in 5 critical areas, i.e. primary health, primary

Pradhanmantri Gramodaya

2000

Yojana (PMGY)

education, housing, rural roads and drinking water and nutrition with the overall objective of improving the quality of life of people in rural areas. To provide legal guarantee for 100 days of wage employment to every household in the rural areas of the country each year, To combine the twin goals of providing employment and asset creation in rural areas It seeks to provide employment to the urban unemployed lying below poverty line and educate upto IX standard through encouraging the setting up of self employment ventures or provision of wage employment. It aims at providing food securities to poor families. To utilize black money for constructing low cost housing for the poor. All Round development of the rural poor through a program of asset endowment for self employment. To provide suitable opportunities of self employment to the women belonging to the rural families who are living below the poverty line.

National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS)

2006

Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana (SJRY)

1997

10

Antidaya Anna Yojana

2000

11

National Housing Bank Voluntary 1991 Deposit Scheme Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)

12

1980

13

Development of Women and Chidren in Rural Areas (DWCRA)

1982

14

National Social Assistance Programme Jan Shree Bima Yojana Jai Prakash Narayan Rojgar Guarantee Yojana Shiksha Sahyog Yojana

1995

To assist people living below the poverty line.

15

2000

Providing insurance security to people below poverty line.

16

Proposed in 2002-03 budget

Employment Guarantee in most poor districts.

17

2001

Education of Children below poverty line.

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SUNDAY, NOVEMBER 6, 2011

Reserve Bank of India

It is the Central Bank of the country. The Reserve Bank of India was established in 1935 with a capital of Rs. 5 crore. This capital of Rs. 5 crore was divided into 5 lakh equity shares of 100 each. In the beginning the ownership of almost all the share capital was with the non-government share holders. In order to prevent the centralisation of equity shares in hand of a few people The Reserve Bank of India was nationalised on January 1, 1949. The general administration and direction of RBI is managed by a Central Board of Directors consiting of 20 members which includes one Governor, four Deputy Governors, one Government Official appointed by the Union Government of India to give representation to important strata in economic life of the country besides four directors are nominated by the Union Government to represent local boards. Apart from the central board there are four local boards also and their head offices are situated in Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and New Delhi. Five members of local boards are appointed by the Union Government for a period of four years. The local boards work according to the instructions and orders given by Board of Directors, and from time to time they also tender useful advice on important matter. The office of RBI is in Mumbai. At present Dr. D. Subbarao is the Governor of Reserve Bank of India. Functions of Reserve Bank of India

1. Issue of Notes - The Reserve Bank has the monopoly of note issue in the country it has the sole right to issue currency notes of various denominations except one rupees notes. The Reserve

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

Bank act as a only source of legal tender money because the one rupee note issued by the Ministry of Finance are also circulated through it. The Reserve Bank has adopted the Minimum Reserve System for note issue. Since 1957, it maintains the gold and foreign reserve of Rs. 200 crore, of which at least Rs. 115 crore should be in gold. Banker to the Government - The second important function of the Reserve Bank of India is to act as the banker, agent, and adviser to the Government. It performs all the banking functions of the State and the Central Government and it also tenders useful advice to the Government on matters related to economic and monetary policy. It also manages the public debt for the Government. Bankers' Bank - The Reserve Bank performs the same function for the other banks ordinarily perform for their customers. It is not only banker to the commercial bank, but it is the lender of the last resort. Controller of Credit - The Reserve Bank undertakes the responsibility of controlling credit created by the commercial banks. To achieve this objective it makes extensive use of quantitative and qualitative techniques to control and regulate the credit effectively in the country. Custodian of Foreign Reserves - For the purpose of keeping the foreign exchange rates stable the Reserve Bank buy and sells the foreign currencies and also protect the country's foreign exchange funds. Other Functions - The bank performs a number of other developmental works. These works include the function of clearing house arranging credit for agriculture (which has been transferred to NABARD), collecting and publishing the economic data, buying and selling of Government Securities and Trade Bill, giving loans to the Government, buying and selling of valuable commodities etc. It also act as representative of Government in IMF and represents the membership of India.

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Securities and Exchange Board of India

Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was initially constituted on April 12, 1988 as a nonstatutory body through a resolution of Government for dealing with all matters relating to development and regulation of securities market and investor protection and to advice the Government on all these matters. SEBI was given statutory status and powers through an ordinance promulgated on January 30, 1992. The statutory powers and functions of SEBI were strengthened through the promulgation of the Securities Laws (Amendment) ordinance on January 25, 1995 which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament. In terms of this Act, SEBI has been vested with regulatory powers over corporate in the issuance of capital, the transfer of securities, and other related matters. Besides, SEBI has also been empowered to impose monetary penalties on capital market intermediaries and other participants for a range of violation. SEBI is managed by six members ~ one chairman (nominated by Central Government), two members (Officials of central ministries), one member from RBI, and remaining two members are also nominated by Central Government. The office of SEBI is situated in Mumbai with its regional offices in Kolkata, Delhi and Channai. In 1988 the initial capital of SEBI was 7.5 crore which was provided by its promoters (IDBI, ICICI, and IFCI). This amount was invested and its its interest amount day-to-day expenses of SEBI are met. All statutory powers for regulating Indian capital market are vested with SEBI itself. Functions of SEBI 1. To safeguard the interests of investors and to regulate capital market with suitable measures. 2. To regulate the business of stock exchanges and other securities market. 3. To regulate the working Stock Brokers, Sub-brokers, Share Transfer Agents, Trustees, Merchant Bankers, Underwriters, Portfolio Managers etc and also to make their registration. 4. To register and regulate collective investment plans of mutual funds. 5. To encourage self-regulatory organisation. 6. To eliminate malpractices of security markets.

7. To train the persons associated with security markets and also to encourage investors' education. 8. To check inside trading of securities. 9. To supervise the working of various organisations trading in security market and also to ensure systematic dealing. 10. To promote research and investigations for ensuring the attainment of above objectives.
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Finance Commission
Financial Commission is constituted to define financial relations between the Center and the States. Under the provision of Article 280 of the constitution, the President appoints a Financial Commission for the specific purpose of devolution of non-plan revenues resources. The functions of the commission are to make recommendations to the President in respect of: 1. The distribution of net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Union and the States and the allocation of share of such proceeds among the States. 2. The principles which should govern the payment of grant-in-aid by the Center to the States. 3. Any other matter concerning financial relations between the Center and the States. In above context so far 11 Financial Commissions have been appointed which are as follows:
Finance Commission I II III IV V Year of Establishment 1951 1956 1960 1964 1968 Chairman Operational Duration 1952-1957 1957-1962 1962-1966 1966-1969 1969-1974 1952 1956* and 1957 1961 1965 1968* and 1969 Year of Submitting Report

K.C.Niyogi K. Santhanam A. K. Chanda P. V. Rajamannar Mahavir Tyagi Brahma Nand Reddy J. M. Shellet Y.V. Chawan

VI

1972

1974-1979

1973

VII VIII

1977 1983

1979-1984 1984-1989

1978 1983* and 1984

IX X

1987 1992

N.K.P. Salve K.C. Pant

1989-1995 1995-2000

1989 Nov 26, 1994 Jan 15, 2000*; July 7, 2000 and Aug 31, 2000 Nov 30, 2004 Constitued in Nov 2007

XI

1998

A.M. Khusro

2000-2005

XII XIII

2003 2007

C. Rangarajan Vijay L. Kelkar

2005-2010 2010-2015

* Interim Report All the above 11 Commissions have submitted their report in the year mentioned above. The recommendation of the various commissions can be divided in three heads A. Division and distribution of income tax and other taxes. B. Grants-in-aids C. Loans to the state by the center
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G-8

G-7 was an organisation of seven non-socialist countries which were highly industrialised in the world G-7. included USA, Canada, Germany, Britain, France, Italy and Japan. After opting free market policies in the economy, Russia was also made member of the organisation on June 21, 1997. At present it is known as G-8.

The first G-7 summit was held at Rambonilet near Paris in November 1975. Initially only five industrialised countries - USA, UK, West Germany, France, and Japan were its members. Later on, Canada and Itlay also joined it in 1976. Currently G-8 countries include Britain, Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, Russia and United States. The member countries of G-8 account for a 49% of global export, 51% of industrial output and 49% of the assets in the International Monetary Fund. The 32nd annual summit of G-8 countries held between July 15-17, 2006 at St. Petersburg (Russia). Energy security topped the agenda of the G-8 summit along with education and fight against infectious diseases. The 33rd G-8 summit took place in Hellingendomm (Germany) between 6-8 June 2007. Five big developing countries India, China, Brazil, Mexico and South Africa were invited in this summit. The 34th G-8 summit took place in Tokyo on the northern island of Hokkaido, Japan from July 7-9, 2008. The 35th G8 summit took place in the city of L'Aquila, Abruzzo, Italy on July 8 10, 2009. The 36th G8 summit was held in Huntsville, Ontario in Canada, from June 25 to June 26, 2010. In this year's meeting, the G8 leaders agreed in reaffirming the group's essential and continuing role in international affairs and "assertions of new-found relevance." The form and function of the G8 was reevaluated as the G-20 summits evolved into the premier forum for discussing, planning and monitoring international economic cooperation. The 37th G8 summit was held between 2627 May 2011 in the commune of Deauville in France.

Group of 20 (G-20)

The finance ministers of G-7 countries in September 1999 established G-20 as an international forum to promote informal dialogue and cooperation among systematically important countries within the framework of Batton Woods institutional system with a view to preserving international financial stability. An important distinguishing characteristic of the G-20 from the G-7 is its broader participation from among both the industrialized countries as well as key emerging markets, thereby representing a wider range of view points. Members of the G-20 are: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Italy, Japan, Indonesia, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, United Kingdom, United States, and the chairman country of European Union. During the inaugural meeting of the G-20 held in Berlin during December 15-16, 1999, the group deliberated on various prerequisites for a sound international financial system and highlighted the importance of the following initiatives to avert global financial crisis.

1. Formulation of sound national economic and financial policies.

2. Strengthening of national balance sheet. 3. strengthening of sovereign debt management. 4. Greater attention to the impact of government policies on borrowing decisions of private firms. 5. Sustainable exchange rate regime supported by consistent exchange rate and monetary policy. 6. Widespread implementation of codes and standards including transparency, data dissemination, and financial sector policy. 7. Measures to strengthen domestic capacity, policies and institutions.

The group welcomed the work of Bretton Woods Institutions and other bodies in the area of codes and standards and agreed to undertake the completion of Reports on Observance of Standard & Codes and Financial Sector Assessments. The group affirmed its commitment to progress towards multilateral trade liberalisation within WTO framework.

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World Trade Organisation

The Uruguay round of GATT (1986-93) gave birth to World Trade Organisation. The members of the GATT signed on an agreement of Uruguay round in April 1994 in Morocco for establishing a new organisation named WTO. It was officially constituted on January 1, 1995 which took the place of GATT as an effective formal organisation. GATT was an informal organisation which regulated world trade since 1948. Like GATT, the headquarter of WTO is also in Geneva. Contrary to the temporary nature of GATT, WTO is a permanent organisation which has been established on the basis of an international treaty approved by participating countries. It achieved the international status like IMF and IBRD but it is not an agency of UNO.

WTO has a General Council for its administration which includes one permanent representative of each member nation. Generally, it has one meeting per month which is held in Geneva. The highest authority of policy making is WTO's Ministerial Conference which is held after every two years. The present strength of WTO membership is 151. this includes China and Nepal whose accession was approved by the WTO Ministerial Conference held in Doha and Cancun in November 2001 and September 2003 respectively. There are presently 30 countries in the process of accession to the WTO. Vietnam joined WTO as 150th member. Tonga is the 151st member of WTO. There are number of important committees for administration of WTO, out of which two committees play the pivotal role in WTO. They are : 1. Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) 2. Trade Policy Review Body (TRRB) DSP considers the complaints of member countries against violation of rules by any member country. This body appoints a group of experts to investigate into such complaints. This body meets twice a month for such cases. TPRB reviews the trade policy of member countries. The trade policy of all big trade powers of the world are reviewed after every 2 years. All the members of WTO are the members of TRPB. Other important bodies of WTO are: 1. Council for Trade in Goods 2. Council for Trade in Services 3. Council for Trade related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights Objectives of WTO 1. To improve standard of living of people in the member countries. 2. To ensure full employment and broad increase in effective demand. 3. To enlarge production and trade of goods. The above three objectives were also included in GATT, but WTO also included some other objectives which are : 4. To enlarge production and trade of services. 5. To ensure optimum utilisation of world resources. 6. To accept the concept of sustainable development. 7. To protect environment. Functions of WTO 1. To provide facilities for implementation, administration and operation of multilateral and bilateral agreements of the world trade.

2. To provide a platform to member countries to decide future strategies related to trade and tariff. 3. To administer the rules and processes related to dispute settlement. 4. To implement rules and provisions related to trade policy review mechanism. 5. To assist IMF and IBRD for establishment coherence in universal economic policy determination.
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International Monetary Fund

IMF is an international monetary organisation. It was established on December 27, 1945 in Washington on the recommendations of Bretton Woods Conference. But it started it's operation on March 1, 1947. At present 184 nations are members of the IMF. East Timor became the newest member in July 2002. In place of Dominique Strauss-Kahn, Christine Lagard has been made as new Managing Director of IMF on July 5, 2011. She is serving as 11th MD of IMF. Objective of IMF According to Article of Agreement of the IMF, its main objectives are as follows: 1. To promote international monetary co-operation 2. To ensure balanced international trade

3. To ensure exchange rate stability 4. To eliminate or to minimize exchange restrictions by promoting the system of multilateral payments 5. To grant economic assistance to member countries for eliminating the adverse imbalance in balance payments. 6. To minimize imbalance in quantum and duration of international trade Constitution, Membership and Capital of IMF IMF is controlled and managed by a board of Governors. Each member country nominates a Governor. All the nominated Governors make a board of governors. Each country also nominates an alternate Governor who casts his vote in absence of the Governor. Each Governor is allotted a number of votes which is determined by the quota allotted to respective country in the capital of IMF. Each Governor has got the right of 250 votes on the basis of membership and one additional vote for each SDR 1,00,000 of quota. The additional of these two types of votes becomes the actual voting right of the member country. For example, India's voting right is 250 + 30555 = 30805 because India's quota is SDR 30555 lakh. It clearly indicates that the voting right depends on the quantum of quota of a particular country with IMF. This is the reason why the rich and industrialised countries got the higher voting rights due to their higher quotas. with the IMF. The main source of IMF resources is the quota allotted to the member countries. Till 1971, all the amounts of quotas and the assistance provided were denominated in US dollar, but since December 1971, all the quotas and transactions are expressed in SDR (Special Drawing Right) which is also known as Paper Gold. In 1971, one SDR was assumed equivalent to 1 dollar but due to subsequent decline in dollar value SDR 1 became equivalent to $1.585 by the end of April 1995. Since January 1, 1981 the value of SDR is being determined by the basket of currency of 5 largest exporting member countries: US dollar, Deutsche Mark, Yen, Franc, and Pound Sterling. In 1991, the weight to these 5 currencies in SDR price determination was as follows:
American Dollar 40 % German Franc Japanese Yen British Pound French Franc 21 % 17 % 11 % 11 %

The currency value of SDR is determined by the IMF each day by summarising the value in US dollars, based on the market exchange rates of a basket of fine currencies. The IMF's financial year is from 1 May to 30 April. IMF lends to various member countries in the form of various facilities (Extended Fund Facility, Standby Facility, Contingent Credit Lines, Compensatory Facility etc.) designed to serve specific purpose, but essentially aimed at balance of payments stabilisation or meeting the emergent foreign exchange needs. The poor countries are also

helped by funding from Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility. As on June 2004, the IMF was lending to 13 members in the from of standby facility, to two members under Extended Arrangements and 38 poor countries under poverty Reduction and Growth Facility. The quota allotted by the IMF to each member has to be deposited partly in their own currency and remainder in form of foreign exchange. India's 11th Place in IMF General Quota After the review of IMF's General Quota, India's quota has been raised to 582.15 crore SDR from the existing level of 415.82 crore SDR. (at the time of increase time 1 SDR = $ 1.54 = Rs 69.48). This quota hike has raised India's vote share from 1.91% to 2.44%. India has been placed at 11th place in IMF's General Quota. USA remains in biggest quota holder despite its quota share coming down to 17.09%.
Country USA Japan Germany UK France China Quota 17.09% 6.13% 5.99% 4.94% 4.94% 3.72% Country Italy Saudi Arabia Canada Russia India Quota 3.25% 3.21% 2.93% 2.74% 2.44% -

India and IMF IMF has played an important role in Indian economy. IMF has provided economic assistance from time to time to India and has also provided appropriate consultancy in determination of various policies in the country. India is the founder member of IMF. The finance minster is ex-officio governor in IMF board of Governors. Till 1970, India was among the first five nation highest quota with IMF and due to this status India was allotted a permanent Place in executive Board of Directors. India participate in FTP of the IMF from 2002. 43 countries, including India now participate in FTP. By participation in FTP India is allowing IMF to encash its rupee holding as a part of our quota contribution for hard currency which is then lent to other member countries who are debtors to the IMF. From 2002 to Feb 2006, India has made purchases transactions of SDRs 493.23 million and four repurchase transaction amounting to SDRs 466.474 million. In July India and IMF joint training program at the National Institution of Bank Management, Pune was established. The training program will provide policy oriented training in economics and related operational fields to Indian officials and officials of countries in South Asia and East Africa. The first

training program was held during July 2006. The RBI is a nodal body to co-ordinate the training program with the IMF. Enhanced Structural Adjustment Facility (ESAF) was established in 1987 with an amount of SDR 6 billion to help the low income countries with heavy debt burdens in difficult external environment and implement comprehensive macro-economic and structural policy program aiming at strengthening their balance of payments position and fostering growth. India contributes as donations to Subsidy Account and made a commitment to provide grant contribution to the extent of US $ 1 million per year over 15 years for a total of US $ 15 million.
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United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)

UNO declared 1960-70 as the development decade. In 1961 UNO attempted to increase the income of developing countries with the growth rate of 5% p.a. during that development decade. In July 1960 a conference of developing countries was held at Cairo which resolved to convene a world conference for this purpose. Economic and Social Council of UNO organise a World Trade and Development Conference from March 31, 1964 to July 16, 1964. A worldwide International Trade Policy was determined in this conference. Various issues related to extension of international trade of developing countries were also discussed in that conference. The conference came to be known as UNCTAD-I.

Presently, UNCTAD has become a permanent organisation for promoting international trade with its head quarter at Geneva (Switzerland), Mr. Allec Irwin is its present Chairman. Generally, UNCTAD has its session after four years. IMF has got the permanent representation in all its bodies. This is reason why IMF includes all UNCTAD proposals in its policies. UNCTAD recommendations are only suggestions and no country can be compelled to accept them. The details of various UNCTAD are as follows:
UNCTAD I UNCTAD II UNCTAD III UNCTAD IV UNCTAD V UNCTAD VI UNCTAD VII UNCTAD VIII UNCTAD IX UNCTAD X UNCTAD XI UNCTAD XII Cairo New Delhi Santiago (Chile) Nairobi (Africa) Manila (Philippines) Belgrade (Yugoslavia) Geneva (Switzerland) Mar 31 - June 16, 1964 Feb - March 1968 April - May 1972 May 1976 May 7 - June 2, 1979 June 6 - July 3, 1983 1987

Cartegina DE Indias (Columbia) 1992 Midrand (Africa) Bangkok (Thailand) Sao-Paulo (Brazil) Accra (Ghana) April 27 - May 11, 1996 Feb 12 - Feb 19, 2000 June 13 - June 18, 2004 April 20 - April 25, 2008

Objectives of UNCTAD 1. To promote international trade specially with the view to accelerating the economic development of underdeveloped countries. 2. To determine policies and principles for international trade and economic development. 3. To propose the strategy for implementing pre-approved principles and policies. 4. To assist Economic and Social Council of the UNO. 5. To provide a suitable platform for trade dialogues. Members of UNCTAD Though UNCTAD is functioning as a permanent agency of the UNO, but its membership is fully optional. Any country may join or quit UNCTAD. The functioning of UNCTAD on democratic principles every member has only one voting right. For general disputes, simple majority among present members but two third majority is needed for important issues.

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Asian Development Bank (ADB)

ADB was established in Dec. 1966 on the recommendation of ECAFE (Economic Commission for Asia and Far East). The aim of this Bank is to accelerate economic and social development in Asia and Pacific region. The Bank started its functioning on January 1, 1967. The head office of the Bank is located at Manila, Philippines. It is worth mentioning here the Chairmanship of ADB is always allotted to a Japanese while its three Deputy Chairman belong to USA, Europe and Asia. At present, 63 nations are partner members of ADB. The principle functions of ADB are: 1. To make loans and equity investments for the economic and social advancement of its developing member countries. 2. To provide technical assistance for the preparation and execution of development projects and programs and advisory services. 3. To respond to the request for assistance in coordinating development policies and plans in developing member countries. Asian Development Bank constituted 'Asian Development Fund' in 1974, which provides loans to Asian countries on concessional interest rates. India started borrowing from ADB's Ordinary Capital Resources (OCR) in 1986.
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South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA)

The most significant aspect of the 12th SAARC Summit (Jan 4-6, 2004) at Islamabad, the capital city of Pakistan, was the signing of a historic Agreement on Free Trade. The leaders of India, Pakistan,

Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka have agreed upon to create a "South Asian Free Trade Area". SAFTA has come into force since January 1, 2006 replacing South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA) which was operative among SAARC countries since December 7, 1995. SAPTA was the success of 9th SAARC conference held in New Delhi in 1995 where this new concessional trade system SAPTA was approved. SAPTA was the factor which really opened all positive possibilities to to establish SAFTA. SAFTA presupposes abolition of all kind of trade and tariff restrictions. Ultimately it will pave the way for the creation of common market with common currency. Seven SAARC member countries agreed upon to reduce tariff between 0-5% by 2016. The SAFTA agreement allows any states to pull out of any treaty at any time.

Formation of sensitive lists. Outlining the products whose tariffs will not be reduced. Rules of origin. Revenue loss compensation mechanism for LDCs. (Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives and Nepal) by comparatively developed nations (India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka). An arbitration council or dispute settlement body. India and Pakistan will reduce their tariffs 0-5% level within 7 years, while Sri Lanka gets 8 years, and LDCs like Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives in 10 years. Each of the countries will create two sensitive lists, one of more developed countries and other for less developed countries. A SAFTA Ministerial council with membership of commerce/trade ministers. A committee of Exports for the administration and implementation of treaty. Removal of barriers to the intra-SAARC investment, harmonisation of custom facilities transit facilities for intra-SAARC trade and simplification of procedure for visa.

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International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

IBRD and its associate institutions a group are known as the World Bank. The Second World War damaged economies of the most of the countries particularly of those who were directly involved in the war. The global war had completely dislocated the multilateral trade and dislocated multilateral trade and had caused massive destruction of life and property. In 1945, it was realised to concentrate on reconstructing these war affected economies in a planned way. IBRD was established in December 1945 with the IMF on the basis of recommendation of Bretton Wood Conference. This is the reason why IMF and IBRD are called 'Bretton Wood Twins'. IBRD started functioning in June 1946. World Bank and IMF are complementary institutions. India is a member of four constituents of the World Bank Group i.e. IBRD, IDA, IFC, and MIGA (Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency) but not of its fifth institute ICSID (International Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes). Objective of World Bank According to the Clause I of the agreement made at he time of establishment of World Bank, it was assigned the following objectives: 1. To Provide long-run capital to member countries for economic reconstruction and development. World Bank provides capital mainly for following purposes (i) To rehabilitate war ruined economies (this objective is fully achieved) (ii) To finance productive efforts according to peace time requirement. (iii) To develop resources and production facilities in underdeveloped countries. 2. To induce long-run capital investment for assuring BOP equilibrium and balanced development of international trade. (This objective was adopted to increase increase the productivity of member countries and to improve economic condition and standard of living among them). 3. To promote capital investment in member countries in following ways: (i) To provide guarantee on private loans and capital investment.

(ii) If private capital is not available even after providing guarantee, then IBRD provides loans for productive activities in considered conditions. 4. To provide guarantee for loans granted to small and large units and other projects of member countries. 5. To ensure the implementation of development projects so as to bring about a smooth transference from a war-time to peace economy. IMF Vs. World Bank IMF and World Bank are Bretton Wood Twins. Both the institutions were established to promote international economic cooperation but a basic difference is found in the nature of economic assistance given by these two institutions. World Bank provides long term loans for balanced economic development, while IMF provides short-term loans to member countries for eliminating BOP disequilibrium. Both these institutions are complementary to each other. The eminent world economist George Schultz had suggested in American Economic Association Conference in January 1995, for the merger of IMF and World Bank. Membership of the World Bank and Voting Right Generally every member country of the IMF automatically becomes member of World Bank. Similarly, any country which quit IMF automatically expelled from the World Bank's membership. But under a certain provision a country leaving the membership of IMF can continue its membership with World Bank. If 75% member of the bank gives their vote in its favour. Any member country can be debarred from the membership of World Bank on following grounds:

1. Any member country can quit the bank simply by written notice to bank, but such country has to repay the granted loans on terms and conditions decided at the time of sanctioning the loan. 2. Any country working against the guidelines of bank can be debarred from membership by the board of governors. Like IMF, World Bank has also two types of members: 'founder members' and 'general members' the world bank has 30 founder members who attained membership by December 31, 1945. India is also among these founder members. The countries joining the World Bank after December 13, 1945 come under the category of general members. At present total membership of the World Bank is 182. The voting right of member country is determined on the basis of member country's share in the total capital of the bank. Each member has 240 votes plus one additional vote for each 1,00,000 shares of the capital stock held. Capital Resources of World Bank

The initial authorized capital of World Bank was $ 10,000 million, which was divided in 1 lakh share of $ 1 lakh each. The authorized capital of the bank has been increased from time to time with the approval of member countries. On June 30, 1996 the authorized capital of the bank was $ 188 billion out of which $ 180.6 billion (96% of total authorized capital) was issued to member country in the form of shares. Member countries repay the share amount to the world bank in following ways: 1. Two percent of allotted shares are repaid in Gold, USD or SDR. 2. Every member country is free to repay 18% of its capital share in its own currency. 3. The remaining 80% share is deposited by member country only on demand by the World Bank. Bank is managed by an elected President. On July 1, 2007, Robert B. Zoellick became the 11th President of the World Bank. The headquarter of World Bank is at Washington DC. IDA (established on Spetemeber 24, 1960) and IFC (established in July, 1956) are the tow main associate institutions of IBRD. These institutions work under the supervision of World Bank. MIGA is also an associate institution in the World Bank group. Banks Lending Operations IBRD gives loan to members in anyone or more of the following ways:

1. By granting or participating in direct loans but its own funds. 2. By granting loans out of the fund raised in the market of a member or otherwise borrowed by the bans and 3. By guaranteeing the whole or part loans made by private investors through the investment channels. Before a lone is made or guaranteed the bank ensure that the 1. Project fro which the loan is asked has been carefully examined by the competenet committee as regards the merits of the proposal. 2. Borrower has reasonable prospect for the repayment of loans. 3. The loan is meant for productive purposes and 4. Tthe loan is meant for reconstruction and development. Functions of the World Bank Presently, The World Bank is playing the main role of providing loans for development works to member countries, specially to under-developed countries. The World Bank provides long-term loans for various development projects of 5 to 20 years duration. The loaning system of the bank can be explained with the help of following points: 1. Bank can grant loans to a member country upto 20% of its share in paid up capital.

2. Bank also provides loan to private investors belonging to member countries on its own guarantee, but for this loan private investors have to seek prior permission from those countries where the amount will be collected. For such loans the consent of that country is also required whose currency is given in loans. For granting such guarantee, the Bank charges 1% to 2% as service charge. 3. The quantum of loans, interest rate and term and conditions are determined by the Bank itself. 4. Generally, Bank grants loan for a particular project duly submitted by the member country. 5. The debtor nation has to repay either in reserve currencies or in the currency in which the loan was sanctioned. Besides, granting loans for reconstruction and development, World Bank also provides various technical services to the member countries. For this purpose, the Bank has established 'The Economic Development Institute' and a Staff College in Washington. Appraisal of the World Bank Activities Bank has sanctioned 75% of its total loans to developing countries of Africa, Asia and Latin America while only 25% was given to developed nations of Europe. IFC, IDA and MIGA were established as the associate institutions of the World Bank in extending financial assistance to member countries. Besides, the Bank also tried its best to coordinate the functioning of nations granting loans to underdeveloped countries. In 1958, the Bank played an important role in establishing 'India Aid Club' for providing specific economic assistance to India. It has now been renamed as 'India Development Forum'. Such types of clubs and forums has also been established for other developing countries. The Bank has also established its mission in various developing countries for providing technical assistance for development project in these countries. The Bank also takes the guidance of experts of various international institutions like FAO, WHO, UNIDO, UNESCO for providing assistance for various projects related to agriculture, education and water supply.
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South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)

India, Maldives, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Nepal and Afghanistan constituted an organisation known as SAARC, on the recommendation of Dhaka Conference on December 7-8, 1985. Its headquarter has been established in Kathmandu. A conference of head of countries is held every year but conferences were generally delayed for the one reason or the other. The mutual misunderstanding among member nations have created a big question mark in achieving its objectives. The sixteenth summit was held in Thimpu, Bhutan on 2829 April 2010. Bhutan hosted the SAARC summit for the first time. This was marked the silver jubilee celebration of SAARC that was formed in Bangladesh in December 1985. Climate change was the central issue of the summit with summit's theme "Towards a Green and Happy South Asia". Outcome of Thimpu Summit regarding climate change issue:

SAARC leaders signed a SAARC Convention on Cooperation on Environment to tackle the problem of climate change. The SAARC nations also pledged to plant 10 million trees over the next 5 years. India proposed setting up of climate innovation centers in South Asia to develop sustainable energy technologies. India offered services of India's mission on sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem to the SAARC member states saying that the initiative could serve as a nucleus for regional cooperation in this vital area. India announced "India endowment for climate change" in South Asia to help member states meet their urgent adaption and capacity building needs posed by the climate change. The seven-page Thimphu Silver Jubilee Declaration-Towards a Green and Happy South Asia emphasised the importance of reducing dependence on high-carbon technologies for economic growth and hoped promotion of climate resilience will promote both development and poverty eradication in a sustainable manner.

Seventeenth SAARC Summit is to be held in Male, Maldives between 10-11 November 2011. The theme of 17th Summit has been declared as 'Building Bridges'. Building Bridges - both in terms of physical connectivity and figurative political dialogue. However, the notion of bridging differences would be represented as the overarching theme of the summit rather than any set diplomatic or development aims,
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SATURDAY, NOVEMBER 5, 2011

Sectorwise analysis of the budget 2011-12

The Union budget of India was presented in the Lok Sabha by the Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 28 February 2011. The Sectorwise analysis of the budget are as following: Agriculture and Allied Activities Agriculture development is central to the growth strategy of India. Measures taken during the current year have started attracting private investment in agriculture and agro-processing activities. This process has to be deepened further. Under the current Budget, 14362 crore rupees was allotted for this sector in the financial year 2011-12. Rural Development For rural development, 55438 crore was allocated by the budget for the year 2011-12. Infrastructure Infrastructure is critical for the development of India. For 2011-12, an allocation of over 214000 crore is being made for this sector, which is 23.3 per cent higher than 2010-11. This amounts to 48.5 per cent of the Gross Budgetary Support to plan expenditure. Education Over 70 per cent of Indians will be of working age in 2025. In this context, universalising access to secondary education, increasing the percentage of Indian scholars in higher education and providing skill training is necessary. For education, an allocation of 52057 crore, was proposed in the Current budget which is an increase of 24 per cent over 2010-11. Health

For health, the budget proposed to step up the plan allocations in 2011-12 by 20 percent to 26,760 crore.
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Government Plans and Schemes

Union Finance Minister of India, Pranab Mukherjee, presented the Budget of India in the Lok Sabha on 28 February 2011. All the major plans mentioned in the Budget including the old and the new ones are as following: Bharat Nirman For the year 2011-12, Bharat Nirman, which includes Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY), Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme, Rajiv Gandhi Grameen Vidyutikaran Yojna, Indira Awas Yojna, National Rural Drinking Water Programme and Rural telephony have together been allocated 58000 crore. This is an increase of 10000 crore from the current year. A Plan was also announced to provide Rural Broadband Connectivity to all 250000 Panchayats in the country in three years. Sarva Siksha Abhiyan The existing operational norms of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan have been revised to implement the right of children to free and compulsory education which has come into force with effect from 1 April 2010. For the year 2011-12, 21000 crore will be allocated which is 40 per cent higher than 15000 crore allocated in the Budget for 2010-11. A revised Centrally Sponsored Scheme Vocationalisation of Secondary Education will be implemented from 2011-12 to improve the employability of our youth. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) In pursuance of last years budget announcement to provide a real wage of 100 rupees per day, the Government has decided to index the wage rates notified under the MGNREGA to the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labour. The enhanced wage rates have been notified by the Ministry of Rural Development on 14 January 2011. From 1 April 2011 remuneration of Anganwadi workers increased from 1500 rupees per month to 3000 rupees per month and for Anganwadi helpers from 750 rupees per month to 1500 rupees per month.

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojna The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) has emerged as an effective instrument for providing a basic health cover to poor and marginal workers. It is now extended to MGNREGA beneficiaries, beedi workers and others. In 2011-12, it was proposed to further extend RSBY to cover unorganised sector workers in hazardous mining and associated industries like slate and slate pencil, dolomite, mica and asbestos etc. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana The total allocation of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) is increased from 6755 crore in 2010-11 to 7860 crore in 2011-12. Integrated Child Development Services Scheme The Anganwadi workers and Anganwadi helpers are the backbone of Integrated Child Development Services Scheme. An increase in the remuneration of Anganwadi workers from 1500 rupees per month to 3000 rupees per month and for Anganwadi helpers from 750 rupees per month to 1500 rupees per month was announced. This will be effective from April 1, 2011. Around 22 lakh Anganwadi workers and helpers will benefit from the increase. Swavalamban A subscriber under Swavalamban will be allowed exit at the age of 50 years instead of 60 years, or a minimum tenure of 20 years, whichever is later. Union Finance Minstry proposed to extend the benefit of Government contribution from three to five years for all subscribers of Swavalamban who enroll during 2010-11 and 2011-12. An estimated 20 lakh beneficiaries will join the scheme by March 2012.Swavalamban was launched in the Budget 2010-11. Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme Under Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme for BPL beneficiaries, the eligibility for pension is proposed to be reduced from 65 years at present to 60 years. Further, for those who are 80 years and above, the pension amount is being raised from 200 rupees at present to 500 rupees per month. Rajiv Awas Yojana To enhance credit worthiness of economically weaker sections and LIG households, a Mortgage Risk Guarantee Fund was announced to be created under Rajiv Awas Yojana. Scheduled Castes and Tribal Sub-plan In the Budget for 2011-12, for the first time, specific allocations are being earmarked towards Scheduled Castes Sub-plan and Tribal Sub-plan. These will be shown in the Budget of the relevant Ministries and Departments under separate minor heads of account. Further, the Budget allocation for primitive tribal groups was increased from 185 crore in 2010-11 to 244 crore in 2011-12.

National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles The Indian automobile market is the second fastest growing in the world and it has shown nearly 30 per cent growth in 2010-11. World over, substantial investments are being made in the field of hybrid and electric mobility. To provide green and clean transportation for the masses, National Mission for Hybrid and Electric Vehicles will be launched in the year 2011 in collaboration with all stakeholders.

INDIAN POLITY STUDY MATERIAL

The Republic of India is governed in terms of the Constitution, which was adopted by Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949 and came-into force on 26 January 1950.

The President of India is constitutional head of executive of the Union. Article 74(1) of the Constitution provides that there shall a Council of Minister with the Prime Minister as head to aid and advise President who shall in exercise of his functions act in accordance with such advice. Real executive power thus vests in Council of Ministers with Prime Minister as head. Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Similarly, in states, Governor is head of executive, but it is the Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as head in whom real executive power vests. Council of Ministers of a state is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly. The Constitution distributes legislative power between Parliament and state-legislatures and provides for vesting of residual powers in Parliament.

CITIZENSHIP

The Constitution of India provides for a single citizenship for the whole of India. Acquisition of Citizenship: The Citizenship Act, 1955 prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship.

1. By Birth: If he is born in India on or after 26 January, 1950 but before 30 June, 1987; or if he is born in India on or after 1 July 1987 but at the time of his birth either of his parents was a citizen of India. 2. By Descent: A person born outside India on or after 26 January, 1950, is a citizen of India by descent if at the time of his birth either of his parents was an Indian Citizen. But before person born outside India was entitled to Indian Citizenship only if his father (and not his mother) was an Indian Citizen. 3. By Registration 4. By Naturalisation: A foreigner can become an Indian citizen by naturalisation.

5. By Incorporation of Territory
LOSS OF CITIZENSHIP

By Renunciation: An Indian citizens who is also a citizen or national of another country, can renounce his Indian. Citizenship. By Termination: When an Indian Citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. By Deprivation: It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central Government.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

These are guaranteed in the Constitution in the form of six broad categories of Fundamental Right which are justiciable. Article 12 to 35 contained in Part III of the Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.

FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS
Category Provisions (a) Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14). (b) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15). (c) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16). (d) Abolition of untouchability (Article 17). (e) Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18). (a) Protection of six rights in respect of: (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii) association, (iv) movement, (v) residence, and (vi) profession (Article 19). (b) Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20). (c) Protection of life and personal liberty Article 21). (d) Right to elementary education (Article 2 IA). (e) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22). (a) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour (Article 23-24) (Article 23). (b) Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc. (Article 24) (a) (Article 25-28) Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion (Article 25) (b) Freedom to manage religious affairs (Article 26) (c) Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion (Article 27) (d) Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions (Article 28). (a) Protection of language, script and culture of minorities (Article 29). (b) Right ofminorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30). Right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights including the writs of (i) habeas corpus (ii) mandamus, (iii) prohibition, (iv) certiorari, and (v) quo warrento (Article 32)

1. Right to equality (Articles 14-18)

2. Right to freedom (Article 19-22)

3. Right against exploitation

4. Right to freedom of religion

5. Cultural and educational rights (Articles 29-30)

6. Right to constitutional remedies (Article 32)

FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES

By the 42nd Amendment of the Constitution, adopted in 1976, Fundamental Duties of the citizens have also been enumerated. Article 51 A contained in Part IV A of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties. According toArticle.51A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India.

(a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; (c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India; (d) to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so; (e) to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; (f) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; (g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures; (h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; (i) to safeguard public property and to abjure violence; (j) to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement. (k) to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years (This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002)
DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY

The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy which though not justiciable, are fundamental in governance of the country and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.

GANDHIAN PRINCIPLES

Article 40: State shall organize village panchayat as unit of self-government. Article 43: State shall try to promote cottage industries. Article 46: State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests at the weaker sections of the peoples: SC and ST. Article 47 State shall try to secure the improvement of public -health and the prohibition of intoxicating drinks and drugs. Article 48: State shall preserve and improve the breeds and prohibit the slaughter of cows, calves and other cows and drought cattle.

DIRECTIVES INSPIRED BY WESTERN LIBERAL IDEAS

Article 44 : to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. Article 45: Free compulsory and primary education for the children upto 14 years. Article 49 : to-protect and maintain places of - historic or a rustic interests.

Article 50 : to work towards separating the judiciary from the executive. Article 51: to. promote international peace and amity,maintain honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligation.

DIRECTIVES INSPIRED BY SOCIALISTIC IDEAS

Article 38: To promote the welfare of the people and to secure a just social order. Article 39: (1) To secure adequate livelihood for all citizens; (2) distribution of ownership and control of material resources of the community to serve common good; (3) an economic system which does not lead to concentration of wealth; (4) equal pay for equal work for both men and women; (5) health and strength of worker; (6) opportunity and facilities for children to develop in a healthy manner and be protected fromexploitation. Article 39A: Equal Justice and free legal aid. Article 41: To make effective provision for securing the right to work, right to education, right to public assistance in case of unemployment, old age sickness and disability Article 42: Asks for provision for just and human condition of work, and for maternity relief. Article 43: Living wage, etc., for workers. Article 43A: Participation of workers in management of industries. Article 45: Free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years.

IDEALS OF SOCIAL SECURITY

Right to work, to education and public assistance in certain cases (article 41). Recently the Supreme Court declared, in Mohini Jams Case that the right to education be equated with a fundamental right and it should be read with Article 22.This is because the right to life means a dignified life, which has nomeaning without education. Free and compulsory education for children upto 14 years. (Article 45) Promotion of educational and economic interests of the weaker sections. (Article 46) Raising the standard of living and improvement of health. (Article 47) Equal justice and free legal aid. (Article 39 A). Just and human conditions of work. (Article 42)

THE UNION EXECUTIVE

The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, Attorney General and the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as the -head to aid and advise the President.

PRESIDENT

The President is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the states in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The President must be a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age and qualified for election as member of the Lok Sabha. His term of office is five years and he is eligible for re-election. His removal from office is to be in accordance with procedure prescribed in Article 61 of the Constitution.

He may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice-President, resign his office. Executive power of the Union is vested in the President and is-exercised by him either.

ARTICLES RELATED TO PRESIDENT

Article No. Subject-matter

Article 52

The President of India

Article 53

Executive Power of the Union

Article 54

Election of President

Article 55

Manner of election of President -

Article 56

Term of office of President

Article 57

Eligibility for re-election

Article 58

Qualifications for election as President

Article 59

Conditions of President's office

Article 60

Oath or affirmation by the President

Article 61

Procedure for impeachment of the President

Article 62

Time of holding election to fill vacancy in the office of President

Article 65

Vice-President to act as President or to discharge his functions

Article 71

Matters relating to the election of President

Article 72

Power of President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases.

Article 74

Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.

Article 75

Other provisions as to ministers like appointment, term, salaries, etc.

Article 76

Attorney-General of India

Article 77

Conduct of business of the Government of India

Article 78

Duties of Prime Minister in respect to furnishing of information to the president, etc.

Article 85

Sessions of Parliament, propogation and discussion

Article 111

Assent to bills passed by the Parliament

Article 112

Union budget (annual financial statement)

Article 123

Power of President to promulgate ordinances

Article 143

Power of President to consult Supreme Court. directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the Constitution. Supreme command of defence forces of the Union also vests in him.

VICE-PRESIDENT

The Vice-President is-e1ected by members of an electoral college consisting of members of both House of Parliament in -accordance with the system of-proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. He must be a citizen of India, not Less than 35 year of age and eligible for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha. His term of office is five years and he is eligible re-e1ection. His removal from. office is to be in accordance with procedure prescribed in Article 67 b. The Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and acts as President when the latter is unable to discharge his functions due to absence, illness or any other cause or till the election of a new President (to be held within six months when a vacancy is caused by death, resignation removal or otherwise of President).

COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

There is a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President in exercise of his functions. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President who also appoints otherministers on the advice of Prime Minister. The Council is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of Council of Ministers relating to administration of affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation and information relating to them. The Council of Ministers comprises Ministers who are members of Cabinet, Ministers of State (independent charge), Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers.

LEGISLATURE

Legislature of the Union which is called Parliament , consists of President and two Houses, known as Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and House of the People (Lok Sabha). Each House has to meet within six months of its previous sitting.

RAJYA SABHA

The Constitution provides that the Rajya Sabha shall consist of-I2memberstofr,naminated by the President fromamongst person shaving special knowledge or practical experience in respect of such matters as literature, science, art and social service; and not more than 238 representatives of the States and of the Union Territories. Elections to the Rajya Sabha are indirect; members representing States are elected by elected members of Legislative assemblies of the States, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and those representing Union Territories are chosen in such manner as Parliament may by law prescribe. The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every second year. Rajya Sabha, at present has 244 seats. Of these 233 members represent the States and the Union Territories and 11 members are nominated by the President and one seat under nomination category is vacant.

COMPARISON BETWEEN COUNCIL OF MINISTERS AND CABINET

Council of Ministers 1. It is a wider body consisting of 60 to 70 ministers 2. It includes all the three categories of Ministers, that is, cabinet Ministers, Ministers-of state, and-deputy Ministers Cabinet It is a smaller body consisting of 15 to 20 ministers.

2. It includes the cabinet ministers only.

3. It does not meet, as a body, to transact government business It has no collective functions

3. It as a body, frequently and usually in a to deliberate and take decisions regarding the transaction of government business. Thus, it has collective functions. 4. It exercises, in practice, the powers of the council of ministers and acts for the latter. 5. It was inserted in 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitution a Amendment Act 6. It enforces the responsibility of the council of ministers to the Lower House of Parliament.

4. It is vested with all powers but in theory

5. It is a constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution 6. It is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the Parliament

LOK SABHA

The Lok Sabha is composed of representatives of people chosen by direct election on the basis of adult suffrage. The maximum strength of the House envisaged by the Constitution is now 552 (530 members to represent the States., 20members to represent the Union Territories and not more than twomembers of the Anglo-Indian community to be nominated by the President, if, in his opinion, that community is not adequately represented in the House). The Lok Sabha at present consists of 545 members. Of these, 530 members are directly elected from the States and 13 from Union Territories while two are nominated by the President to represent the Anglo-Indian community.

Following the Constitution 84th Amendment Act, 2001 the total number allocated to various States in the Lok Sabha on the basis of the 1971 census shall remain unaltered to be taken after the year 2026. The term of the Lok Sabha, unless dissolved earlier is five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. However, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, this periodmay be extended by Parliament by law for a period not exceeding one year at a time and not extending in any case, beyond a period ofsix months after Proclamation has ceased to operate. Fifteen Lok Sabhas have been constituted so far.

COMPARISON OF POSITION OF RAJYA SABHA WITH RESPECT TO LOK SABHA

Rajya Sabha has equal status with Lok Sabha in following matters: 1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills. 2. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment 3. Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure fromthe Consolidated Fund of India4. Election and impeachment of the president. 5. Election and removal of the vice-president. 6. Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court and High Courts, Chief Election Commissioner and comptroller and auditor general. 7. Approval of ordinances issued by the President. 8. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President. 9. Selection ofministers including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers including the Prime Minister can be members of either House. 10. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission, Comptroller and Auditor, etc. 11. Enlargement of the judiciary of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission. Rajya Sabha has unequal status with Lok Sabha in following matters: 1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. 2. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject aMoney Bill. It should return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. 3. The Lok Sabha can either accept or reject all or any of the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha. In both the cases, the money bill is deemed to have been passed by the two Houses. 4. A financial bill, not containing solely the matters of Article 110, also can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. 5. The final power to decide whether a particular bill is a Money Bill or not is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. 6. The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses. 7. The Lok Sabha with greater number wins the battle in a joint sitting except when the combined strength of the ruling party in both the Houses is less than that of the opposition parties.

8. Rajya Sabha can only discuss the budget but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha). 9. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha. 10. The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion.
SPECIAL POWERS OF RAJYA SABHA

It can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerai1tbeSt8te List (Article 249). It can authorise the Parliament to create newAll-India Services common to both theCentre and States (Article 312).

MEMBERSHIP OF PARLIAMENT

Qualifications

He must be a citizen of India. He must make and subscribe before the person authorized by the election commission an oath or affirmation according to the form prescribed in the Third Schedule. He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the Rajya Sabha and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the Lok Sabha. He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament. He must be registered as an elector for a parliamentary constituency in the concerned state or union territory in the case of the Rajya Sabha. He must be registered as an elector for some parliamentary constituency in India in the Case of the Lok Sabha. He must be a member of a scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in any state or union territory, if he wants to contest a seat reserved for them. However, a member of scheduled castes or scheduled tribes can also contest a seat not reserved for them.

Disqualifications

If-he holds any office of profit under the Union or State government. If he is of unsound mind and stands so declare by a court. If he is an undischarged insolvent. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement or allegiance to a foreign state; If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament. Parliament laid down the following additional disqualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951). He must not have been found guilty of certain election offences or corrupt practices in the elections. He must not have been convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for two or more years. But, the detention of a person under a preventive detention law is not a disqualification. He must not have failed to lodge an account of his election expenses within the time.

He must have any interest- in government contracts, works or services. He must not be a director or managingagent nor hold an office of profit in a corporation in which the government has at least 25 per cent share. He must not have been dismissed fromgovernment services for Corruption or disloyalty to the State. He must not have been convicted for promoting enmity between- different groups or for the. offence of bribery.

PARLIAMENTARY COMMITTEES

Their appointment, terms of office, functions and procedure of conducting business are also more or less similar and are regulated as per rules made by the two Houses under Article 118(1) of the Constitution. Broadly, Parliamentary Committees are of two kindsStanding Committees and ad hoc Committees. The former are elected or appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on, more or less, on a continuous basis. The latter are appointed on an ad hoc basis as need arises and they cease to exist as soon as they complete the task assigned to them. Among the Standing Committees the three Financial Committees Committees on Estimates, Public Accounts Committee and Public Undertakings constitute a distinct group as they keep an unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha. Estimates Committee: The Estimates Committee reports on what economies, improvements in Organisation, efficiency or administrative reform consistent with policy underlying the estimates may be effected. The origin of this committee can be traced to the Standing Financial Committee setup in 1921. First Estimates Committee in the post-independence era was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, the then Finance Minister. It also examines whether the money iswell laid out within limits of the policy implied in the estimates and suggests the form in which estimates shall be presented to Parliament. Public Accounts Committee: The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. It ensures that public money is spent in accordance with Parliaments decision and calls attention to cases of waste, extravagance, loss or nugatory expenditure. The committee was first setup in 1921, at present it consists of 22 members (l5fromLokSabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha). The Members are elected by the parliament every year by proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. The term of the office of members is one year. A minister cannot be elected as amember of committee. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker. Committee on Public Undertakings: The Committee on Public Undertakings examines reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General, if any. It also examines whether public undertakings

are being run efficiently and managed in accordance with sound business principles andprudent commercial practices. The Committee was created in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee. Originally it had 15members (l0 from the Lok Sabha and 5 from the Rajya Sabha). Besides these three Financial Committees the Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha recommended setting-up of 17 Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs). Accordingly, 17 department Related Standing Committees were set upon 8 April 1993. In July 2004, rules were amended to provide for the constitution of seven more such committees, thus raising the number of DRSCs from 17 to 24.

STANDING COMMITTEES OF PARLIAMENT AND THEIR FUNCTIONS.

Committee to Inquire:

(a) Committee on Petitions examines petitions on bills and on matters of general public interest and also entertains representations on matters concerning subjects in the Union List; and (b) Committee of Privileges examines any question of privilege referred to it by the House or Speaker! Chairman;

Committees to Scrutinise:

(a) Committee on Government Assurances keeps track of all the assurances, promises, undertakings, etc. (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation scrutinises and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, bye-laws, etc. (c) Committee on Papers Laid on the Table examines all papers laid on the table of the House by Ministers, other than statutory notifications and orders which come within the purview of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation, to see whether there has been compliance with the provisions f1te Constitution, Act, rule or regulation under which the paper has been laid;

Committees relating to the day-to-day business of the House:

(a) Business Advisory Committee recommends allocation of time for items of Government and other business to be brought before the Houses; (b) Committee on Private Members Bills and Resolutions of the Lok Sabha. (c) Rules Committee considers matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends amendments or additions to the Rules; (d) Committee on Absence of Members

Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Committees concerned with the provision facilities to members

(a) General Purposes Committee considers and advises Speaker! Chairman on matters concerning affairs of the House, which do not appropriately fall within the purview of any other Parliamentary Committee. (b) House Committee deals with residential accommodation and other amenities for members;

Joint Committee on Salaries and Allowances of Members of Parliament Joint Committee on Offices of Profit The Library Committee Committee on Empowerment ofWomen with members from both the Houses was constituted with a view to securing, among other things, status, dignity and equality for women in all fields; Ethics Committee: On 4 March 1997, the Ethics Committee-of the Rajya Sabha was constituted. The Ethic Committee of the Lok Sbha was constituted on 16 May 2000.

LEADERS OF OPPOSITION IN PARLIAMENT

In keeping with their important role, the Leaders of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sbha are accorded statutory recognition. Salary and other suitable facilities are extended to themthrough a separate legislation brought into force on 1 November1977.

YOUTH PARLIAMENT COMPETITION

In order to develop democratic ethos in the younger generation the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs conducts youth parliament Competition in various categories of schools and colleges! universities The youth par1iament Scheme was first introduced in the School in Delhi in 1966-67. Kendriya Vidyalayas located in and around Delhi were incorporated into the ongoing Scheme for Delhi Schools in 1978. Subsequently, as separate scheme of youth parliament for Kendriya Vidyalayas at the National Level was launched in 1988.

MATTERS UNDER RULE 377 AND SPECIAL MENTIONS

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs takes follow-up action on matters raised under Rule 377 of the Rules of Procedure and-Conduct of Business in Lok-Sabha and by way of Special Mentions in Rajya Sabha. Also after Question Hour in both the Houses of Parliament,Members raise matters of urgent public importance.

ADMINISTRATIVE SETUP

The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 are made by the President of India under Article 77 of the Constitution for the allocation of business of the Government of India. The Ministries/Departments of the Government are created by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister under these Rules.

CABINET SECRETARIAT

The Cabinet Secretariat is under the direct charge of the Prime Minister. The administrative head of the Secretariat is the Cabinet Secretary who is also the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board. In the Government of India (Allocation of Business Rules) 1961 Cabinet Secretariat finds a place

NATIONAL AUTHORITY, CHEMICAL WEAPONS CONVENTION

National Authority, Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) was set u b a resolution of Cabinet Secretariat dated 5, May 1997 to fulfill the obligations enunciated in the Chemical Weapons Convention initially signed by 130 countries in a in a conference which concluded on 14 January 1993 for the purpose prohibiting of the development, production, execution, transfer, use and stockpiling of all chemical weapons by Member-States is a non-discriminatory process.

ALL INDIA SERVICES

Prior to Independence, the Indian Civil Service (UCS) was the senior most amongst the Services of the Crown in India. Besides the ICS, there was also the Indian Police Service. A provision was made in Article 312 of the Constitution for creation of one ormore All India Services common to the Union and State. After the promulgation of the Constitution, a new All India Service, namely, the Indian Forest Service, was created in 1966. A common unique feature of the All India Services is that the members of these services are recruited by the Centre but their services are placed under various State cadres and they have the liability to serve both under the State and under the Centre. Of the three All India Services, namely, the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), the Indian Police Service (IPS) and the Indian Forest Service (IFS), the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension is he cadre controlling authority for the IAS and Minister of authority for the IPS andMinistry of Environment & Forest for IFS. The recruitment to all the three services is made by the UPSC. Administrative Reforms And Public Grievances Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) is the nodal agency of the Government for administrative reforms as well as redressal of public grievances relating to the States in general and grievances pertaining to Central Government agencies in particular. The Department disseminates information on important activities of the Government relating to administrative reforms, best practices and public grievance redressal through publications and documentation. The Department also undertakes activities in the field of international exchange and cooperation to promote public service reforms.

CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS REGARDING THE RECRUITMENT AND SERVICE CONDITIONS OF ALL INDIA AND CENTRAL SERVICES.

The Constitution of India makes the following provisions with regards to recruitment and service conditions of All-India and Central Services: Article 309 empowers the Parliament to regulate the recruitment and service conditions of persons appointed to Central Services and posts.

Article 310 provides that the members of All India Services and Central Services, and posts hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 311 provides that no member of-All India Services and Central Services and posts shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed. It further lays down that no such member shall be dismissed or removed or reduced to rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges. Article 312 authorises the Parliament to create new All-India Services (including an All-India Judicial Service) and regulate the recruitment and service conditions of persons appointed to these services. However they can be created by the Parliament only after the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by two-thirds majority saying that interest to do so.

ARTICLES RELATED TO UPSC

Article No. Article 315 Article 346 Article 317 Article 318 Article 319 Article 320 Article 321 Article 322 Article 323 Subject-Matter Public Service Commissions for the Union and for the States. Appointment and termof office of members. Removal and suspension of a member of a Public Service Commission Power to make regulations as to conditions of service of members and staff of the Commission. Prohibition as to the holding of office by members of commission on ceasing to be such members. Functions of Public Service Commission Power to extend functions of Public Service Commissions Expenses of Public Service Commissions Reports of Public Service Commissions

ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS

(i) Annual Conference of the Chief Secretaries of State governments / UTs - To institutionalize the process of interaction with State governments /UT administrations on issues that relate to individual States / UTs as well as issues of common concern, the first conference was organized on February 12, 2010. In the conference issues of science and technology and global issues impacting the government were also discusses. (ii) The Civil Services Day - To rededicate and recommit ourselves to the cause of the people, has been declared as Civil Services Day and is being celebrated every year since 2006. The Fifth Civil Services Day was organized by the Department on April 21, 2010 at Vigyan Bhavan. (iii)Conference of Secretaries of Administrative Reforms in State/UTs is held annually to share the experiences in the area of government reforms.

(iv) Regional Conferences on Administrative Reforms are held every year to disseminate and share best practices. (v) Administrative Reforms Commission
CENTRAL SECRETARIAT SERVICES

The Central Secretariat has three services, namely, Central Secretariat Service (CSS), Central Secretariat Stenographers Service (CSSS) and The Central Secretariat Clerical Service (CSCS).

UNION PUBLIC SER VICE COMMISSION

The Constitution provides for an independent body known as Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for recruitment to Group A and Group B Gazetted posts under Central Government and for advice in various service matters. The Chairman and members of the Commission are appointed by the President for a tenure of six years or till they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. To ensure independence, members who were at the service of Government at the time of appointment are deemed to have retired from Government service on their appointment in the Commission. The Chairman and members are also not eligible for further employment under the Government. They cannot be removed except for the reasons and in the manner provided for in the Constitution.

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION

Staff Selection Commission SSC) initially known as Subordinate Service Commission was set upon I July 1978. It has been entrusted with the work of making recruitment to

(i) all non-gezetted Group 'B' posts in the various Ministries/Departments of the Government and their Attached and Subordinate Offices which are in the pay scales of Rs 6,500- 10,500 and (ii) all non- echnical Group C posts in the various Ministries/ Departments of the Government and their attached and subordinate-offices, exempted excepts those which are specifically exempted from the purview of the Staff Selection Commission.

The Commission is an attached office of the Department of Personnel and Training and comprises of a Chairman, two Members and Secretary-cum-Controller of Examinations. The tenure of Chairman/Members is for five years or till they attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.

OFFICIAL LANGUAGE

Article 343 (ii of the Constitution provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall be the Official Language of the Union.

Article 343(2) also provided for continuing the use of English in official work of the Union for a period of 15 years (i.e. up to 25 January 1965) from the date of commencement of the Constitution. Article 343(3) Empowered the Parliament to provide by law for continued use of English for official purpose even after 25 January 1965. Accordingly, section 3(2) of the Official 1963 (amended in 1967) provides for continuing the use of English in official work even after 25 January 1965. The Act also lays down that both Hindi and English shall compulsorily be used for certain specified purposes such as Resolutions, General Orders, Rules, Notifications, Administrative and other Reports, Press Communiques; Administrative and other Reports and Official Papers to be laid before a House or the Houses of Parliament; Contracts, Agreements, Licences, Permits, Tender Notices and Forms of Tender, etc. In 1976 Official Language Rules were framed under the provisions of section 3(4) of the Official languages Act, 1963.

COMMITTEES/SAMITIS

A Committee of Parliament on Official Language was constituted in 1976 under section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963 to periodically review the progress in the use of Hindi as the Official Language of the Union and to submit a report to the President. The Kendriya Hindi Samiti was constituted in the year 1967. It is chaired by the Prime Minister It is the apex policy making body which lays down the guidelines for the propagation and progressive use of Hindi as Official Language of the Union.

TRAINING

The Kendriya Hindi Prashikshan Sansthan was established on 31 August 1985. The Central Translation Bureau was set up in March 1971 for translation having Headquarters in New Delhi.

POLICY

In compliance with the Official Language Resolution, 1968, an Annual Programme is prepared by the Department of Official Language in which targets are set for the offices of the Central Government with regard to originating correspondence, telegrams, telex, etc., in Hindi. A Quarterly Progress Report is called for from the offices of the Central Government regarding achievements vis-a-vis the said targets. An Annual Assessment Report is prepared on the basis of the Quarterly Progress Reports, which is laid on the Tables of both Houses of the Parliament and copies endorsed to State Government and the Ministries/Departments of the Central Government.

COMPTROLLER AND AUDITOR-GENERAL

Comptroller and Auditor-General is appointed by the President. Procedure and grounds for his removal from office are the same as for a Supreme Court Judge. He is not eligible for further office under the Union or a State Government after he ceases to hold his office.

The President on advice of Comptroller and Auditor-General prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union and states are to be kept. His reports on accounts of the Union and states are submitted to the President and respective governors which are placed before Parliament and state legislatures.

ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMS AND PUBLIC GRIEVANCES

Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions is the nodal personnel and administrative reforms agency in the country. It is headed, politically by the Prime Minister and administratively, by the Personnel Secretary. In 1985,, a new full-fledged Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensionswas created.With three separate departments i.e (a) Department of Personnel and Training; (b) Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances; (c) Department of Pensions and Pensioner's Welfare. The Various agencies which work under the administrative control of the Ministry are: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) Central Vigilance Commission (CV-C) Central Bureau of-Investigation (CBI) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) National Academy of Administration (NAA) Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) A Commission on Review of Administrative Laws was set up by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances on 8 May 1998 with a view to identify proposals for amendment of the existing laws, regulations and procedures having inter-sectoral impact and also for repeal of all dysfunctional laws. The Department set up a Second Administrative Reforms Commission AR in 2005 under the Chairmanship of Shri Veerappa Moily to prepare a detailed blueprint for revamping the pubic administrative system.

REPORTS OF SECOND ADMINISTRATIVE REFORMCOMMISSION

Civil Service Reforms Second ARC in its 10th Report in Nov. 2008 on the subject Refurbishing of Personal Administration has given various recommendation on Civil Services Reforms The recommendations include: (1) State of entry into Civil Services (2) Age of entry and number of attempts (3) Structure of Civil Services Examination (4) Othermodes of induction into Civil Services (5) Allotmen of cadres to All India Services. First Report of ARC - Right to Information: Master key to Good Governance 2nd report of ARC: - Unlocking Human Capital: Entitlements and Governance - a case study 3rd report ARC-crisis management 4th report ARC- Ethics in Governance 5th report of ARC-Public Order

6th report of ARC-Local Governance 7th Report - Capacity Building for Conflict Resolution 8th Report - Combating Terrorism 9th Report - Social Capital-A shared Destiny 10th Report - Scaling New Heights 11th Report - Promoting e-Governance: The SMART Way Forward 12th Report - Citizen Centric Administration 13th Report- Organisational structure of Gout of India 14th Report - Strengthening financial management systems 15 Report - State arid district administration

ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS

The enactment of Administrative Tribunal Act in 1985 opened a new chapter in the sphere of administering justice to the aggrieved government servants. Administrative Tribunals Act owes its origin to Article 323-A of the Constitution which empowers Central Government to set-up by an Act of Parliament, Administrative Tribunals for adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to the public service and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union and the States. As a result of the judgement dated 18 March1997 of the Supreme Court, the appeals against orders of an Administrative Tribunal shall lie before the Division Bench of the concerned High Court. The Administrative Tribunals exercise jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of the litigants covered by the Act. The Act provides for establishment of Central Administrative Tribunal CAT) and the State Administrative Tribunals. The CAT was set-upon I November 1985. Today, it has 17-regular benches, 15 of-which operate at the principal seats of High Courts and the remaining two at Jaipur and Lucknow.

INTER-STATE COUNCIL

In a federal polity, in view of large areas of common interest and Shared action between the constituent units, coordination of policies and their implementation is extremely important Article 263 of the Constitution envisages establishment of an institutional mechanism to facilitate coordination of policies and their implementation between the Union and the State Governments. In made by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State 4elations, the Inter-State. dated 28 May 1990. Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body and has been assigned the duties of investigating and discussing such subjects, in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest, for better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject. It also deliberates upon such other matters of general interests to the States as may be referred by the Chairman to the Council.

Prime Minister is Chairman of the Council. Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories having Legislative Assemblies, Administrators of Union Territories not having Legislative Assemblies, Governors of States under Presidents rule and six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union Council of Ministers, nominated by the Chairman of the Council, are members of the Council, Five Ministers of Cabinet rank nominated by the Chairman of the Council are permanent invites to the Council. The Inter-State Council has recently been reconstituted.

GOVERNOR

State executive consists of Governor and Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as its head. The Governor of a State is appointed by the President for a term of five years and holds office during his pleasure. Only Indian citizens above 35 years of age are eligible for appointment to this office. Executive power of the State is vested in Governor. Council of Ministers with Chief Minister as head, aids and advises Governor in exercise of his functions except in so far as he is by or under the Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. In respect of Nagaland, Governor has special responsibility under Article 37TA of the Constitution with respect to law and order. Similarly, in respect of Arunachal Pradesh, Governor has special responsibility under Article 371 H of the Constitution with respect to law and order and in discharge of his functions in relation thereto. Likewise, in the Sixth Schedule which applies to tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya. Tripura and - Mizoram as specified in para 20 of that Schedule, discretionary powers are given to Governor in matters relating to sharing of royalties between district council and stage government. Sixth Schedule vests additional discretionary powers in Governors of Mizoram Tripura in almost all Their functions (except approving regulations for levy of taxes and money lending by non-tribals by district councils) since December 1998. In Sikkim, Governor has been given special responsibility for peace and social and economic advancement of different sections of population.

COUNCIL OF MINISTERS

The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor who also appoints other ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to legislative assembly of the State.

LEGISLATURE

For every state, there is a legislature which consists of Governor and one House or, two Houses as the case may be. In Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, there are two Houses known as Legislative council and legislative assembly. In the remaining states, there is only one House known as legislative assembly.

Parliament may, by law, provide for abolition of an existing legislative council or for creation of one where it does not exist, if proposal is supported by a resolution of the legislative assembly concerned.

LEGISLATIVE COUNCIL

Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) of a state comprises not more than one-9f total number of members in legislative assembly of the state arid in no case less than 40 members (Legislative Council of Jammu and Kashmir has 36 members vide Section 50 of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir).

MANNER OF ELECTION

1. 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc. 2. 1/12 are e1cted by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state. 3. 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary school. 4. 1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from.
ARTICLES RELATED TO GOVERNOR
Article No. Article 153 Article 154 Article 155 Article 156 Article 157 Article 158 Article 159 Article 160 Subject-matter

Governors of States

Executive Power of State

Appointment of Governor

Term of Office of Governor

Qualifications for appointment as Governor

Conditions of Governors Office

Oath or Affirmation by the Governor

Discharge of the functions of the Governor in certain contingencies

Article 161 Article 162 Article 163 Article 164 Article 165 Article 166 Article 167 Article 174 Article 175 Article 176 Article 200 Article 201 Article 213 Article 217 Article 233 Article 234

Power of the Governor to grant pardons and others.

Extent of executive power of State

Council of ministers to aid and advise the Governor

Other provisions as to ministers like appointments, term, salaries, and others.

Advocate-General for the State.

Conduct of business of the Government of a state

Duties of the Chief Minister regarding furnishing of information to the Governor, and so on

Session of the state legislature, prorogation and dissolution.

Right of the Governor to address and send messages to the house or houses of the state legislature.

Special Address by the Governor.

Assent to bills (i.e. assent of the Governor to the bills passed by the state legislature).

Bills reserved by the Governor for consideration of the President.

Power of Governor to promulgate ordinances.

Governor being consulted by the President in the matter of the appointments of the judges of the High Courts.

Appointment of district judges by the Governor.

Appointments of persons (other than district judges) to the judicial service of the state by the Governor. amongst persons who are not members of the assembly, and

5. The remainder are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
LEGISLATIVE ASSEMBLY

Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) of a state consists of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members (Legislative Assembly of Sikkim has 32 members vide Article 371F of the Constitution) chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state.

RESERVATION OF BILLS

The Governor of a state may reserve any Bill for the consideration of the President. Bills relating to subjects -like compulsory acquisition of property, measures affecting powers and position of High Courts and imposition of taxes on storage, distribution and sale ofwater or electricity in inter- tate river or river valley development projects should necessarily be so reserved. No Bills seeking to impose restrictions on interstate trade can be introduced in a state legislature without previous sanction of the President.

UNION TERRITORIES

Union Territories are administrated by the President acting to such extent, as he thinks fit, through an Administrator appointed by him.

ADMINISTRATIVE-SYSTEMOF UNION TERRITORIES

Union Territories Executive ----Legislature Judiciary Under Calcutta High Court Under Punjab and Haryana High Court Under Bombay High Court Under Bombay High Court

1 Andaman and Nicobar Island Lt. Governor 2. Chandigarh 3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli 4. Daman and Diu Chief Commissioner Administrator Administrator

5. Delhi

(a) Lt. Governor (b) Chief Minister Legislative Assembly Separate High Court Court (c) (Council of Ministers) Administrator (a) Lt. Governor (b) Chief Minister (c) Council of Ministers -Under Kerala High

6. Lakshadweep

7. Pondicherry

Legislative Assembly Under Madras High Court

MUNICIPALITIES

The first such Municipal Corporation was set-up in the former Presidency Town of Madras in 1688; and was followed by similar corporations in the then Bombay and Calcutta in 1726. While the Directive Principles of State Policy refer to village Panchayats, there is no specific reference to Municipalities except the implicitly in Entry 5 of the State List, which places the subject of local self-governments as a responsibility of the states. In order to provide for a common framework for urban local bodies and help to strengthen the functioning of the bodies as effective democratic units of self-government, Parliament enacted the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, 1992 (known-as Nagarpalika Act) relating to municipalities in 1992. The Act received the assent of the President on 20 April 1993. The Government of India notified 1 June 1993 as the date from which the said Act came into force. A new part IX-A relating to the Municipalities has been incorporated in the Constitution to provide for among other things, constitution of three types of Municipalities, i.e., Nagar Panchayats for areas in transition from a rural area to urban area, Municipal Councils for smaller urban areas and Municipal Corporation for large urban areas. In twelfth schedule 18 items are places within the purview of the municipalities. Some of important items are as follows: Urban Planning including town planning. Planning for economic and social development . Roads and bridges. Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes. Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management. Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects. Urbanpoverty alleviation. Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths.

ARTICLES RELATED TO MUNICIPALITIES

Article No. Article 243P Article 243Q Article 243R Definitions Constitution of municipalities Composition of municipalities Constitution and composition ofwards committees, and so on Reservation of seats Duration ofmunicipalities, and so on Disqualifications for membership Subject-matter

Article 243S

Article 243T Article 243U Article 243V

Article 243W

Powers, authority and responsibilities of municipalities, and so on Powers to impose taxes by, and funds of, the municipalities Finance Commission Audit of accounts of municipalities

Article 243X

Article 243Y Article 243Z

Article 243ZAArticle 243ZB Election to the municipalitiesApplication to union territories Article 243ZC Article 243Z-D Article 243ZE Article 243ZF Article 243ZG Part not to apply to certain areas Committee for district planning Committee formetropolitan planning Continuance of exiting laws and municipalities Bar to inference bycourts in electoral matters

PANCHAYATS

Article 40 of the Constitution which enshrines one of the Directive Principles of State Policy lays down that the State shall take steps to organise village panchayats and endow them with such powers and, authority as may be necessary to- enable them to function as units of self government. In the light of the above a new Part IX relating to the Panchayats has been inserted in the Constitution to provifor among other things: direct elections to all seats in Panchayats at the village and intermediate level, if any, and to the offices of Chairpersons of Panchayats at such levels; reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population for membership of Panchayats and office of Chairpersons in Panchayats at each level; reservation of not less than one-third of the seats for women; and fixing tenure of five years for Panchayats and holding elections within a period of six months in the event of supersession of any Panchayat. In eleventh schedule 29 items are places within the purview of the panchayats. Some of important items are as follows: Agriculture, including agricultural extension Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development. Social forestry and farm forestry. Small-scale industries, including food processing, industries.

Drinking Water. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity. Non-conventional energy sources. Poverty alleviation programme. Education, including primary and secondary schools. Technical training and vocational education. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries. Public distribution system.

ELECTION COMMISSION

Since its inception in 1954) and till October 1989, the Commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner. On 16 October 1989 the President appointed two more Election Commissioners on the eve of the General Election to the House of the People held in November-December 1989. However, the said two Commissioners ceased to hold office on 1 January 1990 when those two posts of Election Commissioners were abolished. Again on 1 October 1993, the President appointed two more Election Commissioners. Simultaneously, the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Act, 1991 was amended to provide that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners will enjoy equal powers and will receive equal salary, allowancesand other perquisites as payable to a judge of the Supreme Court of India.

ARTICLES RELATED TO PANCHAYAT

Article No. Article 243 Article 243A Article 243B Definitions Gram Sabha Constitution of Panchayats Subject-matter

Article 243C Composition of Panchayats Article 243D Reservation of Seats Article 243E Article 243F Duration of Panchayats, and so on Disqualifications for membership

Article 243G Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats Article 243H Powers to impose taxes by, and funds of, the panchayats Article 2431 Constitution of finance commission to review financial position

Article 243J Article 243K Article 243L

Audit of accounts of panchayats Elections to the panchayats Application to union territories

Article 243M Part not to apply to certain areas Article 243N Continuance of existing laws and panchayats Article 243O Bar to interfere by courts in electoral mateers

RIGHT TO INFORMATION ACTS IN STATES

State 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Goa 3. Rajasthan 4. Kamataka 5. Delhi 6. Maharashtra* 7. Assam 8. Madhya Pradesh 9. Jammu & Kashmir 1997 1997 2000 2000 2001 2002 2002 2003 2004 Year of Enactment

*Maharashtra repealed its earlier Right to Information Act of 2000 to bring out an improved one in 2002

The Act further provided that in case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other Election Commissioners, the matterwill be decided by the Commission by majority. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation fromexecutive interference is ensured by a specific provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution that the Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court and conditions of his service shall not be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment. The other Election Commissioners cannot be removed from office except on recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners is six years fromthe date he/she assumes office or till the day he/she attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

AMENDMENTS

The Parliament-on-22-March 2003 enacted the Election Laws (Amendment) Act, 2003 and Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules, 2003 which came into force with effect from 22 September 2003. This Act also amended Section 77(1) regarding maintenance of election expenses by candidates whereby expenditure incurred by specified number of leaders of a political party on account of travel by air or by any othermeans of transport for propagating programme of the political party alone shall be exempted from being included in the account of election expenses incurred by the candidate in connection with the election. The Parliament on 1 January 2004 enacted the Delimitation (Amendment) Act, 2003 whereby Section 4 of the Principal Act was amended provide that the Delimitation will be held on the basis of the 2001 Census figures. Parliament on 28 August 2003 enacted the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2003 whereby open ballot system was introduced at elections to the Council of States. In this system an elector who belongs to a political party is required to show the ballot paper after marking his vote to an authorised agent of that political party. The requirement that a candidate contesting an election to the Council of States from a particular State should be an elector in that particular State was also dispensed with.

ELECTORAL REFORMS

In C.W.P. No. 4912 of 1998 (Kushra Bharat Vs. Union of India and Others), the Delhi High Court directed that information relating to government dues owed by candidates to the departments dealing with Government accommodation, electricity, water, telephone and transport (including aircrafts and helicopters) and any other dues should be furnished by the candidates and this information should be published by the election authorities under the Commission in at least two newspapers having local circulation, for information of electors.

RIGHT TO INFORMATION

In 2005, the Parliament has enacted a new legislation - the Right to Information Act (2005). This new Act replaces the old Freedom of Information Act, 2002, which was unnotified and hence, not operational. The newlegislation confers on all citizens the right of access to the information and, correspondingly, makes the dissemination of such information an obligation on all public authorities. It aims at promoting transparency and accountability in the working of every public authority It has the widest possible reach covering Central Government, state governments, panchayati raj institutions, local bodies and recipients of government grants. Some important provisions are mentioned below: It fixes a 30-day deadline for providing information; deadline is 48 hours if information concerns life or liberty of a person.

Information will be free for people below poverty line. For others, fee will be reasonable. It provides for the establishment of a Central Information Commission and State Information Commissions to implement the provisions of the Act. They will be independent high-level bodies to act as appellate authorities and vested with the powers of a civil court. The President will appoint a Chief Information Commissioner and governors of state will appoint state information commissioners. Their term will be five years. The Act overrides the Official Secrets Act, 1923. The information commissions can allow access to the information if public interest outweighs harm to protected persons. Its purview does not extend to intelligence and security organizations like Intelligence Bureau RAW- BSF,-CISF, NSG and so-on. However, information pertaining to allegations of corruption or violation of human rights by these organisations will not be excluded.

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SUNDAY, OCTOBER 9, 2011

INDIAN POLITY PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency (A) 44th Amendment Act (B) 46th Amendment Act (C) 45th Amendment Act (D) 48th Amendment Act 2. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened (A) Prime Minister (B) Home Minister

(C) President of India (D) Vice-President of India 3. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject (A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence (C) Protection of life and personal liberty (D) None of the above 4. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject (A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, (B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence (C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (D) Protection of life and personal liberty 5. Who declares the financial emergency (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Finance Minister (D) None of the above 6. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament (A) Three Months (B) Four Months (C) Two Months (D) One Month 7. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President (A) Six Months (B) Two Months (C) Three Months (D) Four Months 8. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction (A) Central Government Employees (B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts (C) A & B (D) None of the above

9. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution (A) President (B) Governor (C) A & B (D) None of the above 10. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors (A) President & Governors are above the law (B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution (C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister (D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office 11. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted (A) 7th Amendment Act 1956 (B) 4th Amendment Act 1955 (C) 6th Amendment Act 1956 (D) 10th Amendment Act 1961 12. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act (A) Article 362 (B) Article 363 (C) Article 368 (D) Article 361 13. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court (A) Article 361 (B) Article 362 (C) Article 368 (D) Article 369 14. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council (A) 361 (B) 361A

(C) 361B (C) 361C 15. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published (A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged (B) It must be a report as distinguished from one article or `Comment'. (C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice (D) All of the above 16. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution (A) Treaty, Agrrement (B) Covenant, Engagement (C) Sanad (D) All of the above 17. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution (A) Any territory recognised by President of India (B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler (C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised (D) B & C 18. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State (A) 26th Amendment Act 1971 (B) 24th Amendment Act 1971 (C) 16th Amendment Act 1963 (D) 17th Amendment Act 1964 19. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished (A) 36th Amendment Act 1975 (B) 26th Amendment Act 1971 (C) 16th Amendment Act 1963 (D) 17th Amendment Act 1964 20. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution (A) Article 368

(B) Article 362 (C) Article 365 (D) Article 367 21. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion (A) President (B) Prime Minister (C) Home Minister (D) Supreme Court 22. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments (A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister (B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister (C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution (D) All of the above 23. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution (A) Federal State (B) Commonwealth State (C) Nation (D) Any State other than India 24. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal (A) Article 323A (B) Article 233B (C) Article 223B (D) None of the above 25. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined (A) Part Four (B) Part Seven (C) Part Fifteen (D) Part Ten 26. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha (A) 15 Days

(B) 18 Days (C) 16 Days (D) 14 Days 27. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration (A) Speaker (B) Deputy Speaker (C) A & B (D) None of the above 28. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned (A) 97 (B) 96 (C) 95 (D) 94 29. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament (A) 99 (B) 100 (C) A & B (D) None of the above 30. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission (A) President (B) Speaker of Lok Sabha (C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (D) Prime Minister 31. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament (A) Speaker (B) Chairman (C) A & B (D) None of the above 32. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament. (A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill

(B) When the House passes such a resolution (C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No (D) All the above 33. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament (A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House (B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House (C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House (D) one-half of the total number of members of that House 34. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament (A) Article 101 to Article 104 (B) Article 101 to Articles 105 (C) Article 102 to Article 106 (D) Article 106 to Article 110 35. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter (A) Railway Budget (B) Defence Budget (C) Foreign affairs (D) Financial Bill 36. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold (A) Budget session (B) Monsoon session (C) Winter session (D) All the above 37. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament (A) First session (Budget) (B) Second session (Monsoon) (C) Third session (Winter) (D) None of the above 38. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented (A) Monsoon session (B) First session (C) Winter session (D) None of the above

39. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure (A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter (B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter (C) Member wants to raise complicated issue (D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences. 40. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House (A) Prime Minister (B) Home Minister (C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha (D) All the above 41. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha (B) President (C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister (D) Prime Minister 42. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (A) Minister (B) Deputy Speaker (C) Prime Minister (D) Member of the said House 43. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act (A) First Reading (B) Second Reading (C) Third Reading (D) All the above 44. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name (A) Law (B) Bill approved (C) Bill exercised for administration (D) Government procedure 45. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting

(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament (B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha (C) Council of State and Legislative Council (D) None of the above 46. When does the President assent the Bill (A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill (B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill (C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill (D) None of the above 47. In India, when does the financial year commence (A) First April (B) Second April (C) First March (D) Fifteenth March 48. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way (A) Prime Minister (B) Finance Minister (C) Ministry wise (D) All the above 49. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha (A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four 50. How are the parts of the Budget known as (A) General Budget (B) Railway Budget (C) A & B (D) None of the above 51. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission (A) M. S. Gill (B) G. V. Krishnamurthy

(C) A & B (D) None of the above 52. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist (A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Legislature (D) All the above 53. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted (A) Adult Suffrage (B) Indirect Election (C) Direct Election (D) None of the above 54. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote (A) 60th Amendment Act 1988 (B) 61st Amendment Act 1989 (C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989 (D) None of the above 55. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election (A) 23 (B) 24 (C) 21 (D) 22 56. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter (A) Non Resident (B) Unsoundness of Mind (C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive (D) All the above 57. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter (A) Article 328 (B) Article 339 (C) Article 326

(D) Article 295 58. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament (A) Article 81 (B) Article 80 (C) Article 83 (D) Article 84 59. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature (A) Article 173 (B) Article 175 (C) Article 177 (D) Article 178 60. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify (A) Children (B) Persons (C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above (D) None of the above 61. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature (A) Parliament (B) Judiciary (C) Government (D) Election Commission 62. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court (A) Delimitation of Constituencies (B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency (C) A & B (D) None of the above 63. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature (A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)

(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition) (C) Action under Article 32 (D) Election Petition 64. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha (A) Article 330 (B) Article 332 (C) Article 333 (D) Article 334 65. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People (A) Article 334 (B) Article 331 (C) Article 332 (D) Article 333 66. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1 67. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes (A) Assam (B) Andhra Pradesh (C) Karnataka (D) Kerala 68. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly (A) Article 334 (B) Article 335 (C) Article 336 (D) Article 333 69. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by

the Governor in the Legislative Assembly (A) 8 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3 70. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down (A) 31st Amendment Act 1959 (B) 23rd Amendment Act (C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989 (D) All the above 71. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature (A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969 (B) 8th Amendment Act 1959 (C) 44th Amendment Act 1978 (D) 45th Amendment Act 1980 72. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly (A) 45th Amendment Act 1980 (B) 50th Amendment Act 1984 (C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969 (D) 51st Amendment Act 1984 73. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly. (A) 55th Amendment Act 1986 (B) 56th Amendment Act 1987 (C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985 (D) 45th Amendment Act 1980 74. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly (A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989 (B) 44th Amendment Act 1928 (C) 45th Amendment Act 1980

(D) None of the above 75. Which Constitutional Article mentions Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post (A) Article 336 (B) Article 335 (B) Article 338 (D) Article 339 76. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill (A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member (B) Bill approved by the Government (C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill (D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament 77. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill (A) A general discussion on the Bill (B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill (C) A & B (D) None of the above 78. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament (A) Prime Minister (B) President (C) Member of Lok Sabha (D) Member of Rajya Sabha 79. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament (A) President (B) Member of the House (C) Minister (D) None of the above 80. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent (A) Defence Bill (B) Money Bill (C) Law Bill (D) Financial Account Committee Bill

81. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha (A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 15 (D) 18 82. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are (A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges (B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates (C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table (D) All the above 83. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are (A) Committee on Estimates (B) Public Accounts Committee (C) Public Undertaking Committee (D) All the above 84. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are (A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc. (B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills (D) All the above 85. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament (A) Speaker of Lok Sabha (B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha (C) A & B (D) None of the above 86. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution (A) Elected through Member of Legislature (B) Elected by the People (C) Elected by State Legislatures (D) Elected by an Electoral College 87. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution (A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign

(B) Written Constitution of India (C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ (D) All the above 88. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change (A) Prime Minister (B) Parliament (C) Supreme Court of India (D) Government 89. What is the nature of India's political system (A) Presidential System (B) Parliamentary System (C) A & B (D) None of the above 90. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala (A) Article 352 (B) Article 368 (C) Article 351 (D) Article 342 91. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India (A) Article 368 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 357 (D) Article 359 92. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India (A) Judiciary (B) Executive (C) Legislative (D) Parliament 93. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature (A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI (B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament

(C) The Provisions of Article 368 (D) All the above 94. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time (A) 25th Amendment Act (B) 26th Amendment Act (C) 24th Amendment Act (D) 27th Amendment Act 95. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged (A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643 (B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961 (C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299 (D) None of the above 96. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution (A) State Legislature (B) Parliament (C) Council of State (D) Legislative Council 97. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution (A) Supreme Court of India (B) High Court (C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate (D) District Court 98. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution (A) Legislative Council (B) State Legislature (C) State Assembly (D) Rajya Sabha 99. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable (A) Allahabad High Court (B) Calcutta High Court

(C) Madras High Court (D) Supreme Court of India 100. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368) (A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab (C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India (D) All the above

Answers :
1.(A) 2.(C) 3.(B) 4.(D) 5.(A) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(C) 9.(C) 10.(D) 11.(A) 12.(D) 13.(A) 14.(B) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(A) 19.(B) 20.(C) 21.(A) 22.(C) 23.(D) 24.(A) 25.(C) 26.(D) 27.(C) 28.(A) 29.(C) 30.(A) 31.(C) 32.(C) 33.(A) 34.(A) 35.(D) 36.(D) 37.(A) 38.(B) 39.(D) 40.(C) 41.(A) 42.(D) 43.(D) 44.(A) 45.(B) 46.(C) 47.(A) 48.(C) 49.(B) 50.(C) 51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(A) 54.(B) 55.(C) 56.(D) 57.(C) 58.(D) 59.(A) 60.(C) 61.(A) 62.(C) 63.(D) 64.(A) 65.(B) 66.(C) 67.(A) 68.(D) 69.(B) 70.(D) 71.(B) 72.(C) 73.(D) 74.(A) 75.(B) 76.(D) 77.(C) 78.(B) 79.(A) 80.(B) 81.(D) 82.(D) 83.(D) 84.(D) 85.(C) 86.(D) 87.(D) 88.(C) 89.(B) 90.(B) 91.(A) 92.(D) 93.(D) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(A) 98.(D) 99.(D) 100.(D)

UPPCS Prelims General Studies solved Question Paper 2011

1. Which among the following is the largest software company in India ? (a) Infosys (b) TCS (c) WIPRO (d) HCL Tech Ans: (b) 2. Which one of the following is different from the others from the point of view of ownership ? (a) LIC Policy (b) Bank Fixed Deposit (c) Kisan Vikas Patra (d) Debenture of a Company Ans: (d) 3. In the Union Budget 2011 12, the effective rate of interest for fanners on timely repayment of the bank loan is (a) 7 percent (b) 6 percent (c) 4 percent (d) 3 percent Ans: (c) 4. Athapoo is associated with which of the following festivals ? (a) Dol Yatra (b) Onam (c) Pongal (d) Vishwakarma Puja Ans: (b) 5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List I List II A. Pandit Durgalal 1. Instrumental Music B. Lalgudi Jayaraman 2. Dance C. Bala Murali Krishna 3. Painting D. Amrita Shergil 4. Vocal Music Code: A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 1 2 4 3 (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1 Ans: (a) 6. South Indian festival of Onam is associated with which of the following ? (a) Rams victory over Rawan (b) Durgas killing of Mahishasur (c) Shiva Shakti (d) Mahabali Ans: (d) 7. Which of the following crops are grown mainly in the irrigated areas during Zaid ? (a) Arhar and Gram (b) Moong and Urad (c) Rice and Millets (d) Maize and Groundnut Ans: 8. The largest producer of Sugar in India is (a) Bihar (b) Karnataka (c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans: (c) 9. Which of the following authority sanctions foreign exchange for the import of goods ? (a) Any Nationalised Bank (b) Exchange Bank (c) Reserve Bank of India (d) Ministry of Financer Ans: 10. A letter of credit has to be produced by (a) an exporter (b) an importer (c) custom authorities (d) shipping company Ans:

11. Which organisation promotes the foreign trade ? (a) ECGC (b) MMTC (c) STC (d) All of the above Ans: 12. The main source of fund for the National Highway Authority of India is (a) Cess (b) Foreign assistance (c) Market borrowings (d) Budgetary support of Union Government Ans: 13. Golden rice has the highest quantity of (a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin K Ans: (a) 14. Which one of the following is useful in the treatment of scurvy disease ? (a) Mango (b) Papaya (c) Aonla (d) Ber Ans: (c) 15. MODVAT is related to (a) Excise duty (b) Value Added Tax (VAT) (c) Wealth Tax (d) Income Tax Ans: (b) 16. More than one-third of the crude steel production of the world comes from (a) China (b) Japan

(c) Russia (d) U.S.A. Ans: (a) 17. The Sun City is located in (a) Italy (b) Japan (c) Mexico (d) South Africa Ans: (d) 18. The correct descending order of the leading producers of milk is (a) China, India, Russia, U.S.A. (b) India, U.S.A., China, Russia (c) U.S.A., India, China, Russia (d) India, China, U.S.A., Russia Ans: (b) 19. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists: List I List II (Iron-Steel Centre) (Country) A. Hamilton 1. China B. Birmingham 2. Canada C. Essen 3. U.K. D. Anshan 4. Germany Code: A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 Ans: (c) 20. Import procedure begins with (a) Indent (b) Mates receipt (c) Marine insurance (d) Shipping bill Ans:

21. Private Sector Mutual Funds in india were permitted in (a) 1964 (b) 1993 (c) 1994 (d) 2001 Ans: (b) 22. The State known as Garden of Spices is (a) Karnataka (b) Kerala (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu Ans: (b) 23. In India two largest producers of coal (2008 -09) are (a) Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh (b) Chhattisgarh and Orissa (c) Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand (d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh Ans: 24. Which of the following towns lie in the National Capital Region ? 1. Ambala 2. Khurja 3. Karnal 4. Rohtak Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only Ans: (d) 25. Coolgardie lies in the Australian province of (a) New South Wales (b) Northern Territory (c) Queensland

(d) Western Australia Ans: (d) 26. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List I (Lake) A. Erie B. Michigan C. Ontario D. Superior List II (City) 1. Duluth 2. Detroit 3. Gary 4. Hamilton Code: A B C D (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 3 2 4 (c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 3 4 1 Ans: 27. In India the State with the largest area under very dense forests is (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Orissa Ans: 28. Which one of the following does NOT lie in Maharashtra ? (a) Balaghat Range (b) Harishchandra Range (c) Mandav Hills (d) Satmala Hills Ans: 29. Which one of the following is NOT the port town of Gujarat ? (a) Jamnagar (b) Okha

(c) Porbandar (d) Veraval Ans: 30. Who among the following has been awarded the prestigious Abel Prize for the year 2011 ? (a) Isadore M. Singer (b) John Griggs Thompson (c) John Willard Milnor (d) Peter D. Lax Ans: (c) 31. Assertion (A): Kerala stands first in terms of human development index. Reason (R) : Its unemployment rate is the highest in the country. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Ans: 32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? (a) Koyali Gujarat (b) Nagapattinam- Andhra Pradesh (c) Numaligarh Assam (d) Manali Tamil Nadu Ans: 33. Arrange the following States of India in descending order of their forest-area and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Arunachal Pradesh 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Orissa Code: (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Ans: 34. According to the World Banks Global Development Finance Report 2010 the correct descending order of the worlds five most indebted countries is (a) Russia, Brazil, China, Turkey, India (b) Russia, China, Turkey, Brazil, India (c) Russia, China, Brazil, India, Turkey (d) Russia, Brazil, India, China,Turkey Ans: 35. In February 2011 India International Youth Film Festival was held in (a) Hyderabad (b) Kolkata (c) Mumbai (d) New Delhi Ans: (d) 36. At the 83rd Oscar Awards the best film award was won by (a) Black Swan (b) The Fighter (c) The Kings Speech (d) The Social Network Ans: (c) 37. The foundation stone of the third Indian Research Centre in Antarctica was laid by the name of (a) Sarswati (b) Bharti (c) Anweshan (d) Yamnotri Ans: (b) 38. The author of the book The Emperor of All Maladies A Biography of Cancer, for which 2011 Pulitzer Prize has been awarded, is (a) Farid Zakariya (b) Geeta Anand (c) Jhumpa Lahiri (d) Siddhartha Mukherjee Ans: (d)

39. Who among the following film actors was given Mother Teresa Award in March 2011 ? (a) Prem Chopra (b) Rajesh Khanna (c) Shammi Kapoor (d) Shatrughan Sinha Ans: (a) 40. Which one of the following Indian States has recently signed a $220 million agreement with the World Bank ? (a) Bihar (b) Kerala (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu Ans: (a) 41. India has recently signed Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement with (a) Indonesia (b) Malaysia (c) Saudi Arabia (d) Vietnam Ans: 42. Which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the highest literacy rate as per the provisional figures of 2011 Census? (a) Gautambuddh Nagar (b) Ghaziabad (c) Kanpur Nagar (d) Lucknow Ans: (b) 43. Thumri Singer Girija Devi belongs to (a) Banaras Gharana (b) Agra Gharana (c) Kirana Gharana (d) Lucknow Gharana Ans: (a) 44. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List I (District) List II (Headquarters)

A. Jalaun 1. Akbarpur B. Kanpur Dehat 2. Navgarh C. Sant Ravidas Nagar 3. Padrauna D. Kushinagar 4. Orai Code: A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 1 2 4 3 Ans: (a) 45. The first Woman General Secretary of SAARC, elected in January 2011, comes from (a) Bangladesh (b) Sri Lanka (c) Maldives (d) Bhutan Ans: (c) 46. The 18th Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhawana Award has been given to (a) Shabana Azmi (b) Maulana Wahiduddin Khan (c) Javed Akhtar (d) None of the above Ans: (b) 47. India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with (a) Australia (b) Indonesia (c) Japan (d) South Korea Ans: (c) 48. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below : List I (City) List II (Aerodrome) A. Lucknow 1. Babatpur B. Varanasi 2. Kheria C. Kanpur 3. Amausi D. Agra 4. Chakeri

Code: A B C (a) 4 3 (b) 2 1 (c) 3 2 (d) 3 1 Ans: (d)

D 1 4 1 4

2 3 4 2

49. The official bird of Uttar Pradesh is (a) Peacock (b) Saras (c) Parrot (d) Cuckoo Ans: (b) 50. The most popular religious magazine Kalyan is published from (a) Mathura (b) Rishikesh (c) Gorakhpur (d) Varanasi Ans: (c) 51. Which One of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Vrindavan Mandir Mathura (b) J.K. Temple Lucknow (c) Vishwanath Mandir Varanasi (d) Devipatan Mandir Tulsipur Ans: (b) 52. Which one of the following statements regarding uttar Pradesh, according to the provisional figures of 2011 Census is not correct? (a) It accounts for 16.5 percent of the Countrys population. (b) It has the largest number of children in the country. (c) Its decadal growth rate is 18.4%. (d) Its Sex ratio is 908. Ans: (c) 53. Famous Charkula dance is associated with (a) Avadh

(b) Bundelkhand (c) Brijbhumi (d) Rohilkhand Ans: (c) 54. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel Agricultural University is located at (a) Faizabad (b) Meerut (c) Kanpur (d) Jhansi Ans: (b) 55. The winner of All England Badminton championship.2011, Mens Singles Title, was (a) Chen Jin (b) Lee Chong Wei (c) Lee Yong Dae (d) Lin Dan Ans: (b) 56. The Winner of Australian Open 2011, Mens Singles, was (a) Andy Murray (b) David Ferrer (c) Novak Djkovic (d) Roger Federer Ans: (c) 57. The Captain of the Indian Hockey Team for Azlan Shah Cup Hockey Tournament, 2011, was (a) Arjun Halappa (b) Rajesh Kumar (c) Rajpal Singh (d) Shivendra Singh Ans: 58. Farrukhabad is known for (a) Carpet weaving (b) Glassware (c) Perfume Manufacture (d) Hand Printing Ans: (d)

59. In Which of the following crops Uttar Pradesh is not the largest producer in India? (a) Polato (b) Rice (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat Ans: (b) 60. In ICC Cricket World Cup 2011 the man of the tournament was (a) Kumar Sangakarra (b) Sachin Tendulkar (c) Tilakratne Dilshan (d) Yuvraj Singh Ans: (d) 61. The Leures World Sportsman Year award for 2010 was given to (a) Lionel Massi (b) Rafael Nadal (c) Ronaldo (d) Sachin Tendulkar Ans: (b) 62. Smash is assosiated with which of the following sports? (a) Boxing (b) Wrestling (c) Football (d) Volleyball Ans: (d) 63. Bula Chaudhary is well-known in which of the following sports? (a) Swimming (b) Hockey (c) Football (d) Archery Ans: (a) 64. Tejaswani Sawant is the first Indian woman to be crowned world championship in (a) Athelatics (b) Boxing

(c) Shooting (d) Wrestling Ans: (c) 65. The correct descending order of the four winners of the highest number of gold medals in the 34th National Games 2011 is (a) Services, Manipur, Haryana, Maharashtra (b) Services, Haryana, Manipur, Maharashtra (c) Services, Manipur, Maharashtra, Haryana (d) Services, Haryana, Maharashtra, Manipur Ans: (a) 66. In the 34th National Games, 2011 which State. Won the team title in Badminton in Mens Section? (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala (c) Maharashtra (d) Tamil Nadu Ans: (a) 67. Stanley Cup is associated with (a) Badminton (b) Basketball (c) Golf (d) Ice Hockey Ans: (d) 68. If COMPUTER IS Coded as RFUYQNPC, the code for MEDICINE will be (a) MFEDJJOE (b) MFEJDJOE (c) EOJDEJFM (d) EOJDJEFM Ans: (d) 69. Introducing a girl Mohan said. Her mother is the only daughter of my mother -in-law. How is Mohan related to that girl? (a) Brother (b) father (c) Husband

(d) Uncle Ans: (b) 70. The following series has a wrong number: 1 12 65 264 795 1590 1593 The wrong number is (a) 65 (b) 264 (c) 795 (d) 1590 Ans: (d) 71. Govind is 3 years older than his wife Shyama and four times as old as his son Raghu. If Raghu becomes 15 years old after 3 years, what is the present age of Shyama ? (a) 60 years (b) 51 years (c) 48 years (d) 45 years Ans: (d) 72. Ten years ago Rams age was half of Motis age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what is the total of their present ages? (a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 32 (d) 35 Ans: (d) 73. Sonu bought a watch with 30 percent discount on the labelled price. He sold it With 20 percent profit on the labelled price. Approximately, what was his percentage of profit on the price he bought? (a) 50 (b) 65 (c) 70 (d) 85 Ans: (c) 74. Which one of the following will come next in the series given below? LXF MTJ NPN OLR

(a) PHV (b) PPV (c) PTV (d) PJW Ans: (a) 75. There are four prime numbers. The product of first three is 385 and the product of the last three is 1001. First and the last numbers are respectively: (a) 5, 11 (b) 5, 13 (c) 7, 11 (d) 7, 13 Ans: (b) 76. If the number 1 X 5 X 01 is divisible by 11, then X is equal to (a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 3 Ans: (c) 77. Avinash spent 2/5 of his income for a month on rent and 3/4th of the remainder on other expenses. The balance of Rs.180 he put in his savings account. How much was his income for the month? (a) Rs. 1,200 (b) Rs. 1,400 (c) Rs. 1,600 (d) Rs. 1,800 Ans: (a) 78. The author of Green Development is (a) M.J. Bradshaw (b) M. Nicolson (c) R.H. Whittakar (d) W.M. Adams Ans: (d) 79. The missing number in the following series: 0, 4, 18, 48, ? 180 is

(a) 58 (b) 68 (c) 84 (d) 100 Ans: (d) 80. Man as started a business investing Rs. 42,000. After 7 months, Kamal joined him with a capital of Rs. 50,000. At the end of the year, the total profit was Rs. 30,160. What is Kamals share in the profit? (a) Rs. 10,000 (b) Rs. 20,160 (c) Rs. 10,160 (d) Rs. 8,000 Ans: (a) 81. The surface area of a cube is 384 m2 Its volume will be (a) 512m3 (b) 516m3 (c) 1032m3 (d) 216m3 Ans: (a) 82. The World Water Conservation Day is observed on (a) 28 February (b) 22 March (c) 5 June (d) 11 July Ans: (b) 83. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is renowned by (a) Lions (b) Spotted deers (c) Tigers (d) Wild Elephants Ans: (c) 84. Which one of the following cities has the largest slum population? (a) Bangalore (b) Chennai

(c) Delhi (d) Surat Ans: (c) 85. Which one of the following is the most urbanized country of West Asia? (a) Israel (b) Kuwait (c) Qatar (d) Saudi Arabia Ans: 86. Which of the following countries suffer from the acid rains? 1. Canada 2. France 3. Norway 4. Germany Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 Ans: 87. The World Tiger Summit 2010 was held at (a) Bangkok (b) Nairobi (c) New Delhi (d) Petersburg Ans: (d) 88. The author of Nuclear, Reactor Time Bomb is (a) C.C. Park (b) E. P. Odum (c) S. Polasky (d) Takashi Hirose Ans: (d) 89. Which one of the following States India has recorded the maximum increase in literacy rate

during 2001-2011? (a) Bihar (b) Gujarat (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans: (a) 90. As per the provisional figures of 2011 Census the second most populous State of India is (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Bihar (c) Maharashtra (d) West Bengal Ans: (c) 91. Which of the following statements are correct according to the provisional figures of Census of India 2011? Use the code given below to select the correct answer: 1. The lowest population is found in Lakshadweep. 2. Chandigarh has the highest population density. 3. Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density. 4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli has the highest decadal growth of population. Code: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 2,3 and 4 (d) 1,3 and 4 Ans: (d) 92. According to the provisional figures of Census 2011 arrange the following districts of Uttar Pradesh In descending order of their population size and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Allahabad 2. Azamgarh 3. Ghaziabad 4. Lucknow Code: (a) 1,3,2,4 (b) 1,4,3,2 (c) 2,3,1,4 (d) 4,1,2,3

Ans: (a) 93. According to the provisional figures of 2011 Census the lowest sex ratio in India is found in (a) Chandigarh (b) Daman and Diu (c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli (d) Haryana Ans: (b) 94. The first Gupta ruler who issued coins was (a) Srigupta (b) Chandragupta I (c) Samudragupta (d) Chandragupta II Ans: 95. The Prince who was responsible for the death of his father was (a) Ajatasatru (b) Chandapradyota (c) Prasenjit (d) Udayana Ans: 96. Who among the following was the earliest Sufi Saint to have settled at Ajmer? (a) Sheikh Moinuddin Chisti (b) Sheikh Qutbuddin Bakhtiyar Qaki (c) Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya (d) Sheikh Salim Chisti Ans: 97. With which Mughal General did Shivaji sign the famous Treaty of Purandhar in 1665 A.D? (a) Jaswant Singh (b) Jai Singh (c) Shaishta Khan (d) Diler Khan Ans: 98. During the 13th and 14th Centuries A.D. the Indian peasants did not cultivate (a) Wheat

(b) Barley (c) Rice (d) Maize Ans: 99. The writer of Mahabhasya Patanjali was a contemporary of (a) Chandragupta Maurya (b) Ashoka (c) Pushyamitra Sunga (d) Chandragupta I Ans: 100. Gautama Buddha had attained Mahaparinibban in the State of (a) Anga (b) Magdha (c) Malta (d) Vatsa Ans: 101. Buddha had delivered Maximum sermons at (a) Vaishali (b) Sravasti (c) Kaushambi (d) Rajgriha Ans: 102. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Vikrarn Samvat began in 58 BC. 2. Saka Samvat began in 319 AD. 3. Gupta era began in 319 AD. 4. The era of Muslim rule in India began in 1192 AD. Code: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1,2, 3 and 4 Ans: 103. Which one of the following rulers established embassies in foreign countries on modern lines?

(a) Haider Ali (b) Mir Qasim (c) Shah Alam II (d) Tipu Sultan Ans: 104. Who among the following was the one to have escaped being hanged in the Kakori Conspiracy Case? (a) Ashfaqullah Khan (b) Rajendra Lahiri (c) Ram Prasad Bismil (d) Chandra Shekhar Azad Ans: 105. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences? (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) B.R. Ambedkar (c) Vallabh Bhai Patel (d) Rajendra Prasad Ans: 106. Which Sultan of Delhi imposed Jaziya on the Brahmins also? (a) Balban (b) Firoz Tughlaq (c) Allauddin Khilji (d) Mohammad bin Tughlaq Ans: 107. Who among the following was the founder of Agra? (a) Balban (b) Bahlol Lodhi (c) Sikandar Lodhi (d) Firoz Tughlaq Ans: 108. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Ajmer-Quuwal-al-Islam (b) Jaunpur Atala Mosque (c) Malwa Jahaz Mahal

(d) Gulbarga Jama Masjid Ans: 109. Who among the following leaders of the Revolution of 1857 had the real name of Ram Chandra Pandurang ? (a) Kunwar Singh (b) Nana Saheb (c) Tatiya Tope (d) Mangal Pandey Ans: 110. Who among the following led the agitation against the Partition of Bengal (1905) ? (a) Surendranath Banerjee (b) C. R. Das (c) Ashutosh Mukherjee (d) Rabindra Nath Tagore Ans: 111. Who among the following leaders escaped from the prison and organized underground activities during the Quit India Movement ? (a) J.B. Kriplani (b) Ram Manohar Lohia (c) Achyut Patwardhan (d) Jai Prakash Narayan Ans: 112. Arrange the following In the chronological order and select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. The August Offer 2. The Cabinet Mission Plan 3. The Cripps Mission Plan 4. The Wavell Plan Code: (a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 Ans:

113. After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji launched his first successful Satyagraha in (a) Champaran (b) Chauri Chaura (c) Bardoli (d) Dandi Ans: 114. The only session of the Indian National Congress addressed by Mahatma held at (a) Amravati (b) Belgaum (c) Karachi (d) Nagpur Ans: 115. Who among the following had moved the Non co-operation resolution in the Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in 1920 ? (a) C.R. Das (b) Annie Besant (c) B.C. Pal (d) Madan Mohan Malviya Ans: 116. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (a) Durga Das : The Life of Mahatma Gandhi (b) Louis Fischer: India From Curzon to Nehru and After (c) Frank Moraes: Jawahar Lal Nehru A Biography (d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad : India Divided Ans: 117. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched ? (a) James Watt: Steam Engine (b) A. G. Bell : Telephone (c) J. L. Baird : Television (d) J. Perkins : Penicillin Ans: (d) 118. Who among the following had started Mitra Mela Association ? (a) Shyamji Krishna Verma (b) Vinayak Damodar Savarkar

(c) Lala Hardayal (d) Sohan Singh Bhakna Ans: (b) 119. The statement I am a socialist and a republican and am no believer Kings and Princes is associated with (a) Narendra Dev (b) Achyut Patwardhan (c) Jai Prakash Narayan (d) Jawahar Lal Nehru Ans: 120. Who among the following had led the Swadeshi Movement in Delhi. (a) Balgangadhar Tilak (b) Ajit Singh (c) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Syed Haider Raza Ans: 121. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (a) Silver iodide Horn Silver (b) Silver chloride Artificial rain (c) Zinc phosphide Rat poison (d) Zinc sulphide Philosophers wool Ans: 122. Which one of the following gases is essential for photosynthesis process ? (a) CO (b) Co2 (c) N2 (d) O2 Ans: (b) 123. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below: List I List II A. Morphine 1. Antiseptic B. Sodium 2. Alloy C. Boric Acid 3. Analgesic D. German Silver 4. Kerosene oil

Code: A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2 Ans: (d) 124. Which one of the following human organs is most susceptible to harmful radiations ? (a) Eyes (b) Heart (c) Brain (d) Lungs Ans: 125. The minimum height of a plane mirror to see the full size image of a person is equal to (a) the height of the person (b) half the height of the person (c) one-fourth the height of the person (d) double the height of the person Ans: (b) 126. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons because it (a) is cheaper (b) is less dense (c) has greater lifting power (d) does not form an explosive mixture with air. Ans: (d) 127. Which one of the following is NOT formed in our body ? (a) Vitamin A (b) Protein (c) Enzyme (d) Hormone Ans: (a) 128. Anosmia is (a) loss of the sense of taste. (b) loss of the sense of smell.

(c) loss of the sense of touch. (d) loss of the sense of heat. Ans: (b) 129. Assertion (A) : If somebody stops taking green vegetables he will suffer from night blindness. Reason (R) : He will suffer from Vitamin A deficiency. Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (b) Both (A) and (R) are true. but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true. Ans: (d) 130. Insectivorous fish used for mosquito control is (a) Hilsa (b) Labeo (c) Gambusia (d) Mystus Ans: (c) 131. With which of the physiological process Thrombin is associated ? (a) Excretion (b) Blood clotting (c) Reproduction (d) Growth Ans: (b) 132. AIDS is caused by (a) Bacteria (b) Fungus (c) Helminth (d) Virus Ans: (d) 133. Which of the following is NOT the normal function of the human kidney ? (a) Regulation of water level in the blood. (b) Regulation of sugar level ill the blood. (c) filter out urea.

(d) Secretion of several hormones. Ans: (d) 134. Retina of the eye is comparable to which of the following parts of a traditional camera ? (a) Film (b) Lens (c) Shutter (d) Cover Ans: (a) 135. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor? (a) Thorium (b) Graphite (c) Radium (d) Ordinary water Ans: (b) 136. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by (a) killing the germs (b) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions (c) destroying enzyme action. (d) sealing the food with a layer of ice. Ans: (b) 137. Electric bulb filament is made of (a) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Lead (d) Tungsten Ans: (d) 138. Which mirror is used as a rear view mirror in the vehicles? (a) Plane (b) Convex (c) Concave (d) Inverted Ans: (b) 139. Which one of the following is a part of Infotech Terminology?

(a) Protocol (b) Login (c) Archie (d) All the above Ans: (d) 140. Inventor and founder of www is (a) Timbernrus (b) N. Russel (c) Lee N. Fiyong (d) Bill Gates Ans: (a) 141. Amniocentosis is a method used to determine the (a) foetal sex (b) kind of Amino acids (c) sequence of Amino acids in protein (d) type of hormones Ans: (c) 142. BMD testing is done to diagnose (a) Dengue (b) Malaria (c) Osteoporosis (d) AIDS Ans: (c) 143. The principle of Black hole was enunciated by (a) C.V. Raman (b) H.J. Bhabha (c) S. Chandrashekhar (d) H. Khurana Ans: (c) 144. Which one of the following has the right to address the Parliament? (a) Attorney General of India (b) Chief Election Commissioner of India (c) Chief Justice of India (d) National Security Advisor

Ans: (a) 145. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is NOT correct? (a) The Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government. (b) The foremost function of the Parliament is to provide a Cabinet. (c) The membership of the Cabinet is restricted to the Lower House. (d) The Cabinet has to enjoy the confidence of the majority in the popular Chamber. Ans: (c) 146. Voting right by the youths at the age of 18 years was exercised for the first time in the General Election of (a) 1987 (b) 1988 (c) 1989 (d) 1990 Ans: (c) 147. Under which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Legislative Assembly is allowed to resolve for the creation of the Legislative Council? (a) 168 (b) 169 (c) 170 (d) 171 Ans: (b) 148. Missile Astra is a (a) land to land missile (b) land to air missile (c) air to air missile (d) water to land missile Ans: (c) 149. Indane gas is a mixture of (a) butane and hydrogen (b) butane and oxygen (c) butane and propane (d) methane and oxygen Ans: (c)

150. Which one of the following States has granted Sanskrit language the status of the second official language of the State? (a) Bihar (b) Chhattisgarh (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Uttarakhand Ans: (d)
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Uttar Pradesh P.S.C General Studies Question Paper 2011

1. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian sub-continent is found at (A) Lothal (B) Harappa (C) Mehrgarh (D) Mundigak Ans : (C) 2. During the Rig Vedic period Niska was an ornament of (A) Ear (B) Neck (C) Arm (D) Wrist Ans : (B) 3. Which of the following were regarded as the hub of Aryan culture during the later Vedic period ? (A) Anga, Magadh (B) Kosal, Videha (C) Kuru, Panchal

(D) Matsya, Surasena Ans : (C) 4. Who among the following was the first to take initiative for water resource management in the Girnar region ? (A) Chandragupta Maurya (B) Asoka (C) Rudradaman (D) Skandagupta Ans : (A) 5. That Lumbini was the birth place of Gautama Buddha, is confirmed by an inscription of (A) Asoka (B) Kanishka (C) Harsha (D) Dharmapala Ans : (A) 6. Who among the following Gupta Kings had another name Devagupta ? (A) Samudragupta (B) Chandragupta II (C) Kumaragupta (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 7. Kumaradevi, a queen of Govinda Chandra Gahadavala, constructed Dharma-Chakra Jina Vihara at (A) Bodha Gaya (B) Rajgrih (C) Kushinagar (D) Sarnath Ans : (D) 8. Which of the following dynasties frequently assigned to the ladies high ranking positions in administration ? (A) Chola

(B) Chalukya (C) Pala (D) Sena Ans : (B) 9. Who among the following Rajput rulers is known to have written a book on music ? (A) Jayachandra Gahadavala (B) Prithviraj Chauhan (C) Rana Kumbha (D) Man Singh Ans : (C) 10. Which Sultan of Delhi was a contemporary of the Mongol leader Chengiz Khan ? (A) Iltutmish (B) Razia (C) Balban (D) Alauddin Khalji Ans : (A) 11. Who among the following was the continuing link between Sher Shah and Akbar in the field of land revenue administration ? (A) Birbal (B) Todar Mal (C) Bhagwan Das (D) Bhar Mal Ans : (B) 12. With which medieval ruler would you associate the statement I would have lost the empire just for a handful of millet ? (A) Alauddin Khalji (B) Muhammad Tughlaq (C) Sher Shah (D) Aurangzeb Ans : (C)

13. The Maratha King became a nonentity and the Peshwa the virtual ruler from the time of (A) Balaji Vishwanath (B) Baji Rao I (C) Balaji Rao (D) Madnav Rao I Ans : (B) 14. Thomas Roe was received in audience by Jehangir at (A) Agra (B) Ajmer (C) Delhi (D) Fatehpur Sikri Ans : (A) 15. Which one of the following musical instruments was mastered by Aurangzeb ? (A) Sitar (B) Pakhawaj (C) Veena (D) None of the above Ans : (C) 16. Which son of Aurangzeb revolted against his father, weakening the latters position against the Rajputs ? (A) Azam (B) Akbar (C) Muazzam (D) Kam Baksh Ans : (B) 17. Who were the first Europeans to come to India for trade ? (A) Dutch (B) English (C) French (D) Portuguese

Ans : (D) 18. What did the Act V of 1843 make illegal ? (A) Child marriage (B) Infanticide (C) Sati (D) Slavery Ans : (D) 19. Who among the following was the leader of the revolution of 1857 in Assam ? (A) Diwan Maniram Dutta (B) Kandarpeshwar Singh (C) Purandar Singh (D) Piali Barua Ans : (A) 20. Which of the following Acts transferred the Government of India from East India Company to the Crown ? (A) Government of India Act 1858 (B) Indian Councils Act 1861 (C) Royal Titles Act 1876 (D) Indian Councils Act 1892 Ans : (A) 21. The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held at (A) Bombay (B) Poona (C) Madras (D) Calcutta Ans : (A) 22. The paper Indian Mirror was published during 1861 from (A) Bombay (B) Calcutta

(C) Madras (D) Pondicherry Ans : (B) 23. Name the organization formed by Surendranath Banerjee which merged with the Indian National Congress in 1886 (A) East India Association (B) London India Society (C) Indian Association (D) Indian National Conference Ans : (C) 24. Who among the following introduced the Vernacular Press Act ? (A) Lord Lytton (B) Lord Ripon (C) Lord Curzon (D) Lord Hastings Ans : (A) 25. The President of Surat Session of Indian National Congress, 1907 was (A) R. B. Ghosh (B) B. G. Tilak (C) Annie Besant (D) G. K. Gokhale Ans : (A) 26. Who among the following had started Indian Home Rule Society in London ? (A) Annie Besant (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (C) Shyamji Krishna Varma (D) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi Ans : (C) 27. The first Trade Union was founded in India in the year 1918 by

(A) N. M. Joshi (B) B. P. Wadia (C) V. V. Giri (D) S. A. Dange Ans : (B) 28. Who resigned from the membership of Viceroys Executive Council as a protest against Jallianwala Bagh Massacre ? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Rabindranath Tagore (C) Shankaran Nair (D) Jamnalal Bajaj Ans : (C) 29. Who had opposed the Champaran Satyagraha of Mahatma Gandhi ? (A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) N. G. Ranga (C) Rajkumar Shukla (D) Rajendra Prasad Ans : (A) 30. In which one of the following languages was the first issue of the Journal Ghadar published ? (A) Urdu (B) Hindi (C) English (D) Marathi Ans : (A) 31. Who was the author of the book Bandi Jiwan ? (A) Dinabandhu Mitra (B) Hema Chandrakar (C) Ram Prasad Bismil (D) Sachindra Sanyal Ans : (D) 32. Consider the following events connected with Indian National Movement :

1. Gandhi-Irvin Pact 2. Execution of Bhagat Singh 3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress, 1931 4. Martyrdom of Chandra Shekhar Azad Find the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below Codes : (A) 4, 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 (C) 2, 3, 4, 1 (D) 4, 1, 3, 2 Ans : (A) 33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists : List-I (a) Annie Besant (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) Jawahar Lal Nehru (d) Ambika Charan Majumdar List-II 1. Home Rule Movement 2. Champaran Satyagraha 3. Lucknow Session of Indian National Congress, 1916 4. Lahore Session of Indian National Congress, 1929 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 1 2 3 4 (C) 4 3 2 1 (D) 3 2 1 4 Ans : (A) 34. Who among the following said about the Act of 1935 "a car which has brake but no engine" ? (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru (B) C. Rajgopalachari (C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) S. C. Bose Ans : (A) 35. Who formed the Radical Democratic Party in 1940 ? (A) Indrasen (B) M. N. Roy (C) Somendranath Tagore (D) Shachindranath Sanyal Ans : (B) 36. Who started the individual Satyagraha ? (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya (C) Jawahar Lal Nehru (D) Vinoba Bhave Ans : (D) 37. Who among the following called the movements of Gandhiji as political blackmail ? (A) Lord Chelmsford (B) Lord Wavel (C) Lord Linlithgow (D) Lord Montague Ans : (C) 38. Muslim League observed the Direct Action Day on (A) 12 August 1942 (B) 16 August 1943 (C) 16 August 1946 (D) 14 August 1947 Ans : (C) 39. Arrange in chronological order the following events which occurred during post-independence period : 1. Liberation of Goa 2. Dalai Lama fled to India

3. Chou En-Lai visited India 4. India visit of Khrushchev and Bulganin Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes : (A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) 2, 1, 4, 3 (C) 3, 4, 1, 2 (D) 4, 2, 3, 1 Ans : (D) 40. Who among the following were responsible for the creation of Ratha monuments at Mamallapuram ? (A) Cholas (B) Pallavas (C) Pandyas (D) Chalukyas Ans : (B) 41. The ancient monuments of Elephanta are mostly 1. Buddhist 2. Jain 3. Saivite 4. Vaishnavite Select the correct answer from the code given below Code : (A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1 and 3 Ans : (C) 42. Which of the following temples is considered as a wonder of rock-cut architecture ? (A) Brihadisvara Temple, Tanjavur (B) Lingaraja Temple, Bhubaneshwar (C) Kailash Temple, Ellora (D) Kandaria Mahadeva Temple, Khajuraho Ans : (C)

43. Ruins of which of the following represent the old capital of Vijayanagar ? (A) Ahmadnagar (B) Bijapur (C) Golconda (D) Hampi Ans : (D) 44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) Akbars Tomb Sikandara (B) Jahangirs Tomb Sahdara (C) Tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti Fatehpur Sikri (D) Tomb of Shaikh Nizamuddin Aulia Ajmer Ans : (D) 45. Which of the following was the birth place of Guru Nanak ? (A) Amritsar (B) Nabha (C) Nankana (D) Nander Ans : (C) 46. Where did Maharaja Jaisingh II built observatories ? 1. Delhi 2. Jaipur 3. Ujjain 4. Varanasi Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 47. Who among the following transformed the traditional Ganapati festival of Maharashtra into a national festival and gave it a political character ?

(A) Ramdas (B) Shivaji (C) Mahadev Govind Ranade (D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Ans : (D) 48. Who among the following had founded the Indian Society of Oriental Art to revive ancient art traditions of India ? (A) Abanindra Nath Tagore (B) Nand Lal Bose (C) Asit Kumar Haldhar (D) Amrita Shergill Ans : (A) 49. Who among the following was offered Membership of the Royal Asiatic Society of Paris ? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Michael Madhusudan Dutta (C) Raja Rammohan Roy (D) Vivekanand Ans : (B) 50. The first University Chair of Sanskrit was founded in (A) England (B) France (C) Germany (D) Russia Ans : (C) 51. Who among the following had said, God intended me to look upon all religions with one eye, that is why he took away the light from the other ? (A) Maharaja Ranjit Singh (B) Maharaja Sher Singh (C) Maharaja Dalip Singh (D) None of the above

Ans : (A) 52. Who among the following deities is represented in art as holding a plough ? (A) Krishna (B) Balarama (C) Kartikeya (D) Maitreya Ans : (B) 53. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Jawahar Lal Nehru Hind Swaraj (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad India Wins Freedom (C) Subhash Chandra Bose Indian Struggle (D) Lala Lajpat Rai Unhappy India Ans : (A) 54. Which one of the following will be the year of Saka Samvat in December 2009 ? (A) 1931 (B) 1952 (C) 2066 (D) 2087 Ans : (A) 55. The smallest million city of India is (A) Amritsar (B) Allahabad (C) Rajkot (D) Vijayawada Ans : (C) 56. Why is Dhanbad most densely inhabited district of Chhota Nagpur plateau ? (A) Fertile soil and irrigational facilities by canals from the Damodar (B) Availability of coal, iron ore, mica, copper etc. (C) Development of mining industries and industrialization (D) All the above

Ans : (D) 57. Which one of the following classes of towns are included in the category of small towns by the Census of India ? (A) Class VI (B) Class V and VI (C) Class IV, V and VI (D) Class III, IV, V and VI Ans : (D) 58. In India maximum number of cities reporting slums are found in (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (B) 59. The coast areas of which of the following oceans are called ring of fire ? (A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (C) Indian Ocean (D) None of the above Ans : (B) 60. Operation Green was launched in Uttar Pradesh on (A) July 1, 2001 (B) October 2, 2001 (C) July 1, 2005 (D) June 6, 2006 Ans : (C) 61. The country which has the finest system of protected lands in the world is (A) China (B) Costa Rica (C) India

(D) Switzerland Ans : (D) 62. In India maximum alkali area is found in the State of (A) Gujarat (B) Haryana (C) Punjab (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (A) 63. In India Project Elephant was launched in the year (A) 1968 (B) 1970 (C) 1972 (D) 1974 Ans : Project Elephant was started in 1992 64. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ? (A) Simlipal Assam (B) Nokrek Meghalaya (C) Dehong Debang Sikkim (D) Agasthyamalai Karnataka Ans : (B) 65. According to the 2001 Census Report, male female ratio in India is (A) 1000 : 930 (B) 1000 : 934 (C) 1000 : 926 (D) 1000 : 933 Ans : (D) 66. Which State of India has the largest Muslim population according to the 2001 Census ? (A) Assam (B) Bihar

(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) West Bengal Ans : (C) 67. Among the following States which one has the highest sex ratio, according to 2001 Census ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Chhattisgarh (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Jharkhand Ans : (B) 68. The State which recorded the minimum population growth rate during 1991-2001 is (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal Ans : (B) 69. In which year was the first regular Census held in India ? (A) 1921 (B) 1881 (C) 1911 (D) 1931 Ans : (B) 70. Which of the following countries are included in the Golden Crescent ? 1. Afghanistan 2. Iran 3. Iraq 4. Pakstan Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4 (C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2 and 4 Ans : (D) 71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Kimberley Diamond (B) Witwatersrand Gold (C) Katomga Copper (D) Saar Iron ore Ans : (D) 72. Which one of the following countries has the highest birth rate ? (A) Afghanistan (B) Bangladesh (C) India (D) Pakistan Ans : (D) 73. Alexandria is a port of (A) Egypt (B) Israel (C) Jordan (D) Libya Ans : (A) 74. Which one of the following South Asian countries has the highest population density ? (A) Sri Lanka (B) India (C) Nepal (D) Pakistan Ans : (B) 75. Persian Gulf does not form border with (A) Bahrain (B) Iraq

(C) Kuwait (D) Oman Ans : (D) 76. Which one of the following countries is the third largest economy of the world ? (A) Japan (B) Malaysia (C) India (D) China Ans : (A) 77. The Equator passes through (A) Central African Republic (B) Kenya (C) Sarawak (D) Venezuela Ans : (B) 78. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? MineralsProducing Areas (A) CopperArizona (B) CoalCarajas (C) Iron OreRastanura (D) PetroleumDonbas Ans : (A) 79. Which of the following are active volcanoes ? 1. Aconagua 2. Cotopaxi 3. Etna 4. Fujiyama Select the correct answer from the code given below Code : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 Ans : Incorrect Options 80. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) GhanaAccra (B) KenyaNairobi (C) NamibiaWindhooks (D) NigeriaRabat Ans : (D) 81. Through which of the following straits does a tunnel connect the United Kingdom and France ? (A) Davis Strait (B) Denmark Strait (C) Strait of Dover (D) Strait of Gibralter Ans : (C) 82. In which of the following group of countries maize is used as staple food ? (A) Western Europe (B) Russia (C) Middle Africa (D) South-East Asia Ans : (C) 83. The biggest port in India is (A) Vishakhapatnam (B) Mumbai (C) Tuticorin (D) Kandla Ans : (B) 84. Sankosh river forms boundary between (A) Bihar and West Bengal

(B) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh (C) Assam and West Bengal (D) Bihar and Jharkhand Ans : (B) 85. Pir Panjal range lies in (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Jammu and Kashmir (C) Punjab (D) Uttarakhand Ans : (B) 86. Which of the following city of Uttar Pradesh is not joined by Nationla Highway 2 ? (A) Agra (B) Allahabad (C) Lucknow (D) Varanasi Ans : (C) 87. Which of the following rivers is an example of the superimposed drainage ? (A) Alaknanda (B) Kosi (C) Chambal (D) Godawari Ans : (C) 88. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India ? 1. Per acre higher yield of sugar cane 2. Higher sucrose content of sugar cane 3. Longer crushing season 4. Cheap labour Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes : (A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3 (C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (C) 89. Which of the following crops are grown mostly under subsistence farming ? (A) Millets and Rice (B) Cotton and Tobacco (C) Tea and Coffee (D) Vegetables and Fruits Ans : (A) 90. Teak and Sal are the products of (A) Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests (B) Tropical Evergreen Forests (C) Tropical Thorn Forests (D) Alpine Forests Ans : (A) 91. On which one of the following rivers is Tulbul Project located ? (A) Chenab (B) Ravi (C) Beas (D) Jhelum Ans : (D) 92. Which one of the following is the actual source of the Son river ? (A) Amarkantak in Shahdol district (B) Son Muda in Shahdol district (C) Son Bachharwar in Bilaspur district (D) Mandla plateau Ans : (A) 93. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

Nuclear PlantYear of Commissioning (A) Kota1989 (B) Kakrapar1984 (C) Kaiga1999 (D) Kalpakkam1995 Ans : (C) 94. Rubber industry in India is located at (A) Panjim (B) Bangalore (C) Puducherri (D) Aurangabad Ans : (B) 95. In March 2009 the BrahMos Missile was tested at (A) Pokharan (B) Chandipur (C) Cape Canveral (D) Sri Harikota Ans : (A) 96. The countries, which participated in Malabar-2009 exercises, were (A) China, England, Russia (B) China, India, Russia (C) India, USA, Japan (D) Japan, England, USA Ans : (C) 97. Three Phalcon AWACS supplied by Israel were received in India for the first time in (A) March 2009 (B) April 2009 (C) May 2009 (D) February 2009 Ans : (C)

98. The winner of Nobel Peace Prize for 2008 is (A) Al Gore (B) Muhammad Yunus (C) Martti Ahtisaari (D) Wangari Maathai Ans : (C) 99. Who among the following has been chosen for Hoover Medal in March 2009 for his contribution to the upliftment of the poor and the rural people ? (A) Sam Patroda (B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (C) M. S. Swaminathan (D) Baba Amte Ans : (B) 100. In April 2009, G-20 Summit was held in (A) Geneva (B) London (C) Paris (D) Rome Ans : (B) 101. India was represented in the Annual Meet of the World Economic Forum, held in Davos (Switzerland) in January 2009, by (A) Manmohan Singh (B) Kamal Nath (C) P. Chidambaram (D) Kapil Sibbal Ans : (B) 102. The first woman to be the Speaker of Lok Sabha is (A) Vijay Lakshmi Pandit (B) Sarojini Naidu (C) Indira Gandhi (D) Meira Kumar

Ans : (D) 103. Which movie has been given the Best Movie Award in 66th Golden Globe Awards ? (A) Mall E (B) Slumdog Millionaire (C) The Dark Night (D) The Reader Ans : (B) 104. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? Recent Padma Awardees Awards (A) Bhimsen Joshi Bharat Ratna (B) Abhinav Bindra Padma Vibhushan (C) Shekhar Gupta Padma Bhushan (D) Aishwarya Rai Padma Shri Ans : (B) 105. Who among the following won the best actor award in the awards ceremony of International Indian Film Academy held at Macau ? (A) Amitabh Bachchan (B) Hritik Roshan (C) Abhishek Bachchan (D) Salman Khan Ans : (B) 106. Where did Prime Minsiter Manmohan Singh, having taken charge of the new government after 2009 elections, meet Pakistan President Asif Ali Zardari for the first time ? (A) Cairo (B) London (C) Shanghai (D) Yekaterinburg Ans : (D) 107. Which among the following countries attended as observers the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) Summit held on 16 June 2009 ? 1. Russia

2. India 3. Pakistan 4. Iran Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4 Ans : (D) 108. Name the player who has been awarded the 2008 Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award ? (A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Anil Kumble (C) Gautam Gambhir (D) M. S. Dhoni Ans : (D) 109. The only Indian Gold Medal Winner in Olympic 2008 is (A) Sudesh Kumar (B) Pankaj Advani (C) Mahesh Bhupati (D) Abhinav Bindra Ans : (D) 110. The winner of Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, 2009 was (A) China (B) Malaysia (C) Pakistan (D) South Korea Ans : (D) 111. The winner State of 17th Senior National Womens Football Championship held in March 2009, was (A) Manipur

(B) Nagaland (C) Tamil Nadu (D) West Bengal Ans : (A) 112. The two games, which have been excluded from the Olympic Games to be held in 2012 in London, are (A) Badminton and Table Tennis (B) Basketball and Volleyball (C) Tennis and Wrestling (D) Softball and Baseball Ans : (D) 113. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (A) Sushil KumarWrestling (B) Anand PawarBadminton (C) Arjun RaoArchery (D) Pankaj AdvaniShooting Ans : (D) 114. The captain of the Indian Hockey Team which won Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey Tournament, 2009 was (A) Dilip Tirkey (B) Rajpal Singh (C) Sandeep Singh (D) V. Raghunath Ans : (C) 115. Asia Cup Hockey Tournament was held in May 2009 in (A) India (B) Malaysia (C) South Korea (D) UAE Ans : (B)

116. In which of the following States the National Games, 2011 will be held ? (A) Delhi (B) Goa (C) Maharashtra (D) Rajasthan Ans : (B) 117. A cropping system where crops are grown in the inter spaces between rows of planted trees is called (A) Relay cropping (B) Mixed cropping (C) Inter-cropping (D) Alley cropping Ans : (D) 118. Application of gypsum is required more in the crop of (A) Paddy (B) Berseem (C) Wheat (D) Groundnut Ans : (A) 119. The upper limit of available water in soil is determined at (A) 1/3 bar (B) 1/2 bar (C) 2/3 bar (D) 1 bar Ans : (A) 120. The place of origin of red gram is (A) America (B) India (C) South Africa (D) Egypt

Ans : (C) 121. University of Horticulture and Forestry is located at (A) Coimbatore (B) Solan (C) Palampur (D) Pant Nagar Ans : (B) 122. Heroin is obtained from (A) Indian hemp (B) Opium poppy (C) Tobacco (D) Arecanut Ans : (B) 123. The leading producer of soybean in India is (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Maharashtra (D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (B) 124. Varuna is a variety of (A) Mustard (B) Linseed (C) Sunflower (D) Sesamum Ans : (A) 125. Farming of cloves is done in (A) Kerala (B) Karnataka (C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Uttar Pradesh Ans : (A) 126. Consider the following statements Assertion (A) : West Bengal is the leading producer of fish in India. Reason (R) : West Bengal has well developed fishing industry along the sea coast. Select the correct answer from the codes given below Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (C) 127. In India the largest area under rice cultivation lies in the State of (A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Orissa (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) West Bengal Ans : (C) 128. The most popular sport goods come from (A) Ludhiana (B) Jalandhar (C) Kanpur (D) Agra Ans : (B) 129. Which bank became the first bank to open its branch in China ? (A) IDBI Bank (B) HDFC Bank (C) State Bank of India (D) Punjab National Bank Ans : (C)

130. After the merger of Air India and Indian Airlines, the new entity is now known as (A) Indian Airways (B) India Airlines (C) Air India (D) Indo-Air Ans : (A) 131. Which sector got high rate of growth in its cooperative units ? (A) Sugar (B) Cotton textile (C) Jute (D) Cement Ans : (B) 132. The headquarters of the World Bank are at (A) Manila (B) Washington (C) New York (D) Geneva Ans : (B) 133. Inside trading is related to (A) Share market (B) Horse racing (C) Taxation (D) International trade Ans : (A) 134. Mixed Economy means (A) Co-existence of small and large industries (B) Co-existence of public and private sectors (C) Co-existence of rich and poor (D) Promoting both agriculture and industry in the economy

Ans : (B) 135. Diesel Locomotive engines are manufactured in India at (A) Chitranjan (B) Jamshedpur (C) Varanasi (D) Chennai Ans : (C) 136. Invisible Export means export of (A) Services (B) Prohibited goods (C) Unrecorded goods (D) Goods through smuggling Ans : (A) 137. The headquarters of World Trade Organization are at (A) Doha (B) Geneva (C) Rome (D) New York Ans : (B) 138. The city of Jaunpur was founded by (A) Muhammad Tughlaq (B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq (C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi (D) Sikandar Lodi Ans : (B) 139. The density of population of Uttar Pradesh according to 2001 Census, is (A) 689 per square km (B) 589 per square km (C) 489 per square km (D) 389 per square km

Ans : (A) 140. In U.P. which one of the following tribes has the highest population ? (A) Saharia (B) Tharu (C) Agaria (D) Mahigir Ans : (B) 141. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for (A) 60 Lok Sabha seats (B) 70 Lok Sabha seats (C) 80 Lok Sabha seats (D) 90 Lok Sabha seats Ans : (C) 142. Obra Thermal Power Plant was established with the help of (A) Soviet Russia (B) Japan (C) Germany (D) America Ans : (A) 143. According to 2001 Census the female literacy percentage in U.P. is (A) 3887 (B) 4353 (C) 3312 (D) 4222 Ans : (D) 144. Which is the highest Dam in U.P. ? (A) Mata-Tila (B) Meja (C) Rihand

(D) Ram-Ganga Ans : (D) 145. In U.P. Uranium is available in the district of (A) Lalitpur (B) Jhansi (C) Mirjapur (D) Hamirpur Ans : (A) 146. Firozabad is famous for producing (A) Bangles (B) Locks (C) Knives (D) Shoes Ans : (A) 147. Which one of the following is not a folk song of U.P. ? (A) Birha (B) Dhola Maru (C) Kajri (D) Rasia Ans : (B) 148. Syed Salar Fair is held at (A) Bahraich (B) Mankapur (C) Barabanki (D) Khalilabad Ans : (A) 149. In U.P. Urdu Training and Research Centre is situated in (A) Barabanki (B) Bareilly

(C) Lucknow (D) Rampur Ans : (C) 150. Central Institute of Subtropical Horticulture is located at (A) Jhansi (B) Saharanpur (C) Lucknow (D) Varanasi Ans : (C)
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U.P.S.C. (C.S.E.) GENERAL STUDIES (PRELIMINARY) 2005 SOLVED PAPER

1. According to Census 2001, which one of the following Indian States has the maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh? (a) West Bengal (b) Maharashtra (c) Bihar (d) Tamil Nadu 2. Itaipu Dam built art the River Parana is one of the largest dams in the world. Which one of the following two countries have this as a joint project? (a) Brazil and Peru (b) Paraguay and Ecuador (c) Brazil and Paraguay (d) Colombia and Paraguay 3. Consider the following statements: 1. There are 25 High Courts in India 2. Punjab, Haryana and the' Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.

3. National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (p) 3 only 4. Which one of the following cities is not a former capital of the given country (Country given in the brackets)? (a) Karachi (Pakistan) (b) Auckland (New Zealand) (c) Kyoto Japan) (d) Brisbane (Australia) 5. Consider the following statements: 1. Total land area of Earth is approximately 1475 lakh square kilometres. 2. Ratio of land area to water area of Earth is approximately 1 : 4. 3. Maximum percentage of Earth's water is in the Pacific Ocean. Which of the stateinentsgiven above is/ are correct? (a) 1 ai1d 3 (b) 2 and 3 . (c) 1 only (d) 3 only 6. Consider the following statements: 1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005. 2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone layer. 3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (e) 1 only (d) 3 only 7. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Seikan Rail Tunnel: China (b) Petronas Towers: Malaysia (c) Appalachian Trail : United States of America (d) Rogun Dam : Tajikistan 8. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land? (a) North America - Africa - South America Europe (b) Africa - North America - South America Europe (c) North America - Africa - Europe - South America (d) Africa - North America - Europe - South America

9. Match items in the List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Country) List-II (Name of Parliament) A. Netherlands 1. Diet B. Ukraine 2. States General C. Poland 3. Supreme Council D. Japan 4. Sejm ABCDABCD (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 10. For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language? (a) Chile (b) Colombia (c) Republic of Congo (d) Cuba 11. Who along the following is not a recipient of the Bharat Ratna Award? . (a) Us tad Bismillah Khan (b) Satyajit Ray (c) Lata Mangeshkar (d) Raj Kapoor 12. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (National Park/ Wild-life Sanctuary) A. Sondla Wildlife Sanctuary B. Kangerghat National Park C. Orang Sanctuary D. Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary List-II (State) 1. Orissa 2. Assam 3. Chhqttisgarh 4. Goa 5. Tripura ABCDABCD (a) 2 1 5 3 (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) 2 3 5 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 13. Which party was founded by Subhash Chandra' Bose in the year 1939 after he broke away from the Congress?

(a) Indian Freedom Party (b) Azad Hind Fauj (c) Revolutionary Front (d) Forward Block 14. Who among the following is the President of the FICCI? (a) Sunil Mittal (b) Brijmohan Lal !vhinjal (c) Onkar S. Kunwar (d) Vivek Burman . 15. Consider the following statements: 1. During the year 2004, India's foreign exchange reserves did not exceed the 125 billion U.s. Dollar mark. 2. The series of index numbers of wholesale prices introduced from April, 2000 has the year 1993-94 as base year. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 16. Consider the following statements: 1. Anhydrous sodiun carbonate is commonly known as baking soda. 2. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers. 3. Bleaching powder is manufactured in Hasenclever plant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct 7 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) I and 2 17. Consider the following statements: 1. A geQstationary satellite is at an approximate height of 10,000 km. 2. FM transmission of music is of very good quality because the atmospheric or man-made noises which are generally frequency variations can do 'little harm. Which of the statemeents given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 18. What is the order of magnitude of electric resistance of the human body (dry)? (a) 102 ohm (b) 104 ohm (c) 106 ohm (d) 108 ohm 19. Consider the following statements:

1. The axis of the earth's magnetic field is inclined at 231/2 to the geographic axis of the earth. 2. The earth's magnetic pole in the northern hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern Canada. 3. Earth's magnetiC equator passes through Thumba in South lridia. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 3 only 20. Which one of the following is the landmark performance of Dr. V. Mohan Reddy, an Indian born doctor working in U.S.A., during February, 2005? . (a) Research on human stem cell which is likely to revolutionise treatment of deadly disease like cancer (b) Successful open heart procedure called arterial switch performed on an infant (c) Research on genetic engineering which can help in treatment of deadly disease like AIDS (d) Successful brain surgery to revive the function of nearly dead brain of a premature born infant 21. Pneumoconiosis afflicts the workers who work mainly in: (a) Tanneries (b) Coal mining industry (c) Distilleries (d) Glass industry 22. Who among the following was not a contemporary of the other three? (a) Bimbsara (b) Gautama Buddha (c) Milinda (d) Prasenjit 23. Consider the following statements: The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for 1. the provincial autonomy. 2. the establishment of Federal Court. 3. All India Federation at the ceph'e. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 aVId 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 24. Consider the' following statements: 1. Warren Hastings was the first Governor General who established a regular

police force in India on the British pattern. 2. A Supreme Court was established at Calcutta by the Regulating Act, 1773. . 3. The Indian Penal Code came into effect in the year 1860. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 25. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the battle fought in India in the 18th Century? (a) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey (b) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Buxar (c) Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey - Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar (d) Battle of Ambur - Battle of Buxar - Battle of Wandiwash - Battle of Plassey 26. Which countries played in the Lawn Tennis Davis Cup Final in the year 2004? (a) Switzerland and United States of America (b) Spain and United States of America (c) Australia and Argentina (d) Sweden and Belgium 27. Where do the Sahariya tribals, who were recently in the news, live?' (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Rajasthan (d) Orissa 28. Whose autobiography is the book "My Music, My Life"? (a) Pandit Shiv Kun~ar Sharma (b) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan (c) Pandit Ravi S.harlkar (d) Ustad Zakir Hussain 29. Consider the following statements: 1. India is the onl1 country in the world producing all the five known commercial varieties of silk. 2. India is the largest producer ot sugar in the world. Which of the stateJt\ents given above is/ are correct? (a) I only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 30. Which one of the following pairs is not.correctly matched? (a) Arjul1 : Indigenously produced Main Battle Tank (MBT)

(b) Phalcon : Cruise missile supplied by Russia to India . (c) Saras : Indigenously developed civilian passenger aircraft (d) Operation Seabird: New Indian Naval Base at Karwar 31. Match items in the List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Power Station) List-II (State) A. Kothagudem 1. Andhra Pradesh B. Raichur 2. Gujarat C. Mettur 3. Karnataka D. Wanakbori 4. Tamil Nadu. A B C D AB CD (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 3 4 2 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3 32. For which one of the following, is Satara well-known? (a) Thermal power plant (b) Wind energy plant (c) Hydro-electric plant (d) Nuclear power plant 33. Which one of the following companies has started a rural marketing network called 'e-chaupals'? (a) ITC (b) Dabur (c) Proctor and Gamble (d) Hindustan Lever 34. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Rourkela Steel Plant, the first integrated steel plant in the Public Sector of India was set up with the Soviet Union collaboration (b) Salem Steel Plant is a premier producer of stainless steel in India (c) Maharashtra Elektrosmelt Ltd. is a subsidiary of the Steel Authority of India Ltd. (d) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is a unit of the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd. 35. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I (Person) List-II (Organization) A.. V. R. S. Natrajan 1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited B. A. K. Puri 2. Air India C. V. Thulasidas 3. Maruti Udyog Limited D. Jagdish Khattar 4. Bharat Earth Movers Limited

5. Indian Space Research Organization ABCDABCD (a) 2 3 5 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 5 3 (d) 4 3 2 1 36. Which one of the following is the correct statement? (a) The modern Kochi was a Dutch colony till India's Independence (b) The Dutch defeated the Portuguese and built Fort Williams in the modern Kochi (c) The modern Kochi was first a Dutch colony before the Portuguese took over from them (d) The modern Kochi never became a part of the British colony 37. Which one of the following was probed by the Liberhan Commission? (a) Test Cricket match fixing (b) Best Bakery Case (c) Tehelka tapes Case (d) Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya 38. Which one of the following airports in India is the first to be owned by a public limited company? (a) Dabolim Airport, Goa (b) Cochin airport (c) Hyderabad airport (d) Bangalore airport 39. Consider the following sites/monuments : 1. Champaner - Pavagadh Archaeological Park 2. Chhatrapati Shivaji Railway Station, Mumbai 3. MamalIapuram 4. Sun Temple (Konark Temple) Which of the above are included in the World Heritage List of UNESCO? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 40. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Bahamas Nassau (b) Costa Rica San Jose (c) Nicaragua Belmopan (d) Dominican Republic Santo Domingo 41. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given towns of

Pakistan while moving from the North towards the South? (a) Islamabad - Gujranwala - Peshawar Multan (b) Peshawar - Gujranwala - Multan Islamabad (c) Peshawar - Islamabad - Gujranwala - Multan (d) Islamabad - Multan - Peshawar - Gujranwala 42. Where are the Balearic Islands located? (a) Mediterranean Sea (b) Black Sea (c) Baltic Sea (d) North Sea 43. Which one of the following countries does not border Lithuania? (a) Poland (b) Ukraine (c) Belarus (d) Latvia 44. Match List - I (Distinguished Person) with List-II (Achievement/Known as) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-II A. Guenter Grass 1. First woman Prime Minister of Canada B. Trevor Huddleston 2. Nobel Prize Winner for literature C. Dicky Dolma 3. Leading campaigner against apartheid in South Africa D. Kim Campell 4. Youngest woman to climb the Mt. Everest 5. American violinist ABCDABCD (a) 5 3 2 1 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 5 3 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 45. Consider the following statements: 1. The Charter ofthe United Nations Organization was adopted at Geneva, Switzerland in June, 1945. 2. India was admitted to the United Nations Organization in the year 1945. 3. The Trusteeship Council of the United Nations Organization was established to manage the affairs of territories detached from Japan and Italy after the Second World War or such territories not under the control of a country at that time. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 46. Match List - I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes

given below the lists: List-I (Distinguished Person) List-II (Area, of Work) A B. V. Rao 1. Automobiles Manufacture B. C.K. Prahalad 2. Fisheries Economy C. John Kurien 3. Information Technology and Software D. Kiran Karnik 4. Poultry Farming 5. Management Science ABCDABCD (a) 2 5 1 3 (b) 4 3 2 5 (c) 2 3 1 5 (d) 4 5 2 3 47. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament cannot enlaf!~e the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution. 2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High If Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 48. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property. 2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right. 3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3 . (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 49. Who among the following invented Lasers? (a) Theodore Maiman (b) Denis Papin (c) William Moton (d) Francis Crick 50. Consider the following statements: 1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa. 2, Constitutions of India and the United States of America can envisage a dual

policy (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship. 3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 only 51. Consider the following statements: I, Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Panchayats and was inserted by the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992. 2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities and the Article 243 Q envisages two types of municipalities - a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 52. Consider the following statements: 1. Lord Mountbatten was the Viceroy when Simla Conference took place. 2. Indian Navy Revok 1946 took place when the Indian sailors in the Royal Indian Navy at Bombay and Karachi rose against the Government. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 53. Which one of the following territories was not affected by the Revolt of 1857? ' (a) Jhansi (b) Chittor (c) ]agdishpur (d) Lucknow 54. Which one of the following places did Kunwar Singh, a prominent leader of the Revolt of 1857 belong to? (a) Bihar (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh 55. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Mpcementt/Satyagraha Person Actively Associated With 1. Champaran Rajendra Prasad 2. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Morarji Desai 3. Kheda Vallabhbhai Patel select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 .(d) 1, 2 and 3 56. Who among the following was 110t associated with the formation of V.P. Kisan Sabha in February 1918? (a) Indra Narain Dwivedi (b) Gauri Shankar Misra (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Madan Mohan Malviya 57. Who among the following drafted the resolution on fundamental rights for the Karachi Session of Congress in 1931? (a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (b) PanditJawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 58. In October 1920, who of the following headed a group of Indians gathered at Tashkent to set up a Communist Party of India? (a) H. K. Sarkar (b) P. C. Joshi (c) M. C. Chagla (d) M. N. Roy 59. At which Congress Session was the Working Committee authorised to launch a programme of Civil Disobedience? (a) Bombay (b) Lahore (c) Lucknow (d) Tripuri 60. In which one of the following provinces was a Congress ministry not formed under the Act of 1935? (a) Bihar (b) Madras (c) Orissa (d) Punjab 61. Consider the following statements: On the eve of the launch of Quit India Movement, Mahatma Gandhi 1. asked the government servants to resign. 2. asked the soldiers to leave their posts. 3. asked the Princes of the Princely States to accept the sovereignty of their own people. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2. (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 62. Where were the Ghadar revolutionaties, who became active during the

outbreak of the World War I based? (a) Central America (b) North America' (c) West America (d) South America 63. What was Komagata Maru? (a) A political party based in Taiwan (b) Peasant communist lead.er of China (c) A naval ship on voyage to China (d) A Chinese village where Mao Tse Tung began his Long march 64. Who among the following was a proponent of Fabianism as a movement? (a) Annie Beasant (b) A. O. Hume (c) Michael Madhusudan Dutt (d) R. Palme Dutt 65. Recently, to which of the following countries did India offer to built a BuddhaTemple? (a) China (b) Myanmar (c) Thailand (d) Vietnam 66. Which one of the following is not an ASEAN member? (a) Cambodia (b) China' (c) Laos (d) Philippines 67. Consider the following: 1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies 2. Motor accident cases 3. Pension cases For which of the above are Lok Adalats held? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 only (d) I, 2 and 3 68. Consider the following statements: 1. Second World Buddhist Summit was held in Bangkok in NovemberDecember, 2004. 2. World Punjabi Conference was held in Jalandhar in December, 2004. 3. 4th Meeting of the SAARC Trade Ministers was held in Islamabad in November, 2004. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

69. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of Russia is called Federal Assembly. 2. The Council of the Federation in the Russian Parliament is the lower house. 3. The name of the upper house in the Russian Parliament is State Duma. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only 70. Consider the following statements: 1. Great Britain comprises England, Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland. 2. England covers less than 60% of the total area of the United Kingdom: Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 71. Consider the following statements: 1. During the process of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution. 2. In the reverse osmosis, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7 (a) I only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 72. Consider the following statements: 1. Poverty Reduction and Growth Facility (PRGF) has been established by the International Development Association (IDA) to provide further assistance to low-income countries facing high level of indebtedness. 2. Singapore Regional Training Institute (STI) is one of the institutes that provides training in macroeconomicanalysis and policy, and related subjects as a part of programme of the IMF Institute. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 73. Consider the following statements: 1. Sensex is based on 50 of the most important stocksavailable on the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). 2. For calculating the Sensex, all the Sensex stocks are assigned proportional weightage.

3. New York Stock Exchange- is the oldest stock exchange in the world. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 2 only- (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None 74. Consider the following statements: 1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome. 2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards. 3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) None 75. Consider the following statements: 1. In the First Round Table Conference Dr. Ambedkar demanded separate electorates for the depressed classes. 2. In the Poona Act, special provisions for representation of the depressed people in the local bodies and civil services were made. 3. The Indian National Congress did not take part in the Third Round Table Conference. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 76. Consider the following statements: 1. lshwar Chandra Vidyasagar founded the Bethune School, at Calcutta with the main aim of encouraging education for women. 2. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay was the first graduate of the Calcutta University. 3. Keshav Chandra Sen's campaign against Sati led to the enactment of a law to ban Sati by the then Governor General. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 77. Who among the following repealed the Vernacular Press Act? (a) Lord Dufferin (b) Lord Ripon (c) Lord Curzon (d) Lord Hardinge

78. Where is the volcanic mountain, Mount St. Helens located? (a) Chile (b) Japan (c) Philippines (d) United States of America 79. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) The Western Ghats are relatively higher in their northern region (b) The Anai Mudi is the highest peak in the Western Ghats (c) Tapi river lies to the south of Satpura (d) The Narmada and the Tapi river valleys are said to be old rift valleys 80. Gandhi Sagar Dam is a part of which one of the following? (a) Chambal Project (b) Kosi Project (c) Damodar Valley Project (d) Bhakra Nangal Project 81. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given hills starting from the north and going towards the south? (a) Nllamalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills Anaimalai Hills (b) Anaimalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills Nallamalai Hills (c) Nallamalai Hills - Javadi Hills - Nilgiri Hills Anaimalai Hills. (d) Anaimalai Hills - Nilgiri Hills - Javadi Hills Nallamalai Hills 82. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere Reserve? (a) Agasthyamalai (b) Nallamalai (c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi Directions; The following 7 (seven) items consist of two state ments; one labelled as the' Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both.A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R b true 83. Assertion (A) The same face of the Moon is always presented to the Earth. Reason (R) The Moon rotates about its own axis in 23 1/2 days which is about the same time that it takes to orbit the Earth. 84. Assertion (A) Existence of human'life on Venus is h:ghly improbable. Reason (R) Venus has extremely high level 9f carbon dioxide in its

atmosphere. 85. Assertion (A) All the proteins in our food are digested in sinall intestine only. Reason (R) The protein-digesting enzymes from pancreas are released into small intestine. 86. Assertion (A) Amoeba reproduces by fission. Reason (R) All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual methods. 87. Assertion (A) WiIid patterns are clockwise in the norhtern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in the southern hemisphere. Reason (R) The directions of wind patterns in the northern and the southern hemisphere are governed by the Coriolis effect. 88. Assertion (A) The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum Gas is methane. Reason (R) Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines. 89. Assertion (A) The-person with diabetes inslpidtis feels thirsty. Reason (R) A person with diabetes insipidus suffers from excess secretion of vasopressin. 90. Consider the following statements: 1. Vigyan Raif is a Science Exhibition on wheels organized bv the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research. 2. Vigyan Prasar is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Human Resource Development. 3. EDUSA T, the lSRO's educational satellite was launched from French Guyana in 2004. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) None 91. Consider the following statements: 1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels. 2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan. 3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include

ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and3 Directions (For the next FOUR items): Ba1iedon the information given below, answer the four items which follow it : Gopal, Harsh, Inder, Jai and Krislman have Ahmedabad, Bhopal, Cuttack, Delhi and Ernakulam as their hometowns (Not necessarily in that order). They' are studying in Engineering, Medical, Commerce, Economics and History Colleges (Not necessarily in that order). None of the five boys is studying in his hometown, buteach of them studies in one of the cities given above. Further, it is given that: (i) Gopal's hometown is Ernakulam. . (ii) Harsh is not studying in Ahmedabad or Bhopal. . (iii) Economic College is in Bhopal. (iv) lnder's hometown is Cuttack. (v) Krishnan is studying in Delhi (vi) Jai is studying in Ernakulam and the History College is in his hometown Ahmedabad. (vii) Engineering College is situated in Ernakulam. Based on the information given above answer the next FOUR items: 92. Which is Krishnan's hometown? (a) Ahmedabad (b) Cuttack (c) Bhopal (d) Cannot be determined 93. Which College is situated in Inder's hometown? (a) Commerce (b) Medical (c) Economics (d) Commerce or Medical 94. Who studies in Bhopal? (a) Gopal (b) Harsh (c) Gopal or lnder (d) Inder or Harsh 95. If Inder studies in Ahmedabad, then which one of the following is the correct combination of Person Hometown Place of Study? (a) Gopal - Ernakulam- Delhi (b) Jai.- Ahmedabad - Ernakulam (c) Krishnan - Delhi - Ernakulam

(d) Harsh - Bhopal- Delhi - ' 96. Left pan of a faulty balance weighs 100 gram more than its right pan. A shopkeeper keeps the weight measure in the left pan while buying goods but keeps it in the right pan while selling his goods. He uses only 1 kg weight measure. If he sells his goods at the listed cost price, what is his gain? (a) 200/11% (b) 100/11 % (c) 100/9% (d) 200/9% 97. On a railway route between two places A and B, there are 10 stations on the way. If 4 new stations are to be added, how many types of new tickets will be required if each ticket is issued for a one-way journey? (a) 14 (b) 48 (c) 96 (d) 108 98. Aryan runs at a speed of 40 metre/minute. Rahul follows him after an interval of 5 minutes and runs at a speed of 50 metre/minute. Rahul's dog runs at a speed of 60 metre/ minute and starts along with Rahul. The dog reaches Aryan and then comes back to Rahul, and continues to do so till Rahul reaches Aryan. What is the total distance covered by the dog? (a) 600 metres (b) 750 metres (c) 980 metres (d) 1200 metres 99. A big rectangular p-Iot. of area 4320 m 2 is divided into 3 square-shaped smaller plots by fencing parallel to the smaller side of the plot. However some area of land Was still left as a square could not be formed. So, 3 more square-shaped plots were formed ~y fencing parallel to the longer side of the original plot such that no area of the plot was left surplus. What are the dimensions of the original plot? (a) 160 m x 27 111 (b) 240 m x 18 m (c) 120 m x 36 m (d) 135 m x 32 m 100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List - I (Atomic Power Plants/ List - II (State) Heavy Waterater Plants) A. Thal B. Manuguru C. Kakrapar

D. Kaiga 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Gujarat 3. Maharashtra 4. Rajasthan 5. Karnataka ABCDABCD (a) 2 1 4 5 (b) 3 5 2 1 (c) 2 5 4 1 (d) 3 1 2 5 101. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the decreasing order of their densities? (a) Steel> Mercury> Gold (b) Gold> Mercury> Steel (c) Steel> Gold> Mercury (d) Gold:> Steel> Mercury 102. Of which one of the following games is Shanmugham Venkatesh an outstanding player? (a) Table tennis (b) Hockey (c) Football (d) Basketball 103. 2 men and 1 woman board a bus in which 5 seats, are vacant. One of these five seats is reserved for ladies. A woman may or may not sit on the seat reserved for ladies but a man can not sit on the seat reserved for ladies. In how, many different ways can the five seats be occupied by these three passengers? (a) 15 (b) 36 (c) 48 (d) 60 104. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts. 2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all. 3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts. " Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 105. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly? (a) B. R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar 106. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? (a) Southern Air Command: Thiruvananthapuram (b) Eastern Naval Command: Visakhapatnam (c) Armoured Corps Centre and School : Jabalpur (d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School : Lucknow 107. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Publication Group 1. Sportstar The Hindu publication group 2. Business-world ABP group 3. The Week Malayala Manorama publication group 4. Reader's Digest Indian Express publication group 109. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 108. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? Enterprise lndustrial Group 1. VSNL Bharati Group 2. Mundra Special Economic Zone Ltd Adani Group 3. CMC Ltd. Tata Grou 4. lPCL Reliance Group Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1,2and3 (b) 3and4 (c) I, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 109. In which country is Bandung, where the Conference of Mrican and Asian nations was held which led to establishing Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), situated? (a) Thailand (b) Egypt (c) Indonesia (d) Philippines 110. Match items in the List-I (Businesswoman) with those in the List-II (Company) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I

A. Zia Mody B. AnuradhaJ. Desai C. Villoo Morawala Patell D. Meena Kaushik List-II 1. Venkateshwara Hatcheries 2. AZB & Partners 3. Quantum Market Research 4. A vestha Gengraine Technologies 5. Biocon India ABCDABCD (a) 4 1 5 3 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 5 1 (d) 2 1 4 3 111. A square is divided into 9 identical smaller squares. Six identical balls are to be placed in these smaller squares such that each of the three rows gets at least one ball (one ballin one square only). In how many different ways can this be done? (a) 27 (b) 36 (c) 54 (d) 81 112. There are 6 persons - A, B, C, D, E and F. They are to be seated in a row such that B never sits anywhere ahead of A, and Cinever sits anywhere ahead of B. In how many different ways can this be done? (a) 60 (b) 72 (c) 120 (d) None of the above 113. For which one of the following items, is Tirupur well C.S.E. General Studies (Pm.) 2005 known as a huge exporter to many parts of the world? (a) Gems and Jewellery (b) Leather goods. (c) Knitted gannants (d) Handicrafts . 114. Which one of the following pairs is Hot correctly matched? Project Company (a) Integrated Steel Plant at Jajpur (Orissa): Steel Authodty of India (b) Power Plant at Jamnagar(Gujarat): Essar Power (c) Nabinagar Power Plant (Bihar): Indian railways (d) Kayamkulom Power Plant (Kerala): National Thermal Power Corporation

115. Virtual water trade is being looked at by experts as a solution to the world's water crisis. What does virtual water (VW) imply? (a) Volume of heavy wah~r required to replace ordinary water. (b) Volume of water required to produce a commodity or service (c) V olume of water saved by using rainwater harvesting (d) Volume of ~ater utilized by an effective flood control 116. Consider the following statements concerning the Indian Railways: 1. The Head Quarters of the North Western Railway are located at Jodhpur. 2. lndrail pass' - a travel-as-you-please ticket has been created especially for freedom fighters and sports persons who have represented India in any game/ sport. 3. Fairy Queen is a train using the world's oldest working engine and the Indian Railways conduct a journey of wildlife and heritage sites on it. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) None 117. 300 persons are participating in a meeting, out of which 120 are foreigners, and the rest are Indians. Out of the Indians, there are 110 men who are not judges; 160 are men or judges, and 35 are women judges. There are no foreign judges. How.many Indian women attended the meeting? (a) 35 (b) 45 (c) 55 (d) 60 118. There are 6 persons: A, B, C, D, E and F. A has 3 items more than C D has 4 items less than B E has 6 items less than F C has 2 items more than E F has 3 items more than D Which one of the following figures can not be equal to the total number of items possessed by all the 6 persons? (a) 41 (b) 47 (c) 53 (d) 58 119. Ten identical particles are moving randomly inside a closed box. What is the probability that at any given point of time all the ten particles will be lying in the same half of the box? (a) 1/2 (b) 1/5 (c) 2/9 (d) 2/11

120. An equilateral triangular plate is to be cut into n number of identical small equilateral triangular plates. Which one of the following can be possible value of n? (a) 196 (b) 216 (c) 256 (d) 296 121. There are 10 identical coins and each one of them has 'H' engraved on its one face and 'T' engraved on its other face. These 10 coins are lying on a table and each one of them has 'H' face as the upper face. In one attempt, exactly four (neither more nor less) coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which the 'T' faces of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper faces? (a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) Not possible 122. Which of the following States border Uttar Pradesh? 1. Punjab 2. Rajasthan 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Jharkhand Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 123. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa? (a) Pretoria (b) Durban (c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town 124. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched? British Prime Minister . Political Party (a) John Major Conservative Partv (b) James Callaghan Labour Party ~ (c) Harold Wilson Conservative Party (d) Margaret Thatcher Conservative Party 125. Match items in List-I with those in the List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List - I (Location) List - 1I (Known For/1n News for) A. Kakinada 1. Skybus Metro rail test-run B. Dundigal 2. ITC paper board unit

C. Margao 3. Bio-diesel plant D. Bhadrachalam 4. Indian Air Force Academy ABCDABCD (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2 126. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language? (a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia (c) Mauritius (d) Singapore 127. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Indian cities in the decreasing order of their normal annual rainfall? (a) Kochi - Kolkata - Delhi - Patna (b) Kolkata - Kochi - Patna Delhi (c) Kochi - Kolkata - Patna - Delhi (d) Kolkata - Kochi - Delhi - Patna 128. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List - I (City) List - II (River) A. Washington D.C. 1. River Manzanares B. Berlin 2. River Seine C. Paris 3. River Spree D. Madrid 4. River Potomac ABCDABCD (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 1 2 129. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of the United States of America came into force in the year 1810. 2. All revenue bills must originate in the House of Representatives of the US Congress. 3. George W.Bush is the only President in the history of the United States of America whose father was also the President of the United States of America Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3

130. Which of the following diseases of mil ching animals are infectious? 1. Foot and Mouth disease 2. Anthrax 3. Black Quarter 4. Cowpox Select the correct answer using the codes given below; (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 131. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work? (a) Ministry of Agriculture (b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (c) Ministry of Human Resource Development (d) Ministry of Rural Development 132. Consider the following statements: 1. Dengue is a protozoan' disease transmitted by mosquitoes. 2. Retro-orbital pain is not a symptom of Dengue. 3. Skin rash and bleeding from nose and gums are some of the symptoms of the Dengue. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 133. Who among the following is not a member of the Investment Commission fornled in December, 2004? (a) Ratan Tata (b) Deepak Parekh (c) Ashok Ganguly (d) Kumaramangalam Birla 134. Consider the following statements: 1. Silent Valley National Park is in the Nallamalai range. 2. Pathrakkadavu Hydroelectric Project is proposed to be built near the Silent Valley National Park. 3. The Kunthi river originates in Silent Valley's rainforests. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 135. In which one of the following countries did hundreds of people die in year 2004 as a result of flooding and mudslides triggered by Tropical Storm

Jeanne? (a) Colombia (b) Haiti (c) Sudan (d) Ghana 136. Consider the following statements: 1. Areawise, Chhattisgarh is larger than West Bengal. 2. According to the Population '2001 Census, population of West Bengal is larger than that of Chhattisgarh. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 137. Which one ofthe following pairs is not correctly matched? Current Name Old Name (a) Harare Salisbury (b) Ethiopia Abyssinia. (c) Ghana Dutch Guiana (d) Kinshasa Leopoldville 138. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) The First Meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety was held in Philippines in the year 2004 (b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity (c) The Biosafety protocol deals with genetically modified organisms (d) The United States of America is member of the Biosafety Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity 139. Where was world's largest ever Meet on HIV AIDS held in July, 2004? (a) Bangkok (b) Singapore (c) New York (d) Rome 140. Consider the following statements: 1. Global Trust Bank has been amalgamated with the Punjab National Bank. 2. The second report of the Kelkar Committee dealing with direct and indirect taxes has maintained its original recommendations including the abolition of exemptions relating to housing loans. . Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 141. Which one of the following is the correct statement on the basis of Census200l? (a) Bihar has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Castes of its population (b) The decadal growth of population of India (1991-2001) has been below 20% (c) Mizoram is the Indian State with the least population (d) Pondicherry has the highest sex ratio among the Union Territories 142. The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to : (a) Empowering the Centre to levy and appropriate service tax (b) The constitution of the National Judicial Commission (c) Readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the Population Census 2001 (d) The demarcation of new boundaries between States 143. Consider the following statements: 1. India is the second country in the world to adopt a National Family Planning Programme. 2. The National Population Policy of India 2000 seeks to achieve replacement level of fertility by 201 0 with a population of 111 crores. 3. Kerala is the first State in India to achieve replacement level of fertility. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct 7 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 144. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List - I (Lawn Tennis Tournament) List - II (Winner of Women Si/lgles) A. French Open-2004 1. Svetlana Kuznetsova B. Wimbledon-2004 2. Anastasia Myskina C. US Open-2004 3. Maria Sharapova D. Australian Open-2004 4. Serena Williams 5. Justine Henin-Hardene ABCDABCD (a) 5 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 5 (c) 5 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 5 145. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given

below the lists: List - I (Famolls Former Sportsperson) List - II (Game/Sport) A. Wally Grout 1. Swimming B. Eusebio 2. Lawn Tennis C. Rod Laver 3. Cricket D. Mark Spitz 4. Football 5. Basketball ABCDABCD (a) 3 5 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 5 3 4 146. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) There is no definition of the Scheduled Tribe in the Constitution of India (b) North-East India accounts for a little over half of the country's tribal population (c) The people known as Todas live in the Nilgiri area (d) Lotha is a language spoken in Nagaland 147. Consider the following statements: 1. The forest cover in India constitutes around 20% of its geographical area. Out of the total forest cover, dense forest constitutes around 40%. 2. The National Fores-try Action Programme aims at bringing one-third of the area of India under tree/ forest cover. Whith of the statements given above is/are correct) (a) 1 orily (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 148. Consider the following statements: 1. The Man Booker Prize is awarded to citizen of any of the countries of the British Commonwealth or the Republic of Ireland. 2. A leading London-based software company underwrites the Man Booker Prize presently. 3. The winner of the Man Booker Prize in year 2004 is a South Asian. Which of the statements given above is/are correct) (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 149. Consider the following statements: 1. The number of post offices in India is in excess of 1.5 lakhs.

2. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) was formed in the year 1997. 3. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established in the year 2000. Which of the staten1ents given above is/are correct) (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 only (d) 3 only 150. Which of the following pairs are correctIy matched? Person Award 1. Champadevi Shukla : Goldman Environmental Prize 2. Dr. P. Sri Ramaehanrudu: Vaehaspati Puraskar 3. Ela Ramesh Bhatt: Lal Bahadur Shastri National A ward for Excellence in Public Administration, Academics and Management 4. Upamanyu Chatterjee: Lalit Kala Ratna Award Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

ANSWERS 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (d) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (b) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (a) 81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (c) 90. (d) 91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (d) 99. (c) 100.(d) 101.(b) 102.(c) 103.(b) 104. (c) 105. (c) 106. (c) 107. (b) 108. (d)

109.(c) 110. (d) 111. (d) 112. (d) 113. (c) 114. (a) 115.(b) 116. (b) 117. (c) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (c) 121.(a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (c) 125. (b) 126. (d) 127.(c) 128. (d) 129. (b) 130. (c) 131. (c) 132. (b) 133.(d) 134. (c) 135. (b) 136. (c) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139.(a) 140. (b) 141. (d) 142. (b) 143. (c) 144. (b) 145.(c) 146. (b) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (b)