Upsc Objective Type Old Question Papers

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(PAPERI I )

1. Match list I with list II and select the
correct answer
List I
A. Loess
B. Peat
C. Alluvial soil
D. Mari
List II
1. Deposited from suspension in running
water
2. Deposits of marine origin
3. Deposits by wind
4. Organic soil
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
2. Match List I (Soils) with List II (Group
symbols) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Clayey gravel
B. Clayey sand
C. Organic clay
D. Silty sand
List II
1. SM
2. OH
3. SC
4. GC
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
3. The value of porosity of a soil sample in
which the total volume of soil grains is
equal to twice the total volume of voids
would be
a. 75%
b. 66.66%
c. 50%
d. 33.33%
4. A soil has a liquid limit of 40% and
plasticity index of 20%. The plastic limit
of the soil will be
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 60%
5. In a two-layer soil system, the top soil and
bottom soil are of same thickness but the
coefficient of permeability of the top soil
is twice that of the bottom solid of
coefficient of permeability k. When
horizontal flow occurs, the equivalent
coefficient of permeability of the system
will be
a. 2 k
b. 1.5 k
c. 1.25 k
d. 1.2 k
6. A strata of 3.5 m thick fine sand has a void
ratio of 0.7 and G of 2.7. For a quicksand
condition to develop in this strata, the
water flowing in upward direction would
require a heat of
a. 7 m
b. 5.56 m
c. 5 m
d. 3.5 m
7. A flownet of a Coffer dam foundation has
6 flow channels and 18 equipotential
drops. The head of water lost during
seepage is 6 m. If the coefficient of
permeability of foundation is 410
5

m/min., then the seepage loss per m length
of dam will be
a. 2.16 10
2
m
3
/ day
b. 6.48 10
2
m
3
/ day
c. 11.52 10
2
m
3
/ day
d. 34.56 10
2
m
3
/ day
8. A sample of saturated sand has a dry unit
weight of 18 kN/m
3
and a specific gravity
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000
C CI I V VI I L L E EN NG GI I N NE EE ER RI I N NG G
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of 2.7. If
water
is 10 kN / m
3
, the void ratio
of the soil sample will be
a. 0.5
b. 0.6
c. 0.4
d. 0.9
9. Consider the following features of direct
shear test :
1. Failure takes place on the
predetermined plane
2. It is a quick test
3. Drainage conditions cannot be changed
4. Failure of the sample is progressive
Which of these are the disadvantages of
direct shear test ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
10. Match List I(in situ test) with List II
(Measurement) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. SPT test
B. Plate load test
C. Field vaneshear test
D. CPT test
List II
1. penetration resistance (N value)
2. Load settlement data
3. Point resistance and skin friction
4. In situ shear strength
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 1 4 3
11. The correct sequence of the given
parameters in descending order of eat
pressure intensity is
a. active, passive, at rest
b. passive, active at rest
c. passive, at rest, active
d. at rest, passive, active
12. Consider the following statements
associated with stability of slope :
1. Stability number is inversely
proportional to cohesion and directly
proportional to height
2. Swedish method of analysis is based
on circular failure surfaces.
3. The Culmann method assumes that
rupture will occur in a plane
Which of the statement are correct ?
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
13. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Dense sand
B. Loose sand
C. Plastic clay
List II
1.

2.

3.
A B C
a. 3 2 1
b. 2 1 3
c. 1 3 2
d. 1 2 3
14. Which one of the following diagrams
represents the effective pressure
distribution for a saturated soil mass of
depth z submerged under water of height
z
1
above its top level (' = submerged
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density of soil,
sat
= saturated density of
soil and
w
= unit weight of water) ?
a.
b.
c.

d.
correct answer using the codes (Notations
have their usual meaning) :
List I
A. Coefficient of compressibility
B. Compression index
C. Time factor
D. Coefficient of volume compressibility
List II
1. m
v

2. C
v
t/H
2

3. a
v

4. C
c

A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 3 4 2 1
16. Reduction in volume of soil primarily due
to squeezing out of water from the voids is
called
a. primary consolidation
b. plastic flow
c. creep
d. secondary consolidation
17. In the case of stratified soil layers, the best
equation that can be adopted for
computing the pressure distribution is
a. Prandtls
b. Skemptons
c. Westergaards
d. Boussinesqs
18. A wet, cohesive subgrade is most
effectively stabilized by the addition of
a. cement
b. fly ash
c. bitumen
d. lime
19. The settlement analysis for a clay layer
draining from top and bottom shows a
settlement of 2.5 cm in 4 years and an
ultimate settlement of 10 cm. However
detailed subsurface investigation reveals
that there is no drainage at the bottom. The
ultimate settlement in this condition will
be
a. 2.5 cm
b. 5 cm
c. 10 cm
d. 20 cm
20. Match List I (Suitable condition) with list
II (Foundations) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. When structural load is uniform and
soil is soft clay, made up of marshy
land
B. When structural load is heavy and/or
soil having low bearing capacity for
considerable depth
C. When soil is having good bearing
capacity at shallow depth and
structural load is within permissible
limit
D. When structural load of bridge is to be
transferred through sandy soil to bed
rock
List II
1. Footings
2. Piles
3. Raft
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4. Wells or pier
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 3 2 1 4
21. Match list I(Contact pressure distribution
diagrams) with List II (Description of
footings) and select the correct answer :
List I
A.

B.
C.
D.
List II
1. Rigid footing on cohesive soil
2. Flexible footing on cohesive soil
3. Rigid footing on cohensionless soil at
ground level
4. Flexible footing on cohesionless soil at
ground level
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 4 1 3 2
22. Depth of foundation depends upon
a. Scour depth, minimum grip length and
Rankine depth
b. Scour depth, minimum grip length and
depth of a bearing stratum
c. Scour depth, Rankine depth and depth
of a bearing stratum
d. Minimum grip length, Rankine depth
and depth of bearing stratum
23. The nature of earth pressure above dredge
line behind a cantilever sheet pile wall is
a. active
b. passive
c. at rest
d. active and passive
24. A machine foundation weights 39.24 kN
and has a spring constant k = 10000 kN/m.
The system will be critically dumped if the
damping coefficient C
c
is (acceleration
due to gravity, g = 9.81 m
2
/s.
a. 100 kN.s/m
b. 200 kN.s/m
c. 400 kN.s/m
d. 800 kN.s/m
25. Which one of the following soil types is
most likely to be subjected to liquefaction
under seismic forces ?
a. Soft saturated clays
b. Loose saturated sands
c. Murum
d. Fractured rocky strata
26. The length of National Highways as per 3
rd

10 years (Lucknow) road plan is given by
a. area of the country / 75
b. area of the country / 50
c. area of the country / 40
d. area of the country / 25
27. Total reaction time of a driver does not
depend upon
a. perception time
b. brake reaction time
c. condition of mind of the drive
d. speed of vehicle
28. A horizontal curve of 480 m for 7.5 m
two-lane road is to be designed for a speed
of 80 kmph. The raising of the outer edge
of the pavement with respect to the inner
edge to cater to the mixed traffic condition
is
a. 0.14 m
b. 0.22 m
c. 0.24 m
d. 0.27 m
29. If the modulus of subgrade reaction of a
soil is 10kg/cu.cm when tested with a 30
cm diameter plate, the corrected modulus
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of subgrade reaction for the standard
diameter plate will be
a. 4
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
30. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under
the standard test conditions, penetration
value of bitumen would vary from
a. 0.8 mm to 1 mm
b. 8 mm to 10 mm
c. 8 cm to 10 cm
d. 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm
31. Which one of the following curves
illustrates the correct relation between %
voids in total mix and % bitumen ?
a.

b.
c.

d.
32. Consider the following factors :
1. Length of vehicle
2. Width of vehicle
3. Approach speed
4. Stopping time for approaching vehicle
5. Passing sight distance
Which of these factors are taken into
consideration for determining yellow time
of a traffic signal at an inter-section ?
a. 1, 2 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 5
d. 1, 3 and 4
33. Which one of the following is useful in
functional evaluation of pavement ?
a. P C U
b. P S I
c. P I E V
d. Benkelman beam
34. A railway yard in which wagons are
received, sorted and new trains are formed
is called a
a. good yard
b. station yard
c. marshalling yard
d. shunting yard
35. A cross-over of 1 in 10 exists between two
broad gauge parallel tracks with centres at
5 m apart. The length of the straight track
is
a. 16.4 m
b. 18.4 m
c. 19.2 m
d. 19.92 m
36. Which one of the following signals is
provided beyond the trailing points and
switches in a railway yard ?
a. Repeater signal
b. Departure signal
c. Advance starter
d. Routing signal
37. The phenomenon of movement and
deposition of san din a zig-zag due to
drifting of sand in the vicinity of coast is
called
a. littoral drift
b. sedimentation
c. beach drift
d. trough action
38. Match list I(Structure) with List
II(Purpose) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Breakwater
B. Wharf
C. Fender system
D. Revetments
List II
1. Separates the land from sea water
2. Lays vessels alongside, receives and
discharges cargo and passengers
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3. protects a seashore
4. Absorbs the energy of the moving
vessel
5. Retards erosion of an existing beach
A B C D
a. 5 2 4 3
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 1 4 3 5
39. The lowest tide which occurs in half lunar
month is called
a. spring tide
b. neap tide
c. lunar tide
d. tidal bore
40. Which one of the following methods of
tunneling is used in hard rock ?
a. Forepoling method
b. Needle beam method
c. Heading and benching method
d. Shield tunneling method
41. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. P N d B
B. L C N
C. S T O L
D.
List II
1. Noise level
2. Visual range
3. Airport pavement evaluation
4. type of aircraft
A B C
a. 1 3 4
b. 1 4 3
c. 4 2 1
d. 2 3 4
42. For a runway at an elevation of 1000 m
above MSL and airport reference
temperature of 16
o
C, the rise in
temperature to be taken into account as per
ICAO is
a. 24.5
o
C
b. 15
o
C
c. 7.5
o
C
d. 6
o
C
43. Which one of the following surveys is
required in observations of stars ?
a. Astronomical survey
b. Cadastral survey
c. Aerial survey
d. Photogrammetric survey
44. The arithmetical check for the computation
of R.L. by rise and fall method is given
by
a. E F.S. E B.S. = R.L. of last station
point R.L. of first station point =
EFall E Rise
b. E B.S. E F.S. = R.L. of first station
point R.L. of last station point =
ERise + E Fall
c. E B.S. E F.S. = R.L. of last station
point R.L. of first station point =
ERise E Fall
d. E B.S. E F.S. = ERise E Fall =
R.L. of first station point R.L. of
last station point
45. If the declination is 5
o
40' W, which one of
the following magnetic bearing would
represent the true bearing of S 25
o
20' E ?
a. S 19
o
20' E
b. S 31
o
0' E
c. S 20
o
0' E
d. S 19
o
20' W
correct answer :
List I
A. Vertical cliff
B. Steep slope
C. Hill
D. Overhanging
Lists II
1. Contour lines of different elevations
unite to form one line
2. Contour lines of different elevations
cross one another
3. Contour lines are closely spaced
4. Closed contour lines with higher
values inside them
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 2 1 3
47. Triangulation station selected close to the
main station for avoiding intervening
obstruction is called
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a. accentric station
b. pivot station
c. satellite station
d. tie station
48. If the equation of time is 13' 28.5, then
the Greenwich Apparent Time
corresponding to zero hour Greenwich
Mean Time on a day is
a. 13' 28.5
b. 46' 31.5
c. 23 h 46' 31.5 of same day
d. 23 h 46' 31.5 of previous day
49. The method of orienting a plane table with
two inaccessible points is known as
a. intersection
b. resection
c. back sighting
d. two-point problem
50. A vertical photograph was taken at an
altitude of 1500 m above MSL. If the
length of the camera is 20 m, the scale of
photograph for a terrain lying at an
elevation of 500 m is
a. 1 : 50
b. 1 : 100
c. 1 : 1000
d. 1 : 25
51. Assertion (A) : For a given soil, the
optimum moisture content increases with
the increase in compactive effort.
Reason (R) : Higher the compactive effort,
higher is the dry density at the same
moisture content.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
52. Assertion (A) : Stress paths can be plotted
for stress conditions during triaxial test.
Reason (R) : It is not possible to control
drainage in a triaxial test .
53. Assertion (A) : The rates of settlement of
building structures on dandy clay soils are
faster compared to those of buildings
constructed on clayey soils.
Reason (R) : The rate of consolidations
dependent on the permeability of soils and
the permeability of sandy clay is more than
that of clayey soil.
54. Assertion (A) : Pile driving formulae have
very limited use in the case of cohesive
soils.
Reason (R) : Pile driving in cohesive soils
results in liquefaction of clays.
55. Assertion (A) : Larger footings settle more
than the smaller footings under the same
load intensity.
Reason (R) : Size of the pressure bulb
depends upon the size of the footing.
56. Assertion (A) : In a spherical triangle, the
sum of the three sides is always less than
the circumference of the greater circle.
Reason (R) : The sum of the three angles
of a spherical triangle is greater than two
right angles, but less than six right angles.
57. Assertion (A) : The critical combination of
stresses on a cement concrete pavement
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during summer is given by : load stress
warping stress + frictional stress.
Reason (R) : The critical combination of
stresses in the cement concrete pavement
during winter is given by : load stress +
warping stress + frictional stress.
58. Assertion (A) : The prime coat is an
interface bituminous treatment when the
existing base course has a pervious texture
like water bound macadam.
Reason (R) : The primer has to get into the
capillary voids in the existing base and it
should be of low viscosity. Bituminous
emulsion is generally used as a prime cost.
59. Assertion (A) : Coning of wheels in
railways does not cause wear and tear on
the rails as well as on the tread of the
wheels.
Reason (R) : The rails are tilted at an angle
of 1 in 20 to reduce the wear and tear on
the rails as well as on the tread of the
wheels.
60. Assertion (A) : Scissor crossing is
provided where space does not permit
provision of two separate cross-overs.
Reason (R) : A scissor crossing consists of
four pairs of switches, six acute angle
crossings and four obtuse angle crossing s
and check rails.
61. Assertion (A) : Surges can be positive or
negative.
Reason (R) : Negative surges may occur
when a gate at the head of a channel is
suddenly opened or when a gate at tail end
of a of a channel is suddenly closed.
62. Assertion (A) : The future population is
prediced on the basis of knowledge of the
city and its environment.
Reason (R) : the future population depends
on the trade and expansion of the city,
discovery of mineral deposits, power
generation etc.
63. Assertion (A) : The leakage losses are less
when the water supply in intermittent.
Reason (R) : Pressure is less in intermittent
water supply.
64. Assertion (A) : Alum is the most
commonly used coagulant in water
treatment.
Reason (R) : alum is very effective in
killing pathogens present in water.
65. Assertion (A) : Sewers are not allowed to
flow full.
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Reason (R) : reserve space in the sewer
takes care of fluctuations in the sewage
flow.
66. Assertion (A) : In recent years, here has
been a progressive increase in the
percentage of solar ultra-violet rays
reaching the earths surface.
Reason (R) : In the last few years, there
has been a progressive increase in the
percentage of carbon dioxide in the earths
atmosphere.
67. A rural water supply scheme serves a
population of 10,000 at the rate of 50 liters
per capita per day. For the chlorine does of
2ppm, the required amount of bleaching
powder with 20% available chlorine will
be
a. 0.5 kg
b. 5 kg
c. 10 kg
d. 15 kg
68. The usual size of residential ferrule bore
varies from
a. 1 mm to 5mm
b. 10 mm to 50 mm
c. 100 mm to 500 mm
d. 1000 mm to 5000 mm
69. Reciprocating pumps are suitable fro
a. low discharge and high head
b. high discharge and low head
c. low discharge and low head
d. high discharge and high head
70. In which one of the following tests is the
organic matter in the waster water used as
food by micro-organisms ?
a. B.O.D.
b. Most probable number
c. C.O.D.
d. Chlorine demand
71. The function of algae in an oxidation pond
is to
a. provide a mat over the surface of the
oxidation pond so as to prevent
evaporation of water
b. provide oxygen for bacterial to degrade
organic matter
c. provide a greenish appearance to the
pond
d. prevent the odour nuisance
72. At an incubation temperature of 20
o
C, if
initial DO (dissolved oxygen) and final
DO values after 5 days incubation period
are 8.5 mg / l and 5.5 mg / l respectively,
then the BOD will be
a. 50 mg / l
b. 150 mg / l
c. 250 mg / l
d. 350 mg / l
73. Consider the following pairs of treatment
units and impurities removed :
1. Grit chamber : sand and slit
2. Detritus tank : Organic matter
3. Primary sedimentation tank :
Suspended impurities
4. Aeration tank of activated : Oil and
grease
Which of these pairs are correctly
matched?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
74. When a sewage is dispose din a river, the
rate of depletion of dissolved oxygen of
the river mainly depends on
a. biochemical oxygen demand of the
sewage
b. chemical oxygen demean of the
sewage
c. total organic carbon present in the
sewage
d. dissolved oxygen present in the sewage
75. From a waste, the 5-day BOD at 20
o
C is
found to be 200 mg/l. For the same waste,
5-day BOD at 30
o
C will be
a. less than 200 mg / l
b. more than 200 mg / l
c. 200 mg / l
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d. zero, as the bacterial cannot withstand
such a high temperature
76. The ultimate BOD value of a waste
a. increases with temperature
b. decreases with temperature
c. remains the same at all temperature
d. doubles with every 10
o
C rise in
temperature
77. For the design of a storm sewer in a
drainage area, if the time of concentration
is 20 min., then the duration of rainfall will
be taken as
a. 10 min
b. 20 min
c. 30 min
d. 40 min
78. From ecological considerations, the
minimum level of Dissolved Oxygen (DO)
necessary in the rivers and streams is
a. 1 mg / l
b. 2 mg / l
c. 4 mg / l
d. 8 mg / l
79. The role of the bed material in a packed
tower used for removing particular matter
from gaseous emission is to
a. act as a filter bed to capture the
particulates within the pores
b. provide a large surface area on which
the particulate matter can be collected
c. reduce the flow of gas
d. uniformly distribute the spray of water
80. Which one of the following plume
behaviors occurs when atmospheric
inversion begins from the ground level and
continues ?
a. Looping
b. Fumigation
c. Coning
d. Fanning
81. Which one of the following pollutants or
pairs of pollutants is formed due to
photochemical reactions ?
a. CO alone
b. O
3
and PAN
c. PAN and NH
3

d. NH
3
and CO
82. In the context of basic concept of an
ecological system, the most appropriate
definition of ecology is that it is a study of
the
a. inter-relationship between organisms
and the environment
b. relationship of human species with the
industry
c. relationship of human species with
natural resources
d. relationship of human species with air
83. Organisms that mineralize organic matter
in an ecosystem are called
a. producers
b. consumers
c. decomposers
d. carnivorous
84. Aerobic method of composting practiced
in India is called
a. Bangalore method
b. Nagpur method
c. Delhi method
d. Indore method
85. Which of the following statements related
to C/N (Carbon/Nitrogen) ratio is not
correct ?
a. Lower initial C/N ratio leads to loss of
nitrogen and slows down the rate of
decomposition
b. Higher initial C/N ratio leads to cell
destruction to obtain nutrition
c. Higher initial C/N ratio leads to lower
conservation of nitrogen in the finished
compost
d. An initial C/N ratio of 30 to 50 is
optimal for composting
86. The raw water entering an ideal horizontal
settling tank contains following two types
of particles :
Particle
type
Settling velocity
(m/h)
Concentration
(mg/l)
I
II
3
1
200
300
When the surface overflow rate of the
settling tank is 3m
3
/m
2
/h, the concentration
of the particles in the settled water will be
a. 100 mg/l
b. 200 mg/l
c. 300 mg/l
d. 400 mg/l
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87. Which one of the following filters will
produce water of higher bacteriological
quality ?
a. slow and filter
b. rapid sand filter
c. pressure filter
d. dual media filter
88. Which one of the following sets of
processes is a part of self-purification of
streams ?
a. Settling, bio-degradation and
desalination
b. Settling, bio-degradation and aeration
c. Flotation, ion exchange and
desalination
d. Desalination, ion exchange and reverse
osmosis
89. When sewage enters a flowing river, the
rapid depletion of dissolved oxygen is due
to
a. change in temperature in river water
b. the suspended particles in river and
waste
c. respiratory activity of aquatic plants in
the river
d. microbial activity
90. Consider the following advantages :
1. Lower BOD concentration is
supernatant liquor.
2. production of a sludge with excellent
dewatering capacity.
3. Recovery of methane gas.
4. Lower operation cost.
Which of these are the advantages of
anaerobic digestion over aerobic
digestion?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
91. The MLSS concentration in the aeration
taken of extended aeration activated sludge
process is 4000 mg/l. If one litre of sample
settled in 30 minutes and the measuring
cylinder showed a sludge volume of 200
ml, then the sludge volume index would be
nearly
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 50
92. When the water surface coincides with the
top edge of a rectangular vertical gate 40
m (wide) 3 m (deep), then the depth of
centre of pressure is
a. 1 m
b. 1.5 m
c. 2 m
d. 2.5 m
93. If a water tank, partially filled with water
is being carried on a truck, moving with a
constant horizontal acceleration, the level
of liquid will
a. rise and fall alternately one the front
side of the tank
b. fall on the rear side of the tank
c. remain the same on both sides of the
tank
d. rise on the rear side and fall on the
front side of the tank
94. A body is floating as shown in the given
figure. The centre of buoyancy, centre of
gravity and metacentre are labeled
respectively as B, G and M. The body is

a. vertically stable
b. vertically unstable
c. rotationally stable
d. rotationally unstable
95. Consider the following velocity profiles in
a pipeline :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among these profiles, the momentum
correction factor would be
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a. least in 4
b. highest in 1
c. more in 3 than that for 2
d. the same in 1, 2, 3 and 4
96. If the error in the measurement of head in
a V notch is 1%, then the error in the
measurement of discharge will be
a. 1%
b. 1.5%
c. 2%
d. 2.5%
97. A two-dimensional flow is described by
velocity components u = 2x and v = 2y.
The discharge between points (1,1) and
(2,2) is equal to
a. 9 units
b. 8 units
c. 7 units
d. 6 units
98. A pump running at 1414 rpm delivers 256
lps of water against a head of 16 m. The
pump is of the
a. normal speed radial type
b. double suction type
c. mixed flow type
d. axial flow type
99. Euler number or pressure coefficient may
be represented as(notations have their
usual meanings )
a.
p
H
A

b.
( )
2
/ 2
p
V
A

c.
/
p
V L
A

d.
p
Lg
A

100. If the velocity profile in laminar flow is
parabolic, then the shear stress profile
must be
a. a hyperbola
b. a parabola
c. a straight line
d. an ellipse
regarding friction factor variation in a pipe
flow :
1. In hydrodynamically rough boundaries
friction factor f is related to relative
roughness c/D, (c s roughness and D is
the diameter of pipe).
2. In hydrodynamically smooth
boundaries, friction factor f depends
both on Reynolds number Re and
relative roughness.
3. If the friction factor, f =
1/ 4
0.316
Re
, then
the value of the friction factor f
relates to the that of the region of
turbulent flow in smooth boundary.
4. Friction factor is directly related to the
nature of boundary layer in a pipe flow
Which of these statemtns are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
102. A and B are at the same elevation of 2.5 m
above datum in the value and pipe line
shown in the given figure. Velocity head
of 0.5 m, head loss in value of 0.2 m and
pressure head of 2.5 m are the parameters
at A. Piezometric head at B is equal to

a. 5.5 m
b. 5.3 m
c. 5.0 m
d. 4.8 m
103. Consider the following conditions for the
pipe network shown in the given
figure(Notations have the usual meaning
with suffixes 1, 2 and 3 referring to
respective pipes) :
1. Q
1
= Q
3

2. Q
2
= Q
1
+ Q
3

3. h
f1
= h
f3

4. h
f1
= h
f2
=

h
f3

Which of these conditions must be
satisfied by this pipe network ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
104. Consider the following statements :
13 of 14
1. In an open channel flow, energy grade
line is obtained by adding datum head,
pressure head and velocity head.
2. In an open channel, hydraulic grade
line is the free surface itself.
3. For a pipe and an open channel of
source dimension, the hydraulic
gradient line is located at the same
height above datum.
4. Energy gradient line of an open
channel is always horizontal.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
105. Maximum pressure rise due to water
hammer in a pipe-line (a = area of the
pipe; V
0
= velocity; g = acceleration due to
gravity; t = time period; l = length of the
pipeline) is
a. aV
0
/ 2g
b.
2
0
V / a g
c.
0
0
V / l gt
d. independent of the dimensions of the
pipe
106. For a wide rectangular channel using
Mannings formula, the differential
equation of gradually varies flow(with the
usual notations) is given by
a.
10/3
3
0
[1 ( / ) ]
[1 ( / ) ]
c
o
y y dy
S
dx y y

b.
10/3
3
0
[1 ( / ) ]
[1 ( / ) ]
c
o
y y dy
S
dx y y

c.
3
0
3
[1 ( / ) ]
[1 ( / ) ]
o
c
y y dy
S
dx y y

d.
3
3
0
[1 ( / ) ]
[1 ( / ) ]
c
o
y y dy
S
dx y y

107. A sluice gate opening in a canal is shown
in the given figure. The shapes of water
surface profiles at X, Y and Z will be
respectively

a. M
1
, M
3
and M
1

b. M
2
, M
3
and M
2

c. S
1
, S
3
and S
2

d. H
2
, S
3
and S
1

The head-discharge characteristics curve
of two centrifugal pump is
1. parallel can be obtained by doubling
the ordinates .
2. series can be obtained by doubling the
abscissa.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
a. 2 alone
b. 1 alone
c. Neither 1 nor 2
d. 1 and 2
109. If the base period of a 6 hour unit
hydrograph of a basin is 84 hours, then a
112 hour unit hydrograph derived from
this 6 hour unit hydrograph will have a
base period of
a. 72 hours
b. 78 hours
c. 84 hours
d. 90 hours
110. The stage in a river is 4.8 m, the water
surface slope is 1 in 10,000 and the
discharge in the steam is 600 m
3
/s. If the
stage remains the same and the water
surface slope is 1 in 14,400, then the
discharge in the stream will be
a. 300 m
3
/s
b. 400 m
3
/s
c. 600 m
3
/s
d. 500 m
3
/s
111. If an tangent drawn parallel to the demand
lien from a ridge point of a mass curve
does not intersect the mass curve again, it
can be inferred that the
a. frequency of the flood entering into the
reservoir is less
b. inflow into the reservoir cannot meet
the demand
c. reservoir is overflowing resulting in
wastage
d. reservoir can meet higher demand
112. In order to ensure that no scouring takes
place in the bed of a channel of bed slope
S constructed on alluvial soil of particle
size d cm, the flow velocity should be
restricted to
a. 4.85 d
1/2
S
1/6

b. 4.85 d
1/2
S
1/6

c. 0.45 d
1/2
S
1/6

d. 0.48 d
1/2
S
1/6

14 of 14
113. Which one of the following sets is used to
control the seepage through the
foundations of an earth dam ?
a. chimney drain, upstream blanket and
cu-off trench
b. cut-off sheet piles, upstream blanket
and cut-off trench
c. upstream blanket, cut-off sheet piles
and chimney drain
d. relief wells, upstream blanket and
chimney drain
1. in designing a hydraulic structure in
permeable foundation by Khoslas
theory, the slope correction is
applicable to piles located at the ends
of the sloped floor only in a structure
with one or more sloped floors.
2. Khoslas theory can be correctly
applied in alluvium of finite depth.
3. Length of flow has lesser effect on exit
gradient than the depth of piles.
4. Intercepts between hydraulic gradient
line and free water surface on the
glacis and horizontal floor downstream
is the unbalanced uplift in a structure.
Which of these statements related to the
design of hydraulic structure are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
115. Match List I(Energy dissipation) with List
II(Water level and slope condition) and
select the correct answer :
List I
A. Roler bucket
B. Ski-jump bucket
C. Standing wave basin with depressed
floor
D. Standing wave basin with raised floor
List II
1. TWL(tail channel water level) is
slightly above JWL (jump height water
level) and the slope of the channel is
mild
2. TWL is considerably above JWL and
the slope of the channel is mild
3. TWL is slightly below JWL and the
slope of the channel is mild
4. TWL is considerably less than JWL
and the slope of the channel is steep
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 4 2 3 1
116. If the depth is 8.64 cm on a filed over a
base period of 10 day, then the duty is
a. 10 hectares per cu.m/s
b. 100 hectares per cu.m/s
c. 864 hectares per cu.m/s
d. 1000 hectares per cu.m/s
117. Given that atmospheric pressure head = 9
m, vapour pressure head (max.) = 1m,
failure head = 40 m and cavitation
coefficient o = 0.15, the height at which
the turbine can be set above the tail race
level is
a. 6 m
b. 4 m
c. 3 m
d. 2 m
118. Specific capacity of a well is the
a. volume of water that can be extracted
by the force of gravity from a unit
volume of aquifer
b. discharge per unit drawdown of the
well
c. drawdown per unit discharge of the
well
d. rate of flow through a unit width and
entire thickness of aquifer.
1. Specific speed uniquely determines the
type, shape and design of the turbine.
2. Both unit speed n
11
and unit
discharge Q
11
are necessary to
uniquely determine the type and design
of the turbine.
Which of these statemtns is/are correct in
respect of a hydraulic turbine ?
a. 2 alone
b. 1 alone
c. 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
120. If the radius of the centrifugal pump
impeller is reduced from 10 cm to 9 cm,
the head developed by the pump will
change from 10m to
a. 9 m of water
b. 8.1 m of water
c. 9.487 m of water
d. 11.111 m of water
1 of 17

(PAPER I )

1. The moisture content in a properly
seasoned timber will be in the range of
a. 5% to 8%
b. 8% to 10%
c. 10% to 12%
d. 12% to 15%
2. The strength of timber is maximum in the
direction
a. Perpendicular to the grains
b. Parallel to the grains
c. 45
o
to he grains
d. At all angles
3. The maximum permissible slenderness
ratio for masonry walls is
a. 40
b. 30
c. 20
d. 10
4. When the corner of a brick is removed
along the line joining mid-points of
adjoining sides, the portion left is called
a. Closer
b. Squint brick
c. Queen closer
d. King closer
5. An arrangement for temporarily
supporting a structure from beneath for
safety, is known as
a. Jacking
b. Underpinning
c. Supporting
d. Hauling
6. Match List I (Cement) with List
II(Characteristics) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. High alumina cement
B. Blast furnace cement
C. Quick setting cement
D. Rapid hardening cement
List II
1. High early strength
2. Gypsum free cement
3. Selenetic cement
4. Used in mass concrete work
5. Used in chemical factories and mines
A B C D
a. 5 4 2 1
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 5 4 3 2
d. 4 5 1 2
7. The fineness of cement is tested by
a. Air-content method
b. Air-permeability method
c. Le-Chatelier apparatus
d. Vicats apparatus
8. The test on cement designed to accelerate
the slaking process of the ingredient of
cement and to determine the resulting
expansion in a short time is
a. Setting time test
b. Soundness test
c. Normal consistency test
d. Accelerated test
1. Addition of a small quantity of slaked
lime to Portland cement in cement
mortar increases the plasticity of the
mortar.
2. Light weight mortar is prepared by
mixing cement and finely crushed fire
bricks with water.
3. Fire resistant mortar is prepared by
mixing aluminous cement and finely
ground china clay wares with water.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000
2 of 17
10. A mortar for which both cement and lime
are mixed is called
a. Gauged mortar
b. Cement mortar
c. Lime mortar
d. Light weight mortar
11. As per I.S. Code of Practice, concrete
should be cured at
a. 5
o

b. 1
o

c. 27
o

d. 40
o

12. The correct sequence of workability
test(s)/method(s) in the order of their
application from low to high workability is
a. Slump test, compacting factor test and
Vee-bee consistometer
b. Compacting factor test, Vee-bee
consistometer and slump test
c. Vee-bee consistometer, Slump test and
Compacting factor test
d. Vee-bee consistometer, compacting
factor test and Slump test
13. While testing the compressive strength of
cement concrete, the correct standard
conditions (viz. temperature, age, humidity
and size of the specimen) to be maintained
as per I.S. are
a. 27 3
0
C, 28 days, 90% and 15 cu.cm
b. 26 2
0
c. 25 1
0
d. 27 3
0
14. Which one of the following statements is
correct ?
a. Bulking of sand always decreases with
increase in the quantity of water
b. The quantity of water in ordinary
concrete should be 5% by weight of
cement and 25% by weight of
aggregate
c. While mixing by weight, bulking
effect of sand is not taken into account
d. River sand is also known as standard
sand
15. The ratio of direct tensile strength to that
of modulus of rapture of concrete is
a. 0.25
b. 0.5
c. 0.75
d. 1.0
16. A two-level section ABCD is shown in the
given figure with ground slope 1 on rand
formation slope 1 on s.EF is the centre line
(C/L) of the formation . Top width of the
formation is 2b and widths to the toe are
w
1
and w
2
. The width w
1
will be

a.
rs b
b H
r s r
| |
+ +
|
\ .

b.
rs b
b H
r s r
| |
+
|
+
\ .

c.
rs b
b H
r s r
| |
+
|
\ .

d.
rs b
b H
r s r
| |
+ +
|
+
\ .

17. An equipment is available for Rs.
2,00,000. It has an estimated useful life of
5 years. By the double rate declining
balance method of depreciation, the book
value at the end of the second year will be
a. Rs. 1,28, 000
b. Rs. 1,20,000
c. Rs. 72,000
d. Rs. 60, 000
18. A 6 cu.m central concrete mixing plant
takes in 1875 kg of cement, 5120 kg of
sand and 6060 kg of coarse aggregate
along with 865 kg of water per batch.
There is a reduction of 1.5% in volume in
the freshly mixed wet concrete from the
nominal volume. The unit weight of the
freshly mixed wet concrete will be
a. 2320 kg per cu.m
b. 2335 kg per cu.m
c. 2345 kg per cu.m
d. 2355 kg per cu.m
19. IC engines usable for earthwork are
calibrated under standard conditions
(denoted by suffix o) relating its horse
power Ho, standard barometric pressure P
0

3 of 17
and standard test temperature T
o
, all in
absolute scales H, P and T refer to
corresponding values when used under
other than standard conditions. The ratio of
H
o
/ H is
a. / /
o o
P P T T
b. / /
o o
P P T T
c. / /
o
P P T T
d. / /
o o
P P T T
correct answer :
List I
A. Self-loading scraper
B. Narrow tread high pressure tyre
C. Supercharger
D. Gear ratios
List II
1. Reduce loss in power
2. Rim pull management
3. Lower rolling resistance
4. Compromise between loading and
hauling performances
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
21. Match List I(Feasibility) with List II
(Emphasises on or calls for) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Social
B. Economic
C. Input
D. Co-ordination
List II
1. Optimising marginal costs and benefits
2. forward and backward linkages
3. Interfaces
4. Improving wealth
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 4 1 2 3
22. The probability that the load on
scaffolding will exceed 2t is 0.15. The
probability that the strength of the
scaffolding will be more than 2t is 0.8. The
probability of failure of the scaffolding
will be
a. 0.68
b. 0.17
c. 0.12
d. 0.03
23. Every cu.m of excavation requires either 3
man-hours or 0.2 machine-hour. The
respective rates are Rs. 8 per man-hour
and Rs. 200 per machine-hour. A total
quantity of 4000 cu.m of excavation is to
be done. The possible minimum total cost
for the complete job, by a suitable
combination of manual and mechanical
means of excavation will be
a. Rs. 80,000
b. Rs. 1,20,000
c. Rs. 1,50,000
d. Rs. 1,80,000
24. The total number of errors in the given
AOA network is

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
25. A, B and C are three activities to be
executed in that order. Their total duration,
in days, are 15, 24 and 18 respectively.
However, fro better estimation of overall
total duration; they are put into a ladder
network with 3 equal sub-parts of each.
The modified total duration for total
completion of all the activities will be

a. 35 days
b. 37 days
c. 39 days
4 of 17
d. 41 days
26. A part of the network with nomenclature
of a typical legend is shown in the given
figure. There can be other incoming
activities at nodes 5, 6 and 8 but there are
no other incoming activities at nodes 7 and
9. There are two outgoing activities at
node 9 but no other outgoing activity at
any of the other node. The other float and
free float in activity 6-7 are respectively

a. 5 and 1
b. 6 and zero
c. 6 and 1
d. zero and zero
27. There are four consecutive activities in a
simple linear network, each with mean
duration of T and each with k as the
standard deviation of its duration. The
overall project duration through these
activities is likely to be in the range
a. 4T k
b. 4T 2k
c. 4T 4k
d. 4T 6k
28. A certain type of resource can be deployed
in a variable strength during parts of the
duration of an activity. The following are
the data in the context :
1. Six weeks duration with 10 units of the
resource in each week, or
2. four weeks duration with 7 units in
each week followed by 5 weeks
duration with 5 units in each week, or
3. eight weeks duration with 7 units in
each week, or
4. four weeks duration with 7 units in
each week followed by 3 weeks
duration with 10 units in each week
For developing the CPM network
involving this activity therein, the duration
of this activity will be considered as
a. 9 weeks
b. 8 weeks
c. 7 weeks
d. 6 weeks
29. A project is of 4 months duration and
needs expenditure of Rs. 15, 000 per
month uniformly, which should be
available readily on hand at the beginning
of each month. Bills can be raised with
15% profit over cost at the end of each
month of work. The amount due on a bill
raised will be reimbursed with a further
month delay without any deductions. The
working capital required and the duration
for which its maximum is needed are
respectively
a. Rs. 15,000 and from beginning to end
of month 1
b. Rs. 15,000 and uniformly beginning to
end of month 4
c. Rs. 30,000 and from end of moth 1 to
end of month 2
d. Rs. 45,000 and just at the end of the 2
nd

month
30. Five activities are scheduled between
time 3 days and time 14 days in a bar
chart. Resources loading per day for these
activities, along with their durations are
read on the bar chart grid are :
Activity A B C D E
Duration 38
4
12
1014
7
11
1114
Resource lo-
ading per
day
5 4 8 3 2
Match List I (Resource loading per day)
with List II (Day number) derive from
above data and select the correct answer :
List I
A. 16
B. 15
C. 14
D. 12
List II
1. 12
th

2. 14
th

3. None
4. 11
th

5. 8
th

5 of 17
A B C D
a. 3 4 5 2
b. 4 3 1 5
c. 4 2 5 1
d. 3 4 1 5
31. Assertion (A) : In a two-dimensional
stress system, the direct stresses on two
planes at 45
o
an 135
o
to the principal
planes have the same magnitude and
nature and shear stress.
Reason (R) : Points representing these
stresses are on the ends of vertical
diameter of the Mohrs circle.
32. Consider a circular shaft of radius R
having the maximum shear stress f
S

developed by an applied torque.
Assertion (A) : The shear stress q at a
point on the section having coordinate
(0, y) if f
S
y /R.
Reason (R) : In the shaft, the shear stress
q at a point of coordinate (x, y) is
2 2 S
f
x y
R
+ .
33. Assertion (A) : Project-time-cost
schedules (inclusive of indirect costs)
always show decreasing overall cost for
decreasing overall project duration (so
long a such compression is feasible).
Reason (R) : Generally, the incremental
rate increases or consumption of a
resource increases.
34. Assertion (A) : The use of fly ash as an
admixture in concrete reduces segregation
and bleedings.
Reason (R) : The use of fly ash as a
replacement of sand in a lean-mix increase
the workability and has no significant
effect on drying shrinkage of concrete.
35. Assertion (A) : Lime mortar is able to
retain its bond with masonry unit and be
free from cracks.
Reason (R) : Lime mortar undergoes only
negligible volume change after setting and
initial shrinkage.
36. Assertion (A) : Shear capacity of a
concrete beam increases with the increase
in tension reinforcement.
Reason (R) : Increase in tension
reinforcement increases aggregate
interlocking force.
37. Assertion (A) : Tensile reinforcement bars
of a rectangular beam are bent at suitable
placed.
Reason (R) : Bent tensile reinforcement
bars in a rectangular beam resist bending
moment and provide local bond stress.
6 of 17
38. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of rigid
frames by the energy method, it is usually
considered sufficient to calculate the total
strain energy due to flexure only
Reason (R) : The strain energies due to
axial force and shear are normally
insignificant when compared to that for
flexure.
39. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of two-
dimensional stresses, the normal stress on
a plane will be greater than the average
principal stress, if the inclination of that
plane with the plane of maximum principal
stress is less than 45
o
.
Reason (R) : The horizontal co-ordinate
of the point on the Mohrs circle represents
the stresses on the given plane which is
greater than the coordinate of the centre of
Mohrs circle.
40. Assertion (A) : Crawler mounted power
shovels have low speeds.
Reason (R) : Power shovels are usable
with all classes of earth and rocks.
41. Assertion (A) : Crane and bucket
arrangement is always and at all places
preferable over tower and buckets
arrangements for placement of concrete.
Reason (R) : With cranes, haul distances
for buckets can be reduced.
42. Assertion (A) : When a mild steel bar is
tested in tension, the stress drops down
from upper yield point to lower yield point
without elongation.
Reason (R) : The boundaries of grains of
mild steel are composed of brittle material.
43. Assertion (A) : The vertical member of
Howe roof truss is made of steel.
Reason (R) : ordinarily wood is not used
fro tension members.
44. Assertion (A) : Battening of column shall
be done where the columns are subjected
to eccentric loading in the plane of battens.
Reason (R) : Batten plates are designed to
resist moments and longitudinal forces
arising due to transverse shear force.
45. Assertion (A) : A through truss bridge is
supported at the level of upper chord.
Reason (R) : Wind has a tendency to
overtum the bridge about the lower chord
of leeward truss.
7 of 17
46. Each bolt shown in the given figure is
capable of resisting a shear force of 20 kN
and tension of 15 kN. The interaction
equation between the forces is

a. 1.4
40 30
P P
+ =
b. 1.4
80 15
P P
+ =
c. 1.4
80 30
P P
+ =
d. 1.4
40 15
P P
+ =
47. Which one of the following plan views of
a gusseted base plate will result in
minimum base plate thickness ?
a.

b.

c.

d.
48. The permissible stresses in rivets under
wind load conditions as per IS : 800 can be
exceeded by about
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 50%
regarding pin connections :
1. Moment at pin connection is zero
2. Only one pin is used in a connection
3. Secondary stresses do not occur
4. They are rigid.
Which of these are the advantages of pin
connections ?
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
50. Which one of the following statements
regarding the riveted joint shown in the
given figure is correct ?

a. In elastic theory all rivets equal forces
b. In plastic theory all rivets carry equal
forces
c. Both in elastic and plastic theories all
rivets carry equal forces
d. In plastic theory the outer rivets A and
D carry greater proportion of load
51. In an eccentrically loaded bearing type
connection, P
dx
and P
dy
are the components
of the direct load. P
tx
and P
ty
are the
components of the direct load. P
tx
and P
ty

are the components of the torsional load.
The maximum load on any connector is
given by
a.
2 2
) ( )
dx tx dy ty
P P P P + + +
b.
2 2
) ( )
dx ty dy tx
P P P P + + +
c.
2 2
) ( )
dx tx dy ty
P P P P +
d.
2 2
) ( )
dx ty dy tx
P P P P +
52. The economic spacing of a roof truss
depends upon the
a. cost of purlins and cost of roof
covering
b. cost of roof covering and dead loads
8 of 17
c. dead loads and live loads
d. live loads and cost of purlins
Bearing stiffeners are provided in a plate
girder
1. to avoid local bending failure of flange
2. to prevent buckling of web.
3. to strengthen the web
4. under uniformly distributed loads
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
54. As per IS : 800 in the case of a plate girder
with vertical and horizontal stiffeners, the
greater and lesser unsupported clear
dimension of a web panel in terms of web
thickness t
w
should not exceed
respectively
a. 180 t
w
and 85 t
w

b. 270 t
w
and 200 t
w

c. 270 t
w
and 180 t
w

d. 400 t
w
and 250 t
w

55. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal
consists of mild steel falt 400 ISF and
carries a pull of 800 kN. If the gross
diameter of the rivets is 26 mm, then the
number of rivets required in the splice is
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
56. Which one of the following is the load
factor ?
a. Live load / Dead load
b. Failure load / Working load
c. Total load / Dead load
d. Dynamic load / Static load
57. Ina cantilever of span L, subjected to a
concentrated load of W acting at a
distance of 1/3 L from the free end, the
deflection under load will be
a. WL
3
/ 3 El
b. WL
3
/ 81 El
c. 14 WL
3
/ 81 El
d. WL
3
/ 81 El
58. A beam of constant El is shown in the
given figure :

Which one of the following sketches gives
a probable failure mechanism of this beam
under plastic analysis ?
a.
b.

c.

d.
In the stiffness method of analysis,
1. statically indeterminate structures
along are considered
2. both statically determinate and
indeterminate structures can be
considered.
3. it is necessary to identify the
redundant.
4. the displacements are considered a the
unknowns
5. to calculate of equilibrium, it will be
convenient to develop the stiffness
matrix for the structure
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 5
c. 2, 4 and 5
9 of 17
d. 2, 3 4 and 5
60. Match List I(Actual beam) with List
II(Conjugate beam) on the basis of
analogy and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Curvature
B. Deflection
C. Slope
List II
1. Shear
2. Load
3. Moment
A B C
a. 2 1 3
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 1 3 2
61. A simply supported beam of uniform
flexural rigidity is loaded as shown in the
given figure. The rotations of the end A
is

a. PL
2
/ 9 El
b. PL
2
/ 6 El
c. PL
2
/ 18 El
d. PL
2
/ 12 El
62. A circular segmental three-hinged arch of
span 36 m and a rise of 6 ml is hinged at
the crown the springings. It carries a
horizontal load of 1000 N/m covering full
height of the arch on left side. The
horizontal thrust on the right springing will
be
a. 6000 N
b. 4500 N
c. 3000 N
d. 1500 N
63. A rigid cantilever frame ABC is fixed at
C and carries a couple at the free end
A as shown in the given figure.
Neglecting axial deformation and
assuming the flexural rigidity EI to be
constant throughout the frame, the vertical
deflection of A is

a.
2
l l
h
EI
| |
+
|
\ .

b.
2
2
l l
h
EI
| |
+
|
\ .

c.
2
h
2
h
l
EI
| |
+
|
\ .

d.
h
2
h
l
EI
| |
+
|
\ .

64. A propped cantilever of uniform flexural
rigidity is loaded as shown in the given
figure. The bending moment at fixed end
A is

a. 150 kNm sagging
b. 3000 kNm sagging
c. 600 kNm hogging
d. 300 kNm hogging
65. The slope deflection equation at end 2 of
the member 1-2 for the frame shown in the
figure is given by

a. ( )
21 1 2
2
2 2
EI
M WL
L
u u = +
b.
21 1
2 3
2
EI
M
L L
o
u
| |
=
|
\ .

c.
21 1
2 3
2
EI
M
L L
o
u
| |
=
|
\ .

d.
21 1 2
2 3
2
EI
M WL
L L
o
u u
| |
= + +
|
\ .

66. Consider the following assumptions :
10 of 17
1. All members have same cross-
sectional area
2. The bending resistance of all the
members is small in comparison with
their axial force resistance
3. All the external loads are applied
directly or indirectly at the joints
4. All joints are idealized to be
frictionless hinges.
Which of these are the assumptions made
in the force analysis of simple trusses ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 3, and 4
67. The strain due to bending in the cantilever
beam shown in the figure is

a.
3
PL
EI

b.
2 2
6
P L
EI

c.
2 2
P L
EI

d.
2 2
2
P L
EI

68. In the portal frame shown in the given
figure, the ratio of sway moments in
columns AB and CD will be equal to

a. 1/3
b. 2/3
c. 9/8
d. 13/8
69. The total (both internal and external)
degree of static indeterminacy of the plane
shown in the given figure is

a. 18
b. 16
c. 14
d. 13
70. If a point load acting at the mid-span of a
fixed beam of uniform section produces
fixed end moments of 60 kNm, then the
same load spread uniformly over the entire
span will produced fixed end moments
equal to
a. 20 kNm
b. 30 kNm
c. 30 kNm
d. 45 kNm
71. Displacement coordinates for a beam are
shown in the given figure. The stiffness
matrix is given by

a.
3 EI EI
EI 2 EI
(
(

b.
3 EI 0.5 EI
0.5 EI 2 EI
(
(

c.
3 EI 0
0 2 EI
(
(

d.
3 EI 0.5 EI
0.5 EI 2 EI
(
(

correct answer :
List I(Collapse load for a
A. Fixed beam with a central point load
B. Fixed beam with a udl of intensity w
c

C. Propped cantilever with a central point
load
D. Simply supported beam with a central
point load
List II
11 of 17
1. 8 M
p
/ L
2. 16 M
p
/ L
3. 6 M
p
/ L
4. 4 M
p
/ L
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 1 2 3 4
73. The given figures show a beam with its
influence line for shear force and bending
moment at section 1 :

The values of the shear force and bending
moment at section 1 due to a
concentrated load of 20 kN placed at mid-
span will be
a. 0.75 kN and 2.25 kNm
b. 5 kN and 5 kNm
c. 7.5 kN and 10 kNm
d. 10 kN and 30 kNm
74. If an analysis of the frame shown in the
given figure indicated final moment () 40
kNm at A and B of the column AB, then
the moment M
CD
will be

a. 5 kNm
b. 10 kNm
c. 20 kNm
d. 40 kNm
75. The flexibility matrix of the beam shown
in the given figure is

a.
64 8

EI EI
8 8
EI 3EI
(
(
(
(
(

b.
64 8

3EI EI
8 64
EI 3EI
(
(
(
(
(

c.
64 8

3EI EI
8 4
EI EI
(
(
(
(
(

d.
64 8

3EI EI
4 8
EI EI
(
(
(
(
(

76. The portal frame shown in figure I was
analysed, and the final column moments
were found to be as shown in figure II.
The value of P is

a. 25 kN
b. 41 kN
c. 45 kN
d. 50 kN
77. For the beam AB shown in the figure, the
fixed end moments at ends A and B will be
respectively

a. 3.6 kNm and + 1.1 kNm
b. 5.4 kNm and + 4.6 kNm
c. 2.4 kNm and + 3.6 kNm
d. 3.6 kNm and + 6 kNm
12 of 17
78. A beam with cantilevered ends is shown in
the given figure. Which one of the
following diagrams represent the influence
line diagram for shear for a section just to
the right of the support A ?

a.

b.

c.

d.
79. The failure mechanism for the rigid frame
shown in the given figure I (Assume
constant El)

a.

b.

c.
d. can (a), (b) or (c) depending upon the
relative values of W, P and member
dimensions
80. For the frame shown in the figure, the
distribution factors for members CB, CD
and CG are respectively (Assume EI as
constant)

a. 14 / 29 , 8 /29 and 7 /29
b. 7 / 29 , 14 /29 and 8 /29
c. 7 / 29 , 8 /29 and 14 /29
d. 14 / 29 , 7 /29 and 8 /29
81. A member coordinate system is shown in
the given figure. The symmetric stiffness
square matrix obtained for the member AB
of length l with flexural rigidity EI by
using the slope deflection equation and
rules of matrix multiplication is as follows:

A
A
B
B
Symmetric
/ Stiffness
2

Square
/ Matrix
AB
AB
BA
BA
M
S l
EL
M l
S d l
u
u
u
( ( (
( ( (
( ( (
=
( ( (
( ( (

The correct sequence of elements of the
first row of the symmetric stiffness square
matrix is
a. 2, 3, 1 and 3
b. 2, 3, 1 and 3
c. 2, 3, 1 and 3
d. 1, 3, 2 and 3
82. The influence line diagram for reaction B
of the beam shown in figure I is

a.
b.
c.
d.
13 of 17
83. A simply supported I beam with its web
horizontal is shown in the given figure. It
is subjected to a vertical load.

The shape of the shear stress distribution
in the cross-section of the beam under the
load would be
a.

b.

c.

d.
correct answer :
List I
A. Tenacity
B. Plasticity
C. Ductility
D. Malleability
List II
1. Continues to deform without much
increase of stress
2. Ultimate strength in tension
3. Extension in a direction without
rupture
4. Ability to be drawn out by tension to a
small section without rupture
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 1 2 3 4
85. A Steel bar, 300 mm long and 24 mm
diameter, is turned down to 18 mm
diameter for one third of its length. It is
heated 30
o
C above room temperature,
clamped at both ends and then allowed to
cool to room temperature. It the distance
between the clamps is unchanged, the
maximum stress is the bar
(o = 12.510
6
per
o
C and E = 200 GN/m
2

is
a. 25 MN / m
2

b. 50 MN / m
2

c. 75 MN / m
2

d. 100 MN / m
2

86. A rigid beam CBDA is hinged at A and
supported by two springs at C and B with a
vertical load P at point D as shown in the
given figure. The ratio of stiffness (k
2
/k
1
)
of springs at B and C is 2. The ratio of
forces in spring at C to that at B is

a. 3/4
b. 1
c. 4/3
d. 2
87. A bar of uniform section is subjected to
axial tensile loads such that the normal
strain in the axial direction is 1.25 mm per
m. If the Poissons ratio of the material of
the bar is 0.3, the volumetric strain would
be
a. 2 10
4

b. 3 10
4

c. 4 10
4

d. 5 10
4

88. A square plot (a a) rigidly held at three
edges is free to move along the fourth
edge. If temperature of the plate is raised
by temperature t, then the free expansion
at the fourth edge will be (coefficient of
thermal expansion of the material = o,
modulus of elasticity of the material = E
and its Poissons ratio = v)
a. a o t v
b. a o t (1 + v)
14 of 17
c. a ot +
t v
E
o | |
|
\ .

d. a o t (1 v)
89. Match List I (Elastic constant) with List II
(Definition) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Youngs modulus
B. Poissons ratio
C. Bulk modulus
D. Rigidity modulus
List II
The ratio of
1. Lateral strain to linear strain within
elastic limit
2. stress to strain within elastic limit
3. shear stress to shear strain within
4. direct stress to corresponding
volumetric strain
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 4 1 2
90. For a linear, elastic, isotropic material , the
number of independent elastic constants is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
91. Match List I(Theory of failures) with List
II (Scientists) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Maximum principal stress theory
B. Maximum shear stress theory
C. Maximum principal strain theory
D. Maximum distortion energy theory
List II
1. St. Venant
2. Beltrami and Ttaigh
3. Tresca
4. Von-Mises
5. Rankine
A B C D
a. 5 3 1 4
b. 5 1 2 4
c. 3 5 1 2
d. 3 1 2 5
92. A member is made of structural steel.
When it is subjected to simple tension, the
limit of proportionally is 280 N mm
2
. If
the principal stress p
1
and p
2
developed in
the member are 100 N/mm
2
(tensile) and
40 Nmm
2
(compressive) respectively and
Poissons ratio is 0.30, then the factor of
safety according to maximum shear stress
theory would be
a. 2.75
b. 2.5
c. 2.25
d. 2.0
93. A beam ABC has simply supported span
AB and overhanging span BC. The
bending moment diagram for the beam is
given in the following figure :

The loading diagram for the beam would
correspond to
a.

b.

c.

d.
94. The load diagram and bending moment
diagram of a beam are shown in the
following figures :
15 of 17

The shear force at B would be
a. 93.33 kN
b. 120 kN
c. 146.66 kN
d. 200 kN
95. A loaded beam PQRS is shown in the
given figure .

The magnitude of reaction at R will be
zero if the value of load W is
a. 2 kN
b. 2.5 kN
c. 3 kN
d. 6 kN
96. A cantilever beam is 2 m long. The cross-
section of the beam is hollow square, with
external sides 60 mm and the internal side
is such that 1 = 6 10
5
mm
4
. If the safe
bending stress for the material is 100
N/mm
2
, the safe concentrated load at the
free end would be
a. 400 N
b. 500 N
c. 600 N
d. 1000 N
97. A test is conducted on a beam loaded by
end couples. The fibres at layer CD are
found to lengthen by 0.03 mm and fibres at
layer AB shorten by 0.09 mm in 20 mm
gauage length as shown in the given figure
Taking E = 210
5
N/mm
2
, the flexural
stress at top fibres would be

a. 900 N/mm
2
tensile
b. 1000 N/mm
2
tensile
c. 1200 N/mm
2
tensile
d. 1200 N/mm
2
compressive
98. In the case of a square beam subjected to
couples acting about X-X axis, it is
advisable to cut off the edges and keep the
section as shown in the given figure
because it increases

a. stresses in the beam
b. stresses and reduces the weight of the
beam
c. the moment of inertia of the beam
d. the section modulus
99. A solid shaft of 100 mm diameter in a
small hydraulic turbine is subjected to an
axial compressive load of 100t kN and a
torque of 5t kNm. The maximum shear
stress induced in the shaft is
a. 20 3 N/mm
2

b. 20 8 N/mm
2

c. 20 15 N/mm
2

d. 20 17 N/mm
2

100. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a
torque T Nm, which produces a
maximum shear stress of f
S
N/mm
2
in the
shaft. These required diameter of the shaft
would be
a.
1
16
10
S
T
f t
| |
|
\ .

b.
1/3
10
16
S
f
T
t | |
|
\ .

c.
1/ 2
16
10
S
T
f t
| |
|
\ .

d.
1/ 2
10
16
S
f
T
t | |
|
\ .

101. The principal stresses at a point in a
strained material are p
1
and p
2
. The
resultant stress p
r
on the plane carrying the
maximum shear stress would be
a.
( )
1/ 2
2 2
1 2
2
p p +

16 of 17
b.
1/ 2
2 2
1 2
2
p p ( +
(

c.
( )
1/ 2
2 2
1 2
2 p p
(
+

d.
2 2 1/ 2
1 2
2[ ] p p +
102. If a prismatic member having are a of
cross-section A is subjected to a tensile
load P, then the maximum shear stress
and its inclination with the direction of
load will be
a. P/A and 45
o

b. 2P /A and 45
o

c. P/2A and 45
o

d. P/A and 60
o

103. A king closer is a
a. full brick
b. brick
c. longitudinally brick
d. crosswise brick
104. Brick masonry walls and columns of a
building are to be protected from
earthquake. The earthquake proofing is
done by providing
a. cross walls
b. less openings
c. under-reamed piles
d. a steel band at corners above windows
below ceiling
105. When a beam or truss is placed on a
masonry wall, it is supported on bed stone
or bed plate. The bed stone or bed plate is
necessary to
a. Add to aesthetic appearance
b. Transfer the reaction over a larger
contact area
c. Increase stability of beam or truss
d. Prevent outward thrust on the wall
106. If modular ratio is m, effective depth is D
and stress ratio is r (r = o
st
/o
cbc
), the depth
of neutral axis of a balanced section is
a. .
m
D
m r

b. .
m
D
m r +

c. .
m r
D
m
+

d. .
m
D
r

Bars that extend into a simple support
must be able to develop their full strength
at a designated point 1 so that their
moment capacity is more than the bending
moment at that point. The clauses of the
code require that (o
s
= 0.85 o
sy
)
1.
1
1.3
d o
M
L L
V
s +
2.
1
1.3
4
s
o
bd
M
L
V
|o
t
s +
3.
1
4 1.3
bd
o
s
M
L
V
t
|
o
| |
s +
|
\ .

a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
108. Lateral ties in RC columns are provided to
resist
a. bending moment
b. shear
c. buckling of longitudinal steel bars
d. both bending moment and shear
109. For maximum sagging bending moment in
a given span of a multiple span beam
a. that very span as well as alternate
spans are loaded
b. adjacent spans are loaded
c. spans adjoining this span are loaded
d. adjacent spans are unloaded and next
spans are loaded
110. In post-tensioned prestressed concrete
beam, the end block zone is the zone
between the end of the beam and the
section where
a. no lateral stresses exist
b. only longitudinal stresses exist
c. only shear stresses exist
d. the shear stresses are maximum
111. Match list I with List Ii and select the
correct answer
List I
A. Minimum percentage of tension
reinforcement of RC beam
17 of 17
B. Minimum percentage of shear
reinforcement of RC beam
C. Maximum allowable percentage of
tension reinforcement of RC beam
D. Maximum allowable percentage of
compression reinforcement of RC
beam
List II
1. 4
2. 85 / f
v

3. 40 S
V
/ f
y
d
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 1
b. 2 3 1 1
c. 1 3 1 2
d. 3 2 1 1
112. According to Whitneys theory, the
maximum depth of concrete stress block in
a balanced RCC beam section of depth d
is
a. 0.3 d
b. 0.43 d
c. 0.5 d
d. 0.53
113. Partial safety for concrete and steel are 1.5
and 1.15 respectively, because
a. Concrete is heterogeneous while steel
is homogeneous
b. The control on the quality of concrete
is not as good as that of steel
c. Concrete is weak in tension
d. Voids in concrete are 0.5% while those
in steel are 0.15%
114. The propagation of a shear crack in a
prestressed concrete member depends on
a. Tensile reinforcement
b. Compression reinforcement
c. Shear reinforcement
d. Shape of the cross-section of the beam
115. A compared to working stress method of
design, limit state method takes concrete to
a. a higher stress level
b. A lower stress level
c. The same stress level
d. Sometimes higher but generally lower
stress level
116. While checking shear resistance of
reinforced concrete beams for limit state of
collapse as per IS : 456, which one of the
following nominal shear stress
recommendations is to be adhered to ? (V
u

is shear force at vertical cross-section, b
and d are overall breadth and effective
depth of beam respectively)
a. 0.5 V
u
/bd
b. 2 V
u
/ 5 bd
c. V
u
/ 0.5 bd
d. V
u
/ bd
117. As per IS : 456, for a singly reinforced
rectangular section,
a.
.max u
x
d
for Fe 415 is 0.48
b. the depth of centroid of compression is
0.43 x
u. max

c. the depth of the rectangular position of
the stress block is 0.38 x
u. max

d. The maximum value of lever arm is
dx
u. max

118. Fro the purpose of design as per IS : 456,
deflection of RC slab or beam is limited to
a. 0.2% of span
b. 0.25 % of span
c. 0.4 % of span
d. 0.45% of span
119. As per IS : 456, side face reinforcement,
not less than 0.05% of web area, is
provided on each side when the depth of
web is not less than
a. 300 mm
b. 400 mm
c. 500 mm
d. 750 mm
120. The yield line theory is a
a. lower bound method of design of over-
reinforced slabs
b. lower bound method of design of
underreinforced slabs
c. upper bound method of analysis of
d. upper bound method of analysis of
1 of 14

(PAPER I )

1. In an axially loaded spirally reinforced
short column, the concrete inside the core
is subjected to
a. bending and compression
b. biaxial compression
c. triaxial compression
d. uniaxial compression
2. The maximum permissible shear stress t
c
max
given in BIS 456-1978 is based on
a. diagonal tension failure
b. diagonal compression failure
c. flexural tension failure
d. flexural compression failure
3. If the loading on a simply supported pre-
stressed concrete beam is uniformly
distributed, the centroid of tendons should
be preferably
a. a straight profile along the centroidal
axis
b. a straight profile along with the lower
kem
c. a parabolic profile with convexity
downward
d. a circular profile with convexity
upward
4. In the design of a masonry retaining wall,
the
a. vertical load should fall within the
middle-third of base width
b. horizontal thrust should act as h/3 from
base
c. resultant load should fall within a
distance of one-sixth of base width on
either side of its midpoint
d. resultant load should fall within a
distance of one-eighth of base width on
either side of its midpoint
5. In the prestressed concrete beam section
shown in the given figure (all dimensions
in mm is the figure), if the net losses are
15% and final prestressing force applied at
A is 500 kN, the initial extreme fibre
stresses at top and bottom will be
respectively

a. 3.40 N/mm
2
and 16.70 N/mm
2

b. 3.40 N/mm
2
and 19.60 N/mm
2

c. 4.0 N/mm
2
and 16.70 N/mm
2

d. 4.0 N/mm
2
and 19.60 N/mm
2

The design for the limit state of collapse in
flexure is based on the following
assumptions :
1. Plane sections normal to the axis
remain
2. the maximum strain in concrete at the
outermost tension fibre is 0.0035
3. The relationship between the
compressive stress distribution is
concrete and the strain in concrete may
be assumed to the rectangular,
trapezoidal, parabolic or any other
shape which results in prediction of
strength in substantial agreement with
the results of tests
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
7. In case of deep beam or in thin webbed
R.C.C. members, the first crack form is
a. flexural crack
b. diagonal crack due to compression
c. diagonal crack due to tension
d. shear crack
8. The stress block in concrete for an
estimate of ultimate strength in flexure of a
prestressed beam
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001
2 of 14
a. should be parabolic
b. should be parabolic-rectangular
c. should be rectangular
d. may be of any shape which provides
agreement with the test data
9. The chances of diagonal tension cracks in
R.C.C. member reduce when
a. axial compression and shear force act
simultaneously
b. axial tension and shear force act
simultaneously
c. only shear force act
d. flexural and shear force act
simultaneously
10. The probability of failure implied in limit
state design is of the order of
a. 10
2

b. 10
3

c. 10
4

d. 10
5

11. Cross sectional area of metal core in
composite column should not be more than
a. 4%
b. 8%
c. 16%
d. 20%
12. Assertion (A) : For equal distribution of
moment at the support B of the beam
shown in the given figure the span length x
required =3/4 l.
Reason (R) : For equal distribution of
moment for the beam shown in the figure
at B, I/l =3l/4x.

13. Assertion (A) : Calcium chloride addition
in concrete proves more effective in slow-
hardening portland cement than in rapid-
hardening cement.
Reason (R) : Calcium chloride acts as an
effective accelerator thereby increasing
rate of reaction.
14. Assertion (A) : In the hydraulically-
controlled bulldozers, the blade can be
force into the ground more accurately than
in the cable-controlled bulldozers.
Reason (R) : High friction on the blade is
produced in addition to its with in the
hydraulically-controlled bulldozers.
15. Assertion (A) : Te failure surface of a mild
steel torsion specimen subjected to a
torque about its axis along a surface
perpendicular to its axis.
Reason (R) : Mild steel is relatively
weaker in shear than in tension and the
plane of maximum shear is perpendicular
to its axis.
16. Consider the loaded beam shown in the
given figure.

Assertion (A) : The deflection at the free
end C is a times the slope at A.
Reason (R) : The elastic curve for the
overhang portion AC or BD is a straight
line tangential to the elastic curve at A and
B.
3 of 14
17. Assertion (A) : In a pin-jointed plane
frame consisting of straight members the
total strain energy U of the system may
be expressed as
U =
2
2
S L
AE

Where S is the axial force, A the uniform
cross-sectional area and L the length of the
individual member. E is the modulus of
elasticity of the member material.
Reason (R) : In pin-jointed plane frames
only axial forces are present.
18. Assertion (A) : In a cantilever, the I.L.
diagram for deflection at the free end is
same as elastic curve of the beam due to
unit load placed at the free end.
Reason (R) : By Maxwells Reciprocal
theorem, the deflection at the free end, due
to various positions of unit load on the
span, equals deflection at those placed of
unit moving load due to static unit load at
the free end.
19. Assertion (A) : Impact factor is used in the
design of a gantry girder.
Reason (R) : Loads transferred to the
gantry girder are momentary.
20. Assertion (A) : According to BIS 456-
1978, over-reinforced sections are not
permitted.
Reason (R) : There is ductile failure of
over-reinforced sections.
21. Assertion (A) : Over-reinforced design of
reinforced concrete sections is undesirable.
Reason (R) : Tension failure of reinforced
concrete sections is sudden.
22. On application of external stress on
timbers, it behaves like
a. an elastic material
b. non-elastic material
c. viscoelastic material
d. non-viscoelastic material
23. The ratio of tangential shrinkage to radial
shrinkage of wood due to reduction in
moisture content is
a. in the range from 3.1 to 5.1
b. in the range from 2 to 3
c. in the range from 1 to 2
d. less than or equal to 1
24. Which one of the following procedure is
applied to determine the soundness of
bricks ?
a. Immersing the brick under water for 16
hrs and determining the quantity of
water absorbed by the brick
b. immersing the brick under water of 24
hrs and determining its expansion
using Le Chatelier apparatus
c. taking two bricks, hitting one against
the other and observing whether they
break or not and the type of sound
produced while hitting
d. scratching the brick by finger nail and
noting whether any impression is made
or not
25. The number of bricks required per cubic
metre of brick masonry is
a. 400
b. 450
4 of 14
c. 500
d. 550
26. The bricks which are extensively used for
basic refractories in furnaces are
a. Chrome bricks
b. Sillimanite bricks
c. Magnesite bricks
d. Fosterite bricks
High Alumina cement (HAC)
1. has high early compressive strength
and high heat of hydration than OPC-
43 grade.
2. is not suitable to be used in cold
regions
a. 1 alone
b. 2 alone
c. both 1 and 2
d. neither 1 and 2
when cement is tested for setting time; on
gauging its shows quick setting. This
phenomenon known as Flash set of
cement is due to the presence of high
1. Tricalcium Aluminate (C
3
A) in cement
2. Alkalies in cement
3. Tricalcium Silicate (C3S) in cement
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
regarding the cement fineness is NOT
correct ?
a. Fine cement is more liable to suffer
from shrinkage cracking than a coarse
cement
b. Fine cement will show faster rate of
hardening than coarse cement
c. Fine cement shows faster rate of heat
evolution and total quantity of heat
evolve is much larger than coarse
cement
d. Fine cement shows the same setting
time as coarse cement
30. For marine works, the best suited cement
is
a. low heat portland cement
b. rapid hardening cement
c. ordinary portland cement
d. blast furnace slage cement
31. The maximum bulking of sand is likely to
occur at a moisture content of
a. 5%
b. 8%
c. 11%
d. 14%
32. One of the main demerits in using the lime
mortar is that it
a. is not durable
b. does not set quickly
c. swells
d. is plastic
33. Which one of the following types of
concrete is most suitable in extreme cold
climates ?
a. Air-entrained
b. Ready mix concrete
c. Vacuum concrete
d. Coarse concrete
34. Match List I(Workability test) with List II
(Measurements) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Slump test
B. Compacting factor
C. Vebe test
D. Flow test
List II
1. 300 mm to 500 mm
2. 75 mm to 125 mm
3. 0.80 to 0.98
4. zero to 10 s
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 2 3 4 1
Curing of concrete by steam under
pressure
1. increases the compressive strength of
concrete
2. reduces the shear strength of concrete
5 of 14
3. increases the speed of chemical
reaction.
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 alone
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 alone
36. Which one of the following aggregates
given maximum strength in concrete ?
a. Rounded aggregate
b. Elongated aggregate
c. Flaky aggregate
d. Cubical aggregate
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure
the strength of concrete is
1. used to measure the strength of wet
concrete
2. used to obtain estimate of concrete
strength of finished concrete elements
3. a non-destructive test
Of these statements
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b. 2 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 2 are correct
d. 1 and 3 are correct
38. The given figure shows the Tee junction in
brick masonry which is known as

a. English bond
b. English cross bond
c. Flemish bond
d. Double Flemish bond
39. Guniting is the application of mortor
a. on a surface under pneumatic pressure
b. on a vertical surface
c. on brickwork by manual method
d. of fluid consistency for repair works
40. In building construction, the place for
providing dampproof course is at the
a. basement level
b. window sill level
c. lintel level
d. roof level
41. A construction concrete mixer of capacity
0.8 m
3
is used and the mixer discharges the
entire batch of concrete into a single
hopper. The time per cycle may be taken
for changing, mixing and discharging
mixes as 1.6 minutes and lost time may be
taken as 0.15 minutes. The number of
batches per hour is equal to
a.
60
1.6 0.15 +

b.
60
0.15
1.6
| |

|
\ .

c.
60 0.15
0.8
1.6
(
(

d.
60
1.6 0.15

42. Which of the following statements are the
advantages of surface vibrators?
Surface vibrators are best suited
1. for one way reinforced slabs and road
surfaces
2. when depth of the concrete to be
vibrated exceeds 250 mm.
3. where immersion vibrations are
impracticable.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
43. The output Q of the earth moving
equipment like excavators, shovels,
loaders (where q is production per cycle in
m
3
and c is cycle time in seconds) is
a.
3
3600 efficiency
/
q
m hr
c

b. q 3600 efficiency m
3
/hr
c. qc 3600 efficiency m
3
/hr
d. q 3600 m
3
/hr
44. For a given load rating, the operating
radius of crane can be increased by
a. increasing weight of the machine
b. increasing engine horse power
c. increasing the length of boom or arm
d. operating the crane slowly
45. Concreting at site can start on any one day,
with all preparations having been done on
6 of 14
the previous day. As per the past
experience of owner, contractor and the
architect, it is decided that the chance of
any one being late is 0.4. The chance of
starting on time on the appointed day is
a. 0.064
b. 0.216
c. 0.288
d. 0.432
46. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of
activities and probability of their
occurrence follow
a. Normal distribution curve
b. |distribution curve
c. Poissons distribution curve
d. Binomial distribution curve
47. Activity C follows activity A and
activity D follows activities A and B.
The correct network for the projects is
a.

b.

c.

d.
regarding the curve shown in the given
figure :

As the gang size increases,
1. the out-tum rate of the gang will
always increase irrespective of the
number of gang
2. The out-tum rate of the gang will
decrease once it exceeds the optimal
number
3. beyond the optimal number, the
inefficiency of the gang will increase.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
49. In the time-cost analysis, the cost slope is
defined as
a.
Crash cost Normal cost
Crash time Normal time

b.
Crash time Normal time

c.
Normal time Crash time

d.
Normal cost Crash cost
Normal time Crash time

50. Which one of the following is the base for
resource levelling?
a. Delaying the completion of critical
activities
b. Delaying the start of non-critical
activities
c. Reducing completion time of critical
activities
d. Not delaying the completion of critical
activities
51. A construction equipment has a useful life
of 5 years after which it is to be replaced
by a new one. If the interest rate is 4%, the
sinking fund factor will be
a. 0.033
b. 0.184
c. 0.224
d. 0.232
52. Pay-back period gives an estimate of
a. profitability
b. liquidity
c. time-value of money
d. interest rate of return
53. For supplying water to a city, two alternate
design concepts are beings considered with
8% p.a. discrete compounding as the
criterion. A rock tunnel of indefinitely
long life will cost Rs. 30 lakhs now, and
7 of 14
will need Rs. 60,000 per year for
operations. The alternative is by a pipe line
system, with an expected life of 20 years,
at a first cost of Rs. 20 lakhs now, and will
need annual operating expenses of Rs.
92,000. In term of annualized costs, the
tunnel system will have a relative
advantage of (give C.R.F. at 8% p.a.
discrete compounding for 20 years =
0.10185) nearly
a. Rs. 14,000
b. Rs. 11,000
c. Rs. 8,200
d. Rs. 4,300
54. Payment allowance is selected keeping in
mind
a. overall cost
b. normal profit and total time
c. overall cost and total time
d. overall cost, normal profit and total
time
55. A unique relation between bending
movement (M) and intensity of load(w)
acting continuously on a beam of span (L)
at a distance(x) along the axis (The
flexural rigidity of beam is El) is given by
a. M =
2
8
wL

b.
2
2
d M
w
dx
=
c.
2
2
d M
M El
dx
=
d.
2
12
wL
M =
56. Which of the following points are
considered while deriving the formula
M f E
I y R
= = ?
1. Type of material
2. Transverse shear force
3. The stresses in the remaining principal
direction
4. o
y
=o
z
=t
xz
=t
zx
=0
5. Linear variation of strain.
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 4 and 5
d. 1 and 3
57. Out of the two beams of same material and
same cross-sectional area one is of circular
cross-section and other is of square cross-
section. If these are subjected to bending
moment of same magnitude, then
a. both sections would be equally strong
b. both sections would be equally
economical
c. square section would be more
economical than circular section
d. square section would be less
economical than circular section
58. A beam has a triangular cross-section
having base 40 mm and altitude 60 mm. If
this section is subjected to a shear force of
36000 N, the maximum shear stress in the
cross-section would be
a. 60 N/mm
2

b. 36 N/mm
2

c. 45 N/mm
2

d. 30 N/mm
2

The shear stress over a beam section of
any shape for a given loading does not
vary with
1. shear force at the section
2. area of the section
3. moment of inertial of the section
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
60. Which one of the following shear stress
distribution diagrams is correct for cross-
bar section shown in the given Figure-I ?

a.
8 of 14
b.
c.
d.
61. A rectangular beam of width 100 mm is
subjected to a maximum shear force of 60
kN. The corresponding maximum shear
stress in the cross-section is 4 N/mm
2
. The
depth of the beam should be
a. 150 mm
b. 225 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 100 mm
When a beam of square cross-section is
used with a diagonal in a vertical position,
1. the shear stress, distribution across the
section of the beam will be zero both at
top and bottom
2. the shear stress distribution across the
section of the beam will be zero both at
top and bottom.
3. the maximum stress does not occur at
neutral axis.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
63. A simply supported beam A carries a
point load at its midspan. Another identical
beam B carries the same magnitude of
load but it is uniformly distributed over the
entire span. The ratio of the maximum
deflections of beams A and B will be
a. 8/3
b. 2/3
c. 3/5
d. 8/5
64. The maximum deflection of simply
supported beam occurs at zero
a. bending moment location
b. shear force location
c. slope location
d. shear force location and also zero
bending moment location
65. Which of the following is/are determined
at a point of a given beam by moment area
method ?
1. Shear force
2. Bending moment
3. slope
4. deflection
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 alone
c. 4 alone
d. 3 and 4
66. Which one of the following rules
ascertains the maximum permissible
eccentricity of loads on circular column so
that stresses will always be compressive ?
a. Middle fourth rule
b. Middle third rule
c. Middle half rule
d. Middle two-third rule
67. The horizontal thrust at support A in a
three hinged arch shown in the given
figure is

a. 2 kN
b. 4 kN
c. 8 kN
d. 10 kN
68. A three-hinged symmetrical parabolic arch
of span 20 m and 5 m carries a uniformly
distributed load of 2 kN/m for the whole
span. The bending moment at quarter point
is
a. 75 kNm (Hogging)
b. 75 kNm(Sagging)
c. 100 kNm(Sagging)
d. zero
9 of 14
69. Consider a loaded truss shown in the given
figure. Match List I(Member) with List
II(Force) and select the correct answer :

List I
A. PR
B. RS
C. SU
D. RT
List II
1. 40 kN(Tension)
2. 40 kN(Compression)
3. 60 kN(Tension)
4. 50 2 kN(Compression)
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 2 1 3
70. The pin jointed cantilever truss is loaded
as shown in the given figure. The force in
member ED is

a. 40 kN(Compressive)
b. 80 kN(Tensile)
c. 80 kN(Compressive)
d. 120 kN(Compressive)
71. In the pin jointed plane frame shown in the
given figure. The force in the member BD
is

a. 50000 N (Tensile)
b. 50000 N (Compressive)
c. 50000 2N(Tensile)
d. zero
72. A loaded pin jointed truss is shown in the
given figure. The force in member AC is

a. 10 2kN (Tensile)
b. 10 2kN (Compressive)
c. Zero
d. 10kN (Tensile)
73. A solid shaft has diameter 80 mm. It is
subjected to a torque of 4 kNm. The
maximum shear stress induced in the shaft
would be
a. 75/t N/mm
2

b. 250/t N/mm
2

c. 125/t N/mm
2

d. 150/t N/mm
2

74. Two steel shaft A and B are used for
transmitting power. The ratio of
revolutions of shafts i.e. N
A
/ N
B
=2. The
ratio of torques on shafts i.e. T
A
/ T
B
=1/2.
The ratio of the horse power transmitted
by the shaft i.e. P
A
/P
B
would be
a. 1/2
b. 1/4
c. 1
d. 2
75. A bar AB of diameter 40 mm and 4 m long
is rigidly fixed at its ends. A torque of 600
Nm is applied at a section of the bar, 1 m
from end A. The fixing couples T
A
and T
B

at the supports A and B, respectively, are
a. 450 Nm and 150 Nm
b. 200 Nm and 400 Nm
c. 300 Nm and 150 Nm
d. 300 Nm and 100 Nm
76. A short hollow CI column section A is
150 cm
2
and the section modulus Z =10
10
5
mm
3
carries
(i) an axial load of 250 kN, and
10 of 14
(ii) a load of 50 kN on a bracket, the load
line being 500 mm from the axis of
column.
The maximum and minimum stress
intensities are
a. 50 N/mm
2
tensile and 10 N/mm
2

compressive
b. 45 N/mm
2
compressive and 5 N/mm
2

tensile
c. 55 N/mm
2
compressive and 5 N/mm
2

tensile
d. 60 N/mm
2
tensile and 10 N/mm
2

compressive
77. The strain energy in a member is
proportional to
a. total strain multiplied by the volume of
the member
b. product of stress and the corresponding
strain
c. product of strain and Youngs modulus
of the material
d. the maximum strain multiplied by the
length of the member
78. Strain energy in torsion of a shaft per unit
volume is given by (q is shear stress, E-
modulus of Elasticity and G is modulus of
rigidity)
a. q
2
/2G
b. q
2
/2E
c. q
2
/4G
d. q
2
/4E
79. A simply supported beam of span L is
subjected to a concentrated load W at
midspan. The strain Energy due to bending
in the beam would be
a. W
2
L
3
/ 48 El
b. W
2
L
3
/ 96 El
c. W
2
L
3
/ 24 El
d. W

L
3
/ 96 El
80. A mild steel bar of uniform cross-section
A and length L is subjected to an axial
load W. The Strain Energy stored in the
bar would be
a. Wl/2 AE
b. W
2
L/4 AE
c. WL/4 AE
d. W
2
L/2 AE
81. Creep is the gradual increase of
a. plastic strain with time at constant load
b. elastic strain with time at constant load
c. plastic strain with time at varying load
d. elastic strain with time at varying load
82. If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a
torque T and a bending moment M, the
ratio of maximum bending stress and
maximum shearing stress is given by
a. 2M/T
b. M/T
c. 2T/M
d. T/M
83. If three close-coiled and two open-coiled
helical springs, each having the stiffness k
are connected in series then the overall
stiffness is
a. 5 k
b. k/5
c. k/ 5
d. 6k/5
84. The ratio of tensile stress developed in the
wall of a boiler in the longitudinal
direction to the tensile stress in the
circumferential direction due to an internal
pressure is
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1/4
d. 1/2
85. In a two dimensional stress system, the
two principal stresses are o
1
of 180 N/mm
2

(tensile) and o
2
(compressive). For the
material, yield stress in simple tension and
compression is 240 N/mm
2
and Poisson
Ratio is 0.25. According to maximum
normal strain theory, the value o
2
of at
which yielding will commence, is
a. 240 N/mm
2

b. 180 N/mm
2

c. 195 N/mm
2

d. 200 N/mm
2

86. A straight cantilever of uniform cross-
section carries a load W distributed
evenly over its entire length. If the free end
of the cantilever is now popped upto the
level of the fixed end, the vertical force
required at the prop is
a. 3/8 W
b. 5/8 W
c. 3/4 W
11 of 14
d. W
87. The total degree of indeterminacy (both
internal and external) for the bridge truss
shown in the given figure is

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 3
88. Which one of the following steps is NOT
correct in the application of moment
distribution method ?
a. The distribution factors are first
computed
b. All supports are assumed fixed or
locked and fixed end moments are
computer for each span, considered
separate from every other span
c. Each support is not unlocked and the
unbalanced moment is distributed to
each adjacent span. Then each support
is relocked
d. After distributing the unbalanced
moment to each adjacent span, one half
of this amount, with opposite sign is
carried over to the other end of
respective span.
89. A correct solution of a statically
indeterminate structure as per the energy
method
a. is statically admissible
b. is kinetically consistent
c. makes the strain energy of the structure
a minimum
d. can be given by (a), (b) and (c) of the
question
90. While designing multistory in deeptrial
structures, BIS code suggests the reduction
in live loads because
a. all the floors may not be loaded
simultaneously
b. cross-section of the columns are
different at different floors
c. thickness of roof slab is smaller than
the thickness of floor slabs
d. of the cantilevering effect of the
building
91. A uniform beam of span l is rigidly fixed
at both supports. If carries a uniformly
distributed load w per unit length. The
bending moment at mid span is
a. wl
2
/ 8
b. wl
2
/ 12
c. wl
2
/ 16
d. wl
2
/ 24
A cantilever beam of length l is loaded
with uniformly distributed load w on the
span. The beam is propped at the free end
having its level same as that of the fixed
end (El is constant).
1. The prop reaction is wl / 2
2. The prop reaction is 3/8 wl.
3. The bending moment at the prop =
wl
2
/2
4. SF is zero at x =3/8 l from the proper
end.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
93. An applied couple M is moving on a
simply supported beam of span l as
shown in the given figure. The absolute
maximum bending moment developed in
the beam is

a. M/2
b. M
c. 3 M/2
d. 2M
94. A continuous beam with constant El is
shown in the given figure. Collapse load
for this beam will be equal to

a. 16 M
p
/L
b. 12 M
p
/L
c. 8 M
p
/L
d. 6 M
p
/L
12 of 14
The Impact factor for reinforced concrete
bridges =
4.5
(6 ) L +
(where L is the length in
metres of the span).
The bridge is designed
1. for spans upto 30 m
2. for spans between 3 m and 45 m
3. either for class A or class B loading
4. for class AA and class 70 R.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
96. Which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
1. Plastic hinges are reached first at
sections subjected to greatest
curvature.
2. Formation of plastic hinges allows a
subsequent redistribution of moment
until fully plastic moment is reached at
each critical section.
3. The maximum load is attained when a
mechanism forms.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
97. The number of possible independent
mechanisms for a portal frame shown in
the given figure is

a. 2
b. 4
c. 1
d. 3
98. The collapse load of a simply supported
beam of span L and fully plastic moment
M
p
subjected to central concentrated load
is given by
a. 4 M
p
/L
b. 6 M
p
/L
c. 8 M
p
/L
d. 2 M
p
/L
99. A propped cantilever bean of span L and
constant plastic moment capacity M
p

carries a concentrated load at mid span,
then the load at collapse will be
a. 8 M
p
/L
b. 6 M
p
/L
c. 4 M
p
/L
d. 2 M
p
/L
100. Match List I (Properties) with List II)
Stress points labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) in the
stress-strain figure an select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Yield point
B. Proportional limit
C. Rupture strength
D. Ultimate strength
List II

A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
101. A simply supported beam of 8 m effective
span carries uniformly distributed load of
2 kN/m (inclusive of self load) over the
effective span. If the permissible bending
stress is 160 MPa, then most suitable
shape and size would be a
a. solid circular section of diameter =110
mm, area = 9500 mm
2
and section
modulus =130660 mm
3

b. solid rectangular section of size 60 mm
100 mm deep, area =6000 mm
2
and
maximum section modulus =100,000
mm
3

c. T-section of size 200 mm 200 mm
10 mm thickness, area =3900 mm
2

and maximum section modulus =105,
780 mm
3

d. I-section of size 80 mm 150 mm
deep 10 mm thickness, area =
13 of 14
2900mm
2
and maximum section
modulus =129100 mm
3

102. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched ?
a. Truss Bending
b. Beam Twisting
c. Column Buckling
d. Shaft Shortening
103. The maximum shear force at a section is
56 kN. An ISWB of height 350 mm,
breadth 200 mm, thickness of web 8 mm,
with a section modulus of 887 cm
3
is used
as a beam at the section. The shearing
stress is
a. 10 N/mm
2

b. 20 N/mm
2

c. 28.4 N/mm
2

d. 41.6 N/mm
2

104. M 60 structural steel tube has a radius of
gyration 20 mm. The unbraced length upto
which the tube can be used as a
compression member, is
a. 3.6 m
b. 5.0 m
c. 6.0 m
d. 7.2 m
105. Which one of the following is the mode of
failure in a fillet weld material ?
a. Tension
b. Shear
c. Bearing
d. Crushing
106. Load on connection is not eccentric for
a. LAP joint
b. Single cover butt joint
c. Double cover butt joint
d. All the joints mentioned in a., b., and c.
of the question
107. Two steel plates each of 12 mm thickness
are connected by a double cover butt joint
by rivets shown in the given figure. If the
rivet diameter is 22 mm rivet force value
of 53150 N and permissible stress in
tension of plate is 142 N/mm
2
, which one
of the following section is the most critical
section ?

a. Section 11
b. Section 22
c. Section 33
d. Both section 11 and section 22
correct answer :
List I(Methods of analysis)
A. Exact plastic analysis
B. Mechanism method of plastic analysis
C. Equilibrium method of plastic analysis
List II(Conditions satisfied)
1. Equilibrium, sufficient plastic hinges
and Non-violation of plastic moment
capacity
2. Equilibrium and Non-violation of
plastic moment capacity
3. Equilibrium, continuity and Non-
violation plastic moment capacity
4. Equilibrium and sufficient plastic
hinges
A B C
a. 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2
c. 1 2 4
d. 1 4 2
109. The distance of centroids of areas above
and below the equal area axis in a solid
circular section from its centre (R is the
radius of circular section) is
a. 4R/3t
b. 4t/3R
c. 3R/4t
d. 3t/4R
110. Neutral axis distance D
1
at plastic moment
condition of a triangular cross-section in
given figure having similar properties in
tension and compression is

a. 2/3 D
b. D/2
14 of 14
c. D/ 3
d. D/ 2
111. Which of the following loads are to be
considered in designing a gantry girder in
an industrial building ?
1. Gravity loads
2. Lateral loads
3. Longitudinal loads
4. Wind loads
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
112. The slenderness ratio in tension member as
per BIS code where reverse of stress is due
to loads other than wind or seismic shall
not exceed
a. 350
b. 180
c. 100
d. 60
113. In a plate girder bridge the thickness of
web is less than d/200 where d is the
unsupported depth of web. The web plate
should be provided with
a. vertical stiffness
b. horizontal stiffness
c. end stiffness
d. both vertical and horizontal stiffness
114. In the design of steel bridges if wind or
seismic forces are also considered, the
allowable stresses as per BIS may be
increased by
a. 10%
b. 16
2
3
%
c. 25%
d. 33
1
3
%
115. The compressive strength in structural
timber is minimum in a direction
a. parallel to the grains
b. perpendicular to the grains
c. along an axis inclined at 45
o
to the
grains
d. along an axis inclined at 60
o
to the
grains
116. The minimum compressive strength of
first class bricks should be
a. 5 N/mm
2

b. 7.5 N/mm
2

c. 9 N/mm
2

d. 10 N/mm
2

117. Earthquake causes horizontal and vertical
accelerations in the masonry structure. The
magnitude of the force induced in the
structure depend on the
a. age of the building
b. strength of mortar
c. type of roof
d. Mass of the structure
118. For a reinforced concrete beam section the
shape of the shear stress diagram is
a. parabolic over the whole section with
maximum value at the neutral axis
b. parabolic above the neutral axis and
rectangular below the neutral axis
c. linearly varying as the distance from
the neutral axis
d. dependent on the magnitude of shear
reinforcement provided
119. In a reinforced concrete T-beam (in which
the flange is in compression). The position
of neutral axis will
a. be within in the flange
b. be within the web
c. depend on the thickness of flange in
relation to total depth and percentage
of reinforcement
d. at the junction of flange and web
The reinforcement in reinforced concrete
shall have concrete cove, the thickness of
such cover shall be not less than
1. 25 mm
2. the diameter of bar
3. the spacing between bars
4. 5 mm
Which of the se statemtns are correct?
a. 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
1 of 15

(PAPERI I )

1. Match List I(Unit) with List II(Purpose)
and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Leaping weir
B. Gutter inlet
C. Inverted siphon
D. Catch basin
List II
1. To prevent grit, sand, debris, etc. from
entering the storm sewer
2. To carry the sewer below a stream or
railway line
3. To drain rain water from roads to the
storm sewer
4. To separate storm water and the
sanitary sewage
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
2. Match List I (Treatment units) with List II
(Types of processes) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Trickling filter
B. Activated sludge process
C. Oxidation ditch
D. Oxidation pond
List II
1. Symbiotic
2. Extended aeration
3. suspended growth
4. Attached growth
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 2 1
3. If the moisture content of a sludge is
reduced from 98% to 96% ,the volume of
sludge will decrease by
a. 2%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 50%
4. In a high-rate trickling filter, the problem
of ponding can be solved by
a. flooding and raking
b. chlorination and supply of air
c. ranking and chlorination
d. flooding and supply of air
The process of activated sludge can be
explained as
1. a physical action whereby the finer
suspended particles of sewage form a
sublayer for a bacterial film at the
surface.
2. a chemical action whereby the finer
suspended particles and colloidal
solids are combined into masses of
large bulk.
3. a biochemical action whereby the
sludge flocs so formed act as vehicles
for aerobic bacterial oxidizing the
organic matter
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
6. Sewage may be disposed of without
treatment into a water body if the available
dilution is
a. less than 150
b. more than 150
c. more than 300
d. more than 500
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001
2 of 15
7. A certain waste has a BOD of 162 mg/l
and its flow is 1000 cubic meters per day.
If the domestic sewage has a BOD of 80
gram per capita, then the population
equivalent of the waste would be
a. 20.25
b. 1296
c. 2025
d. 12960
8. In sanitary plumbing of buildings, a two-
pipe system signifies
a. Separate soil pipes and waste pipe
without vent pipes
b. A soil-cum-waste pipe and a
ventilating pipe
c. Separate soil and waste pipe and a
common ventilating pipe
d. Separate soil pipe and waste pipe, each
with its own vent pipe
9. Which of the following are storm water
regulators ?
1. Side weir
2. Leaping weir
3. symphonic spillway
4. Float actuated gates or values.
5. Inverted syphon.
given below :
a. 1, 2 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 5
c. 2, 3 4 and 5
d. 1, 2, 4 and 5
10. When wastewater is disposed of into a
running stream, four zones are formed. In
which one of the following zones will the
minimum level of dissolved oxygen be
found ?
a. Zone of degradation
b. Zone of active decomposition
c. Zone of recovery
d. Zone of clear water
11. The least expensive and most suitable
excrete disposal unit for rural areas would
be the
a. soak pit
b. pit privy
c. leaching cesspool
d. septic tank
12. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched ?
1. Ringelmann chart : To grade density of
smoke
2. Pneumoconiosis : Disease caused due
to coaldust
3. PAN : Secondary air pollutant
given below :
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
13. Which one of the following terms
correctly described Biomagnification?
a. Reproduction of micro-organisms
b. Observation of micro-organisms under
a microscope
c. Ability of micro-organisms to form
zoogleal film
d. Concentration of toxic materials in the
food chain
14. Which one of the following
comprehensive classifications is used for
different types of solid wastes ?
a. Residential, commercial and treatment
plant wastes
b. Food, demolition and construction
wastes
c. Municipal, industrial and harzardous
wastes
d. Rubbish, special wastes and wastes
from open areas
15. Which one of the following methods
would be best suited for disposal of plastic
and rubber waste ?
a. Composting
b. Incineration
c. Pyrolysis
d. Sanitary landfill
matched ?
1. Reverberation : time required to reduce
noise by 60 dB time
2. NIPTS : Responsible for permanent
hearing loss
3 of 15
3. Sound foci : Formed when sound
waves are reflected from convex
surface
4. TTS : Responsible for temporary
hearing loss
given below :
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
17. A dry soil sample has equal amounts of
solids and voids by volume. Its void ratio
and porosity will be
Void ratio Porosity(%)
a. 1.0 100%
b. 0.5 50%
c. 0.5 100%
d. 1.0 50%
18. Based on grain distribution analysis, the
D
10
, D
30
and D
60
values of a given solid
are 0.23 mm, 0.3 mm and 0.41 mm
respectively. As per IS Code, the solid
classification will be
a. SW
b. SP
c. SM
d. SC
19. The plasticity index and the percentage of
grain size finer then 2 microns of a clay
sample are 25 and 15, respectively. Its
activity ratio is
a. 2.5
b. 1.67
c. 1.0
d. 0.6
20. A soil sample having a void ratio of 1.3,
water content of 50% and a specific
gravity of 2.60, is in a state of
a. partial saturation
b. full saturation
c. oversaturation
d. undersaturation
21. The natural void ratio of a san sample is
0.6 and its density index is 0.6. If its void
ratio in the loosest state is 0.9, then the
void ratio in the densest state will be
a.
b. 0.3
c. 0.4
d. 0.5
22. The following data were obtained when a
sample of medium sand was tested in a
constant heat permeameter :
Cross-section area of sample : 100 cm
2

Hydraulic gradient : 10
Discharge collected : 10cc/s
The coefficient of permeability of the sand
is
a. 0.1 m/s
b. 0.01 m/s
c. 110
4
m/s
d. 1 10
8
s m/s
23. Match List I (Test) with List II(Property)
List I
A. Proctor Test
B. Vane Test
C. Penetration Test
D. Hydrometer Test
List II
1. Grain Size Analysis
2. Shear strength
3. Bearing Capacity
4. Compaction
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 4 3 1 3
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 2 4 3 1
24. Which one of the following phase
diagrams represents a clay at its shrinkage
limit ?
a.
b.

4 of 15
c.

d.
25. Which one of the following correctly
represents the dry unit weight of a soil
sample which has a bulk unit weight
l
of
at a moisture content of e% ?
a.
100
l

b.
1
100
l
| |
+
|
\ .

c.
100
100
l
| |
|
+
\ .

d.
( ) 100
100
l

26.

The figure given above shown the state of
a simple of clay before and after
consolidation. Based on these figures, the
settlement of a clay layer of initial
thickness H will be
a.
( )
0
1
e
e
A
+

b.
( )
1
f
H e
e
A
+

c.
( )
1
f
e
e
A
+

d.
( )
0
1
H e
e
A
+

27. A soil sample test in a triaxial compression
apparatus failed when the total maximum
and minimum principal stresses were 100
kPa and 40 kPa, respectively. The pore
pressure measured at failure was 10 kPa.
The effective principal stress ratio at
failure is
a. 2.5
b. 3.0
c. 2.75
d. 2.0
28. An earth-retaining structure may be
subjected to the following lateral earth
pressures :
1. Earth pressure at rest
2. passive earth pressure
3. Active earth pressure
The correct sequence of the increasing
order of the magnitude of these pressure is
a. 3, 2, 1
b. 1, 3, 2
c. 1, 2, 3
d. 3, 1, 2
29. For a sand having an internal friction of
30
o
, the ratio of passive to active lateral
earth pressure will be
a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9
30. The total, neutral and effective vertical
stresses (in t/m
2
) at a depth of 5m below
the surface of a fully saturated soil deposit
with a saturated density of 2 t/m
3
would,
respectively, be
a. 5, 5 and 10
b. 5, 10 and 5
c. 10, 5 and 10
d. 10, 5 and 5
31.

Excess pore pressure distribution within
the thickness of a soil sample tested in
oedometry sometime after loading is
shown in the above figures labeled 1, 2, 3
and 4. Which one of these figures, refers to
a situation where the operator forgot to put
5 of 15
on the porous stones at the top and bottom
of the sample before the test ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
32. In soil consolidation process, the following
events take place after loading :
1. Decrease in excess pore pressure
2. Increase in total stress
3. Development of excess pore pressure
4. Increase in effective stress.
The correct sequence of these events is:
a. 3, 2, 1, 4
b. 2, 3 1, 4
c. 2, 3, 4, 1
d. 3, 2, 4, 1
33.

The e-p curve for a soil is shown in the
above figure. The coefficient of
compressibility (in m
2
/kN) of the soil is
a. 4000
b. 2000
c. 2.5 10
4

d. 1.25 10
4

34. A saturated clay layer with double
drainage takes 5 years to attain 90%
degree of consolidation under a structure.
If the same layer were to be single drained,
what would be the time (in years) required
to attain the same consolidation under the
same loading conditions ?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
35. In the Engineering News Record formula
for determining the safe load carrying
capacity of a pile, the factor of safety used
is
a. 2.5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
36. Two circular footings of diameters D
1
and
D
2
are resting on the surface of a purely
cohesive soil. The ratio D
1
/D
2
= 2. If the
ultimate load carrying capacity of the
footing of diameter D
1
is 200 kN/m
2
, then
the ultimate bearing capacity (in kN/m
2
) of
the footing of diameter D
2
will be
a. 100
b. 200
c. 314
d. 571
37. The minimum bearing capacity of a soil
under a given footing occurs when the
groundwater table at the location is at
a. the base of the footing
b. the ground level
c. a depth equal to one-half of the width
of footing
d. A depth equal to the width of footing
38. In a Newmarks influence chart for stress
distribution, there are 10 concentric circles
and 50 radial lines. The influence factor of
the chart is
a. 0.0002
b. 0.002
c. 0.02
d. 0.2
39. In the case of a pile foundation, negative
skin friction may occur at a load which is
a. lower the an the designed load
b. higher then the designed load
c. equal to the designed load
d. of any magnitude
40. In under-reamed pile construction, the
ratio of shaft diameter to bulb diameter is
a. 1/1.5
b. 1/2
c. 1/2.5
d. 1/4
41. Match List I (Field test) with List II
(Property) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Pumping test
B. Plate load test
6 of 15
C. Pile load test
List II
1. Bearing capacity
2. Load carrying capacity
3. Permeability
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1
d. 3 2 1
42. Match List I (Distress) with List
II(meaning) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Settlement
B. Subsidence
C. Depression
D. Distortion
List II
1. A localized, rather abrupt lowering of
the road surface
2. A general lowering of the road surface
3. Irregular deformation of the road
4. Dished localized deformations
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 3 4
43. Consider the following stages in the
construction of concrete roads :
1. Preparing the subgrade and the base
course.
2. Mixing and placing the concrete.
3. Placing the framework and water the
prepared base
4. Curing
5. Compaction and floating .
The correct sequence of these stages is
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4
d. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
44. Given that
coefficient of curvature = 1.4,
D
30
= 3 mm,
D
10
= 0.6 mm
Based on this formation on particle size
distribution for use as subgrade, this will
be taken to be
a. uniformly-graded sand
b. well-graded sand
c. very find sand
d. poorly-graded sand
regarding soil stabilization :
1. Subgrade should be treated if it has a
soaked CBR of 5 or less.
2. Sub-bases, after treatment, should have
plasticity index not less than 5.
3. Base courses after treatment should
have plasticity index of not more than
2 and a CBR in excess of 100.
Which of these statements(s) is/are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 alone
46. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with
available friction 0.4) down the grade, the
driver requires a braking distance twice the
required for stopping the vehicle when he
travels up the same grade. The grade is
a. 7%
b. 10.6%
c. 13.3%
d. 33.3%
47. Modulus of subgrade reaction using 30 cm
diameter plate is obtained as 200 N/cm
3
.
The value of the same (in N/cm3) using
the standard plate will be
a. 500
b. 200
c. 85
d. 80
48. An observer travelling at a constant speed
of 70 kmph with the traffic stream over a 5
km stretch is passed by 17 vehicles more
than what he passes. When the observer
travels against the stream at the same
speed, the number of vehicles he meets is
303. the flow of the traffic stream is
a. 4480 vph
b. 4160 vph
7 of 15
c. 2240 vph
d. 2002 vph
49. If the total seven-day traffic volume for the
week is 3625 and the traffic volume for
Monday is 650, then the monthly
expansion factor for Monday is would be
a. 5.6
b. 1.25
c. 0.8
d. 0.25
50. Which one of the following is the purpose
of divisional island ?
a. To divert the traffic into definite travel
path at the inter-section.
b. To reduce the speed of traffic entering
the intersection
c. To divert traffic from obstacles and
expedite the flow of traffic
d. To segregate opposing flow of traffic
in a multi-lane high-way
51. Tunnel alignment is carried out y
a. surface theodolite traverse
b. triangulation
c. compass traverse
d. aerial photography
52. With reference to tunneling, which of the
following factors are to be considered for
deciding the size to the shaft ?
1. system used for hoisting
2. size of the muck car.
3. Quantity of muck to be lifted.
4. Eventual use of the shaft.
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which one of the following is installed as
the second signal on the main signal post
for better visibility ?
a. Routing signal
b. Calling on signal
c. Co-acting signal
d. Repeating signal
54. Squaring of sleepers through packing
consists of
a. adjusting the sleepers to be
perpendicular to the rails
b. adjusting the ballast under sleepers to
space them parallel to each other
c. cutting the edges of the sleepers to a
square shape
d. adjusting the rails to be perpendicular
to the sleepers
55. In deep water waves, individual particles
a. are translated
b. are translated and rotated in a vertical
plate about a horizontal axis
c. are not translate, but they rotate in a
vertical plate about a horizontal axis
d. do not rotate in a vertical plate about a
horizontal axis.
56. A surface longitudinally centered on the
extended runway centre lie and extending
outward and upward is called
a. primary surface
b. conical surface
c. horizontal surface
d. approach surface
57. Which of the following factors are to be
taken into consideration while designing
the taxiway system ?
1. Volume of air traffic.
2. Runway configuration.
3. Location of terminal building
4. Location of hangars.
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
58.

In the above figure shown, cockpit cutoff
angle is the angle labelled
a. o
b. |
8 of 15
c. |
d. u
59. Which of the following Pairs are correctly
matched ?
1. Telemeter : Measurement of
distance
2. Price meter : Measurement of
difference in elevation between points
3. Sounding sextant :Measurement of
horizontal angles
4. Clinometer : Measurement of vertical
angles
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
60. Consider the following steps :
1. Calculation of L and D
2. Correction of latitudes and departures.
3. Calculation of bearings.
4. Calculation of interior angles.
5. Calculation of independent angles.
The correct sequence of these steps in
Gales transverse table calculations is
a. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
b. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
61. A tower appears in two successive
photographs taken at an altitude of 4000 m
above datum. The focal length of the
camera is 160 mm. The length of the air
base is 300 m. The parallax for the top and
bottom of the pole are 72 mm and 63 mm
respectively. The height of the top of the
tower above its bottom is nearly
a. 63 mm
b. 72 mm
c. 95 mm
d. 135 mm
62. A road section of length 1 km scales 8 cm
on a vertical photograph. The focal length
of the camera is 160 mm. If the terrain is
fairly level, ten the flying height will be
a. 20 m
b. 2000 m
c. 20 km
d. 200 km
63. The sensitiveness of a bubble tube in a
level would decrease if
a. The radius of the curvature of the
internal surface of the tube is increased
b. The diameter of the tube is increased
c. The length of the vapour bubble is
increased
d. The viscosity of the liquid is increased
64. In a closed traverse with five sided, the
error found from the fore bearing and back
bearing of the last line is +2
o
. The
correction to the third lien will be
a. 0
o
24
b. 0
o
48
c. 1
o
12
d. 1
o
36
65. At a given place of observation, the
declination of a circumpolar star is
a. greater than the latitude
b. equal to the latitude
c. less than the co-latitude
d. greater than the co-latitude
66. Theory of errors and adjustments deals
with minimizing the effects of
a. instrumental errors
b. mistakes
c. systematic errors
d. personal and accidental errors
67. Assertion (A) : The available yield of a
tubewell can be doubled by doubling the
diameter of the well.
Reason (R) : The yield of a tubewell varies
inversely with the logarithm of the
reciprocal of the diameter of the well.
68. Assertion (A) : Total drag is reduced if the
boundary layer on the surface of a cylinder
separated further downstream of the
leading point.
9 of 15
Reason (R) : As the separation point
moves further downstream, form drag is
reduced and the skin drag is only
marginally increased.
69. Assertion (A) : Break-point chlorination is
required to ensure free chlorine residuals
for better disinfection.
Reason (R) : Free chlorine residuals have
good disinfecting power and they are
usually dissipated quickly in the
distribution system.
70. Assertion (A) : The design of all non-
circular sections is based upon getting a
hydraulically equivalent section.
Reason (R) : The chart of hydraulic
elements is very useful in sewer design.
71. Assertion (A) : black cotton soils are clays
and they exhibit characteristic property of
swelling.
Reason (R) : These clays contain
montmorillonite which attracts external
water into its lattice structure.
72. Assertion (A) : The possibility of
quicksand condition occurring is more on
the downstream of a weir on permeable
foundation.
Reason (R) : Seepage lines are directed
upwards at the downstream of such a weir.
73. Assertion (A) : Effective vertical stress at
some depth below a river bed is unaffected
by the water depth in the river
Reason (R) : Equal amounts of increase in
total stress and pore pressure will not
change the effective stress.
74. Assertion (A) : Permanent lowering of
GWT result in settlements.
Reason (R) : Increase in effective stress
results in settlement sin soils.
75. Assertion (A) : When a sharp horizontal
curve is to be introduced on a road which
already had the maximum permissible
gradient, the gradient should be decreased.
Reason (R) : The gradient should be
decreased to compensate for the loss of
tractive effort due to the introduction of
sharp horizontal curve on the road.
76. Assertion (A) : The most common
approach or control of beach erosion is to
build groynes.
10 of 15
Reason (R) : Groynes are constructed
parallel to the shore.
77. Assertion (A) : Gradients much steeper
than the ruling gradient are provide in a
hilly terrain and they are negotiated with
the help of a pusher engine.
Reason (R) : Restricting the gradient to the
ruling gradient in hilly terrains would
mean increasing the length of the track
resulting considerably in heavy
excavation.
78. Assertion (A) : Whole circle bearing of a
line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing.
Reason (R) : Bearing is completely
specified by an angle.
79. Assertion (A) : the centrifugal ratio
decreases along the length of the transition
curve.
Reason (R) : The superelevation increases
along the length of the transition curve.
80. Which of the following air pollutants are
responsible for the green house effect ?
1. Methane
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Flurocarbons
4. Nitrogen oxides
given below :
a. 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
81. A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of
25 mm and 30 mm respectively. The area
ratio of the sampler is
a. 24%
b. 34%
c. 44%
d. 54%
correct answer :
List I
A. Concentrated sugar solution
B. Sewage sludge
C. Blood
D. Air
List II
1. Dilatant Fluid
2. Bingham plastic fluid
3. Pseudoplastic fluid
4. Newtonia fluid.
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 1 4 3
83. A metal cube of size 15 cm 15 cm 15
cm and specific gravity 8.6 is submerged
in a two-layered liquid, the bottom layer
being mercury and the top layer being
water. The percentage of the volume of the
cube remaining above the interface will be,
approximately
a. 68
b. 63
c. 40
d. 25
84. A 30 cm diameter, 90
o
elbow has one limb
vertical. Average velocity of flow of water
through the elbow is 5 m/s and the
pressure intensity is 4 kPa. The vertical
11 of 15
component of force to keep the elbow in
position will be
a. 0.28 kN
b. 1.49 kN
c. 1.77 kN
d. 2.05 kN
relating to Vortex Flow is INCORRECT?
a. In the formation of a free vortex,
streamlines are axisymmetric and
irrotational
b. In a forced vortex, work transfer
between the fluid and the surroundings
takes place and the flow is rotational
c. In a free vortex, radial motion towards
the core takes place due to variation of
depth of water in the whirlpool or due
to the difference of pressure resulting
from higher velocity near the core
d. In a free vortex, there is not variation
of energy from streamline to
streamline and irrotationality is not
deviated from near the core
86. Consider the following measuring
structures :
1. submerged broad-crested weir
2. Free broad-crested weir.
3. Free sharp-crested weir.
4. Free ogee spillway.
The correct sequence of the increasing
order of the discharge coefficient of these
structures is
a. 1, 2, 4, 3
b. 2, 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 1, 4, 3
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
87. In a laminar flow between two static
parallel plates, the velocity at mid-point is
found to be 2.0 m/s. If the space between
the plates is 10 cm, then the discharge per
unit width (in m
3
/s /m) will be
a. 0.01
b. 0.02
c. 0.10
d. 0.20
88. A fluid with kinematic viscosity v flows in
laminar stage along a flat plate with free-
stream velocity V. At a distance x from the
leading edge, the Reynolds number of the
flow is given by R = Vx/v. The thickness
of the boundary layer at x will be
proportional to
a. xR
1/2

b. xR
1/2

c. R
1/2

d. R
1/2

89. Magnus effect may be used
advantageously in games such as cricket,
tennis, table tennis and golf. In order to
obtain a lift, i.e. a rising curve for the
trajectory of the ball, form left to right, the
nature of the spin to be given is
a. anticlockwise in the vertical plane
b. anticlockwise in the horizontal plane
c. clockwise in the vertical plane
d. clockwise in the horizontal plane
90. Two tanks are connected in parallel by two
pipes A and B of identical friction factors
and lengths. If the size of pipe A is double
that of pipe B, then their discharges will be
in the ratio of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5.66
d. 32
91. Water of v = 1 centistoke flows through a
1 cm diameter pipe. Critical flow will
correspond to a discharge of
approximately
a. 0.008 l/s
b. 0.013 l/s
c. 0.016 l/s
d. 0.025 l/s
92. Match List I (Surface) with List II
(Approximate range of Mannings n) and
List I
A. Gravel river bed with 50 mm diameter
bed
B. Badly maintained unlined irrigation
channel with weed growth
C. Concrete lined channel
D. Channel with brick lining
List II
1. 0.02 to 0.022
2. 0.025 to 0.04
3. 0.013 to 0.017
12 of 15
4. 0.04 to 0.08
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 1 2 3 4
93. Water surface profiles that are asymptotic
at one end and terminated at the other and
would include
a. H
2
and S
2

b. H
3
and S
2

c. M
2
and H
2

d. M
2
and H
3

94. A hydraulic jump is always needed in case
of
a. an A
2
profile followed by an A
3
profile
b. an A
3
profile followed by an M
2
profile
c. an H
2
2
profile
d. and M
1
3

profile
95. Which of the following principles relate to
a unit Hydrograph ?
1. The hydrographs of direct run off due
to effective rainfall of equal duration
have the same time base.
2. Effective rainfall is not uniformly
distributed within its duration.
3. Effective rainfall is uniformly
distributed throughout the whole area
of drainage basin.
4. Hydrograph of direct run off from a
basin due to a given period of-effective
rainfall reflects the combination of all
the physical characteristics of the
basin.
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
96. Match list I with list II and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Anemometer
B. Rain simulator
C. Lysimeter
D. Hygrometer
List II
1. Humidity
2. Evapotranspiration
3. Infiltration
4. Wind speed
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 2 1
97. The life of reservoir is determined by its
capacity (C), volume of annual inflow into
the reservoir (I) and concentration of
sediment in the incoming flow (C
S
). Life
will be more if
It has

a. voltage series feedback
b. voltage shunt feedback
c. current shunt feedback
d. current series feedback
98. The IF amplifier in a superheterodyne
receiver is
a. single-stage single-tuned amplifier
b. two stages of single-tuned amplifier
c. double-tuned amplifier
d. Class-C amplifier
99. RC network shown in the given figure can
provide a maximum theoretical phase shift
of

a. 90
o

b. 180
o

c. 270
o

d. 360
o

100. Which one of the following circuits is
most suitable as an oscillator at a
frequency of 100 Hz ?
13 of 15
a. Hartley oscillator
b. Colpitts oscillator
c. Crystal oscillator
d. Twin-T oscillator
101. A circuit is showing the given figure. The
largest value of R
L
that can be used , is

a. 100 O
b. 400 O
c. 2 kO
d. 20 kO
102. A differential amplifier is invariable used
in the input stage of all op-amps. This is
done basically to provide the opamps with
a very high
a. CMRR
b. bandwidth
c. slew rate
d. open-loop gain
103. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
current T through the resistance R is

a. 100 A
b. 100 A
c. 1 mA
d. 1 mA
104. The effect of a finite gain of an operational
amplifier used in an integrator is that
a. it would not integrate
b. the slope of the output will vary with
time
c. the final value of the output voltage
will reduce
d. there will be instability in the circuit
105. In a PLL, lock occurs when the
a. input frequency and the VCO
frequency are the same
b. phase error is 180
o

c. VCO frequency is double the input
frequency
d. None of these
106.
Item Canal data Drainage data
Flow(m
3
/s)
Bed level(m)
Depth of flow (m)
5
120
0.8
500
116
10
Which one of the following types of cross-
drainage should be recommended in this
case ?
a. Aqueduct
b. Syphon aqueduct
c. Syphon
d. Superpassage
The down stream impervious flow of
concrete for a barrage has ruptured. This
can be due to
1. insufficient length of upstream
impervious floor.
2. insufficient length of downstream
impervious floor.
3. insufficient depth of downstream pile.
4. choking of inverted filter.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
108. Ten m
3
/s of water is diverted to a 32
hectare field for 4 hours. Soil proving after
irrigation showed that 0.3 m of water had
been stored in the root zone. Water
application efficiency in this case would
be
a. 96%
b. 66.67%
c. 48%
d. 24%
correct ?
14 of 15
In a river, silt excluder and silt ejector are
constructed
a. at a location after the head regulator
and at the head of the canal,
respectively
b. at the head of the canal and at a
location after the head regulator,
respectively
c. at the same location
d. at specific locations depending upon
diverse factors and their locations do
not follow a set pattern
110. The ideal efficiently of a single-jet Pelton
wheel is given by
2/V
2
[Vv + v(Vv)cos| v
2
]
(symbols have their usual meanings)
If friction on the buckets reduces the
relative velocity by a factor k
1
and if
windage losses reduce the effectiveness of
the affected parameters by a factor k
2
,
then the resulting efficiency multiplied by
V
2
is given by
a. 2k
1
k
2
[Vv + v(Vv)cos| v
2
]
b. 2[k
2
Vv + k
2
v(Vv)cos| v
2
]
c. 2[k
2
Vv + k
1
k
2
v(Vv)cos| v
2
]
d. 2[k
2
Vv + k
1
k
2
v(Vv)cos| k
2
v
2
]
111. Match list I (Units in water treatment
plant) with list II (Impurities removed)
List I
A. Aerator
B. Rapid sand filter
C. Slow sand filter
D. Sedimentation tank(after coagulation
and flocculation)
List II
1. Excess CO
2
and H
2
S
2. Settleable and colloidal matter
3. suspended matter
4. suspended matter
5. suspended, colloidal and
bacteriological matter
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 1 3 4 2
112. Which of the following statements are
correct ?
1. Groundwater is generally free from
suspended and dissolved impurities
2. Suspended matters often contain
pathogenic bacteria
3. rain water is soft and tasteless
4. Lake water may contain microscopic
organisms.
given below :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2

a. in the active region
b. in the saturation region
c. in the saturation region
d. either in the active or the saturation
region.
113. Which of the following regions of
operation are mainly responsible for
heating of the transistor under switching
operation ?
1. Saturation region.
2. cut-off region.
3. Transition from saturation to cut-off.
4. Transition from cut-off to saturation.
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
114. The circuit shown in the given figure

15 of 15
a. is an oscillating circuit and its output is
a square wave
b. is an whose output remains stable in
1 state
c. is one whose output remains stable in
0 state
d. gives a single pulse of 3 times
propagation delay
115. The circuit of a gate in the resistor
transistor logic (RTL) family shown in the
given figure is a/an

a. AND gate
b. OR gate
c. NAND gate
d. NOR gate
116. The decoding error of the counter can be
avoided by
a. increasing propagation delay of flip-
flops used in the counter
b. using very fast logic gates
c. using the strobe signal
d. reducing the propagation delay of flip-
flops used in the counter
117. Which one of the following flags is not
used for branching in a microprocessor ?
a. Carry flag
b. Auxiliary carry flag
c. Overflow flag
d. Parity flag
118. The number of comparator circuits
required to build a three-bit simultaneous
A/D converter is
a. 7
b. 8
c. 15
d. 16
determination) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Hardness
B. Chlorine
C. D.O.
D. Chloride
List II
1. Wenkers method
2. EDTA method
3. Orthotolidine test
4. Mohr method
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 1 4 2 3
119. The amount of bleaching power containing
20% available chlorine needed to
chlorinate a rural water supply covering a
population of 10000 at 50 lpcd at the rate
of 2 ppm is
a. 1 kg
b. 5 kg
c. 0.2 kg
d. 20 kg
120. Which of the following statements(s)
regarding industrial water supply is/are
correct ?
1. Industrial water supplies need not be
disinfected.
2. Water for industrial use requires
chemical treatment.
3. Standards of purity and methods of
treatment of water for industrial use
are often different from those for
domestic water supplies
4. If is more economical to use water
from surface sources than from
groundwater sources for industrial
water supplies.
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 3 only
1 of 17

(PAPERI )

1. Timber can be made reasonably fire-
resistant by
a. soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate
b. coating with Tar paint
c. pumping creosote oil into timber under
high pressure
d. seasoning process
the correct description of the structure of
fibre board ?
a. Thin slices of superior quality of wood
are glued and pressed on the surface of
inferior wood
b. Streamed mass of wood dusts, wood
wool and other vegetable fibres are
pressed hard to a thickness varying
from 3 mm to 12 mm
c. Thin and narrow wood shavings are
soaked in a refractory binder material
and pressed hard
d. Thin and narrow wood shaving are
soaked in a refractory binder material
and pressed hard
3. Match List I(Constituents of bricks) with
List II(corresponding influence) and select
the correct answer :
List I
A. Alumina
B. Silica
C. Magnesia
D. Limestone
List II
1. Colour of brick
2. Plasticity recovery for moulding
3. Reacts with silica during burning and
causes particles to unite together and
development of strength
4. Preserve the for on brick at high
temperature and prevents shrinkage
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 1 4 2
4. In some brick masonry walls, patches of
whitish crystals were found on the exposed
surfaces, also chipping and spalling of
bricks took place from the same walls.
Which among the following are the causes
of these defects ?
1. Settlement of foundation
2. Over-loading of the walls
3. Sulphate attach
4. Efflorescence
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
correct answer :
List I(Property)
A. Specific heat of an aggregate
B. Thermal conductivity of an aggregate
C. Thermal expansion
D. Durability of concrete
List II(Characteristic)
1. Breaks the bond between the aggregate
and the paste
2. Is a measure of its heat capacity
3. Is affected by differences n thermal
expansion of two different materials
4. Is a measure of its ability to conduct
heat
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 3 1 4
6. Consider the following methods of
preservation of timber :
1. Pressure application
2. Brush application
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002
2 of 17
3. Dipping
4. Open tank application
The correct sequence of these methods in
the increasing order of their effectiveness
is :
a. 1, 3 4, 2
b. 3, 4, 2, 1
c. 2, 3, 4, 1
d. 4, 2, 1, 3
correct answer :
List I (Name of defect)
A. Cupping
B. Bowing
C. Chucks
D. Knots
List II(Definition)
1. Caused by wood limbs encased by the
wood of the free trunk
2. Caused by grain irregularities in the
board and can be eliminated by proper
stacking
3. Small cracks appearing at the ends of
boards caused by too rapid drying
4. Unequal shrinking in the radial and
tangential direction
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
correct answer :
List I (Type of cement)
A. Ordinary Portland cement
B. Rapid hardening cement
C. Low heat cement
D. Sulphate resistant cement
List II(Characteristics)
1. The percentage of C
3
S is maximum
and is of the order of 50%
2. The percentages of C2S and C3S are
the same and of the order of 40%
3. Reacts with silica during burning and
causes particles to unite together and
development of strength
4. Preserves the for of brick at high
temperature and prevents shrinkage
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
correct answer :
List I(Type of cement)
A. High strength Portland cement
B. Super sulphated cement
C. High alumina cement
D. Rapid hardening Protland cement
List II(Property/Characteristic)
1. Should not be used with any admixture
2. Is extremely resistant to chemical
attach
3. Gives a higher rate of heat
development during hydration of
cement
4. has a higher content of tricalcium
silicate
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 2 1 3
10. Consider the following stages in the
manufacturing of bricks :
1. Weathering
2. Moulding
3. Tempering
The correct sequence of these stages in the
manufacturing of the bricks, is
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 1
c. 1, 3, 2
d. 3, 2, 1
11. Four main oxides present in ordinary
Portland cement are : CaO, Al
2
O
3
, SiO
2

and Fe
2
O
3
. Identify the correct ascending
order of their proportions in a typical
composition of OPC
a. Al
2
O
3
, Fe
2
O
3
, CaO, SiO
2

b. Al
2
O
3
, CaO, Fe
2
O
3
, SiO
2

c. Fe
2
O
3
, Al
2
O
3
, SiO
2
, CaO
3 of 17
d. Fe
2
O
3
, SiO
2
, Al
2
O
3
, CaO
Pozzolana used as an admixture in
concrete has the following advantages :
1. It improves workability with lesser
amount of water
2. It increases heat of hydration and so
sets the concrete quickly
3. It increases resistance to attach by salts
and sulphates
4. It leaches calcium hydroxide
given below :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
13. The length of time for which a concrete
mixture will remain plastic is usually more
depended on
a. the setting time of cement than on the
amount of mixing water and
atmospheric temperature
b. the atmospheric temperature than on
the amount of mixing water and the
setting time of cement
c. the setting time of cement and the
amount of mixing water than on
atmospheric temperature
d. the amount of mixing water used and
atmospheric temperature than on the
setting time of cement
14.

Which one among the following is the
correct free body diagram for a portal
frame shown in Figure given above ?
a.

b.

c.

d.
Mohrs circle is used to determine the
stress on an oblique section of a body
subjected to
1. direct tensile stress on one plane
accompanied by a shear stress
2. direct tensile stresses in two mutually
perpendicular directions accompanied
by a simple shear stress
3. direct tensile stress in two mutually
perpendicular directions
4. a simple shear stress
given below :
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
16. A bar of square cross- section, having an
area of cross-section A is subjected to a
compressive force P as shown in the
figure

The intensity of the tangential stress on the
oblique plane is given by
a. P sin 2u
b. P cos 2u
4 of 17
c. P/2 sin2u
d. P/2 cos 2u
17. The ratio of the torsional moment s of
resistance of a solid circular shaft of
diameter D, and a hollow circular shaft
having external diameter d and internal
diameter d is given by
a.
4
4 4
D
D d

b.
4 4
4
D d
D

c.
3 3
3
D d
D

d.
3
3 3
D
D d

18. Clapeyrons theorem is applied to
a. Simply supported beam
b. Propped cantilever beam
c. Fixed & continuous beam
d. Continuous beam only
19. The valiration of the hoop stress across the
thickness of a thick cylinder is
a. linear
b. uniform
c. parabolic
d. hyperbolic
20. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a
material is twice its modulus of rigidity.
The Poissons ratio of the material is
a. 1/7
b. 2/7
c. 3/7
d. 4/7
correct answer :
List I
A. Assumption in the theory of simple
bending
B. The point at which the bending stress
is maximum for any cross-section
C. The point at which the bending stress
is zero for an y cross-section
D. The point in the cross-section through
which the neutral axis passes
List II
1. Neutral axis
2. Centroid
3. The plane sections remain plain
4. Extreme fibre
5. The cross-section is circular
A B C D
a. 5 4 1 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 5 1 2 4
d. 3 4 1 2
22. A rectangular beam of width 200 mm and
depth 300 mm is subjected to a shear force
of 200 kN. The maximum shear stress
produced in the beam is
a. 10.0 MPa
b. 7.5 MPa
c. 5.0 MPa
d. 3.00 MPa
23. A symmetrical channel section is made of
a material which is equally strong in
tension and compression. It is used as a
simply supported beam with its web
horizontal to carry vertical loads. It will
a. be strongest if the web is used as top
face
b. be strongest if the web is used as
bottom face
c. be equally strong in (a) and (b) above
d. not be possible to state which of the
above statements is correct
24. For which of the following conditions, the
virtual work should be zero according to
the Principle of virtual work ?
1. A body moving with constant
acceleration
2. A body rotating with constant speed
3. A body in equilibrium
4. A body moving with constant
momentum
given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 4 only
25.
5 of 17

p
1
and p
2
are two equal tensile principal
stresses. On the plane AB inclined at 45
o

to the plane of p
1

a. the shear stress is a maximum
b. the normal stress is zero
c. the shear stress is zero
d. the normal stress is maximum
26.

In the symmetrical channel section shown
in the figure, which point is likely to be the
shear center ?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
27.

The force in member AB is
a. 5kN compression
b. 2 kN compression
c. Zero
d. 7 kN compression
28.

The force in the member BD of the truss
shown in the figure given above is
a. 4 kN tensile
b. 4 kN compressive
c. Zero
d. 12 kN compressive
29. A free body diagram of a body shows
a. A body isolated from all external
effects without considering its own
weight
b. A body isolated form its surroundings
and all external forces acting on it
c. A body isolated from its surroundings
and all external actions on it
d. A body isolated fro its surroundings
and all internal forces acting on it
30. Neglecting self weight, which of the
following beams will have points of
contraflexure?
a. A simply supported beam with
uniformly distributed load over part of
the structure
b. An overhanging beam with loading
only over supported span and not on
overhangs
c. Fixed beam subjected to concentrated
load
d. Cantilever beam subjected to
uniformly varying load with zero load
at free end
31.

The absolute maximum bending moment
in the beam is
a. ( ) 2P a
b. ( ) 5P a
c. ( ) 4P a
d. ( ) 7P a
32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched ?
Boundary conditions Eulers buckling
of column load
a. Both ends hinged : t
2
El / l
2

b. Both ends fixed : 4t
2
El / l
2

c. One end fixed and : tEl / 4l
2

other end free
6 of 17
d. One end fixed and : 2t
2
El/l
2

the other hinged
33. For a two-hinged parabolic arch, V= is
sum of the vertical forces on the left hand
side of the section. H is the horizontal
thrust. If o is the angle of tangent at the
point on arch with the horizontal, the
shearing force at section form left hand
side is given by
a. V
x
sin o H cos o
b. V
x
cos o H sin o
c. V
x
sin o +H cos o
d. V
x
cos o +H sin o
34.
In the truss shown in the figure given
above, which one of the following
members has no force induced in it ?
a. CD
b. CE
c. CF
d. DF
35.

A joint of a roof truss has been isolated
and shown in Figure (i). the force polygon
for the joint is the shown in Figure (ii).
Member a is in compression, member d
is in tension.
Which one of the following is correct ?
a. Both b and c are in tension
b. Both b and c are in compression
c. b is in tension, c is in compression
d. b is in compression, c is in tension
correct answer :
List I
A. Torque-twist relationship for a circular
shaft
B. Strain energy of elastic torsion
C. Circumferential shear stress
D. Maximum shearing stress due to
combined torsion and direct stress
List II
1. 1/2
2 2
4 o t +
2. Gru / l
3. (GJ /2l)u
2

4.
GJ
l
u
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
37.
A beam (El = constant) of span L is
subjected to clockwise moments M at both
the ends A and B. The rotation of end A
works out to be
a. ML / 2 El
b. ML / 3 El
c. ML / 4 El
d. ML / 6 El
The principle of superposition is not
applicable when
1. the material does not obey Hookes
law
2. the effect of temperature changes are
taken into consideration
3. the structure is being analysed for the
effect of support settlement
Which of the above statements is/are
correct ?
7 of 17
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
39. Which of the following apply to fully
rigid design of steel structures ?
1. End connections are capable of
transmitting moments
2. angle between member s at the joint
does not change
3. The structure is assumed to be pin-
pointed
4. A reduction in the maximum bending
moment is permitted to provide a
degree of direction fixity
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
40.
For the propped cantilever shown in the
figure, influence line for reaction at the
propped end is given by y
1
=f(x). The
influence line ordinate (y
2
) for moment at
A is given by the equation
a. y
2
=f(x)
b. y
2
=f(x) . x
c. y
2
=x f(x) .x
d. y
2
=x f(x). L
41. In a system two weightless rigid bars AB
and BC of length a each having hinge
supports at the ends. A and C,
respectively, are connected to each other at
B by a frictionless hinge (internal hinge).
The rotation at the hinge is restrained by a
rotational spring of stiffness k and system
assumes a straight line configuration ABC.
The rotation at the supports due to vertical
load P acting at joint B is
a. Pa / 2k
b. Pa / 4k
c. Pa / k
d. 2 Pa / k
42. A solid circular shaft, ABC, has a total
length of 3 a. A gear wheel positioned at
B, at distance a from the left hand end A,
exerts a torque T. If the ends A and C are
instantaneously locked in position by
brakes just before the torque is applied, the
torsional moments induced in both
segments T
1
(AB) and T
2
(BC) are in the
ratio
a. 3 : 1
b. 2 : 3
c. 1 : 2
d. 2 : 1
43.
The degree of indeterminacy of the beam
given above is
a. zero
b. one
c. two
d. three
44.
For the frame shown above, the
distribution factors for members BC and
BA at joint B are
a. 0.4, 0.6
b. 0.5, 0.5
c. 0.6, 0.4
d. 0.7, 0.3
45. Creep of a material is a property indicated
by
a. a time-dependent strain of the material
b. elongation of the material due to
changes in the material properties
c. shortening caused by shrinkage of the
member
d. the decrease in the volume of the
material affected by the weather
conditions
46. Principle of minimum strain energy is
8 of 17
1. a particular case of Castiglianos first
theorem
2. a particular case of Castiglianos
second theorem
3. applicable only when the redundant
supports do not yield
4. applicable even when the redundant
supports yield
given below :
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
47. Two shafts having same length and
material are joined in series and subjected
to a torque of 10 kNm. If the ratio of their
diameters is 2 : 1, then the ratio of their
angles of twist is
a. 16 : 1
b. 2 : 1
c. 1 : 2
d. 1 : 16
48. Resilience is
a. Maximum strain energy
b. Recoverable strain energy
c. Total potential energy
d. Shear strain energy(Beyond Hookes
law)
49. The slenderness ratio of a compression
member in the context of Rankines
formula is defined as
a.
length
least lateral dimension

b.
effective length
least radius of gyration

c.
effective length
least lateral dimension

d.
length
least radius of gyration

50. A propped cantilever of span 4 m is fixed
at A and propped at B. The beam carries a
u.d.l. of 1 t/m over the entire span. The
reaction at B is
a. 5/2 t
b. 2 t
c. 1 t
d. 3/2 t
51. The elements that are normally subjected
to combined bending and axial forces are
a. struts in reinforced concrete members
b. the member s in long span bridges
c. columns in framed structures
d. space truss members
52. Which among the following assumptions
are made in the design of roof trusses ?
1. Roof truss is restrained by the
reactions
2. Axes of the members meeting at a joint
intersect at a common point
3. riveted joints act as frictionless hinges
4. Loads act normal to roof surface
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
53. The effective flange area in tension of a
palte girder is equal to
a. A
f

b.
w
f
A
A
2
+
c.
w
f
A
A
8
+
d.
w
f
A
A
6
+
where A
f
is the area of each flange and Aw
is the web area
54. The maximum deflection in timber beams
or joints should not be greater than
a. span / 300
b. span / 325
c. span / 360
d. span / 380
55. A simply supported rectangular beam of
spam 20.0 m is subjected to u.d.l. The
minimum effective depth required to check
deflection of this beam, when modification
factor for tension and compression are 0.9
and 1.1 respectively, will be
a. 2.0 m
b. 1.8 m
c. 1.3 m
9 of 17
d. 1.0 m
56. Prestressing of indeterminate structure
should take care of the following :
1. High strength concrete
2. High tensile steel
3. Load balancing
4. particle safety factors
given below :
a. 1 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
57. For a portai truss column fixed at the base,
the point of contraflexure is assumed at
a. a distance mid-way between the base
and the foot of the knee brace
b. a distance mid-way between the base
and top of the column
c. the foot of the knee brace
d. quarter distance between base and top
of the column
58. As the span of a bridge increases, the
impact factor
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains constant
d. increases up to a critical value of span
and then decreases
59. A gantry girder has been provided with the
following section shown in the following
figures

In which case(s), the allowable stresses in
being compression is equal to that in
tension ?
Select the correct answer using the cods
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 4 only
d. 3 only
60.
The effective length of the member shown
in the figure is equal to
a. 1.2 L
b. 1.5 L
c. 2.0 L
d. 3.0 L
61. In a compression member, plate element
may buckle locally before the entire
member fails. To avoid this, which of the
following recommendations are made ?
1. Thickness of members is taken in
terms of lengths of compression
members
2. length of element is increased
3. length of member is increased
4. Outstand is decreased
given below :
a. 1 , 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
62. Figure given below shows a fixed beam of
steel

At the point of collapse, the value of load
W will be
a. 10 M
p
/ L
b. 15 M
p
/ L
c. 20 M
p
/ L
d. 25 M
p
/ L
63.
10 of 17
A rigid plate C is fastened to steel rod A of
area S and to steel pipe B of area 2S. The
other ends of A and B are fastened to rigid
supports. When the force P is zero, there
are no stresses in A and B. The yield
stresses in tension and compression o
y
.
The collapse load P under yield condition
is
a. o
y
S
b. 2 o
y
S
c. 3 o
y
S
d. o
y
S/2
64. A continuous beam ABC of two equal
spans AB and BC carries a load P at Z, the
centre of BC. Then the magnitude of
collapse load P is equal to

a. 2 M
p
/ l
b. 4 M
p
/ l
c. 6 M
p
/ l
d. 8 M
p
/ l
65. The shape factor for a solid circular
section of diameter D is equal to
a. D / 2t
b. 15 / 2t
c. 16 / 3t
d. D / 8t
66. Gross flange area for a riveted plate girder
is to be designed considering net area as
80% of its gross area. Consider width of
the flange as 500 mm while web plate as
1000 mm 12 mm. The girder is to resist
a maximum BM of 4500 kNm. Maximum
allowable bending stress in tension is 150
MPa. Gross flange area is
a. 22000 mm
2

b. 35500 mm
2

c. 46000 mm
2

d. 73000 mm
2

67. Match List I(Type of member ) with List
II (Slenderness ratio) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. For compression members carrying
dead and superimposed loads
B. For members carrying compressive
loads due to wind or seismic forces
only
C. Fro members carrying tension but in
which the reversal of stress occurs due
to wind or seismic forces
List II
1. 350
2. 180
3. 250
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 1 3 2
68. A buttress in a wall is intended to provide
a. lateral support to roof slab only
b. lateral support to wall
c. to resist vertical loads only
d. lateral support to roof beams only
69. A continuous R.C. beam spans six span
segments, each supporting a monolithic
reinforced concrete slab. The beam will
best be designed
a. as a rectangular one throughout its
span
b. as a tee-beam throughout its span
c. as a rectangular beam for span
moments and tee- beam for support
moments
d. as tee-beam for span moments and as a
rectangular beam for support moments
70. Shrinkage in a concrete slab
a. causes shear cracks
b. causes tension cracks
c. causes compression cracks
d. does not cause nay cracking
71. The reinforcement for tension, when
required in members, shall consist of
a. only longitudinal reinforcement in the
tension face
b. only longitudinal reinforcement in the
compression face
c. only two legged closed loops enclosing
the corner reinforcement
11 of 17
d. both longitudinal and transverse
reinforcement
72. The codal provisions recommend
minimum shear reinforcement in the form
of stirrups in the beams :
1. to cater for any torsion in the beam
section
2. to improve ductility of the cross-
section
3. to improve dowel action of
longitudinal tension bars
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c. Only 1 is correct
d. Only 2 is correct
73. The specified span to depth ratios of
beams satisfying the limits of vertical
deflection are for spans up to 10 m.
1. for higher spans, these are to be
modified by multiplying the ratio y
(10/span in metrer)
2. For higher spans, these are to be
modified by multiplying the ratios by
(span in metre/10)
3. They get further modified depending
on area and type of tension
reinforcement
4. However, they of not change further
with the area and type of compression
reinforcement
given below :
a. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 1 and 4 are correct
d. 2 and 4 are correct
74. When the tendon of a rectangular
prestresses beam of cross-sectional area A
is subjected to a load W through the
centroidal longitudinal axis of beam,
(where M =maximum bending Moment
and Z = section modulus) then the
maximum stress in the beam section will
be
a.
W M
A Z

b.
W M
A Z
+
c.
A Z
W M

d.
A Z
W M
+
75. Which of the following deformations are
important in case of deep beams when
compared to flexure along?
a. shear
b. axial
c. torsional
d. bearing
76. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a
beam with ad as the effective depth, in
limit state method of design for Fe 415
steel is
a. 0.46 d
b. 0.48 d
c. 0.50 d
d. 0.53 d
77. The load factor to be used for plastic
design of steel structures for dead load and
imposed load is
a. 2.2
b. 2.0
c. 1.7
d. 1.5
correct answer :
List I
A. A rubber bulldozer gives better output
B. A bulldozer mounted on crawler tracks
gives better output
C. A rubber tyred bulldozer
D. A crawler mounted bulldozer
List II
1. While working on earth or soft ground
2. Results in lesser operator fatigues
3. Has greater use and versatility on jobs
4. When working on a hard surface
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 3 2 1
12 of 17
79. A compression member has a centre to
centre length of 4.0 m. It is fixed at one
end and hinged at the other end. The
effective length of the column is
a. 4.0 m
b. 3.2 m
c. 2.8 m
d. 2.6 m
80. Deck bridges have the main disadvantage
that
a. their compression flanges have no
lateral support
b. the traffic is exposed to winds
c. it is not possible to provide portal
bracings
d. the road level has to be very high
81. If o
cbc
is permissible compressive stress in
flexural compression in N/mm
2
in service,
the modular ratio is of the order of
a. 280/ 3 o
cbc

b. 280 / 4 o
cbc

c. 19
d. 13
82. In a Pedestal, the factor by which the
effective length should not exceed the least
lateral dimension is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
83. The losses in prestress in pre-tensioning
system are due to
1. elastic deformation of concrete when
wires are tensioned successively
2. friction
3. shrinkage and creep of concrete
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 alone
d. 3 alone
84. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I(Type of mixers)
A. Tilting, drum type concrete mixers
B. Pan type concrete mixers
C. Portable tilting drum type concrete
mixers
D. Portable non-tilting drum type concrete
mixers
1. Are very efficient especially with stiff
mixes and the drum rotates about a
vertical axis
2. Are meant for small, scattered jobs
using small-sized aggregates
3. Are fed from on side of the drum while
the mixed concrete is discharged from
the other end and the drum rotates
about a horizontal axis
4. Are best suited for large sized
aggregates as in mass concrete
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
correct answer :
List I(Vibrators)
A. Vibrating tables
B. Screed vibrators
C. Internal vibrators
D. Form vibrators
List II(Application)
1. For thin tunnel linings
2. for mass concrete work
3. Fro precasting concrete members
4. for thin slabs, pavements and floors
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4
86. An equipment of purchased of Rs. 40, 000
and is fully depreciated by straight line
method over 8 years. Considering interest
on average annual cost at 15 p.a., the
charge on the Company due to use of this
equipment, if made uniformly over the 8
years, is
a. Rs. 5,750
b. Rs. 8,000
13 of 17
c. Rs. 8,350
d. Rs. 14,000
87. Which of the following are the
disadvantages of non-tilting type concrete
mixers ?
1. They are not favoured when large
sized aggregates are use d
2. Mixing of the concrete occurs through
both rolling and pulling from buckets
3. Content of fines is increased
4. They are no easy to clean
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
correct answer :
List I (Type of cranes)
A. Hydraulic crane
B. Electric overhead crane
C. Travelling bridge crane
D. Hammerhead crane
1. Has legs moving on tracks laid on the
floor
2. Has cantilever arms on both sides
3. Has the unique advantage that the
boom length and the angle can be
changed during operation
4. Has three-way motion in mutually
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
89. The norm for providing standby equipment
for one shift operation is
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 30%
90.

In the network given above, the maximum
number of shovels and dumpers required
are
a. 6 shovels and 14 dumpers on days 9
and 10
b. 24 shovels and 10 dumpers on days 3
and 4
c. 30 shovels and 90 dumpers on all days
d. 10 shovels and 24 dumpers on day s3
and 4
91. For cleaning and grubbing of construction
site of 15000 m3 area, a bulldozer is used
which has effective width of 2 m of the
blade and an average speed of 2.5 kmph. If
hiring charges of bulldozer are Rs. 500/hr.,
then cost per m
2
is
a. Rs. 10
b. Rs. 12
c. Rs. 15
d. Rs. 18
92.

In the network given above, the critical
path of activities is
a. A-C-H
b. B-E-F-H
c. A-D-E-F-H
d. A-D-E-G
93. The probability that the load on a
scaffolding will exceed the design load of
3 tonnes is 0.15. At the same time, the
probability that the strength of the
scaffolding will be more than 3 tonnes is
0.85. The probability that the scaffolding
will fail is
a. 0.2775
b. 0.1275
c. 0.0225
14 of 17
d. 0.0020
94. The optimum duration is the
a. the summation of normal-durations of
each activity in the project
b. summation of the normal-duration of
activities on critical path
c. one, which givens minimum total cost
for completing the project
d. summation of crash-time of activities
on critical path
95. In order to investigate a method of least-
cost scheduling, which of the following
assumptions are made ?
1. the planned duration of an activity can
be any whole day value between the
normal and crash duration
2. the direct cost of an activity is linear
between he normal and crash direct
costs
3. The overhead costs I linear during the
entire project.
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
applies to the declining balance method of
depreciation accounting?
a. Uniform write-off of cost throughout
the service is aimed
b. Greater write-off in the early years is
aimed
c. Smaller write-off in early years is
aimed
d. A varying rate of depreciation is
applied on the basis of marker value of
the assets
97. In selecting a roller I-section for a simply-
supported beam, along with minimum
sectional modulus, a minimum value of
span/depth ratio is also ensured. This is
stipulated to ensure that
a. the buckling of beam does not take
place
b. the shear stress in beam remains within
permissible limit
c. the deflection of beam remains within
permissible limit
d. the bending stress in compression is
within permissible limit
98. Assertion (A) : Trees which have broad
leaves and shed in the autumn are
classified as hard woods, while trees
having needle-like leaves, broadly
evergreen are classified as soft woods.
Reason (R) : The term hard wood and
99. Assertion (A) : Flash set is the stiffening
of the cement paste within a few minutes
after mixing.
Reason (R) : Flash set occurs due to
insufficient gypsum to control the rapid
reaction of C
3
A with water.
100. Assertion (A) : The amount of cement
past should be sufficient to cover the
surface of all particle for proper work-
ability and bond.
Reason (R) : The water cement ratio is
fixed accordingly.
101. Assertion (A) : the coefficient of friction is
the ratio of limiting frictional force to
normal reaction between two bodies in
contact and one body being just on the
sliding on the other.
Reason (R) : The limiting friction is the
maximum value of frictional force, which
comes in to play, when a body just begins
to slide over the surface of the other body.
15 of 17
102. Assertion (A) : The bending moment at a
section of a simply supported beam is a
maximum.
(i) in the case of a concentrated load,
where the S.F. changes sign.
(ii) in the case of u.d.l where shearing
force is zero.
Reason (R) : Actually in both the above
cases shearing force should be zero at the
section of maximum being moment,
because dM/dx = f = 0, to satisfy the
maxima condition.
103. Assertion (A) : The principle of super-
position for deflection of beams subjected
to a number of loads can be applied in the
case of large deformation.
Reason (R) : In the principle of
superposition, the resultant deflection s
due to each load acting separately.
104. Assertion (A) : In the working stress
design method the internal stresses at a
section of member are computed for
factored loads.
Reason (R) : In the working stress design
method it is ensured that the internal
stresses due to working loads are less than
the allowable stresses.
105. Assertion (A) : The salvage value is less in
the initial period of the equipment and
increases as the equipment ages.
Reason (R) : The salvage value of an
equipment is the actual amount the at can
be realized on a trade-in for a replacement
machine.
106. Assertion (A) : Knots, one of the common
features in wood, are associated with the
beginning of branches.
Reason (R) : Knots greatly improve the
workability.
107. Assertion (A) : More uniformly burnt
bricks are obtained form a downward
draught kiln.
Reason (R) : The bricks are laid in a
circular form in their kiln.
108. Assertion (A) : The higher percentage of
Tricalcium silicate in cement results in
rapid hardening with an early gain in
strength at a higher heat of hydration.
Reason (R) : A higher percentage of
dicalcium silicate in cement results in
rapid slow hardening and less heat of
hydration and greater resistance to
chemical attack.
16 of 17
109. Assertion (A) : For a given composition, a
finer cement will develop strength and
generate heat more quickly than a coarse
cement.
Reason (R) : The reaction between water
and cement starts on the surface of the
cement particles and in consequence the
greater the surface area of a given volume
of cement, the grater the hydration.
110. Assertion (A) : The strain and stress
system for a bar of length l subjected to
an axial pull will be the same whether both
ends of the bar are free or one end is fixed
and the other end is free.
Reason (R) : Rigid body displacements
have no effect on the elastic deformations.
111. Assertion (A) : for a section having an
axis of symmetry, there will not be
twisting if the loading axis coincides with
the symmetrical axis.
Reason (R) : The plane of loading contains
the bending axis.
112. Assertion (A) : A beam of fixed length and
for given weight of material, a rectangular
cross-section provides the greatest possible
moment of resistance.
Reason (R) : In a beam of 1 cross-section,
more material is positioned near the outer
fibres representing regions of greatest
stress and hence is stronger than beam of
rectangular cross-section.
113. Assertion (A) : Whenever a column
section is subjected to an eccentric
loading, it causes a direct stress, as well as
the being stress to come into play. Since
both these stresses act normal to the cross-
section, these can be algebraically added
into a single resultant stress.
Reason (R) : The maximum and minimum
intensities of stress at the base of the
column are
p
max
=
W 6e
1+
b b
| |
|
\ .

p
min
=
W 6e
1
b b
| |
|
\ .

where
W =weight of column per unit length.
b =width of the column
c =eccentricity of the load.
114. Assertion (A) : The intensity of the
longitudinal stress is on half of the
intensity of hoop-stress of hoop-stress or
circumferential stress in a thin cylindrical
shell subjected to internal pressure.
Reason (R) : The stress in the longitudinal
and circumferential directions develop
when a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to
17 of 17
internal force which tries to burst the
cylinder.
115. Assertion (A) : When attempting resource
optimization, activity-time cost trade off
information could be gainfully employed.
Reason (R) : Generally, as activity time is
extended beyond the minimum cost
duration, splitting of the activity duration
is always possible.
116. Assertion (A) : The more economical
alternative of replacing an equipment is to
redesign and improve the equipment.
Reason (R) : Redesigning and improving
an equipment can result in labour saving.
117.
Assertion (A) : Area of BMD represented
by X in the figure given above equals
2/3Ml.
Reason (R) : Area of the figure represented
by Y equals ml/3.
118. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of pin-
jointed plane frames, the force method is
generally preferable to the displacement
method.
Reason (R) : The degrees of freedom for
pin-jointed plane frames are generally
much larger than the degrees of static
indeterminacy and thus force method
requires less formulation and computation
than the displacement method.
119. Assertion (A) : In a built-in beam, the
centroids of the fixed moment diagram and
the free moment diagram will lie on the
same vertical line.
Reason (R) : the second theorem of area
moment states that, if two points on the
elastic line of the beam are at the same
level, the moment of area of BMD
enclosed between these point about any
one of these point is zero.
120. Assertion (A) : The strength of a beam
does not depend upon the sectional area
provided.
Reason (R) : It depends upon the
disposition of the sectional area of the
beam in relation to its neutral axis.
1 of 16

(PAPERI I )

1. Acidic soils are reclaimed by
a. leaching of the solid
b. using limestone as a soil amendment
c. using gypsum as a soil amendment
d. provision of drainage
2. The correct statement of comparison of
ultimate BOD, COD. Theoretical oxygen
demand (ThOD) and 5-day BOD (BOD
5
)
is
a. BOD
u
> COD > ThOD > BOD
5

b. COD > ThOD > BOD
u
> BOD
5

c. ThOD > COD > BOD
u
> BOD
5

d. COD > BOD
u
> BOD
5
> ThOD
3. At a sewage treatment plant for a flow of
3 m
2
/s, the cross-sectional area of grit
chamber will be about
a. 3 m
2

b. 10 m
2

c. 25 m
2

d. 30 m
2

4. Match list I (Different forms of nitrogen in
water) with List II (Inferences) and select
List I
A. Nitrate nitrogen
B. Total nitrogen
C. Nitrite nitrogen
D. Ammonia nitrogen
List II
1. Unsatisfactory microbial activity
2. satisfactory microbial activity
3. Europhication may result
4. Recent organic pollution
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
5. Match List I(Standards of sewage effluents
for the discharge in surface) with list II
(Tolerance limits) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. BOD
5
, (mg/l)
B. COD, (mg/l)
C. Oil and grease
D. Total suspended solids, (mg/l)
List II
1. 250
2. 30
3. 20
4. 10
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 1 4 3
6. In the preliminary treatment of
wastewater, skimming tanks are often
included in the treatment scheme. Various
features of skimming tanks are that these :
1. can remove general floating matter
2. can remove oily and greasy matter
3. have detention time of 30 min.
4. employ compressed air blown through
diffusers
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
7. The following is a well known formula for
estimating the plume rise :
s h
s
Vd Q
h 1.5 0.0096
u Vd
| |
A = +
|
\ .

where the letters have their usual meaning
The estimates plume rise (by the above
formula) with a stack gas having heat
emission rate 2000 kJ/s, the wind speed 4
m/s, stack gas speed 8 m/s inside a stack
diameter of 1 m at the top is
a. 7.8 m
b. 8.7 m
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002
2 of 16
c. 3.15 m
d. 8000/t (1.5 + 0.0024t)
8. In sampling of stack gases for
measurement of concentration of
Suspended particular matter(SPM), the
flue gases are sucked in the instrument at
a. any rate of flow from mid diameter of
chimney
b. any point of chimney cross-section and
at any rate of flow
c. a constant rate of flow but at four
equidistant point along the diameter
d. controlled position and controlled
velocities along the chimney diameter
to get isokinetic conditions
correct answer :
List I (Air pollutants)
A. SPM
B. NO
C. CO
D. SO
2

List II (Harmful effects)
1. Blood haemoglobin
2. Vegetation
3. Respiratory system
4. Building materials
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 4 3 2
correct answer :
List I (Air pollutants)
A. Hydrocarbons
B. Particulates and gases
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Carbon monoxide
List II(Emitted mainly by)
1. Coal burning
2. Gasoline fuel
3. Tyres
4. Carburettor
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 1 2
11. Air binding may occur in
a. Sewers
b. Artesian well
c. Aerator
d. Filter
correct answer :
List I(Valves)
A. Sluice value
B. Check value
C. Air inlet value
D. Ball valve
List II(Uses)
1. Used where gravity flow is required
through pipe line
2. Used to maintain constant level of
water
3. Used for reversal of flow
4. Used for isolating
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 3 1 2
While deciding to locate an intake
structure for a city situated on a river bank,
intake for water supply should be locate
1. in deep waters
2. sufficiently away from shore lines
3. upstream of the populated city
4. near navigational channel
Which of these are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
14. The population figures in a growing town
are as follows :
Year Population
1970 40,000
1980 46,000
1990 53,000
2000 58,000
The predicted population in 2010 by
Arithmetic Regression method is
a. 62,000
3 of 16
b. 63,000
c. 64,000
d. 65,000
15. The description of solid waste collected is
as follows :
Night soil 35 t
Rubbish 40 t
Debris 25 t
Garbage 40 t
The organic solids in the above
composition is
a. 35 t
b. 60 t
c. 100 t
d. 75 t
16. In a sanitary landfill, decomposition and
chemical changes within organic content
of the solid wastes goes on. Consequential
changes within landfill can be :
1. Temperature changes within landfill
2. Production of gases like H
2
S, CO,
CO
2
, and CH
4

3. Destruction of pathogens
4. Production of other gases like SO
2
and
NO
2

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
17. In a soil specimen, 70% of particles are
passing through 3.75 mm I.S. sieve and
40% of particle are passing through 75
I.S. sieve. Its uniformity coefficient is 8
and coefficient of curvature is 2. As per
I.S. classification, this soil is classified as
a. SP
b. GP
c. SW
d. GW
correct answer :
List I(Roller type)
A. Pneumatic roller
B. Smooth wheeled roller
C. Sheep foot roller
D. Vibratory roller
List II (Soil type)
1. Cohesive and granular soils
2. Plastic soils of moderate cohesion
3. Cohesionless soils
4. Silty soils of low plasticity
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 2 1 4
19. The correct sequence of plasticity of
mineral in soil in an increasing order is
a. Silica, Kaolinite, Illite,
Montmorillonite
b. Kaolinite, Silica, Illite,
Montmorillonite
c. Silica, Kaolinite, Montmorillonite
Illite,
d. Kaolinite, Silica, Montmorillonite
Illite,
20. In a triaxial test at failure, major principal
stress was 180 kPa, minor principal stress
was 100 kPa, and pore pressure was 20
kPa. The tangent of the angle of shearing
resistance of the sandy soil tested is
a. 1/3
b. 2/7
c. 1/2
d. 1/6
21. Laboratory vane shear test can also be
used to determine
a. Shear parameters of silty sand
b. Shear parameters of sandy clay
c. Liquid limit of silty clay
d. Plastic limit of clayey silt
22. When movement of a wall under the earth
pressures from the backfill was prevented
the coefficient of earth pressure was
recorded as 0.5. The ratio of the
coefficients of passive and active earth
pressure s of the backfill is
a. 1/3
b. 3
c. 1/9
d. 9
23. Taylors stability number S
n
is given by
which one of the following expressions ?
(C is cohesion, F
c
is factor of safely, is
density of soil and H, the height of the
slope)
4 of 16
a.
c
C
F

b.
C
H

c.
c
C
F H

d.
c
C
F ( + H)

Theory of consolidation predicts
settlement due to primary consolidation; it
cannot include settlement due to initial
compression nor due to secondary
consolidation. This happens because of the
following assumptions made by the theory:
1. Soil grains and water are
incompressible
2. Soil is fully saturated
3. compression takes place in vertical
direction only
4. Time lag in consolidation is entirely
due to low permeability of soil
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
25. In the phase diagrams given, the change
due to initial state changing into final state
is shown due to consolidation. Depth of
soil layer undergoing consolidation is H;
e
0
is initial void ratio; Ae is final void
ratio; is change in void ratio.

Indicate which of the following expression
given settlement of the layer:
a.
10
0
H . log
1
e
e
| | A
|
+
\ .

b.
10
0
log H .
1
e
e
| | A
|
+
\ .

c.
0
1
e
e
| | A
|
+
\ .

d.
0
H .
1
e
e
| | A
|
+
\ .

26. Which one of the following statement s
regarding coefficient of consolidation C
v

is correct ?
a. C
v
k
b. C
v
1/k
c. C
v
m
v

d. C
v
a
v

1. Reaction time
2. Speed
3. Coefficient of longitudinal friction
4. Gradient
account for computing braking distance ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
1. Period of construction, winter/summer
2. Degree of foundation roughness
3. slab thickness
4. Reinforced/unreinforced
Which of these factors are considered as
per IRC for obtaining the maximum
expansion joint spacing in rigid
pavements?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
29. Match list I(Type of construction) with
List II (% Bitumen content) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Bituminous macadam
B. Dense bituminous macadam
C. Bituminous concrete
D. Bituminous mastic
List II
1. 3 3.5%
2. <
/
4%
3. 1417%
5 of 16
4. Min. 4.5%
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 1 3 4 2
30. A journey from work to home made by
walking to the bus, travelling by bus to the
station and completing the journey by train
is regarded as
a. 4 trips
b. 3 trips
c. 2 trips
d. 1 trip
31. With addition of lime in soil
a. L.L. increases and P.L. decreases
b. Plasticity index increase
c. L.L. changes very slightly and P.L.
increase
d. L.L. and P.L. both decrease
32. On a National Highway pavement section
mean value of Benkelman beam deflection
was obtained 12 1.45 mm with standard
deviation of 0.017 mm. pavement
temperature measured was 37
o
c and
moisture correction was obtained as 1.6.
What is the value of characteristic
deflection considering the value of 2o ?
a. 2.72 mm
b. 2.69 mm
c. 2.63 mm
d. 1.94 mm
33. If the curve lead of a broad gauge railway
turnout is 16.76 meters, the angle of
crossing of the turnout will be given by
a. tan
1
10
b. tan
1
5
c. tan
1
1/10
d. tan
1
1/5
correct answer :
List I (Device)
A. Pandrol clip
B. Densometer
C. Viseurs mire
D. Cotters
List II(used for)
1. Fixing the tie bars with the C.I.
sleepers
2. Measurement of packing voids under
the sleeper ands
3. Measurement of unevenness of rail top
and rectification f alignment
4. Elastic rail fastening
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 4 3 2 1
1. Mass of ships to be berthed
2. Overall transit time Speed of berthing
3. environmental conditions of the port
account while selecting the type of fender
system ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
36. Which one of these methods of Tunnel
construction is not suitable in rocks ?
a. Full face method
b. Compressed air method
c. Heading and benching method
d. Drift method
1. Air traffic control measures
2. aircraft traffic composition
3. VFR/IFR operation
4. Runway configuration
Which of these factors affect the capacity
of a runway?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct answer :
List I (Imaginary surface)
A. Conical
B. Approach
C. Primary
D. Transitional
List II(Characteristic)
6 of 16
1. Longitudinally centered on a runway
2. Longitudinally entered on the extended
runway
3. Extending outward and upward from
the periphery of the horizontal
structure
4. Extending outward and upward at right
angles to the runway centre line
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 1 2 3
39. Assertion (A) : Abrupt rise in pressure in a
pipe line results from sudden closure of a
value.
Reason (R) : Pressure wave propagates
through elastic medium.
40. Assertion (A) : Selection of turbine by
specific speed criterion is more scientific.
Reason (R) : Specific speed is
independent of dimensions, size of both
actual and specific turbine.
41. Assertion (A) :Unit hydrograph theory is
not applicable to catchment areas larger
than
Reason (R) : Rainfall is not uniformly
distributed on large catchment areas.
42. Assertion (A) :In routing a flood
hydrograph through a reservoir, the peak
of the outflow hydrograph will be smaller
than the inflow hydrograph and it occurs
after the peak of the inflow.
Reason (R) : In linear reservoir routing,
the storage is a fencing of both outflow
and inflow discharges.
43. Assertion (A) : cut-offs are provided on
the down-stream base of hydraulic
structures.
Reason (R) : Hydraulic structures fail by
overturning about the downstream based
of excessive erasing oat the base caused by
overflowing water.
44. Assertion (A) : Sprinkler method of
irrigation has a higher water applications
use efficiency.
Reason (R) : Sprinkler system causes less
interference in cultivation and to the
farming operations.
45. Assertion (A) : U.K. Royal commission on
Sewage Disposal of 1898-1915 classified
British rivers on the basis 65
o
F, 5-day
BOD.
Reason (R) : British rivers do not have
flow time to open sea more than 5 days.
46. Assertion (A) : Settled sewage is subjected
to biological treatment .
7 of 16
Reason (R) : Any biological treatment is
preceded by a settling tank.
47. Assertion (A) : the surface of sea water is
on the rise.
Reason (R) : A thick layer of gases
enveloping the earth does not allow heat to
pas into space from the earth at a rate
which is as much as the rate at which the
heat coming from space penetrates it
towards the earth.
48. Assertion (A) : Wet scrubber removes
particulates from a gaseous stream.
Reason (R) : In the wet scrubber water
droplets come into contact with the
particulates.
49. Assertion (A) : The shape of the impeller
of rotodynamic pumps is such as to force
the water in a radial / mixed / or axial
flow patterns.
Reason (R) : A rotodynamic pump has a
wheel or a rotating element which rotates
the water in a casing and , thus imparts
energy to he water.
50. Assertion (A) : A soil is at its liquid limit
if the consistency index of the soil is equal
to zero.
Reason (R) : The consistency index of a
soil is defined as ratio of (liquid limit
minus the natural water content) to
(natural water content minus plastic limit).
51. Assertion (A) : A clay layer of thickness,
H, with single drainage suffers an ultimate
settlement of S under increase in pressure
of . When a thin sand layer is present at its
mid depth, the layer, under otherwise
identical conditions, will have no change
in ultimate settlements.
Reason (R) : The path of travel of water
for the clay layer is H under single
drainage. When a thin sand layer is present
at mid depth of clay layer, the path of
travel in lower half of the layer gets reduce
to H/2 and that in upper half of the layer
gets reduced to H/4. This considerably
reduced the time required to realize
ultimate settlement.
52. Assertion (A) : Terzaghis bearing
capacity theory over-estimates the bearing
capacity of footings.
Reason (R) : Terzaghis theory neglects
the hearing resistance of rupture surface in
the soil above the foundation level.
53. Assertion (A) : A skilful highway designer
builds in speed control at critical
locations on horizontal curves rather than
increase than increase the superelevation.
Reason (R) : A driver slows down on
horizontal curve due to feeling of
8 of 16
discomfort because of increase in side
friction with reduced superelevation.
54. Assertion (A) : At a given station, a
celestial body can be fixed by its co-
altitude and co-declination.
Reason (R) : In the astronomical triangle
ZPS, ZP is constant for the given place and
s is the intersection of the vertical circle
and declination of circle.
55. Assertion (A) : The Marshall test, being a
confined compression test has correlation
with deformation as it occurs on the road.
Reason (R) : In road, loaded area is
confined by the tyre, the surrounding
surfacing and the road base.
56. Assertion (A) : The principal advantage of
the solid fill type of wharf substructure is
that its great mass provides adequate
resistance to the impact of mooring ships.
Reason (R) : solid fill substructure are
inexpensive (except in deep water) and
require little maintenance.
57. o
z
is the vertical stress at a depth equal to
Z in the soil mass due to a surface point
load q. The vertical stress at depth equal to
2Z will be
a. 0.25 o
z

b. 0.50 o
z

c. 1.0 o
z

d. 2.0 o
z

58. Which one of the following represents
relative density of saturated sand deposit
having moisture content of 25%, if
maximum and minimum void ratio of sand
are 0.95 and 0.45 respectively and specific
gravity of sand particles is 2.6 ?
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 70%
59. The correct sequence of the increasing
order of the disturbance to soil samples
obtained from chunk, piston, split spoon
and remolded sampler is
a. Piston sampler, chunk sampler, split
spoon sampler, remolded sampler
b. Chunk sampler, piston sampler, split
spoon sampler , remolded sampler
c. Piston sampler, chunk sampler,
remolded sampler, split spoon sampler
d. Chunk sampler, piston sampler,
remolded sampler, split spoon sampler
60. A rigid strip footing subjected to vertical
central load fails under general shear
failure. The rupture surface developed is
a. Circular one sided rotational failure
b. Plane surface of failure originating at
the edge of footing and extending
downwards with orientation of
Rankine passive state equilibrium
c. Symmetrical failure surface consisting
of segment of log spiral and Rankines
passive state failure surface
d. Symmetrical failure surface consisting
of segments of log spiral and plane
failure surface as per Rankine active
state of equilibrium
61. The change in the vertical stress in the soil
mass estimated by Boussinesqs equation
when Poissons ratio of soil changes from
0.3 to 0.5 will be
a. reduction by 30%
b. increase by 50%
c. reduction by 20%
d. no change
9 of 16
62. A single pile, 50 cm in diameter and 15 m
long is driven in clay having an average
unconfined compressive strength of 100
kN/m
2
. The ultimate bearing capacity of
the pile, neglecting end bearing, if any,
and assuming shear mobilization factor of
0.8 around the pile is
a. 942 kN
b. 1884 kN
c. 1177.5 kN
d. 1334.5 kN
63. In a plate load test on sandy soil, the test
plate of 60 cm 60 cm undergoes a
settlement of 5 mm at a pressure of 12
10
4
N/m
2
. What will be the expected
settlement of 3 m 3 m footing under same
pressure ?
a. 25 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 9 mm
64. Match List I (Method of estimating pile
capacity) with List II (Parameter to be
estimated) and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Dynamic formulae
B. Static formulae
C. Pile load test
D. Cyclic pile load test
List II
1. Bearing capacity of cast-insitu
concrete pile
2. Separating end-bearing and friction-
bearing powers of a pile
3. Bearing capacity of a timber pile
4. Settlement of a frictionbearing pile
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 4 1 3 2
65. For designing and bearing piles of square
cross-section in clays having average
unconfined compressive strength of 6 t/m
2
,
the net ultimate bearing capacity may be
taken as
a. 15 t/m
2

b. 18 t/m
2

c. 20 t/m
2

d. 27 t/m
2

66. Which one of the expressions given below
correctly relates natural frequency f
n
,
spring stiffness k, mass m of the machine
foundation vibrating system with C
u
, the
coefficient elastic uniform compression of
the foundation soil ?
a.
n
f = 1/2 k/m CuA/M =
b.
n
f = k/m 2 CuA/M t =
c.
n
f = k/m = 1/2 CuA/M
d.
n
f = 1/2 k/m = 1/2 CuA/M
1. Quick condition and liquefaction of
saturated sands are based on similar
phenomenon.
2. Quick condition is associated with only
earth dams.
3. Liquefaction is possible in dry sand
also
4. Liquefaction is associated with
increase in pore water pressure due to
vibrations.
Which of these statemtns are corrects ?
a. 2 and 4
b. 1 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 4
68. A wooden bridge in Assam failed and was
observed to have arched up in the middle
after the earthquake. The right abutment
settled 40 cm and left abutment 30 cm.
The bridge was supported on wooden
piles, which floated up during the
earthquake. The most probable cause of
failure is
a. Shear failure of soil below abutments
b. Excessive settlement below abutments
due to increased forces
c. Liquefaction of foundation soil below
abutments and piles
d. Failure of abutments due to dynamic
earth pressure behind abutments
69. Which one of the following surveys is
employed for collecting sufficient data in
connection with sewage disposal and water
supply works ?
a. Topographic survey
b. Cadastral survey
c. Geodetic survey
d. Cross-sectioning & profile levelling
10 of 16
70. Match List I with List II ands select te
correct answer :
List I(corrections)
A.
h
L 1
R
| |
|
\ .

B.
2
1 W
24 P
| |
|
\ .

C. ( )
f s
T T L o
D.
( )
f s
P
AE
P L

List II (Name)
1. Sag correction
2. Pull correction
3. Temperature correction
4. Mean sea level correction
(where the letters have their usual
meaning)
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 2 3
71. The following readings were taken with a
Dumpy level and a 4 m levelling staff on a
continuously sloping ground at 30 m
intervals: 0.680 m, 1.455 m, 2.330 m,
2.885 m, 3.380 m, 1.055 m. The R.L. of
the fourth point was calculated to be
79.100 m. The R.L. of the point that was
read 0.680 m is
a. 80.750 m
b. 79.780 m
c. 78.420 m
d. 77.740 m
72. The object of chain and cross-staff survey
is to
1. locate the boundaries of an area
2. plot the figure to a scale
3. find the area of the plot
4. find the reduced levels of the plot
correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 4 alone
correct answer :
List I(Methods)
A. Traversing
B. Resection
C. Intersection
D. Radiation
List II (Procedures)
1. Rays are drawn to locate the station on
which the table is set up
2. At least two rays are drawn from two
different stations to the details to be
located
3. Rays are drawn in the direction of
details through the station point on
which the table is set up
4. Rays are drawn on the map by setting
up the table over each of the stations
towards the subsequent station
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
74. The process of determining the location of
the station (on the map) occupied by the
plane is called as
a. Intersection
b. Three-point problem
c. Traversing
d. Resection
75. Which one of the following is the angular
distance between the observers meridian
and the vertical circle passing through a
star measured along the celestial horizon ?
a. Right ascension
b. Azimuth
c. Declination
d. Hour angle
76. A vertical photograph of a chimney was
taken from and elevation of 500 m above
M.S.L. the elevation of the base of the
chimney was 250 m. If the relief
displacement of the chimney was 51.4 mm
and the radial distance of the image of the
top of the chimney was 110 mm, the
height of the chimney is
a. 233.64 m
b. 133.2 m
c. 116.82 m
11 of 16
d. 58.41 m
77. Based on 30
th
hour volume, for how
much percent time during the year can the
designer willingly tolerate the unfavorable
operating conditions ?
a. 30
b. 29
c. 2.5
d. 0.33
correct answer :
List I (Definitions)
A. Newtonian fluid
B. Ideal fluid
C. Thixotropic fluid
D. Rheological fluid
List II (Properties)
1. Frictionless and incompressible
2. Viscosity is invariant with shear stress
3. Viscosity decreases at higher shear
stress
4. Viscosity increase at higher shear
stress
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
79. An isosceles triangular plate of base 3 m
and altitude 3 m is immersed vertically in
an oil of specific gravity 0.8. The base of
the plate coincides with the free surface of
oil. The centre of pressure will lie at a
distance of (from free surface)
a. 2.5 m
b. 2 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 1 m
80. One orifice is located at a distance x from
the free surface while another orifice is
located at the same distance x from the
bottom of the tank as shown in the figure.

The water jets through the orifices
a. intersect at point A
b. intersect at point B
c. strike the plane at points C and B
respectively
d. would be striking at E and F only
81. A spillway of an irrigation project is to be
studied by means of a model constructed
to a scale of 1 : 9. The prototype discharge
is 1000 m
3
/s. neglecting the viscous and
surface tension effects, the required flow
rate for the model is
a. 12.35 m
3
/ s
b. 111.11 m
3
/ s
c. 4.11 m
3
/ s
d. 1.37 m
3
/ s
82. An oil of viscosity 9 poise is flowing
through a horizontal pipe of 60 mm
diameter. If the flow is laminar, the
pressure drop in 100 m length of the pipe
is 1800 kN/m
2
. The average velocity of
flow of the oil is
a. 2.25 m/s
b. 0.55 m/s
c. 5.5 m/s
d. 22.5 m/s
83. Match List I (Flow pattern past a
cylinder)with List II (Pressure distribution)
List I
A.

B.

C.
12 of 16

D.
List II
1.
2.
3.
4.
A B C D
a. 2 5 1 3
b. 4 3 5 2
c. 2 1 5 4
d. 4 3 1 2
correct answer :
List I
A. (cu/cy)
y = 0
is zero
B. (cu/cy)
y = 0
is +ve
C. Displacement thickness
D. Momentum thickness
List II
1. The flow is attached flow
2. The flow is on the verge of separation
3.
0
1
u u
dy
U U
o
| |
|
\ .
}

4.
0
1
u
dy
U
o
| |
|
\ .
}

A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 4 3
85. The procedure to be followed in solving
for discharge in a simple pipe problem,
when h
f
, l, D, v and c are given is to
[Note : Re is Reynolds number,
f = friction coefficient,
c/D = relative roughness,
V = velocity ]
a. assume f, compute : v, R, c/D and
calculate f; and repeat is necessary
b. assume Re, compute f, check c/D
c. assume v, compute Re and calculate f,
V again
d. assume Q, compute V, Re and
calculate
86. The Chezys coefficient C is related to
Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f as
a. C = ( / 8 ) g f
b. C =
1/ 4
(8 / ) g f
c. C = (8 / ) g f
d. C = ( / 8 ) f g
87. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular
section, the ratio of width to normal depth
is
a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 2 3
88. A rigid boundary rectangular channel
having a bed slope of 1/800 has its width
and depth of flow equal to 2 m and 1 m
respectively. If the flow is uniform and the
value of Chezys constant is 60, the
discharge through the channel is
a. 1.0 m
3
/s
b. 1.5 m
3
/s
c. 2.0 m
3
s
d. 3.0 m
3
/s
89. Consider the following statements in
regard to the critical flow :
1. specific energy is maximum for a
given discharge
2. Specific force is maximum for a given
discharge
3. Discharge is maximum for a given
specific force
4. Discharge is maximum for a given
specific energy
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 4
13 of 16
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
correct answer
List I(Slope)
A. Mild
B. Adverse
C. Limit
D. Critical
List II (Description)
1. is when the flow is at Froude number
one along the channel
2. is n example of non-sustaining slop
3. always sustains uniform subcritical
flow
4. is one which has smallest critical slope
for a given channel shape and
roughness
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 2 4 3
91. If F
1
and F
2
are the Froude numbers of
flow before and after the hydraulic jump
occurring in a rectangular channel, then
a.
( )
2
2 1
2 2
2
1
1 1 8
F
F
F
=
+ +

b.
( )
2
2 1
2 2
2
1
8
1 1 8
F
F
F
=
+ +

c.
( )
2
2 1
2 2
2
1
1/ 2 1 8
F
F
F
=
+ +

d.
( )
2
2 1
2 2
2
1
8
1/ 2 1 8
F
F
F
=
+ +

92. Consider the following statemtns about a
hydraulic ram:
1. Hydraulic ram does not need external
power
2. It works on the fundamental principle
of water hammer
3. The efficiency of a hydraulic ram is
only of the order of 8 to 10%
4. It can be termed as a low, intermittent
discharge lowhead pumping
installation
a. 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
93. Consider the following statemtns related to
centrifugal pumps :
1. Centrifugal pumps with blades facing
backward have fast runners
2. Multistage pumps have two or more
impellers installed in series so that the
discharge is increase
3. Diffusion type centrifugal pumps are
called turbine pumps
4. A centrifugal pump with rising
characteristic is used when actual lift is
small and the amount of flow is
constant
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
94. The following items related to hydrologic
requirements in a hydropower system.
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Stream flow in order of magnitude is
plotted as ordinate and percent of time
as abscissa.
B. Cumulative value of stream flow is
plotted against time for whose period
of record
C. Plot of available power against percent
of time
D. Plot of flow in a stream against time at
specific interval
List II
1. Mass curve
2. Flow duration curve
3. Hydrogaraph
4. Power duration curve
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
14 of 16
95. For a hydro-electric project with reaction
turbine, the draft tube at the exist from the
turbine is
a. always immersed in water
b. always above the water
c. may either be above or below the water
d. above or below the water depending on
the unit speed to the turbine
96. Consider the following statemtns in case
of impulse turbine:
1. The pressure and velocity both change
as the water flows through the turbine
2. pressure throughout remains
atmospheric and the velocity alone
changes
3. All the available energy is converted
into kinetic energy
4. Water is admitted over the entire
circumference of the runner
5. Water is admitted only through the
nozzle
a. 2, 3 and 5
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 4 and 5
d. 1 and 4
97. In case of semi-circular vanes, the
theoretical maximum efficiency of the
wheel can be
a. 50%
b. 67%
c. 75%
d. 100%
98. Without residual whirl in the flow at the
entrance to a draft tube, the best cone
angle is
a. < 6
o

b. 9
o
to 11
o

c. 18
o

d. 24
o

99. Two geometrically similar pumps are
running at the same speed of 1000 r.p.m.
and lifting water against he heads of 25 m
and 16 m respectively. First pump is
having an impeller diameter of 300 mm.
The impeller diameter of second pump
shall be
a. 192 mm
b. 240 mm
c. 300 mm
d. 469 mm
correct ?
a. Reciprocating pumps are less efficient
than centrifugal pumps
b. Delivery from a reciprocating pump is
pulsating
c. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for
large discharges and smaller heads
d. For a negative slip to occur, a
reciprocating pump must have a
coefficient of discharge less than unity
101. Consider the following statements:
1. An ephemeral steam is on which has a
base-flow contribution
2. Flow characteristics of a stream
depend upon rainfall and catchmetn
characteristic sna dalso the climatic
factor which influence evapo-
transpiration
3. sequent Peak Algorithm is used for
estimating run off from rainfall
Which of these statements is /are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 alone
correct answer :
List I
A. |index
B. Lysimeter
C. Dilution technique
D. Syndels equation
List II
1. Used for measurement of evapo-
transpiration for given vegetation
2. Used for flow measurement
3. Average rainfall above which the
rainfall volume is equal to the runoff
volume
4. Relates the basin lag to the basin
characteristics
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 1 2 3
15 of 16
103. A 6-hour rainstorm with hourly intensities
of 7, 18, 25, 17, 11 and 3 mm/hour
produced a runoff of 39 mm. Then, the |
index is
a. 3 mm/hour
b. 7 mm/hour
c. 8 mm/hour
d. 10 mm/hour
104. In a water-shed, four rain gauges I, II, III
and IV are installed. The depths of normal
annual rainfall at these stations are 60, 75,
80 and 100 cm respectively. The rain
gauge at station III went out of order
during a particular year. The annual
rainfall for that year, recorded at the
remaining three stations was 90, 60 and 70
cm. The rainfall at station III can be
considered as
a. 60 cm
b. 70 cm
c. 80 cm
d. 120 cm
105. The unit-hydrograph theory is based on the
assumption of
a. Nonlinear response and time
invariance
b. Linear response and nonlinear time
variance
c. Time invariance and linear response
d. Nonlinear response and nonlinear time
variance
106. An effective storage of a flood control
reservoir is
a. The amount of water which can be
supplied from it in a particular interval
of time
b. The storage between the minimum and
maximum reservoir levels under
ordinary operating conditions
c. The useful storage plus the surcharge
storage less the valley storage
d. The storage volume of flood water
above maximum reservoir level
107. The Penmans evapo-transpiration
equation is based on
a. Water budget method
b. Energy balance method
c. Mass transfer method
d. Energy balance and mass transfer
approach
108. The performance of a well is measured by
its
a. Specific capacity
b. Specific yield
c. Storage coefficient
d. Permeability coefficient
109. Regional hydrological cycle is shown in
the figure

Identify the correct hydrologic budget
equation :
a. P + R
1
R
2
+ R
2
E
s
T
s
I = AS
s

b. 1 + G
1
G
2
R
s
E
s
T
s
= AS
s

c. P (R
2
R
1
) (E
s
+ E
S
) (T
s
+ T
S
)
(G
2
G
1
) = A(S
s
S
S
)
d. PRGET = AS
s

110. A two hour storm hydrograph has 5 units
of direct runoff. The two-hour units
hydrograph for this storm can be obtained
by dividing the ordinates of the storm
hydrograph by
a. 2
b. 2/5
c. 5
d. 5/2
111. The slope area method is extensively used
in
a. development of rating curve
b. estimation of flood discharge base on
high-water marks
c. cases where shifting control exists
d. cases where back-water effects is
present
112. Consider the following :
Garrets diagram for the design of
irrigation channel is based on
1. Kennedys theory
16 of 16
2. Laceys theory
3. Kutters formula
4. Mannings formula
Which of these are correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
113. The total number of independent equations
that form the Laceys regime theory is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
114. Balanced depth of cutting of canal is
a. half the total depth of a canal
b. half of full supply depth
c. the maximum cut that an excavator can
take
d. where volume of cutting is equal to
volume of filling
115. At a certain point in the floor of weir, the
uplift pressure head due to seepage is 4.5
m. If the relative density of concrete is 2.5,
the minimum thickness of floor required at
this point to counteract the uplift pressure
is
a. 1 m
b. 2 m
c. 3 m
d. 4 m
116. A constant angle arch dam when compared
to a constant radius arch dam utilizes
concrete quantity of about
a. 33%
b. 43%
c. 73%
d. 143%
117. Modular limit of a canal outlet is the ratio
of
a. rate of change of discharge of outlet to
that of distributary
b. water depth above outlet crest to the
full supply depth of the channel
c. water depth above the crest on
downstream to that on upstream of
outlet
d. rate of change of discharge of an outlet
to the rate of change of water level of
the channel
118. A canal was designed to supply the
irrigation needs of 1000 ha of land
growing rice of 140 days base period and
having a delta of 130 cm. If the canal
water is used to irrigate wheat of base
period of 119 days and having delta of 50
cm, the area that can be irrigated is
a. 452 ha
b. 904 ha
c. 1105 ha
d. 2210 ha
119. A canal fall is a control structure
a. located at a place where the country
slope is flatter than the canal bed slope
b. located most economically where the
depth of cutting is less than the
balancing depth
c. the location of which is independent of
the command to be served
d. designed to secure raising of water
surface on its upstream
120. Match List II(Equation) with List
II(Applicability or principle of equation)
List II
A. Theims equation
B. Dupits assumption
C. Bernoullis equation
D. Continuity equation
List II
1. is base on energy conservation
principle
2. is based on mass conservation
principle
3. is applicable to steady flow towards a
well confined aquifer
4. is applicable to steady flow in an
unconfined aquifer
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 1 2
1 of 14

(PAPERI )

1. A well-seasoned timber has a moisture
content of about
a. 15% to 20%
b. 10% to 12%
c. 5% to 85
d. 2% to 3%
2. Dry rot in timber is caused by
a. Lack of ventilation
b. Lack of light
c. Immersion in water
d. Alternate wet and dry atmosphere
3. Wood is impregnated with creosote oil in
order to
a. Change its colour
b. Protect against fungi
c. Protect the annular layers
d. Fill up the pores
Bricks are soaked in water before use in
masonry work
1. to remove dust
2. to remove air voids
3. so that they do not absorb water from
cement mortar
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
5. The proper size of mould for testing
compressive strength of cement is
a. 7.05 cm tube
b. 10.05 cm cube
c. 15 cm cube
d. 12.05 cm cube
6. The specific gravity of commonly
available ordinary portland cement is
a. 4.92
b. 3.15
c. 2.05
d. 1.83
7. A quick-setting cement has an initial
setting time of about
a. 50 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 5 minutes
8. Match List I (Cement Mortar for Different
Work) with List II(Proportion of Cement
and sand in Mortar ) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Cement mortar for normal brick work
B. Cement mortar for plastering works
C. Cement mortar for grouting the
cavernous rocks
D. Cement mortar for guniting
List II
1. 1 : 4
2. 1 : 3
3. 1 : 6
4. 1 : 1.5
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 1 4 2 3
9. Match List I(Admixture) with list II
(Action in Concrete) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Calcium lignosulphonate
B. Aluminum powders
C. Tartaric acid
D. Aluminum sulphate
List II
1. Anti bleeder
2. Retarder
3. Air entrainer
4. Water reducer
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 2 3 1
10. A mortar in which both cement and lime
are used in definite proportions as binding
materials is reffered to as
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003
2 of 14
a. Light weight mortar
b. Fire resistant mortar
c. Gauged mortar
d. Water resistant mortar
11. In order to improve the workability of
harsh cement mortar which of the
following items is/are added ?
1. water
2. Plaster of Paris
3. Lime
given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3
12. Bleeding of concrete leads of which of the
following ?
1. Drying up of concrete surface
2. Formation of pores inside.
3. Segregation of aggregate
4. Decrease in strength
Select the correct answer using the coded
given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
13. Match List I (material Characteristics)
with List II (Property of Concrete) and
List I
A. Water cement ratio
B. Water content
C. Minimum cement content
D. Segregation
List II
1. Durability
2. Compressive strength
3. Stability of mix
4. Workability
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 4 1 3
14. Stress-strain curve of concrete is
a. A perfect straight line up to failure
b. Straight lien up to 0.002% string value
and then parabolic up to failure
c. Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value
and then a straight line up to failure
d. Hyperbolic up to 0.002% staring value
and then a straight line up to failure
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test is
1. used to measure the straight of wet
concrete.
2. used to obtain estimate of concrete
strength of finished concrete elements.
3. a destructive test
4. a non-destructive test.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 3
16. The material in which large deformation is
possible before the absolute failure or
rupture is termed as
a. Brittle
b. Elastic
c. Ductile
d. Plastic
17.
A rigid bar AC is supported by three rods
of same material and of equal diameter.
The bar AC is initially horizontal. A force
P is applied such that the bar AC continues
to remain horizontal. Forces in each of the
shorter bars and in the longer bar are,
respectively.
a. 0.4 P, 0.2 P
b. 0.3 P, 0.4 P
c. 0.2 P, 0.6 P
d. 0.5 P , zero
18. A member having length L, cross-sectional
areas A and modulus of elasticity E is
subjected to an axial load W. The strain
energy stored in this member is
a. WL
2
/ AE
b. WL
2
/ 2AE
c. W
2
L
2
/ 2AE
d. W
2
L / AE
19. Elastic limit is the point
3 of 14
a. Up to which stress is proportional to
strain
b. At which elongation takes place
without application of additional load
c. Up to which if the load is remoed,
original volume and shaped are
regained
d. At which the toughness is maximum
correct answer :
List I(Material)
A. Isotropic
B. Homogeneous
C. Viscoelastic
D. Brittle
List II
1. Time dependent stress-strain relation
2. No plastic zone
3. Identical properties in all directions
4. Similar properties throughout the
volume
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 1 2
21. As per the elastic theory of design, the
factor of safety is the ratio of
a. Working stress to stress at the limit of
proportionality
b. Yield stress to working stress
c. Ultimate stress to working stress
d. Ultimate load to load at yield
22. The shear stress distribution for a
rectangular section under the action of
shear force S is shown below. The
rectangular section is bd. Select the
correct shear stress distribution form the
following:
a.
b.
c.
d.
23. Two co-axial springs are subjected to a
force of 1 kN. Spring constant of larger
diameter spring is 80 N/mm and that of
smaller diameter spring is 120 N/mm. The
deformation in the spring combination will
be equal to
a. 5 mm
b. 15 mm
c. 125/6 mm
d. 135/7 mm
24. Match List I (Method of Analysis) with
List II(Unknown Being Evaluated) and
select the correct answer
List I
A. Flexibility method
B. Stiffness Method
C. Kanis method
D. Moment distribution method
List II
1. Degrees of freedom
2. Redundant forces
3. Rotations by incremental iteration and
unknown sways of plane frames
4. Displacement rotations and sways of
plane frames
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 1 4 2
25. The principal strains at a point are + 800
10
6
cm/cm, +400 10
6
cm/cm and
1200 10
6
cm/cm. The volumetric strain
is equal to
a. + 1200 10
6
cm/cm
b. + 800 10
6
cm/cm
c. 1200 10
6
cm/cm
d. zero
26. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to
which one of the following ?
a. Shear failure of rivet
b. Bearing failure of rivet
c. Tearing failure of plate
4 of 14
d. Minimum load value of shearing ,
bearing or tearing failure
27. The radius of Mohrs circle is zero when
the state of stress is such that
a. Shear stress is zero
b. There is pure shear
c. There is not shear stress but identical
direct stresses in two mutually
d. There is no shear stress but equal direct
stresses, opposite in nature, in two
mutually perpendicular directions
28.

The above figure shows the stress
condition of an element. The principal
stresses are
a. 2 t
b. t/2
c. t
d. 2t/3
29. If the principal stresses at a point in a
stressed body are 150 kN/m
2
tensile and 50
kN/m
2
compressive, then maximum shear
stress at this point will be
a. 100 kN/m
2

b. 150 kN/m
2

c. 200 kN/m
2

d. 250 kN/m
2

30. In the Mohrs circle for strains, radius of
Mohrs circle givens the
a. Minimum value of normal strain
b. Maximum value of normal strain
c. Maximum value of shear stain
d. Half of maximum value of shear strain
31. A thin cylindrical tube with closed ends is
subjected to
1. Longitudinal stress o
1
= 14 N/mm
2

2. Hoop stress o
2
= 2 N/mm
2

3. Shearing stress t = 8 N/mm
2

Then the maximum shearing stress is
a. 14 N/mm
2

b. 12 N/mm
2

c. 10 N/mm
2

d. 8 N/mm
2

32. If the shear force diagram of a simply
supported beam is parabolic, then he load
on the beam is
a. Uniformly distributed load
b. Concentrated load at mid span
c. External moment acting at mid span
d. Linearly varying distributed load
e.
33. For determining the deflection y of a
loaded beam at a distance x by Macaulay
method, which one or more of the
following is/are used ?
1. The basic difference equation for
deflection El (d
2
y / dx
2
) = M.
Where El is the flexural rigidity of the
beam, M is the bending moment
2. Successive integration of the
differential equation given in 1.
3. Known positions of zero slope and
zero deflection in the beam.
given below :
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
34.
The above figure shows the cross-section
of a fitched beam consisting of a steel
plate sandwiched between two wooden
blocks. The second moment of area of the
composite beam about the neutral axis XX
is
a.
3 3
bh mth
+
12 12

b.
3 3
bh t(mh)
+
12 12

c.
3
h
(b+t)
12

d.
3
bh
12

(where m is modular ratio of steel and
wood )
5 of 14
35. Match list I(End conditions of Columns)
with List II(Effective Length, l
3
) and select
List I
A. Both ends fixed
B. Both ends hinged
C. One end fixed, other free
D. One end fixed, other hinged
List II
1. l
e
= 2 l
2. l
e
= l / 2
3. l
e
= l / 2
4. l
e
= l
where l is the length & l
e
is the effective
length of the column)
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 3 4 1 2
36. A symmetrical parabolic arch of span l an
dries h is hinged at both the supports. The
arch carries a uniformly distributed load of
e/unit length along the entire span.
Which one of the following is correctly
matched ?
a. Horizontal thrust : el
2
/ 8h
b. Bending moment at crown : el
2
/ 8
c. Radial shear at springing :
[(el
2
/ 2) (el
2
/ 8h)]
d. Vertical reaction at supports : el
37. A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius
R carries on the arch at the hinge would be
a. W / 2
b. W / 2t
c. 2/3 W
d. 4/3 W/t
38. From consideration of earthquake loading
and lateral stability of tall building, which
of the following measures are taken?
1. Minimize gravity loads
2. Add masses at floor levels.
3. ensure ductility at the location s of
maximum moments
4. provide shear walls
5. Provide stilt (ground) storey
given below :
a. 1 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
39.
A pin jointed truss is loaded as shown in
the above figure match List I with list II
List I (member)
A. Member AB
B. Member AC
C. Member BD
D. Member CD
List II (Force induced)
1. 30 kN
2. 50 kN
3. 0
4. 10 kN
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
40.
Member(s) of the frame shown above
which carries/carry zero force is/are
a. EC only
b. EC and AB
c. EC and AC
d. EC, AC and AB
41.
What is the force in the member CE of a
cantilever truss shown in the above figure?
6 of 14
a. P(tensile)
b. P(compression)
c. 2 P(tensile)
d. zero
42. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is
subjected to a twisting moment T. The
maximum shear stress in the shaft is
proportional to
a. d
2

b. d
c. 1/d
2

d. 1/d
3

43. When a cantilever shaft of brittle material
is subjected to a clockwise twisting
moment at the free end, the possible crack
propagation will be
a. 45
o
clockwise with respective to the
axis of shaft
b. 45
o
anticlockwise with respective to
the axis of shaft
c. Perpendicular to the axis
d. Parallel to the axis
44. For a solid circular section of diameter d,
the stress in a column will be compressive
only if the eccentricity of the line of action
of the compressive force is within
a. d/4
b. d/8
c. d/6
d. d/16
45. The stresses in concrete in a reinforced
concrete element under sustained load due
to creep
a. Increase with time
b. Decrease with time
c. Remain unchanged
d. Fluctuate
46. Fro the analysis of thick cylinders, the
theory applicable is
a. Lames theory
b. Rankines theory
c. Poissons theory
d. Courbons theory
47. A thin hollow cylinder of diameter d,
length l and thickness t is subjected to an
internal pressure p. The hoop stress in the
cylinder is
a. pd / 8t
b. pd / 4t
c. pd / 2t
d. pd / t
48.
A portal frame with all member s having
the same El, has one end fixed and the
other hinged. Due to side-sway, the ratio
of fixed end moments M
BA
/ M
CD
would
be
a. 1 : 1
b. 1 : 2
c. 1 : 3
d. 2 : 1
49.

Which one of the following diagrams
represents the influence line for force in
the member DG ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
50. Match List I (Assumption/Theorem) with
list II(Analysis and strength) an select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Plane section remains plane before and
after bending deformations
B. Elasticity and small deformations
C. Uniqueness theorem
D. Large deformations
List II
1. Elastic analysis and superposition
2. Strain distribution and plastic moment
of resistance
3. Non-linear analysis and buckling load
4. Collapse load
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 3 4
7 of 14
51. At the location of the plastic hinge of a
deformed structure
a. Curvature is infinite
b. Radius of curvature is infinite
c. moment is infinite
d. Flexural stress is infinite
52. The order of elongation which a specimen
of mild steel under goes before fracture is
a. 0.1%
b. 1%
c. 10%
d. 100%
53. An electric pole 5 m high is fixed into the
foundation. It carries a wire at the top and
is free to move sideways. The effective
length of the pole is
a. 3.25 m
b. 4.0 m
c. 5.0 m
d. 10.0 m
correct answer :
List I(Failure Mode)
A. Shear failure of plates
B. Bearing failure of plates
C. Tearing failure of plate
D. Splitting failure of plate
List II(Reason)
1. Insufficient edge distance
2. Strength of plate is less than that of the
rivets
A B C D
a. 1 1 2 1
b. 2 1 2 1
c. 1 2 1 2
d. 1 1 1 2
55. Design of a sample element is steel used
one of more of the following :
1. Net area of cross-section
2. Full area of cross-section.
3. Buckling criterion.
4. Crushing (or yielding) criterion.
Which of the above criteria are valid for
the design of a column ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
56. The working stress for structural steel in
tension is of the order of
a. 15 N/mm
2

b. 75 N/mm
2

c. 150 N/mm
2

d. 750 N/mm
2

57. The centre to centre maximum distance
between bolts in tension member of
thickness 10 mm is
a. 200 mm
b. 160 mm
c. 120 mm
d. 100 mm
58. The type of stress induced in the
foundation bolts fixing a column to its
footing is
a. Pure compression
b. Bearing
c. Pure tension
d. Bending
59. Which of the following does not describe a
weld type ?
a. Butt
b. Plug
c. Zig-Zag
d. Lap
60. A plate used for connecting two or more
structural members intersecting each other
is termed as
a. Template
b. Base plate
c. Gusset plate
d. Shoe plate
61. In the context of the ultimate load theory
for steel, the stress-strain curve for steel is
idealized as
a. A single straight line
b. Bi-linear
c. A quadratic parabola
d. A circular arc
62. Consider the following statements about
shape factor :
1. It indicates the increase of strength of a
section due to plastic action over
elastic strength.
2. It is a ratio of plastic moment of
resistance to yield point moment of
resistance.
3. Beam sections which have bulk of area
near neutral axis will have a low shape
factor.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
8 of 14
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 3
63. Which of the following conditions are to
be satisfied by an ideal plastic material ?
1. It should follow Hookes law up to the
limit of proportionality.
2. Strains up to the strain hardening in
tension and compression are to be the
same.
3. The material property should be
different in tension and compression.
4. The values of yield stress in tension an
compression should be different.
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
64.

For a fixed beam shown above, it has been
decided to weld coverplates at ends so that
moment capacity doubles at the ends. If
maximum advantage has to be derived, the
length x of the plate should be
a. l / 2
b. l / 3
c. l / 4
d. l / 6
65. A steel column in a multi-storeyed
building carries an axial load of 125 N. It
is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels
connected by lacing. The lacing carries a
load of
a. 125 N
b. 12.5 N
c. 3.125 N
d. zero
66. A structure has two degrees of
indeterminacy. The number of plastic
hinges that would be formed at complete
collapse is
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
67. For a compresion member having the same
effective length about any cross-sectional
axial, the most preferred section from the
point of view of strength is
a. A box
b. An I-section
c. A circular tube
d. A single angle
68. A trapezoidal combined footing for two
axially loaded columns is provided when
1. Width of the footing near the heavier
column is restricted.
2. Length of the footing is restricted.
3. Projections of the footing beyond the
heavier columns are restricted.
given below :
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
69. In case of two-way slab, the deflection of
the slab is
a. Primarily a function of the long span
b. Primarily a function of the short span
c. Independent of the span, long or short
d. Mostly long span but sometimes short
span
70.

A rectangular reinforced concrete footing
is to be designed to support a column
which transfers axial load and uniaxial
moment to the footing as shown in the
above figure. The footing is to be designed
to have uniform upward soil pressure. The
dimensions L
1
and L
2
(L = L
1
+ L
2
) of the
footing would be
a. L
1
= L
2

b. L
1
> L
2

c. L
1
< L
2

d. L
1
= L
2

71. A reinforced concrete beam of 10 m
effective span and 1 m effective depth is
supported on 500 mm 500 m columns. If
9 of 14
the total uniformly distributed load on the
beam is 10 MN/m, the design shear force
for the beam is
a. 50 MN
b. 47.5 MN
c. 37.5 MN
d. 43 MN
correct answer :
List I
A. Loss of pre-stress
B. End block
C. Transmission length
D. Partially pre-stressed structures
List II
1. Class 3
2. Predetermined members
3. Bursting tension
4. Elastic shortening
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
73. In pre-tensioning process of pre-stressing,
the tendons are
a. Bonded to the concrete
b. Partially bonded to the concrete
c. Not bonded to the concrete
d. Generally bonded but sometimes
remain unbounded to the concrete
74. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post-
tensioned is such a way that no tensile
stress develops at the time of post-
tensioning. The distance of the tendon
from the nearest face must be
a. Between d/5 and d/4
b. < d/6
c. Between d/4 and d/3
d. > d/3
(where d is the depth of the beam)
75. A simply supported RC beam carries UDL
and is referred to as beam A. A similar
beam is pre-stressed and carries the same
UDL as the beam A. This beam is referred
to as beam B. The mid-span deflection of
beam A will be
a. More than that of beam B
b. Less than that of beam B
c. The same as that of beam B
d. Generally less but sometimes more
depending upon the magnitude of UDL
76. The critical section for two-way shear of
footing is at the
a. Face of the column
b. Distance d from the column face
c. Distance d/2 from the column face
d. Distance 2d from the column face
77. In pre-stressed concrete, high grade
concrete is used for
a. Controlling the pre-stress loss
b. Having concrete of low ductility
c. Having concrete of high brittleness
d. Having low creep
78.

A reinforced concrete rectangular slab is
built-in (fixed) on three edges and the
other edge is free. The possible yield line
patterns for the slab subjected to a
uniformly distributed load and reinforced
isotropically are shown above as 1, 2, 3
and 4.
Which of these correctly exhibits the yield
line pattern ?
a. 1 or 3
b. 2 or 3
c. 1 or 2
d. 3 or 4
79.

10 of 14
The bending moment for which the beam
shown above is to be designed is
a. 200 kNm
b. 800 kNm
c. 600 kNm
d. 640 kNm
80. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to
the following bending moments :
Dead load 20 kNm
Live load 30 kNm
Seismic load 10 kNm
The design bending moment for limit state
of collapse is
a. 60 kNm
b. 75 kNm
c. 72 kNm
d. 80 kNm
81. In the Limit state design of pre-stressed
concrete structure, the strain distribution is
assumed to be
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Parabolic
d. Parabolic and rectangular
Under-reinforced concrete flexural
members
1. are deeper
2. are stiffer
3. can undergo larger deflection
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3
83. Long term elastic modulus in terms of
creep coefficient (u) an 28-day
characteristic strength (f
ck
) is given by
a.
ck
5000
MPa
1 +
f

b.
ck
50000
MPa
1 +
f

c.
ck
5000
MPa
1 +
f

d.
ck
5000
MPa
1 +
f

84. A simply supported post-tensioned pre-
stressed concrete beam of span L is pre-
stressed by a straight tendon at a uniform
eccentricity e below the centroidal axis. If
the magnitude of prestressing force is P
and flexural rigidity of beam is El, the
maximum central deflection of the beam is
a.
2
PeL
(downwards)
8 El

b.
2
PeL
(upwards)
48 El

c.
2
PeL
(downwards)
8 El

d.
2
PeL
(upwards)
8 El

correct answer :
List I
A. Service ability
B. Shear key
C. Shrinkage
D. Concrete spalling
List II
1. Sliding
2. deflection
3. Cracking
4. Corrosion
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 2 1 4 3
86. Cost of required materials for construction
has been estimated by contractor and an
extract thereof indicates Rs. 80,000 for
month-1, Rs. 1,20,000 for month-2, Rs.
1,00,000 for month-3 and Rs. 1,40,000 for
month-4. He has arranged with suppliers to
pay 40% immediately on purchase, 40%
one month later and balance 20% two
months later. His payment towards cost of
material in month-3 will exceed that in
month 4 by
a. Rs. 20,000
b. Rs. 16,000
c. Rs. 12,000
d. Rs. 8,000
87. The vibrators are used for
a. Compacting concrete
b. Proper mixing of concrete
c. Removing excess water from concrete
d. Obtaining smooth surface
11 of 14
88. Match List I(Material Use din Individual
Batching of Concrete) with List
II(tolerance When Batch Weight Exceeds
30% of Scale Capacity) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Cement
B. Water
C. Aggregates
D. Admixtures
List II
1. 0.3% of scale capacity
2. 1% of scale capacity
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 3 1 2
correct ?
a. Grade resistance is positive when the
unit travels down grade and negative
when travelling upgrade.
b. Grade resistance depends on the type
of equipment or the haul surface and is
in addition to rolling resistance
c. Grad resistance acts against the total
weight of both wheel and track type
units
d. Grade resistance for units moving on
the road surface is greater than grade
resistance for units moving on rails
90. Match List I (Type of Compactor) with
List II (Soil Best Suited) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Sheeps foot compactor
B. Steel tandem compactor with 2 or 3
axles
C. Steel drum
D. Pneumatic with large tyre
List II
1. Granular or granular plastic
2. Sandy silts, sandy clays, gravelly sand
and clays with few fines
3. Clay, silts clay, gravel with clay binder
4. Sandy silts, most granular material
with come clay binder
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 1 4 3
91. Match List I (equipment) with list
II(Operation) and select he correct answer:
List I
A. Powel shovel
B. Dragline
C. Backhoe
D. Clamshell
List II
1. Can excavate vertically
2. Can excavate underwater
3. has better control because of the rigid
dipper stick
4. Can operate while standing on firm
ground and the bucket is pulled
towards the machine
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 2 3 4 1
92. The number of trips of a dumper per hour
is given by
a.
60 minutes
Actual or effective cycle time in minutes

b.
60 minutes
Ideal cycle time in minutes

c.
60 minutes
Ideal running time + Loss time in minutes

d.
60 minutes
Runnig time in minutes

93. In compaction of clayey-soils using sheep-
foot roller, compaction is achieved by
a. Static action
b. Vibration action
c. Kneading action
d. Impact action
94. The working range of a crane is limited
horizontally for maximum lift only by
a. Boom length
b. Length of hoist cable
c. Length of jib
d. Counter weight
95. Which one of the following types of crane
is used for high rise buildings ?
a. Traveller crane
b. Tower crane
12 of 14
c. Overhead gantry crane
d. Derric crane
96. A certain concreting job can be started
only when all three groups
1. measuring and loading
2. operating the machine, and
3. evacuating and transporting
are in potion. These local groups can be
credited each with only a chance of 0.7
being on time, and the 0.3 chance of being
late, each independently of the other. What
are the chances of the starting of the job
getting delayed on any day due to non-
arrival of any one group on time ?
a. 0.021
b. 0.147
c. 0.343
d. 0.441
97. Three activities F, G and H are to be
performed in the said sequence and for the
whole stretch of the project need 15, 21
and 27 days respectively. If a ladder
network is adopted with on-third of each
activity as the laddered activity, the saving
in total project time in days will be
a. 15
b. 18
c. 21
d. 24
98. Match list I (Inputs Into Networks) with
List II(Basis) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Activity Time
B. PERT durations
C. WBS
D. interfaces
List II
1. Availability of resources is not
discussed
2. Senior managements involvement is
assumed
3. Total cost of each activity is
considered
4. Needed supervisory inputs are
considered
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 4 2 3 1
99.
A-O-A network is suggested as shown
above. The number of
errors/incompatibilities in this network is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
100. Which one of the following project
management techniques is deterministic in
nature ?
a. CPM
b. PERT
c. GERT
d. LCES
101. The probabilistic time is
a.
0 p n
t + t + t
3

b.
0 p n
t + t + 4t
6

c.
0 p n
t + 4t + t
6

d.
0 p n
t + 2t + 4t
4

where t
0
= Optimistic time
t
p
= Pessimistic time
t
n
= Most likely time
102. A serious limitation of independencies
between various activities is generally
observed in
a. Bar charts
b. Milestone charts
c. Network analysis
d. Job layouts
103. In time-cost analysis, the cost slope C
s
is
a.
c n
c n
C C
t t

b.
c n
n c
C C
t t

c.
c n
c n
t t
C C

d.
( )
n c
n c
C C
2 t t

13 of 14
where C
c
= Crash cost
C
n
= Normal cost
t
c
= Crash time
t
n
= Normal time
104. Sinking fund method is useful in
a. Depreciation
b. Obsolescence
c. Liquidation
d. Scrap value
105. Assertion (A) : Timbers used for
engineering construction are derived from
deciduous trees.
Reason (R) : Deciduous trees yield hard
wood while conifers yield soft wood.
106. Assertion (A) : Dry rot is a disease in
wood caused by spores germinating in
wood cells.
Reason (R) : Decomposition and
putrefaction of tissues of a standing tree
are indication of dry rot.
107. Assertion (A) : The greater the surface
area of a given volume of cement the
greater the hydration.
Reason (R) : The reaction between the
water and cement starts from the surface of
the cement particles.
108. Assertion (A) : A low C3A cement
generates less heat and develops higher
ultimate strength.
Reason (R) : During setting and hardening,
the amount of lime liberated appears to be
about 15 to 20 per cent by weight of
cement.
109. Assertion (A) : Addition of 5% to 6% of
moisture content by weight increases the
volume of dry sand from 18% to 38%.
Reason (R) : Bulking of sand is caused due
to surface moisture on sand particles.
110. Assertion (A) : Normal stress of one nature
(compressive or tensile) acting along one
of the three orthogonal axes of a member
will produce strains of the same nature in
its direction and strains of opposite nature
along the other two directions.
Reason (R) : Sum of the strains along the
three orthogonal axes equals volumetric
strain.
111. Assertion (A) : A horizontal beam hinged
at one end and freely supported at the
other end will be in static equilibrium
under inclined load applied on it.
Reason (R) : The hinged end will offer
resistance to the horizontal component of
the applied force.
112. Assertion (A) : In a circular masonry
column it is desirable to restrict the
resultant load within the middle core of
one fourth the area of the column section.
Reason (R) : It is desirable not to allow
any tension in masonry structures.
14 of 14
113. Assertion (A) : Any arch cannot
practically be built to the shape of the
theoretical arch.
Reason (R) : The shape of the theoretical
arch is affected by loads moving on it.
114. Assertion (A) : Lateral support to a beam
is provided by a concrete slab resting over
the top flange of a beam.
Reason (R) : Shear connectors are needed
to provide continuous lateral support.
115. Assertion (A) : Compared to riveted plate
girders, in welded plate girders a thicker
web must be used.
Reason (R) : Omission of flange angles in
creases the clear depth of the web and we
thickness is controlled by buckling
criterion.
116. Assertion (A) : In double-laced system of a
built-up column, cross member
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of
the column is not used.
Reason (R) : Lacing bars are forced to
share the axial load on the strut.
117. Assertion (A) : Web crippling occurs at a
section where heavy vertical load is
applied.
Reason (R) : There is stress concentration
in the vicinity of the load.
118. Assertion (A) : All columns shall be
designed for a minimum eccentricity of
unsupported length of column divided by
500, plus lateral dimension divided by 30
subject to a minimum of 20 mm.
Reason (R) : Assertion refers to the design
of axially loaded column and it may not be
possible to build a perfectly axially loaded
column in practice.
119. Assertion (A) : Under working loads, in a
reinforced concrete beam the lever arm
remains unchanged.
Reason (R) : As the bending moment
increases, the total compressive force and
tensile force are assumed to increase in
direct proportion.
120. Assertion (A) : Rubber tyred equipment
pull better on smooth, hard surfaces while
crawlers work better on firm earth.
Reason (R) : Bulldozers mounted on
wheels are employed on earth construction
for better performance.
1 of 16

(PAPERI I )

correct?
a. Dynamic viscosity of water is nearly
50 times that of air
b. Kinematic viscosity of water is 30
times that of air
c. Water in soil is able to rise a
considerable distance above the
groundwater table due to viscosity
d. Vapour pressure of a liquid is inversely
proportional to the temperature
2. Which of the following fluids can be
classified as non-Newtonian?
1. Kerosene oil
2. Diesel oil
3. Human blood
4. Toothpaste
5. Water
Select -the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and2
b. 3and,4
c. 2 and 5
d. 1 and 5
3. As the depth of immersion of a vertical
plane surface increases, the location of
centre of pressure
a. Falls closer to the centre of gravity of
the area
b. Moves away from the centre of gravity
of the area
c. Ultimately coincides with the centre of
gravity of the area
d. Falls much below the centre of gravity
of the area
4. Consider the following statements related
to buoyancy in fluid statics :
1. Principle of buoyancy is applicable
both to floating bodies and to.
submerged bodies.
2. Archimedes formulated the first theory
of buoyancy.
3. In analyzing buoyancy of a floating
body it is assumed that the resultant
vertical force passes through centre of
pressure.
4. In a free-body diagram of a floating
body summation of all horizontal
forces is taken as zero.
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
to concept of continuity equation and the
concept of control volume in deriving the
equation
1. Continuity equation relates velocity
component and density of the fluid t a
point in a fluid flow.
2. Continuity equation assumes that no
void occurs in the fluid and fluid mass
is neither created nor destroyed.
3. The shape of control volume for
deriving the equation of continuity is
assumed to be a parallelepiped.
4. For incompressible fluids the equation
of continuity does not contain the
viscosity terms.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
6. Match List 1 (Equation / Principle) with:
List II (Property) and the select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Energy equation
B. Continuity equation
C. Moment of momentum
D. Impulse-momentum principle
List II
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003
2 of 16
1. Force on a moving vane
2. Lawn sprinkler
3. Pressure at a point in a pipeline
4. Flow at two sections of a tapering pipe
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
7. When a body moves through still water at
a constant velocity of 4.5 m/s, the velocity
of water at 0.8 m ahead of the nose of the
body is 3.0 m/s. What will be the
difference in pressure between the nose
and the point 0.8 m ahead of it?
a. 875 N/m
2

b. 1000 N/m
2

c. 1125 N/m
2

d. 1250 N/m
2

not
a. Cavitation forms where the local
pressure drops up to the vapour
pressure condition due to increase in
local velocity
b. Cavitation takes place in turbine
blades, runners of pumps, spillways
where local velocity increases
considerably
c. Cavitation may be prevented by
maintaining the ambient pressure
relatively higher at probable points of
occurrence by raising their levels
d. Boundaries likely to be affected by
cavitation can be protected against
pitting by covering. it with tough
materials like stainless steel or rubber
9. The stream function for a two-dimensional
flow is given by =2xy. The resultant
velocity at a paint P (2, 3) is
a. 8.45 units/s
b. 7.21 units/s
c. 6.44 units/s
d. 5.18 units/s
10. Consider the following parameters related
to fluid flow:
1. Vorticity
2. Velocity Potential
3. Stream Function
Which of these parameters exist both in
rotational and irrotational flows ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
correct answer :
List I
A. The type of vortex flow in which no
external torque rotates the fluid mass
B. Flow of liquid inside the impeller of a
centrifugal pump
C. Free surface of forced vortex flow
D. In forced vortex, the rise of liquid level
at ends
List II
1. The fall of liquid axis of rotation
2. Free vortex flow
3. Parabolic
4. Forced vortex flow
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 2 4 1 3
12. A Cipolletti weir discharges water with the
head of water over the crest being 250
mm. If the head due to velocity of
approach is 0.01 m, what will be the
excess percentage of flow, when corrected
for velocity of approach as compared to
when not so corrected ?
a. 3.2%
b. 4.2%
c. 5.3%
d. 6.3%
to a horizontal venturimetre :
1. The velocity of flow in the main pipe
is greater and the pressure is lesser
than that at the throat section.
2. The velocity of flow in the main pipe
is lower and the pressure is larger than
that at the throat section.
3. The pressure difference between the
main pipe and throat section is
positive.
3 of 16
4. The pressure difference between the
main pipe and throat section is
negative.
Which of these statements are not correct ?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
14. The distorted models used in the hydraulic
studies are those which
a. Have exaggeration of the vertical scale
and horizontal scale
b. Are not geometrically similar to the
prototypes
c. Have same vertical and horizontal
scale as that of the prototypes
d. Have same Froude Number as that for
the prototypes
15. A thin smooth plate 1 m wide and 2 m
long is towed water at a velocity of 2 m/s.
Assuming that boundary laminar
(kinematic viscosity = 10
6
m
2
/s), then
drag sides of the plate is
a. 5.3 N
b. 26.6 N
c. 53 N
d. 72.5 N
16. Match List I with List Il and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Flow development
B. Pipe network
C. Water hammer
D. Friction loss
List II
1. Surge tank
2. Entrance length
3. Darcy-Weisbach equation
4. Hardy-Cross method
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 4 2 1 3
17. Which one following conditions must be
satisfied in the Hardy-Cross analysis of
pipe network ?
a. Continuity principle demands that flow
into a network junction is equal to the
flow out of it
b. Momentum equation must be satisfied
so that the force in each loop is
balanced
c. Darcy-Weisbach head loss equation is
to be used in computing head loss in
elementary circuits. The equation is of
the form h
L
=kQ
n
.
d. EH
L
=EKQ
n
must be equated to zero.
If not, a flow correction factor AQ is to
be made for arriving at a solution.
18. Which one of the following phenomena in
a pipe flow is termed as water hammer?
a. The sudden rise of pressure in a long
pipe due to sudden closure of valve
b. The rise of a pressure in a pipe flow
due to gradual closure of valve
c. The rise of negative pressure
d. The zero pressure in a pipe flow
19. The moment correction factor for a flow
through open channel is given by
a.
2
2
1
dA
AV
A
u
}

b.
2
1
dA
AV
A
u
}

c.
2
1
dA
A
A
u
}

d.
2
2
1
dA
AV
A
u
}

20. The steps involved in the procedure of
computing length of backwater curves are
given below with usual notations :
1. Insert all AH values and average value
of slope in the differential equation.
2. Assume a new depth of flow y for the
other end of the reach and insert
corresponding values of A, P, v, R,
v
2
/2g, H and S.
3. Determine or assume the initial
conditions of depth, channel
characteristics and discharge.
4. Compute average S value and the
change in specific head AH.
5. Repeat the process for each reach
adding resulting AL values to obtain
4 of 16
total required distance AL until the
depth or distance desired is reached.
The correct sequence of these steps is
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
c. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
d. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
21. Consider the following statements which
relates to different types of water surface
profiles. Curve types conform to usual
classifications y
c
and y
0
(critical and
normal depths)
1. Type-3 curves lie between y and y
0
.
2. All curves where y < cy
0
are
unaffected upstream from any
disturbance.
3. All curves where y >y
0
are influenced
by downstream disturbances.
4. All curves approaching the y
0
line
approach it asymtotically except for C
curve where y =y
0
.
a. 1, 2, 3 and4
b. 1,3and4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
22. The approximate discharge over a 4 m
long rectangular weir (with suppressed end
contractions) with head over the crest as
0.36 m is
a. 4.2 litres/s
b. 2.4 m
3
/s
c. 6.1 litres/s
d. 1.6 m
3
/s
23. Flow duration curve is a plot of
a. Flow against its time of occurrence in
chronological order
b. Flow in ascending order against
percentage time in chronological order
c. Flow that equalled or exceeded against
percentage time
d. Flow against duration of time for
which it is sustained
24. Pondage in a hydropower station is
defined as
a. Impounding of considerable amount of
excess water during seasons of surplus
flow
b. A regulating body of water in the form
of relatively small amount of run-off to
regulate flow variation in daily or
weekly power requirements
c. Excess run-off to last for years
d. Excess run-off for a f hours only
25. The specific speed of a turbine under a
head of 150 m to develop 200 HP while
running at 300 r.p.m. is
a. 10 35
b. 35 60
c. 60 300
d. 300 1000
26. The moving average of annual
precipitation record is carried out to
determine
a. Trend
b. Annual mean
c. Extreme annual variation
d. Extreme seasonal variation
27. Match List I (Hydrological Terms) with
List II (Relationship/Nature of Curve), and
select the correct answer:
List I
A. Theissen Polygon
B. Mass Curve
C. Hyetograph
D. DAD curve
List II
1. Average depth of rainfall over an area
2. Relationship of rainfall intensity and
time
3. Relationship of accumulated rainfall
and time
4. Relationship of river run-off and time
5. Always a falling curve
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 5
b. 1 5 3 2
c. 4 3 2 5
d. 4 5 3 2
28. Match List I (Type of Precipitation) with
List II (Principal Causes) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Convective
B. Cyclonic
5 of 16
C. Frontal
D. Orographic
List II
1. Atmospheric disturbance
2. Mountain barrier
3. Pressure difference
4. Temperature difference
5. Warm and cold air masses
A B C D
a. 1 4 5 2
b. 4 3 5 2
c. 1 4 2 5
d. 4 3 2 5
29. Which one of the following characteristics
describes a watershed system in systems
parlance ?
a. Linear
b. Non-linear
c. Linear and time-invariant
d. Non-linear and time-variant
30. A 6-hour storm with hourly intensities of
7, 18, 25, 12, 10 and 3 mm per hour
produced a run-off of 33 mm. Then the |-
index is
a. 7 mm/h
b. 3 mm/h
c. 10 mm/h
d. 8 mm/h
31. A catchment area of 90 hectares has a run-
off coefficient of 0.4. A storm of duration
larger than the time of concentration of the
catchment and of intensity 4.5 cm/hr
creates a peak discharge rate of
a. 11.3 m
3
/s
b. 0.45 m
3
/s
c. 450 m
3
/s
d. 4.5 m
3
/s
1. Time-area histogram method aims at
developing an IUH.
2. lsochrone is a line joining equal
rainfall on a map.
3. Linear reservoir is a reservoir having
straight boundaries.
4. Linear channel is a fictitious channel in
which an inflow hydrograph passes
through with only translation and no
attenuation.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
33. Match List I (Floods) with list II
(Parameters) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Standard Project Flood (SPF)
B. Maximum Probable Flood (MPF)
C. Design Flood
D. Maximum Flood
List II
1. Includes catastrophic floods
2. Includes floods of severe conditions
3. Peak flow obtained from observed data
4. Flood of desired recurrence interval
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
matched?
1. Silt factor : Average size of silt
particles
2. Silt load : Volume of suspended
sediments flowing with water in unit
time
3. Silt charge : Weight of silt per unit
volume of water
4. Silt grade : Gradation between
different silt particles
given below
a. 1 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
The function of a cut-off in an earth dam is
to
1. Reduce uplift pressures on the dam
2. Prevent undermining of foundation
3. Reduce loss of stored water
4. Support the dam
6 of 16
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
36. Match List I (Theory) with List
II(Propounded By) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Exit gradient
B. Alluvial canal
C. Unit hydrograph
D. Boundary layer
List II
1. G. Lacey
2. L. K. Sherman
3. A. N. Khosla
4. C. Inglis
5. T. V. Karman
6. L. Prandtl
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 6
b. 6 2 3 5
c. 3 1 2 6
d. 3 1 4 2
37. The ideal condition for energy dissipation
in the design of spillways is the one when
the tail water rating curve
a. Lies above jump rating curve at all
discharges
b. Coincides with the jump rating curve
at all discharges
c. Lies below jump rating curve at all
discharges
d. Lies either above or below the jump
rating curve depending upon discharge
38. The worst condition of uplift on the flood
of a siphon aqueduct occurs when there is
a. High flood flow in the drainage with
canal dry
b. Full supply flow in the canal with
drainage dry
c. High flood flow in the drainage with
canal running full
d. Water tube is at drainage bed and canal
is dry
39. A check dam is a
a. Flood control structure
b. Soil conservation structure
c. River training structure
d. Water storage structure
40. Match List I (Well Hydraulics Parameters)
with List II (Definition) and select the
correct answer
List I
A. Specific yield
B. Safe yield
C. Specific capacity
D. Field capacity
List II
1. Discharge per unit drawdown of well
2. Same as specific retention
3. Measure of water that can be removed
by pumping
4. Limit of withdrawal from well without
depletion of the aquifer
5. Water-bearing capacity of aquifer
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 5
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 2 5
A well development
1. involves reversal of flow through the
well screen
2. increases permeability towards the
well
3. decreases permeability towards the
well
4. is continued till sand/silt free water is
pumped out
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 4
42. Leaching s a process
a. By which alkali salts present in the soil
are dissolved and drained away
b. By which alkali salts in soil come up
with water
c. Of draining excess water of irrigation
d. Which controls waterlogging
7 of 16
43. On which of the following factors, does
the population growth in a town normally
depend?
1. Birth and death rates
2. Migrations
3. Probabilistic growth
4. Logistic growth
given below
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 3
44. Match List t with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below:
List I(Tests)
A. Pumping Test
B. Recuperation
C. Pressure Test
D. J ar Test
List II (Features)
1. The gradual rise of water level in well
is observed as time progresses
2. Rate of pumping is adjusted to consent
level of water in well
3. Vigorous mixing of the chemical
followed by slow mixing
4. Pipeline is filled up with water,
allowed to stand for sometime and then
at least double the maximum pressure
is applied
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 3 4
45. The purpose of re-carbonation process of
water softening is the
a. Removal of excess soda from water
b. Removal of non-carbonate hardness
c. Recovery of lime
d. Conversion of precipitates to soluble
form
46. Which of the following treatment
processes are necessary for removing
suspended solids from water?
1. Coagulation .
2. Flocculation
3. Sedimentation
4. Disinfection
given below
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1 and 4
47. Match List I (Filter Operating Problems)
with List (Effects) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Air binding
B. Mud deposition
C. Cracking of bed
D. Sand incrustation
List II
1. Changes effective size of sand
2. Mud penetrates deeper inside the bed
3. Mounds and balls of mud are formed
in the bed
4. Air and gases get locked in the bed
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
48. Which of the following are removed by
rapid sand filter from water?
1. Dissoled solids
2. Suspended solids
3. Bacteria
4. Helminths
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
49. Consider the following valves in a water
distribution system
1. Check valve
2. Pressure-reducing valve
3. Air relief valve
4. Scour valve
8 of 16
5. Sluice valve
Which of these work automatically ?
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 4 and 5
c. 3, 4 and 5
d. 1, 2 and 3
50. A sewer is commonly designed to attain
self-cleansing velocity at
a. Peak hourly rate of flow
b. Average hourly rate of flow
c. Minimum hourly rate of flow
d. Sewer running half full
51. Sewage sickness signifies
a. Diseases caused by sewage
b. Soil pores getting dogged and
preventing free circulation of air when
sewage is continuously applied on land
c. Raw sewage is applied and used for
irrigating vegetables which are eaten
raw
d. Disposal of septic sewage on land
52. Consider the following data in the design
of grit chamber:
1. Sp gravity of grit =2.7
2. Size of grit particle =0.21 mm
3. Viscosity of water =l.0 10
2
cm
2
/s
The setting velocity (cm/s) of the grit
particle will be
a. 1 to 2.5
b. 2.6 to 5.0
c. 5.1 to 7.8
d. >7.8
53. Amongst the various sewage treatment
methods, for the same discharge, the
largest area is needed for
a. Trickling Filter
b. Anaerobic Pond
c. Oxidation Ditch
d. Oxidation Pond
54. Consider the following treatment steps in a
conventional wastewater treatment plant:
1. Primary sedimentation
2. Grit removal
3. Disinfection
4. Secondary sedimentation
5. Screening
6. Secondary treatment unit
The correct sequence of these steps is
a. 5,2,1,6,4,3
b. 1,2,4,5,3,6
c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1
d. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
55. In an activated sludge process, the sludge
volume index can be controlled by
a. Aeration
b. Adding chlorine
c. Reducing recycling ratio
d. Increasing the depth of aeration tank
56. A primary sedimentation tank is not
required for
a. Activated sludge system
b. Extended aeration system
c. Trickling filtration system
d. Tapered activated sludge process using
pure oxygen for aeration
57. In urban air pollution, the most poisonous
gas is supposed to be carbon monoxide. It
is hazardous because
a. It affects our sense of smell
b. It is carcinogenic in nature
c. it combines with haemoglobin
d. It causes blindness
58.

The above graph shows the relationship of
ambient lapse rates to the dry adiabatic
lapse rate under different conditions of
stability. Match stability situations A, B, C
and D (as given in the graph) with the
classes of stability as follows
1. Superadiabatic
2. Dry adiabatic
3. Subadiabatic
4. Inversion
given below
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
9 of 16
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
59. The term Refuse generally does not
include
a. Putrescible solid waste
b. Excreta
c. Non-putrescible solid waste
d. Ashes
60. Bangalore method and Indore method of
disposing solid wastes are
a. Identical
b. Different as Bangalore method is an
anaerobic method
c. Different as Bangalore method does
not contain human excreta
d. Different as Indore method is an
incineration method
explains the term pyrolysis ?
a. Solid waste is heated in closed
containers in oxygen-free atmosphere
b. Solid waste is incinerated in presence
of oxygen
c. Wastewater is treated with oxygen
d. Dissolved solids from water are
removed by glass distillation
62. The collapsible soil is associated with
a. Dune sands
b. Laterite soils
c. Loess
d. Black cotton soils
63. The predominant mineral responsible for
shrinkage and swelling in black cotton soil
is
a. Illite
b. Kaolinite
c. Mica
d. Montmorillonite
64. Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is
an indicator of its
a. Density
b. Moisture content
c. Shear strength
d. Porosity
65. While computing the values of limits of
consistency and consistency indices, it is
found that liquidity index has a negative
value.
Consider the following comments on this
value:
1. Liquidity index cannot have a negative
value and should be taken as zero.
2. Liquidity index can have a negative
value.
3. The soil tested is in semisolid state and
stiff.
4. The soil tested is in medium soft state.
Which of these statements are correct 7.
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
66. A stratified soil deposit has three layers of
thicknesses: Z
1
=4, Z
2
=1, Z
3
=2 units
and the corresponding permabilities of K
1

=2, K
2
=1 and K
3
=4 units, respectively.
The average permeability perpendicular to
the bedding planes will be
a. 4
b. 2
c. 8
d. 16
67. Match List I (Soil Description) with List II
(Coefficient of Permeability, mm/s) and
List I
A. Gravel
B. Clay silt admixtures
C. Loess
D. Homogeneous clays
List II
1. >1
2. 10
2
to 10
4

3. <10
6

4. 10
4
to 10
6

A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 2 3
68. In a compaction test if the compacting
effort is increased, it will result in
a. Increase in maximum dry density and
OMC
10 of 16
b. Increase in maximum dry density but
OMC remains unchanged
c. Increase in maximum dry density and
decrease in OMG
d. No change iii maximum dry density
but decrease in OMG
A dispersed structure is formed in clay
when
1. the net electrical forces between
adjacent soil particles at the time of
deposition are repulsive
2. remoulding and compacting of clays
have high void ratio
3. there is concentration of dissolved
minerals in water
4. platelets have face to face contact in
more or less parallel arrays
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
70. A CD triaxial test was conducted on a
granular soil. At failure o
1
/ o
3
was 3.0.
The effective minor principal stress of
failure was 75 kPa. The principal stress
difference at failure will be
a. 75 kPa
b. 150 kPa
c. 225 kPa
d. 300 kPa
71. 71. The ultimate bearing capacity of a
square footing on surface of a saturated
clay having unconfined compression
strength of 50 kN/m
2
(using Skempton
equation) is
a. 250 kN/m
2

b. 180 kN/m
2

c. 150 kN/m
2

d. 125 kN/m
2

72. If two foundations, one narrow and
another wide, are resting on a bed of sand
carrying the same intensity of load per unit
area, then which one is likely to fail early?
a. Narrow foundation
b. Wider foundation
c. Both will fail simultaneously
d. Difficult to judge since other
conditions are unknown
73. In a Newmarks chart for stress
distribution, there are 10 concentric circles
and 20 radial lines. The influence factor
for the chart would be
a. 0.1
b. 0.05
c. 0.01
d. 0.005
74. The contact pressure distribution under a
rigid footing on a cohesionless soil would
be
a. Uniform throughout
b. Zero at centre and maximum at edges
c. Zero at edges and maximum at centre
d. Maximum at edges and minimum at
centre
75.

Skin frictional capacities of a 40 cm
diameter driven concrete pile for the
portions A, B and C are 17 kN, 63 kN and
503 kN respectively, and point load
capacity is 11000 RN/rn2 Total pile load
capacity will be
a. 3743 kN
b. 2864 RN
c. 1965 RN
d. 1529 RN
76. Sinking effort in well foundation is the
ratio of weight of well steining to that of
skin friction developed on the sides and
should preferably be
a. <1.0
b. =1.0
c. >1.2
d. >2.0
1. All soils can experience liquefaction
under vibrations.
2. Liquefaction is generally associated
with sandy soils.
11 of 16
3. Liquefaction is not possible in normal
clays.
4. Highly sensitive clays may undergo
liquefaction under vibrations.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
78. On which o the following factors does the
behaviour of sand mass to cause
liquefaction during an earthquake depend
largely?
1. The number of stress cycles
2. The frequency and amplitude of
vibrations of the earthquake shock
3. Angle of internal friction of sand
4. Relative density of sand
given below :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 4 only
79. Match List I (Sampler) with List II (Use)
List I
A. Split spoon sampler
B. Stationary piston sampler
C. Rotary sampler
D. Compressed air sampler
List II
1. To obtain representative samples in all
types of soil
2. To obtain undisturbed samples of
sands below water table
3. To obtain undisturbed samples in clay
and silts
4. To obtain approximately undisturbed
samples of hard cemented cohesive
soils
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 3 1 2 4
80. Which one of the following figures
indicates the principle of traversing ?
a.

b.

c.

d.
81. The magnetic needle in a prismatic
compass is placed
a. At the bottom of the graduated
aluminium ring
b. Above the graduated aluminium ring
c. Below the brass box
d. Below the needle lifter, but above the
bottom inside the compass
82. From the probability equation it is found
that the most probable values of a series of
errors arising out of observations of equal
weightage are those for which the sum of
their squares is
a. Zero
b. Infinity
c. Minimum
d. Maximum
83. Match List I (Terms) with List II
(Description) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Contour
B. Line of collimation
C. Tie line
D. Magnetic meridian
List II
1. Line joining magnetic North and South
12 of 16
2. Line joining subsidiary station on the
main line
3. Line joining points of same elevation
4. Line joining optical centre of the
objective lens with point of interaction
of cross-wires
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2
levelling eliminates .the error due to
curvature and refraction?
a. Fly levelling
b. Levelling by equalizing the distances
of backsight and foresight
c. Check levelling
d. Precise levelling
85. The standard measurement of the
Geodimeter 510 is
a. 1 cm
b. 5.1 mm
c. 5.1 mm
d. 1 mm
86. Match List I (type of Transition Curves)
with List II (Characteristics) and select the
correct answer :
List I
A. Glovers spiral
B. Cubic spiral
C. Froudes transition
D. Bernoullis lemniscate
List II
1. An autogenous curve of an automobile
2. Radius of curvature at any point varies
inversely as the distance from the
beginning of the curve
3. sin | = |
4. x =l, cos | =1
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 3 2 4 1
87. If g
1
and g
2
are the two gradients, r is the
rate of change of grade (%) per chain, the
length of the vertical curve will be
a.
1 2
2
g +g
r
| |
|
\ .

b.
1 2
g g
r
| |
|
\ .

c.
1 2
g g
r
| |
|
\ .

d.
1 2
3
g g
r

88. The relation between the air-base B,
photographic base b, flying height H and
focal length f of lens in a vertical
photograph is given by
a. B = bH / f
b. B = f / bH
c. B =b / fH
d. B =
b
H f

89. Which one of the following is taken into
consider cation for computing traffic
capacity per lane of the highway?
a. Passenger cars and light vehicles
b. Trucks and buses
c. Two -wheelers
d. Equivalent of passenger cars
90. In which one of the following location
surveys of the road soil profile is sampling
done up to a depth of 1 m to 3 m below the
existing ground level?
a. Preliminary survey
b. Final location survey
c. Construction survey
d. Material location survey
91. The camber provided on a sloping road is
1 in 48. Which one of the following is the
ruling gradient?
a. 1 in 15
b. 1 in 20
c. 1 in 24
d. 1 in 30
92. Which of the following are the accepted
criteria for design of valley curve for
highways ?
1. Headlight sight distance
13 of 16
2. Passing and non-passing sight distance
3. Aesthetic consideration
4. Motorist comfort
5. Drainage control
given below :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3, 4 and 5
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5
d. 1 and 5
93. Match List I (Tests) with List II
(Properties) select the correct answer :
List I
A. CBR test
B. Plate bearing test
C. Triaxial test
D. Stabilometer and Cohesionmeter test
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 4 3
94. Match List I (Method of Traffic Volume
counts) with List II (Equipment Used) and
List I
A. Manual count
B. Combination of manual and
mechanical methods
C. Automatic devices
D. Photographic method
List II
1. Video-recorder
2. Pneumatic tube
3. Watch
4. Multiple pen
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 2 2
95. Match List I (Type of study) with List II
(data collected) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Public transport inventory study
B. Public transport O-D study
C. Public transport usage study
List II
1. Starting and destination of riders
2. Available routing and scheduling
3. Vehicle-km, earning per km
4. Passenger-km, IVTT, walking time,
waiting time
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 2 1 4 3
96. Match List I (Type of Traffic Signals) with
List II (Advantages) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Pre-timed signals
B. Vehicle-actuated signals
C. Semi-vehicle actuated signals
D. Linked traffic
List II
1. Useful for junction of a side street
having low traffic volume with a main
street having heavy flow
2. Overall optimization of traffic flow
3. Delay is held to a minimum, and
maximum lane capacity is achieved
4. Most successfully used in linked
system
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
97. Breathing length of LWR is the
a. End portion which gets affected by
temperature variation
b. End portion which does not get
affected by temperature variation
c. Central portion which gets affected by
temperature variation
d. Central portion which does not get
affected by temperature variation
98. Grade compensation on curves in Indian
Railways for BG is
a. 0.40% per degree of curve
14 of 16
b. 0.06% per degree of curve
c. 0.04% per degree of curve
d. 0.02% per degree of curve
99. The distance between the running faces of
the stock- rail and gauge face of tongue
rail measured at the heel of the switch is
known as
a. Flangeway clearance
b. Throw of switch
c. Heel divergence
d. Flare
100. Match List I (Track Parameter) with List II
(Equipments Used) and select the correct
answer
List I
A. Unevenness
B. Gauge
C. Superelevation
D. Alignment
List II
1. Track recording car
2. Amsler car
3. Feeler and spring
4. Gyroscopic pendulum
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 3 2 4 1
101. Match List I (Tunnel Construction
Methods) with List (Advantages) and
select the correct answer:
List I
A. Full face method
B. Heading and Bench method
C. Drift method
D. Compressed air method
List II
1. Helps in ventilation of tunnel
2. Useful in soft and water- bearing soil
3. Simultaneous drilling and mucking is
possible
4. Tunneling is continuous
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
102. The monthly mean of maximum daily
temperature and monthly mean of average
daily temperature of the hottest month of
the year are 49 C and 40 C respectively.
Then airport reference temperature is
a. 43C
b. 69.6C
c. 37C
d. 52C
103. Which one of the following imaginary
surfaces in airport is circular in plan with
centre located at an elevation of 150 m
above the airport reference point?
a. Conical surface
b. Transitional surface
c. Inner horizontal surface
d. Outer horizontal surface
104. Consider the following four components in
an Instrumental Landing System
1. Threshold lights
2. Glide slope antenna
3. Z markers
4. Localizer antenna
These components are installed in the
direction of landing in the sequence
a. 4, 2, 3, 1
b. 1, 4, 3, 2
c. 3, 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 3, 4, 1
105. The critical depth of water flowing
through a rectangular channel of width 5 m
when discharge is 15 m
3
/s is
a. (2.25)
1/2
m
b. (1.6)
1/2
m
c. (0.46)
1/3
m
d. (0.64)
1/3
m
106. Consider the following statements relating
to centrifugal pumps
1. In centrifugal pumps discharge is
proportional to speed of the impeller.
2. In centrifugal pumps discharge is
proportional to the cube of the impeller
diameter.
3. Specific speed is a criterion for
selection of centrifugal pumps.
4. Cavitation in centrifugal pumps can be
eliminated by avoiding sharp bends,
15 of 16
lowering velocity in suction pipe and
by lowering temperature.
Which, of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
107. Assertion (A) : At the critical state of flow,
the specific force is a minimum for the
given discharge.
Reason (R) : For a minimum value of
specific force, the first derivative of force
with respect to depth should be unity.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
108. Assertion (A) : The vertical co-ordinate of
the apex of the Q-curve is 2/3 E.
Reason (R) : The, horizontal co-ordinate of
the apex of E-curve is 1.5 times (q
2
/g)
1/3
.
109. Assertion (A) : The relative velocity of
water of a Pelton Turbine equals the
difference between the absolute velocities
of water and vane.
Reason (R) : For a Pelton Turbine, the
inlet blade angle is 180
0
.
110. Assertion (A) : Passive earth pressure is
always greater than the earth pressure at
rest and active earth pressure.
Reason (R) : In passive state the structure
becomes the actuating, element and soil
becomes the resisting element to maintain
the stability.
111. Assertion (A) : With the lining of canals,
permissible velocity of flow is tower than
that with concrete lining.
Reason (R) : The surface of tile lining
becomes rough due to loss of surface
material with high velocity.
112. Assertion (A) : Canal escape serves as a
safety valve for a canal.
Reason (R) Canal escape discharges the
excess water in the parent canal due to
sudden closure of outlets by the farmers.
113. Assertion (A) : Most important activity in
sewer line construction is to start
constructing it from the tail and to check
levels with a boning rod.
Reason (R) : Construction of sewer line
from tail end is recommended because
required number of pumping stations may
be incorporated in sewer network design.
114. Assertion (A) : The ultimate strength of
soil material is determined by the stresses
in the potential failure plane.
Reason (R) : The critical shear stress
causing failure depends upon the
properties of soil as well as on the normal
stress in the failure plane.
16 of 16
115. Assertion (A) : In a machine foundation
subjected to vibrations, frequency of
vibrations with damping is less than the
natural frequency of vibrations of the
system.
Reason (R) : The frequency of vibrations
with damping e
d
and natural frequency of
vibrations e
n
are related by the expression
e
d
=e
n
(1 d
2
)
116. Assertion (A) : In a theodolite if the lower
clamp is not properly clamped or the
instrument is not firmly tightened on the
tripod head, the error introduced is known
as slip
Reason (R) : If the shifting head is loose,
the error slip will be introduced.
117. Assertion (A) : Prohibitory signs are part
of regulatory signs which give a definite
negative instruction regarding movement
prohibition, restriction on weighty or
speed of vehicles.
Reason (R) : According to the IRC
Standards, prohibitory signs are of
octagnal shape with side being 900 mm
and with a white border and red
background for the standard size.
118. Assertion (A) : CST9 sleeper, a type of
metal sleeper, has been extensively used
by Indian Railways due to its uniform
strength, economical and satisfactory
performance.
Reason (R) : Metal sleeper is an inverted
channel with folded ends. The folded
edges which form a bulb resist the damage
caused by the packing of ballast.
119. Assertion (A) Packing is the method of
forcing and packing stone ballast below
the sleepers by ramming with a beater-
cum-pickaxe.
Reason (R) : At points and crossings,
packing is carried out by lifting the track
by means of track jack and requisite
quantity of stone chips is evenly spread
below the sleepers by shovel and the chips
are allowed to consolidate by running
trains.
120. Assertion (A) : Wet docks are enclosed or
partially enclosed basins provided with
locks and entrance gates to keep the water
at fairly constant level for allowing vessels
to come in, berth or leave at all times.
Reason (R) : Wet docks require expensive
arrangements like lock gate and the walls
are designed to withstand backfill pressure
when the dock is full.
1 of 17

(PAPERI )

1. Consider the following statements Dry rot
in timber is due to
1. stacking wood in open areas
2. lack of ventilation
3. decomposition of sap
4. lack of preservatives
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
2. In static bending test Match List I (Type of
Failure) with List II (Figure) and select the
correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. Simple tension
B. Gross grain tension
C. Splintering tension
D. Brash tension
List II
1.
2.
3.
4.
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 2 3
3. Match List I (Pr duct) with List II (Its Use)
and select the correct answer using the
codes :
List I
A. Fibre board
B. Heartwood
C. Laminated timber
D. Plywood
List II
1. Panelling
2. Insulation
3. Scantling
4. Arches I trusses
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 2 3 1 4
4. Consider the following characteristics with
respect to brick
1. Minimum compressive strength =175
(Standard units)
2. Minimum absorption is 24 hours, (in %
of dry weight) =12
3. 3. Very little efflorescence
4. Tolerance in dimension =8%
As per Indian standards classification, a
brick with the characteristics given above
is termed as
a. H I
b. F Il
c. L II
d. H II
5. Match List I (Test) with List II (Procedure)
codes :
List I
A. Absorption
B. Hardness
C. Soundness
D. Structure
List II
1. A brick is to be broken for the test
2. Two bricks are taken and they can be
struck with each other without
breaking
3. A scratch is easily made on brick
surface with the help of a finger nail
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004
2 of 17
4. Difference in weight between the brick
immersed in water for 16 hours and its
dry weight
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 2 3 4
Low percentage of C
3
S and high
percentage of C
2
S in cement will result in
1. higher ultimate strength with less heat
generation
2. rapid - hardening
3. better resistance to chemical attack
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
7. Match List I (Type of Cement) with List II
(Property) and select the correct answer
using the codes :
List I
A. Blast furnace slag cement
B. High alumina cement
C. Low heat cement
D. White cement
List II
1. High percentage of tricalcium silicate
2. Initial setting time is approximately
three and a half hours
3. Low percentage of iron oxide
4. Rate of hardening is low
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 2 1 3
8. What is the quantity of cement (in kg) and
of dry sand (in cubic metre) respectively
required for preparing 1 cubic metre of wet
cement mortar of 1 : 5 proportion?
a. 270 and 1.00
b. 290 and 1.05
c. 290 and 1.00
d. 310 and 1.05
regarding cement mortar :
1. Silicate type chemical resistant mo1ar
has good resistance to hydrofluoric
acid
2. Sulphur-type chemical resistant mortar
has poor resistance to alkalis
3. The interior surface of a building may
be plastered with cement mortar
containing cement and sand in the ratio
1 : 6
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
correct?
The use of super plasticisers as admixture
a. increases compressive strength of
concrete
b. permits lower water cement ratio,
thereby strength is increased
c. reduces the setting time of concrete
d. permits lower cement content, thereby
strength is increased
11. Match List I (Aggregate) with List II
(Effect) and answer using the codes select
the correct :
List I
A. Rounded aggregates
B. Crushed aggregates
C. Flaky aggregates
D. Irregular aggregates
List II
1. Reduce workability appreciably
because of a high ratio of surface area
to volume
2. Require more water than rounded
aggregates and give strength lesser
than crushed aggregates
3. Give concrete of higher compressive
strength due to development of
stronger aggregate mortar bond
4. Require lesser amount of water and
cement paste for a given workability
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 1 3 4 2
3 of 17
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 2 1 3
12. Consider the following statements : For
increasing the workability of concrete, it is
necessary to
1. increase the quantity of cement
2. decrease the quantity of sand
3. alter the proportion of fine and coarse
aggregates
4. decrease the quantity of water
5. use angular aggregate
correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
b. 2, 4 and 5
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 5
13. Slump and compaction factors are two
different measures of workability of
concrete. For a slump of 0 to 20 mm, what
is the equivalent range of compaction
factor?
a. 0.50 - 0.70
b. 0.70 - 0.80
c. 0.80 - 0.85
d. 0.85 - 0.92
14. The values of slump commonly adopted
for the various concrete mixes are given
below:
Type of Concrete Slump Adopted (mm)
1. Concrete for road works - 20 to 28
2. Ordinary RCC work - 50 to 100
3. Columns retaining walls - 12 to 25
4. Mass concrete - 75 to 175
Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched ?
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
15. Consider the following pairs
1. Hand compaction of heavily reinforced
sections Low workability (0 - 25 mm
slump)
2. Concreting of shallow sections with
vibrations -High workability (125-150
mm slump)
3. Concreting of lightly reinforced
sections like pavements - Low
workability (5 - 50 mm slump)
4. Concreting of lightly reinforced
sections by hand or heavily reinforced
sections with vibration - Medium
workability (25 -75 mm slump)
Which of the pairs given above are
correctly matched ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
16. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is
2.78 and of coarse aggregate is 7.82 and
the desired fineness modulus. of mixed
aggregate is 6.14. What is the amount of
fine aggregate to be mixed with one part of
coarse aggregate ?
a. 55%
b. 50%
c. 45%
d. 40%
17.

A brass bar of solid section is encased in a
steel tube as shown in the above diagram
The coefficient of expansion of steel is
11.2 10
6
per C and the coefficient of
expansion of brass is 16.5 10
6
per C.
The composite bar is heated through 60
0
C.
Now consider the following statements :
1. The stress in the brass will be tensile
2. The stress in the steel will be tensile
3. The stress in the steel will be
compressive
4. The stress in the brass will be
compressive
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 2 and 3
18.
4 of 17

For the plane stress situation shown in the
above diagram, what is the maximum
shear stress ?
a. Zero, when X and Y axes are rotated
45 clockwise
b. Zero, at all positions of orientation of
X and Y axes
c. 20 MPa, at all positions of orientation
of X and Y axes
d. 20 MPa, when X and Y axes are
rotated 45 anticlockwise.
19.

In a piece of stressed material, the
principle stress are o
1
=3.0 kN/m
2
tensile
and o
2
=7.0 kN/m
2
compressive as shown
in the above diagram. The line of action of
the tensile stress makes an angle u =30 to
the normal to the plane AB. What is the
normal stress o
n
?
a. +0.5 kN/m
2

b. 1.5 kN/m
2

c. +2.0 kN/m
2

d. 2.5 kN/m
2

20.

A thin wooden plate PQRS is made by
gluing two pieces of wood along PR as
shown in the above diagram.
If o
x
=30 Mpa, o
y
=10 MPa and t
xy
=
0, then what is the normal stress on the
surface PR?
a. 10 MPa
b. 20 MPa
c. 110 MPa
d. 20 MPa
21. In a plane strain condition in the xy plane,
the strain components associated with xy
axes are c
x
=800 10
6
, c
y
=100 10
6
,
u
xy
=800 10
6
. What are the principal
strains for these strain values ?
a. 981 10
6
, 81 10
6

b. 891 10
6
, 18 10
6

c. 881 10
6
, 71 10
6

d. 839 10
6
, 81 10
6

22. In a plane strain case in the xy plane,
normal strain in x and y directions are
equal to zero and shear strain is equal to 3
10
6
. What is the value of diameter of
Mohrs circle of strain for these strain
values ?
a. 6 10
6

b. 3 10
6

c. 1.5 10
6

d. Zero
23. For a case of plane stress, o
x
=40 MN/m
2
,
o
y
=0, t
xy
=80 MN/m
2
. What are the
principal stresses and their orientation with
x and y axes ?
a. o
1
=80 MN/m
2
, o
2
=40 MN/m
2
, u
1

30
0

b. o
1
=100 MN/m
2
, o
2
=60 MN/m
2
,
u
1
=32
0

c. o
1
=102.5 MN/m
2
, o
2
=62.5 MN/m
2
,
u
1
=36
0

d. o
1
=105 MN/m
2
, o
2
= 62 MN/m
2
,
u
1
=36
0

24. A thin rod of 10 mm diameter is subjected
to a tensile force of 7850 N. What are the
principal stresses and maximum shear
stress ?
a. 70MPa, 50 MPa, 10 MPa
b. 100 MPa, Zero, 50 MPa
c. 100 MPa, 50 MPa, 25 MPa
d. 100 MPa, Zero, Zero
25.

5 of 17
The above diagram shows a simply
supported beam with load. Which one of
the following diagrams is the shear force
diagram for this beam ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
26. In which one of the following, the point of
contraflexure will not occur ?
a. A two span continuous beam of equal
spans, simply supported and loaded by
UDL over both spans
b. A simply supported beam loaded by
UDL
c. A fixed beam loaded by UDL
d. A propped cantilever loaded by UDL
27.

What are the support reactions at the fixed
end of the cantilever beam shown in the
above diagram?
a. 120 kN, 120 kNm
b. 120 kN, 240 kNm
c. 240 kN, 120 kNm
d. 120 kN, 60 kNm
28. The maximum shear stress produced in a
shaft in 5N/mm
2
. The shaft is of 40 mm
diameter. What is the approximate value of
twisting moment ?
a. 628 Nm
b. 63 Nm
c. 126 Nm
d. 251 Nm
29. For S. F. to be uniform throughout the
span of a simply supported beam, which of
the following loads should be applied on to
the beam ?
a. Two equally spaced concentric loads
b. A couple at mid - span only
c. A couple anywhere in the span
d. UDL over the entire span
30. Consider the following statements for a
beam based on theory of bending
1. Strain developed in any fibre is
directly proportional to the distance of
fibre from neutral surface
2. For flexural loading and linearly elastic
action the neutral axis passes through
the centroid of cross - section
3. The assumption of the plane cross
sections remaining plane will not hold
good during inelastic action
4. Instances in which the neutral axis
does not pass through the centroid of a
cross - section include a homogenous
symmetrical beam (with respect to
neutral axis) and subjected to inelastic
action
correct ?
a. 1,2, 3 and 4
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
31.

Consider the simply supported beam AB
subjected to the point loads of equal
magnitude as shown in the above diagram.
Which one of the Following statements is
correct ?
The portion CD of the beam is
a. in pure bending
b. in pure shear
c. having maximum bending moment
d. having maximum shear force

32.
6 of 17
A rigid bar AB is supported by a spring as
shown in the diagram above. What is the
deflection of the point b?
a. 25 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 10 mm
33.

The diagram above shows a plane truss.
What is the force in vertical member UL
of the truss ?
a. 35 kN
b. 30 kN
c. 20 kN
d. 15 kN
correct?
The influence line diagram (ILD) for
bending moment at a section in a
cantilever is a triangle extending between
the section and the
a. fixed end with maximum ordinate
under the section
b. fixed end with maximum ordinate
under the fixed end
c. unsupported end with maximum
ordinate at the section
d. unsupported end with maximum
ordinate at the unsupported end
35.

The diagram above shows a truss
subjected to loading as indicated. What is
the force induced in the member AB?
a. 5 kN
b. 10 kN
c. Zero
d. 5 2 kN

36.

An angle is connected to the back of the
flange of a channel section to be used as a
beam as shown in the above diagram.
This is done to
a. increase the compression flange area
b. increase the moment of inertia about
the major axis
c. increase the moment of inertia about
the minor axis
d. make the load pass through the shear
centre
correct answer using the codes
List I
A. The shape of a cable suspended
between two supports is defined by
B. The cable uniformly loaded along the
horizontal span takes the shape of
C. The cable uniformly loaded along its
length assumes the shape of
D. the girder in a suspension bridge
transmits to its supports
List II
1. A catenary
2. A little load
3. A parabola
4. Applied loads
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 2 1 3
correct ?
An indeterminate building frame may be
converted to a determinate one by
assuming
a. hinges at mid-height of columns
b. hinges at mid-span of the beams
c. hinges at both mid-height of columns
and mid-spam of beams
7 of 17
d. one support as fixed at base and other
support on rollers
1. An indeterminate structure is not
economical from the material stand-
point in comparison to a determinate
structure
2. If n redundant in a statically
indeterminate structure of n degree
indeterminacy are removed, the
structure will become statically
determinate but unstable
3. In the rigid frame analysis, the axial
effects are ignored as their influence is
negligibly small compared to bending
and shear effects
Which of the following statements is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 only
d. 2 and 3
40. What is the horizontal thrust in a
symmetric, parabolic two - hinged arch of
span L and central rise y subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of intensity per
unit length over its entire span ?
a. eL
2
/4y
b. eL
2
/8y
c. eL
2
/12y
d. eL
2
/16y
41.

Match List I with List II and select the
List I
A. Moment at B
B. Slope at A
C. Reaction at A
D. Stiffness of AB
List II
1. 3/8 eL .
2. 4E 1/l
3. 1.50 M where M =eL
2
/12
4. Ml/4EI where M =eL
2
/12
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 4 1 3
42. Moments of the same sense are applied to
both the ends of a simply supported beam.
The ratio of the rotation of the two ends is
2. What is the ratio of the applied
moments?
a. 3/2
b. 4/3
c. 5/4
d. 6/5
43. A beam is hinged at end A and fixed at B.
A moment M is applied at end A. What is
the moment developed at end B?
a. M
b. M
c. M/2
d. M/2
1. The total potential energy is the sum of
strain energy and potential energy due
to external loading
2. The strain, energy is always positive
3. The potential energy is always positive
4. For equilibrium position the total
potential energy is a minimum
correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
45. A uniform beam of length 2L and flexural
rigidity El is fixed at both the ends. What
is the moment required for unit rotation at
the centre of span ?
a. 2El / L
b. 4El / L
c. 6El/L
d. 8El/L
46. An elastic uniform bar of length I and
cross - sectional area A is subjected,
within its elastic limit to a rapidly applied
tensile force increasing from zero to a final
value P. What is the final strain energy
stored in the bar after vibrations have
8 of 17
ceased ? (E is the modulus of elasticity of
the bar material.)
a. 2P
2
l / AE
b. P
2
l / AE
c. P
2
l / 4AE
d. P
2
l / 2AE
47. Match List I (Type of Beam) with List II
(Collapse Load W
u
, w
u
) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
List I
A.
B.
C.
D.
List II
1. 8M
p
/l
2. 16M
p
/l
2

3. 6M/1
4. 11.66 M
p
/ l
2

W
u
, and w
u
per unit length denote the
collapse loads and M
p
denotes the plastic
moment capacity of the beams
corresponding to the collapse loads
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 2 4 1 3
correct?
In Kanis method hinged column is
replaced by an equivalent column fixed at
the base with length and stiffness as
a. 1.5 times the original length and 3/4th
stiffness of original column -
b. 1.5 times the original length and
stiffness same as original column
c. same length as original column but
stiffness 3/4th of the original column
stiffness
d. twice the original column length arid
1.5 times the stiffness of original
column
49.

What is the collapse load for propped
cantilever beam shown in the above
diagram with a plastic moment capacity of
M
p
?
a. 1.25 M
p

b. 1.5 M
p

c. M
p

d. 2 M
p
.
1. The development of a plastic hinge in a
determinate beam results in effective
destruction of the beam
2. For fixed ended beams of rectangular
section, the design by elastic theory is
not conservative
3. In the ideal plastic material, if the
material is stressed to a point beyond
the elastic limit and is then unstressed,
there will not be any residual strain
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
51. Some steels do not show yield plateau and
show continuous curve. For such steels,
how is the yield strength obtained?
a. By drawing 0.2% offset of the strain
b. By drawing 0.5% offset of the strain
c. By drawing initial tangent
d. By drawing initial secant modulus
52.

9 of 17
The stress strain diagram for mild steel
subjected to tensile load is given above.
Now consider the following statements
1. The diagram represents average stress
strain diagram
2. The diagram represents actual stress
strain diagram
3. A represents upper yield point
4. B represents lower yield point
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
Lug angles are used to
1. increase the lengths of the end
connections angle section
2. decrease the lengths of the end
connections of angle section
3. increase the lengths of the end
connections of channel section
4. decrease the lengths of the end
connections of channel section
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
54. When the effect of wind or earthquake
load is considered in the design of rivets
and bolts for steel structures, by what
percentage the permissible stresses may.
be exceeded?
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 33.33%
d. 50%
55. A 6 mm thick mild steel plate is connected
to an 8 mm thick plate by 16 mm diameter
shop rivets. What is the number of rivets
required to carry an 80 kN load ?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
1. The gross area of a rivet is taken as the
cross - sectional area of the rivet hole
2. The distance between the centres of the
rivets should not be less than 2.5 times
the gross diameter of the rivet
3. 3. In no case shall fewer than two bolts
or rivets be used for attaching the lug
angle to the gusset
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
57. A member is subjected to axial
compression. Effective length is 3000 mm.
Size of the angle used is 100 100 10.
What is the maximum capacity (if f
y
=250
MPa) ?
a. 101.2 kN
b. 81.7 kN
c. 59.2 kN
d. 95.1 kN
58. What is the maximum slenderness ratio for
a steel member carrying compressive bade
resulting from dead loads and imposed
loads?
a. 180
b. 250
c. 350
d. 400
59. A
f
is the area of flanges and A
w
is the area
of web What is the effective flange area in
the design of a plate girder?
a. A
f
+A
w
/ 8
b. A
f
+A
w
/ 6
c. A
f
A
w
/ 8
d. A
f
A
w
/ 6
1. As far as practicable, the lacing system
shall be varied throughout the length of
the strut
2. Single laced systems on opposite sides
of the components shall preferably be
in mutually opposite directions, so that
one is not the shadow of the other
3. Rolled sections or tubes of equivalent
strength may be used as lacing bars
instead of flats
10 of 17
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
61. 2-ISMB 300 140 section are acting as a
compound column. The height of the
column is 400 mm. Two sections are
spaced 400 mm, centre to centre. In the
longitudinal direction there is runner at the
top of the column. What is the maximum
capacity of the column in compression (f
y

=250 Mpa) ?
a. 2002 kN
b. 1629 kN
c. 1501 kN
d. 1799 kN
Horizontal stiffness is provided when
1. the depth of webs is small
2. tendency to web buckling is less
3. vertical stiffness becomes too close
4. only thin plates are available for web
correct,?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
correct?
Only s portion of the area of outstanding
leg in an angle section serving as tension
member is considered in computing the
effective area of the member. This is
because
a. near the joint, the outstanding leg does
not take its full stress
b. the outstanding leg has a number of
rivet holes reducing the net area
c. the outstanding leg is susceptible to
buckling
d. additional safety is preferred in the
case of tension failure
64. In a gabled industrial building in order to
minimize the wind forces on the roof, the
roof slope should be kept close to
a. 5
b. 15
c. 30
d. 45
correct ?
In a crane gantry girder, a channel is
provided at the top flange girder. This
accounts for bending in
a. horizontal plane only
b. vertical plane only
c. horizontal and vertical planes
d. horizontal and vertical planes and
twisting
correct ?
For a simply supported beam of
rectangular cross - section, a point load is
applied at mid span. If the superimposed
load alone is considered to cause the
collapse, the beam is fully elastic
a. For a distance of one third of beam
length from either end
b. at mid span
c. for the middle third of beam length
d. for the distance of one fourth of beam
length from either end
67. For steel structure proportioned using
plastic design. the working load (dead load
+imposed load) should be multiplied by
which one of the following minimum load
factor?
a. 1.3
b. 1.5
c. 1.7
d. 2.0
68. A simply supported beam of span 4000
mm is loaded with a uniformly distributed
load of 30 kN/m f
y
for the material is 250
MPa. Which rolled steel section is
required?
a. ISMB 500
b. ISMB 400
c. ISMB 300
d. ISMB 600
69. How are the most commonly produced and
used structural elements in frames, floor
beams, etc. with high moment of inertia
about x-axis, are designated ?
a. ISWB - section
b. ISLB - section
11 of 17
c. ISMB - section
d. J SHB - section
correct ?
Minimum tension steel in RC beam needs
to be provided to
a. prevent sudden failure
b. arrest crack width
c. control excessive deflection
d. prevent surface hair cracks
1. The limit state of collapse is defined as
the acceptable limit for the stresses in
the materials.
2. Limit state method is one that ensures
adequate safety of structure against
collapse
3. In the limit state design method, actual
stresses developed at collapse differ
considerably from the theoretical
values
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. None
1. Reinforcement that is no longer
required for flexure beyond a certain
section, shall however be extended by
d or 12 |, whichever is greater, before
being curtailed
2. At least half the bars should be bent up
at the cut -off point
3. The shear capacity at cut-off point
should at least be 1.5 times the shear
force at that section
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
correct ?
Temperature and shrinkage steel is
provided in reinforced concrete slabs
because
a. it occupies larger area
b. its thickness is less
c. it is a main structural element
d. it is a flexural member
74. Match List I (Reinforcement Type) with
List II (Anchorage Requirement) and
select the correct answer using the codes
given below the Lists :
List I
A. Footing slab, tensile reinforcement
B. Cantilever beam, tensile reinforcement
C. Simply supported beam, tensile
reinforcement
D. Beam, shear stirrup
List II
1. L
d
/3 into the support
2. 6 | for 135 bend
3. L
d
into the support
4. L
d
from the column face
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 2 1 3
correct ?
Minimum shear reinforcement in beams is
provided in the form of stirrups
a. to resist extra shear force due to live
load
b. to resist the effect of shrinkage of
concrete
c. to resist principal tension
d. to resist shear cracks at the bottom of
beam
correct ?
Diagonal tension reinforcement is
provided in a beam as
a. longitudinal bars
b. bent up bars
c. helical reinforcement
d. 90
0
bend at the bends of main bars
correct ?
In a combined footing for two columns
carrying unequal loads, the maximum
hogging moment occurs at
a. inside face of the heavier column
12 of 17
b. a section equidistant from both the
columns
c. a section having maximum shear force
d. a section having zero shear force
correct ?
The critical section for computing design
shear force in an R.C. beam where the
supports exert a compressive reaction is at
a. the centre of support
b. the face of support
c. a distance of half of effective depth
from the face of support
d. a distance of effective depth from the
face of support
correct ?
Doubly reinforced beams are
recommended when
a. the depth of the beam is restricted
b. the breadth of the beam is restricted
c. both depth and breadth are restricted
d. the shear is high
correct ?
In a reinforced concrete member, the best
way to ensure adequate bond is
a. to provide minimum number of large
diameter bars
b. to provide large number of smaller
diameter bars
c. to increase the cover for reinforcement
d. to provide additional stirrups
correct ?
M 40 concrete is preferred to M 20
concrete for pre-stressed concrete to
a. overcome bursting stresses at the ends
b. avoid brittle failure of concrete
c. eliminate the effect of shrinkage
d. economise the use of cement
correct?
Minimum shear reinforcement is provided
to
a. resist shear force at the support
b. resist shear on account of accidental
torsion
c. arrest the longitudinal cracks on side
faces due to shrinkage and temperature
variation
d. resist shear in concrete developing on
account of non-homogeneity of
concrete
correct ?
In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load,
main reinforcement is provided
a. above the neutral axis
b. as vertical stirrups
c. as a helical reinforcement
d. below the neutral axis
84. What is the volume of concrete mix
produced if a batch type concrete mixer of
1500 litres capacity takes an effective time
of 15 seconds for one batch of production?
a. 36 m
3
/hr
b. 180 m
3
/hr
c. 360 m
3
/hr
d. 720 m
3
/hr
When acquiring a crane for a project work,
the important aspects of the specifications
will include information on
1. length of the hoist line
2. length of boom line
3. tipping condition
4. bucket size
5. angle of swing in absolute terms
6. haul distance
correct?
a. 2, 3, 5 and 6
b. 1, 2, 3 and 6
c. 1 and 5
d. 2, 4, 5 and 6
86. Match List I (Beam Variable) with List II
(Design Provision) and select the correct
answer using the codes :
List I
A. Flexure
B. Shear
C. Bond
D. Deflection
List II
1. Minimum depth of section
2. Longitudinal steel reinforcement
13 of 17
3. Stirrups
4. Anchorage in support
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 2 3 4 1
87. Match List I (Type of J obs) with List II
(Type of Equipment) and select the correct
List I
A. Handling stiff and cohesive mixes used
in the manufacturing of precast
concrete
B. Road construction where space and
access are limited
C. Consolidating concrete in thin slabs
D. Vibrating both the form and the
concrete
List II
1. External vibrator
2. Dual drum mixers
3. Pan mixers
4. Electric hammer
5. Vibrating roller
A B C D
a. 3 5 1 4
b. 3 2 5 1
c. 5 2 4 3
d. 5 3 4 1
88. Which of the following are taken into
consideration in determining ultimate
operating factor of a typical earthmoving
equipment?
a. Rated output at flywheel (or similar
power smoothing fitting). maximum
power consumption time factor and
fuel consumption
b. Maximum power consumption time
(actor, idle running time proportion,
overall shut-down time proportion
c. Total load/output of earthwork
delivered as a proportion of rated
capacity
d. Maximum power consumption time
factor, cycle time as proportion of
running time, idle running time
between sites, overall shut-down time
proportion
89. If the depth of face from which a shovel is
excavating material is too shallow, then
which one of the following is correct ?
a. The dipper may not be filled in one
pass up the lace
b. The depth of penetration of the dipper
can he increased
c. The depth of penetration of the dipper
would be decreased
d. Excess earth will spill clown to the
bottom of the face
90. A scraper of self weight 27 tonnes works
on a sandy clay soil weighing 1800 kg/m
3

of bank measure. Haul road rolling
resistance is 3.5% and grade is 2% adverse
for loaded unit. The earth carried per trip is
14 m3 (b.m.) What rim pull, in newton
(approximately) is required when
travelling loaded and empty, respectively?
a. 35600,5100
b. 32200,4800
c. 30100,4400
d. 28700,4050
91. A roller with 1.5 m effective width of
drum moves with an average speed of 1.5
km/h What is the output when six number
of passes are used for effectiveness ?
a. 13.5 m
2
/hr
b. 37.5 m
2
/hr
c. 135 m
2
/hr
d. 375 m
2
/hr
92. Two centrifugal pumps work in parallel at
a common delivery head of 18 m. The first
pump delivers 90 lps at an efficiency of
60% and the second pump delivers 60 lps
at an efficiency of 50%. What is the
overall efficiency of the system?
a. 62.5%
b. 58%
c. 55.5%
d. 52%
93. Match List I (Earth Excavating
Equipment) with List II (Uses) and select
the correct answer using the codes:
List I
A. Power shovel
B. Hoe
C. Clam-shell
D. Bulldozer
List II
14 of 17
1. Excavation of earth in confined area or
pit
2. Rehauling of loose or excavated
material from one place to another
place
3. Clearing and scrubbing of worksite
4. Excavation of trenches
A B C D
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 1 3 2
94. Match List I (Working Details), with List
II (Type of Pumps) and select the correct
answer using the codes
List I
A. The water which has entered inside the
pump is revolved at high speed by
means of the impeller revolving in a
tight casing
B. The pump gives constant discharge
even under variable heads
C. Usable in pumping from crooked holes
and for handling corrosive liquids
D. Water can be lifted to large heights
using the hydraulic ram
List II
1. Air-lift pump
2. Impulse pump
3. Reciprocating pumps
4. Diesel engine driven pumps
5. Centrifugal pumps
A B C D
a. 1 3 5 2
b. 5 3 1 2
c. 4 2 5 3
d. 5 2 4 3
95. Match List I (Performance Parameters)
with List II (Performance Pattern) and
select the correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. RPM vs. discharge
B. Head vs. discharge
C. BHP vs. discharge
D. Efficiency vs. discharge
List II
1. Increases with increasing head but
decreases slightly with discharge
2. Increases initially, stalls and then
decreases fast
3. Generally decreases continuously
4. Increases and stalls
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 2 1 3
96. How many litres of water will be pumped
per minute by a double acting
reciprocating pump with 6 cm cylinder
diameter and 15 cm stroke length, driven
by a crankshaft running, at 90 rpm with no
slippage?
a. 84.6
b. 81.2
c. 78.5
d. 76.4
97.

A network of seven activities is shown in
the diagram given above. The respective
activity durations are shown beside the
arrows. Which one of the following is the
total float in AB, the total float in CE and
free float in EF, respectively ?
a. 2, 2, 3
b. 3, 3, 2
c. 3, 2, 2
d. 2, 3, 2
98.

Consider the above AON diagram
What is the minimum number of dummy
arrows required for conversion into AQA
diagram ?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
15 of 17
d. 6
99.
The line of a PERT network is shown
above in the diagram with a, m, b
durations.
What is the probable range of the total
duration ?
a. 34.2 to 47.2
b. 34.2 to 44.2
c. 32.6 to 44.2
d. 32.6 to 42.4
100. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence to analyse a project for
implementation ?
a. Time-cost study. Network, WBS,
Scheduling with resource allocation
b. Network, Time-cost study. Scheduling
with resource allocation, WBS
c. WBS, Network, Scheduling with
resource allocation, Time-cost study
d. WBS, Time-cost study, Network,
Scheduling with resource allocation
101.

A bar chart of four activities indicating
their scheduled start and finish end-of-
day values and the resource requirement
per day are given above.
What will be the maximum and the
minimum resource- need on any of the
days?
a. 22, 6
b. 21, 6
c. 21, 8
d. 20, 8
Hardest timber is obtained from the wood
grown in
1. the moderately dry climatic regions
2. the Himalayan slopes
3. the open areas
4. the thin jungles
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
103. What is the range of fineness modulus
sand which is least suitable for making
good concrete?
a. 3.5 - 4.5
b. 2.9- 3.2
c. 2.6 - 2.9
d. 22 - 2.6
104. o
x
, o
y
and t
xy
are normal and shear
stresses on the x arid y faces. What is the
radius of Mohrs circle in terms of their
stresses?
a.
2
x y
o o

b.
2
x y
xy
o o
t
+
c.
2
2
2
x y
xy
o o
t
| |
+
|
\ .

d.
2
2
2
x y
xy
o o
t
+ | |
|
\ .

105. What is the maximum slenderness ratio of
lacing bars in built-up columns ?
a. 120
b. 145
c. 180
d. 200
correct ?
The characteristic strength of concrete is
a. higher than the average cube strength
b. lower than the average cube strength
c. the same as the average cube strength
d. higher than 90% of the average cube
strength
107. Which one of the following is true of a
statically determinate beam?
a. One end is fixed and the other end is
simply supported
b. Both the ends are fixed
c. The beam overhangs over two supports
16 of 17
d. The beam is supported on three
supports
108. What is the value of minimum
reinforcement (in case of Fe 415) in a
slab?
a. 0.1%
b. 0.12%
c. 0.15%
d. 0.2%
1. The ideal output of a power shovel is
achieved at 900 angle of swing.
2. Output from a power shovel is
independent of size of trucks.
3. The optimum depth of cut of a power
shovel is the one at which the dipper
comes out with full load.
4. The optimum depth of cut does not
vary with the size of the dipper of a
power shovel.
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
110. Match List I (Cost) with List II (Feature)
codes :
List I
A. Optimal cost
B. Overhead cost
C. Direct cost;
D. Indirect cost
List II
1. Activity related
2. Developed by crashing process
3. Project-related
4. Contained in, or contributing
exclusively to the related product
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
111. Assertion (A) : The splitting test for
determining the tensile strength of
concrete gives more uniform results than
any other tension test.
Reason (R) The splitting test moulds can
be used for casting specimens for both
compression and tension tests.
consist of two
112. Assertion (A) : One year strength of
continuously moist cured concrete is 40%
higher than that of 28-day strength, while
no-moisture-curing can lower the strength
to about 40%.
Reason (R) : Moist curing for the first
seven to fourteen days results in a
compressive strength of 70 to 80% of that
of 28-day moisture curing.
consist of two
113. Assertion (A) :. A plane stress system
consists of two principal stresses o
1
and o
2

and a plane strain system consists of two
principal strains c
1
=o
1
/E and c
2
=o
2
/E.
Both the systems are identical.
Reason (R) : Stress is proportional to
strain.
consist of two
114. Assertion (A) : The slope-deflection
method is a stiffness method in which the
joint displacements are found by applying
the equilibrium conditions at each joint.
Reason (R) : The displacements at a joint
of a member are independent of the
displacements of the member at the far end
of the joint.
17 of 17
consist of two
115. Assertion (A) : In the elastic-plastic
behaviour of statically indeterminate
structures the ultimate load can be
calculated from equilibrium considerations
without any reference to the stiffness
characteristics of the structure.
Reason (R) : The ultimate load of a
structure is influenced by settlement of
supports, thermal stress and residual
stresses.
consist of two
116. Assertion (A) : The principle of super-
position cannot be applied in plastic design
and as such all the loads must be in
position simultaneously for the analysis.
Reason (R) : The relationship between
loads and deformations in the plastic range
is not linear
consist of two
117. Assertion (A) : The stress block used in
the limit state design method is obtained
by testing of concrete cylinder under
uniform rate of strain.
Reason (R) : If a uniform rate of strain is
not adopted it is not possible to obtain the
descending portion of stress and strain
curve beyond maximum stress.
consist of two
118. Assertion (A) : Minimum shear
reinforcement as stirrups must be provided
in beams, even if the shear stress t
v
is less
than the shear strength of concrete t
c
.
Reason (R) : The bending of beams creates
a tendency in the particles to slide upon
each other within the beam. This tendency
is called shear.
consist of two
d. A is false but R is true.
119. Assertion (A) : Detailing of bars as per the
requirements of maximum spacing of
reinforcement in beams and slabs is
sufficient to control flexural cracking.
Reason (R) : A large number of smaller
diameter bars, well distributed in the,
tension zone, reduce the crack width more
effectively than a few larger diameter bars
of the same area.
consist of two
120. Assertion (A) : In assigning activity
durations in developing an AOA network,
the technology to be adopted is inherently
considered but not the rate of utilization
(or consumption) of resources (or inputs).
Reason (R): The adopted technology
dictates the compatibly preferred
consumption pattern of the inputs.
consist of two

1 of 17

(PAPERI I )

List I
A. Unit hydrograph
B. Synthetic unit hydrograph
C. Darcys law
D. Rational method
List II
1. Design flood
2. Permeability
3. Ungauged basin
4. 1 cm runoff
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 1 2 3
correct in respect of the two important
aspects of flood forecast (1) reliability of
the forecast, and (2) the time available in
between the forecast and the occurrence of
flood?
a. Meteorological forecast is least reliable
and time available is also the least
b. Hydrological forecast is most reliable
but the time available is the least
c. River forecast is least reliable and the
time available is the maximum
d. River forecast is most reliable but the
time available is the least
3. The delta for a crop having base period
120 days is 70 cm. What is the duty ?
a. 2480 hectare/cumec
b. 1481 hectare/cumec
c. 148 hectare/cumec
d. 1.481 hectare/cumec
4. For a culturable command area of 1000
hectare with intensity of irrigation of 50%,
the duty on field for a certain crop is 2000
hectare/cumec. What is the discharge
required at head of water course with 25%
losses of water ?
a. 3/16 cumec
b. 1/4 cumec
c. 1/3cumec
d. 1/2 cumec
5. What is the moisture depth available for
evapotranspiration in root zone of 1 m
depth soil, if dry weight of soil is 1.5
gm/cc, field capacity is 30% and
permanent wilting point is 10% ?
a. 450 mm
b. 300 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 150 mm
defines aquiclude?
a. A saturated formation of earth material
which not only stores water but also
yields it in sufficient quantity
b. A formation through which only
seepage is possible and thus the yield
is insignificant compared to an aquifer
c. A geological formation which is
neither porous nor permeable
d. A geological formation which is
essentially impermeable to the flow of
water
7. What is the regime scour depth for a
channel in soil with silt factor of unity and
carrying 8 m
2
/s of discharge intensity in
accordance with Laceys regime theory ?
a. 3.6 m
b. 4m
c. 5.4 m
d. 25.6 m
8. Which one of the following equations
represents the downstream curve of the
Ogee spillway (where x and y are the co-
ordinates of the crest profile measured
from the apex of the crest, and H is the
design head) ?
a. x
1.85
=2 H
0.85
y
b. x =2 H
1.85
y
0.85

c. x
0.85
=2 H
1.85
y
d. x =2 H
0.85
y
1.85

9. Clarks method aims at which one of the
following?
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004
2 of 17
a. Developing an IUH due to an
instantaneous rainfall excess over a
catchment
b. Developing stage-discharge
relationship
c. Measurement of infiltration
d. Flood routing through channels
10. For a saddle siphon, the maximum
operative head is 6.25 m. The width and
height of the throat of the siphon are 4 m
and 2 m respectively. The coefficient of
discharge is 0.90. How many units are
required to pass a flood of 300
cumec?(Take g =10 m/s
2
)
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
regarding building manholes :
1. They must be provided at every change
of alignment, gradient or diameter.
2. They must be provided at the head of
all sewers.
3. They must be provided at every
junction of two or more sewers
4. They must be provided at every 100 m
along straight runs of sewers.
correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2 and 4
12. Match List I with List II arid select the
List I (Parameter)
A. F/M ratio
B. Solar energy
C. Effluent recirculation
D. Volatile fatty acids
List II (Treatment Unit or Process)
1. Anaerobic digester
2. Detritus tank
3. Waste stabilization pond
4. Trickling filter
5. Activated sludge process
A B C D
a. 2 3 5 4
b. 5 3 4 1
c. 5 1 4 3
d. 4 1 2 3
13. Which one of- the following pairs is not
correctly matched ?
a. BOD / COD =0 : Waste-water is toxic
b. BOD I COD s 0.2 : Acclimatization of
seed is necessary
c. BOD / COD > 0.6 : Waste-water is
non-biodegradable
d. BOD = COD = 0 : Waste-water is
devoid of organic matter
14. In aerobic conditions, the microbial
decomposition of organics results in the
formation of which one of the following?
a. Stable and objectionable end products
b. Unstable and objectionable end
products
c. Unstable and acceptable end products
d. Stable and unobjectionable end
products
15. A waste water sample of 2 ml is made upto
300 ml in BOD bottle with distilled water.
Initial DO of the sample is 8 mg/l and after
5 days it is 2 mg/l. What is its BOD ?
a. 894 mg/l
b. 900 mg/l
c. 300 mg/l
d. 1200 mg/l
Aeration in water treatment helps in
1. killing pathogens.
2. correcting pH.
3. precipitating dissolved iron and
manganese.
4. expelling excess CO
2
and H
2
S.
5. expelling volatile oils.
correct ?
a. 2, 4 and 5
b. 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 2, 3 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3 of 17
List I (Fixture)
A. Surge arrester
B. Butterfly valve
C. Scour valve
D. Check valve
List II (Purpose)
1. Prevention of reversal of flow in a
pipeline
2. Regulating or stopping the flow
especially in large size conduits
3. Control of water hammer
4. Draining or emptying the pipeline
section
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 3 4 2 1
correct ?
If a sewer X is to be designed to generate
equivalent self- cleansing action as in
sewer Y, then
a. velocity in sewer X must be equal to
velocity in sewer Y
b. slope of sewer X must be equal to
slope of sewer Y
c. tractive force intensity generated in
sewer X must be same as that in sewer
Y
d. the roughness coefficient of X sewer
material should be same as that of Y
sewer material
List I
A. Test with sound waves in the audible
frequency range
B. Fire flow tests
C. Hydraulic gradient tests
D. Coefficient tests
List II
1. To determine the ability of a
distribution system to transmit water
with adequate residual pressure
2. Location and isolation of leaks
3. To determine the efficiency and
adequacy of a distribution system
during days of high demand
4. To determine the internal condition of
5. pipeline with respect to friction loss
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 4 1 3 2
d. 4 3 1 2
20. Two soil samples A and B have porosities
n
A
=40% and n
B
=60 % respectively.
What is the ratio of void ratios e
A
: e
B
?
a. 2 : 3
b. 3 : 2
c. 4 : 9
d. 9 : 4
21. Match List I (Densities) with List II
(Expressions) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below :
(Symbols G, e,
w
and S stand for specific
gravity of soil grains, void ratio, unit
weight of water and degree of saturation
respectively)
List I
A. Dry density
B. Moist density
C. Submerged density
D. Saturated density
List II
1. {(G +Se) / (1 +e)}
w

2. {G /(1 +e)}
w

3. {(G +e) / (1 +e)}
w

4. {(G 1) / (1 +e)}
w

A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 3 2 1
22. What are the respective values of void
ratio, porosity ratio and saturated density
(in kN/m
3
) for a soil sample which has
saturation moisture content of 20% and
specific gravity of grains as 2.6 ?
(Take density of water 10 kN/m
3
)
a. 0.52, 1.08, 18.07
b. 0.52, 0.34, 18.07
4 of 17
c. 0.77, 1.08, 16.64
d. 0.520.34, 20.14
23. Embankment fill is to be compacted at a
density of 18 kN/m
3
. The soil of the
borrow area is at a density of 15 kN/ m
3
.
What is the estimated number of trips of 6
Cu. m capacity truck for hauling the soil
required for compacting 100 m
3
fill of the
embankment ? (Assume that the soil in the
borrow area and that in the embankment
are at the same moisture content)
a. 14
b. 18
c. 20
d. 23
24. Match List I (Equipment) with List II
(Use) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below
List I
A. Vibratory rollers
B. Sheep foot rollers
C. Frog hammers
D. Vibroflots
List II
1. To compact soils in confined areas and
at corners
2. To compact road and railway
embankments of sandy soils
3. To densify sandy soils over a large
area and to a larger depth
4. To compact clayey soil fills
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 2 4 3 1
25. Soil is compacted at which one of The
following when a higher compactive effort
produces highest increase in dry density ?
a. Optimum water content
b. Dry side of the optimum moisture
content
c. Wet side of the optimum moisture
content
d. Saturation moisture content
1. Coarse sand is more than a million
times permeable than a high plasticity
clay.
2. The permeability depends on the
nature of soil and not on properties of
liquid flowing through soil.
3. If a sample of sand and a sample of
clay have the same void ratio, both
samples will exhibit the same
permeability.
4. Permeability of soil decreases as the
effective stress acting on the soil
increases.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3
27. In a falling head permeability test on a
soil, the time taken for the head to fall
from h
0
to h
1
is t. The test is repeated with
same initial head h
0
, the final head h is
noted in time t/2. Which one of the
following equations gives the relation
between h, h
0
and h
1
?
a. h =h
0
/h
1

b. h=
0 1
h /h
c. h =h
0
h
1

d. h =
0 1
h h
correct?
The one dimensional theory of
consolidation proposed by Terzaghi
derives its name due to the fact that
a. only vertical dimension of the soil
sample is used for consolidation test
and lateral dimensions are neglected
b. water in the soil sample in
conventional consolidometer escapes
in the lateral directions resulting into
settlements only in vertical direction
c. normal stress on the sample is applied
in only one (vertical) direction
d. lateral movements of soil grains are
not permitted across any vertical
boundary resulting into only vertical
settlements to account for the decrease
5 of 17
in volume due to escape of water from
soil sample
List I (Protective Measure)
A. Inverted filter
B. Riprap
C. Clay core
D. Sand columns
List II (Purpose)
1. To protect river banks from erosion by
river flow
2. To prevent escape of fine soils by
seepage water
3. To reduce damage due to liquefaction
of saturated granular soils during
earthquakes
4. To reduce seepage of water through
the body of the earth dams
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 1 4 3
30. For a certain loading condition, a saturated
clay layer undergoes 40% consolidation
ma period of 178 days. What would be the
additional time required for further 20%
consolidation to occur ?
a. 89 days
b. 222.5 days
c. 329.5 days
d. 400.5 days
31.

Which one of the following expressions
represents the shear strength of soil at
point X ? Angle of shear resistance of soil
is | and symbols
w
,
sat
,
sub
,
dry
stand
for unit weights of water, saturated soil,
submerged soil and dry soil respectively
a.
dry
H tan |
b. [
sat
H (H +H
1
)
w
]

tan |
c.
sub
H tan |
d. [
dry
H H
1

w
]

tan |
32. A shear test was conducted on a soil
sample. At failure, the ratio of
1 3
2
o o
to
1 3
2
o o +
is equal to unity.
Which one of the following shear tests
represents this condition ?
a. Drained triaxiaI compression test
b. Undrained triaxial compression test
c. Consolidated quick triaxial
compression test
d. Unconfined compression test
33. A footing of 3 m 3 m size transmits a
load of 1800 kN. The angle of load,
dispersion- in soil o =tan
1
0.5. What is
the stress created by the footing load at a
depth of 5 m?.
a. 26.12 kN/m
2

b. 27.12 kN/m
2

c. 28.12 kN/m
2

d. 29.12 kN/m
2

correct?
In dissolved oxygen sag curve, the sag
results because
a. it is a function of a rate of addition of
oxygen to. the stream
b. it is a function of a rate of addition of
oxygen from the stream
c. it is a unction of both addition and
depletion of oxygen from the stream.
d. the rate of addition of oxygen is linear,
but the rate of depletion is non-linear
35. An industry manufacturing urea produces
waste water, which largely contains urea
and ammonia. The treatment plant consists
of following units for effective control of
nitrogen
1. Nitrification followed by
denitrification
2. Hydrolysis unit
3. Ammonia stripping by air
4. Lime dosing and mixing unit
Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of above unit operations in the
treatment plant?
6 of 17
a. 3-2-1-4
b. 2-3-1-4
c. 2-4-3-1
d. 4-2-3-1
36. Which one of the following procedures is
used for sampling of flue gas in a chimney
for SPM ?
a. Isothermal sampling
b. Isokinetic sampling
c. Adiabatic condition
d. Variable rate of sampling
37. Which one of the following units is
employed for the removal of particulate
matter above 50 in size?
a. Gravity settling chamber
b. Cycltne
c. Fabric filter
d. Electrostatic precipitator
correct?
Acoustics of an auditorium is considered
to be excellent when its reverberation time
is between
a. 0.50 and 1.50 s
b. 1.50 and 2.00s
c. 2.00 and 3.00 s
d. 3.00 and 5.00 s
39. Which one of the following Acts/Rules has
a provision for No right to appeal?
a. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
b. The Hazardous Waste (Management
and Handling) Rules, 1989 .
c. Manufacture, Storage and Import of
Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989
d. Environment (Protection) Rules, 1992
List I
A. Protozoa
B. Bacteria
C. Presence of nitrate >45 mg/l
D. Virus
List II
1. Methamoglobinaemia
2. Poliomyelitis
3. Dysentry
4. Typhoid fever
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
41. Which one of the following organisms is
responsible for enteric fever?
a. ECHO
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Echinococcus
correct?
If the specific gravity of a suspended
particle is increased from 2 to 3, the
settling velocity will
a. not change
b. get doubled
c. get increased by 1.5 times
d. get increased by 2.25 times
43. Which one of the following is not a
specific criterion for calculating surface
overflow rate in sedimentation tank
design?
a. Total quantity of water to be treated
b. Total surface area available in the tank
c. Total length of the tank
d. Total depth of the tank
44. Which of the following remedial measures
are taken negative head and air binding in
a rapid sand filter?
1. Avoiding the occurrence of excessive
negative head
2. Pumping in air
3. Avoiding increase in water
temperature
4. Control of algae growth
given below
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2
d. 1,2, 3 and 4
45. Match List. I with List II and select the
List I (Water/Waste Water Parameter)
A. Potability of water
7 of 17
B. Chloride
C. Residual chlorine
D. Hardness of water
List II (Test)
1. Mohrs method
2. Orthotolidine method
3. E.D.T.A. method
4. M. F. technique
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
46. Which one of the following problem of
short circuiting due to density currents ?
a. Batch
b. Complete mix
c. Plug flow
d. Fluidized bed
The basic difference between water pipes
and sewer pipes
1. in the material used for the pipes
2. in the pressure of the liquid flow
3. in the suspended solids they carry
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
correct?
A combined sewer is one, which transports
domestic sewage and
a. storm water
b. industrial wastes
c. overhead flow
d. industrial wastes and storm water
List I (Type of Pipe)
A. Steel pipe
B. Cast iron pipe
C. G. 1. pipe
D. P.V.C. pipe
List II (Purpose)
1. House plumbing
2. Hot water carrying
3. Distribution main
4. Pumping main
1. The velocity of flow in the rising main
should not be less than 0.8 m/s at any
time.
2. Maximum velocity of flow is generally
limited to 1.8 m/s and never allowed to
exceed 3.0 m/s.
In the design of large sewage pumping
stations, which of the above conditions
must be satisfied ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
correct answer using the Codes :
List I (Type of Signals)
A. Detonating signal
B. Coloured light signal
C. Home signal
D. Calling on signal
List II (Characteristics)
1. Locational
2. Operational
3. Special
4. Functional
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 2 4 1 3
List I (Road Drainage System)
A. Vertical sand drains
B. Causeways and culverts
C. Scuppers and catch water drains
D. Inlets and gratings
List II (Location)
1. Urban road drainage
2. Hill roads
8 of 17
3. High embankments in soft soils
4. Cross drainage in road alignments
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 2 4 3
53. Match List I with List II select the correct
List I
A. Dynamometer car
B. Crossing station
C. Ruling gradient
D. Turn table
List II
1. Arrangement for turning the direction
of an engine
2. Information about condition of railway
track
3. Station on a single railway track
system where Up and Down trains can
pass each other
4. Maximum rising gradient of railway
track depending on engine power
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 3 2 1 4
54. The installation of sand drains in clayey
soil causes the soil adjacent to the sand
drains to undergo which one of the
following?
a. Increase in porosity
b. Increase in compressibility
c. Decrease in horizontal permeability
d. Decrease in shear strength
55. A strap footing is to be provided for the
two columns shown in the diagrams given
below.

What is the length L of the footing? Take
width of both the footings as 3.5 m and
safe bearing capacity of soil as 350 kN/m
2
.
a. 2.0 m
b. 2.5 m
c. 3.5 m
d. 2.95 m
56. Assertion (A): At the standard
temperature, the kinematic viscosity of air
is greater than that of water at the same
temperature.
Reason (R) : The dynamic viscosity of air
at standard temperature is lower than that
of water at the same temperature.
a. Both A and. R are individually true
and R is the correct explanation of A
57. Assertion (A): When water flows through
a long stretch of a narrow rectangular
channel, the water surface at the walls is
higher than that at the central axis.
Reason (R): Resistive effort of
atmospheric air is felt more at the walls
than away from the walls.
58. Assertion (A) : The yield of a well varied
from 10 m
3
/day to 20 m
3
/day when the
aquifer area changed from 50 m
2
to 75 m
2
.
Reason (R) : The yield is found to be
directly proportional to the area of an
aquifer opening into a well.
59. Assertion (A) The fluoride content in
drinking water should neither be too low
nor too high.
9 of 17
Reason (R) Deficiency of fluoride content
causes mottling of teeth and its excess
causes dental cavities in children.
60. Assertion (A) : Raft foundations are the
best type of shallow foundations to support
heavy structures.
Reason (R): Raft foundation has the ability
to redistribute load coming on weak
pockets of soil below raft to the adjacent
soils where the stresses are less severe for
the soil at that place. This reduces the
chances of differential settlements and
increases the bearing capacity.
61. Assertion (A) : The settling velocity of a
discrete particle will become five times
when its diameter doubles.
Reason (R) : The settling velocity of a
discrete particle is almost proportional to
the square of the particle diameter.
62. Assertion (A) : The drained its using
triaxial test apparatus are useful in the
study of drainage of water through the soil
sample and hence the permeability of the
soil sample.
Reason (R) : The permeability of soil is an
important property useful in estimation of
loss of imponded water through permeable
soil layers below the earth dams.
63. Assertion (A) Plate load test carried out at
the site gives field test data which is useful
in evaluation of bearing capacity and
settlements. It is normally conducted at the
level of the proposed foundation.
Reason (R) : Plate load test is reliable
because it reflects the true behaviour of
foundation stratum below the proposed
level of foundation and extending up to
large depth below.
64. Assertion (A) : A series of closed contours
indicate either a valley or a hill without
any outlet, when their elevations,
respectively, increase or decrease towards
the centre.
Reason (R) : Contour lines of different
elevations can unite to form one line only
at a vertical cliff.
65. Assertion (A) : A mosaic is large
photomap assembled from two or more
aerial photographs of an area.
Reason (R) : Photomap and mosaic are
true planimetric representations of the
area.
66. Assertion (A) : Open cut is economical
than tunneling for depths of over burden
less than 20 metres.
Reason (R) Heading and Bench method is
suitable for tunneling in soft soils.
10 of 17
67. Assertion (A) : Breakwaters are common
in natural harbours.
Reason (R) : Breakwaters help in
controlling wave action and sand
movement into the harbour area.
68. A strip footing having 1.5 m width
founded at a depth of 3 m below ground
level in a clay soil having C =20 kN/m
2
, |
0 and unit weight =20 kN/
3
. What is the
net ultimate bearing capacity using
Skemptons analysis ?
a. 30 kN/m
2

b. 60 kN/m
2

c. 100 kN/m
2

d. 140 kN/m
List I (Unit Test)
A. Casagrandes apparatus
B. B. Hydrometer
C. Plate load test
D. Oedometer
List II (Purpose)
1. Determination of grain, size
distribution
2. Consolidation characteristics
3. Determination of consistency
4. Determination of safe bearing capacity
of soil limits
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 3 1 4 2
70. When a load test was conducted by putting
a 60 cm square plate on top of a sandy
deposit, the ultimate bearing capacity was
observed as 60 kN/m
2
. What is the
ultimate bearing capacity for a strip
footing of 1.2 m width to-be placed on the
surface of the same soil ?
a. 75 kN/m
2

b. 120 kN/m
2

c. 150 kN/m
2

d. 160 kN/m
2

71. Match List I with List II and select using
the codes :
List I (Situation)
A. Embankment construction
B. Excavation of a pit
C. Hydrostatic loading
D. Lateral expansion of a backfill
List II (Stress Path)
1. Stress path moves in left side upward
direction
2. Stress path moves in left side
downward direction
3. Stress path moves in right side upward
direction
4. Stress path moves along the horizontal
axis
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 2 3 1 4
72. A plate load test is conducted on a
cohesionless soil with a test plate having
width B
p
(cm) and settlement of this plate
S
p
(cm) is obtained at the same load
intensity as on foundation. A footing
having a width B
f
(cm) is to be constructed
as foundation. What is the settlement S
f

(cm) experienced by this footing?
a. S
f
=S
p
{[B
f
(B
p
+30)] / [B
p
(B
f
+30)]}
2

b. S
f
=S
p
{[B
p
(B
f
+30)] / [B
f
(B
p
+30)]}
2

c. S
f
=S
p
[B
f
/ B
p
]
d. S
f
=S
p
[B
p
/ B
f
]
List I (Type. of Foundation)
A. Floating piles
11 of 17
B. Micro piles
C. Combined footing
D. Under-reamed piles
List II (Type of Soil)
1. Closed spaced columns resting on
compressible soil
2. Expansive soils
3. Deep soft clays
4. Loose sands
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 3 4 1 2
74. A square pile of section 30 cm x 30 cm
and length 10 m penetrates a deposit of
clay having C = 5 kN/m
2
and the
mobilizing factor m =0.8. What is the load
carried by the pile by skin friction only?
a. 192 kN
b. 75 kN
c. 60 kN
d. 48 kN
List I(Type of Strata below Foundation)
A. Sand
B. Heterogeneous landfill
C. Black cotton soil
D. Hard rock
List II (Type of Foundation Movement)
1. Practically no movements
2. Immediate settlements
3. Large relative settlements
4. Heaving of foundations
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 4 1 3
1. Pile foundations are usually provided
when loads coming on the foundation
are quite large. Such piles may often
extend up to a large depth below
ground level.
2. Precast piles inserted into the holes
bored at the site do not get damaged
while they are driven into the ground.
Which of the statements given above
is/are, correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
List I (Type of Foundation)
A. Point bearing piles
B. Sheet piles
C. Compaction piles
D. Batter piles
List II (Use of Foundation)
1. To retain soil filling
2. To transfer heavy loads to strong
stratum below a weak stratum
3. To resist lateral loads.
4. To densify loose soils
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 4 1 3
Prevention or elimination of swelling can
be brought by
1. providing an impervious apron around
the structure
2. pre-wetting the ground to a moisture
content equal to equilibrium moisture
content.
3. making downward loads large enough
to exceed swelling pressures.
4. chemically stabilizing the soil with
lime
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 2, 3 and 4
12 of 17
List I (Type of Survey)
A. Topographical survey
B. Reconnaissance survey
C. Cadastral survey
D. Archaeological survey
List II (Purpose)
1. To determine boundaries of fields,
houses etc.
2. To find relics of antiquity
3. To determine natural features of a
country
4. To determine possibility and rough
cost of the surveying system to be
adopted
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 2 1 4 3
80. On which one of the following are the
third generation electro-optical instruments
based ?
a. Microwave
b. Infra-red
c. UV light
d. He-Laser light
List I (Measurements)
A. Displacement measurement from
photograph
B. Electronic distance measurement
C. Base line measurement
D. Horizontal angle measurement
List II (Instruments)
1. Box sextant
2. Subtense bar
3. Tellurometer
4. Parallax bar
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 2 3 4
Reciprocal levelling eliminates the effect
of
1. errors due to earths curvature
2. errors due to atmospheric refraction
3. mistakes in taking levelling staff
readings
4. errors due to line of collimation
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
List I
A. Satellite station
B. Gales traverse method
C. Invar steel tape
D. Intervisibility of adjacent stations
List II
1. Measurement of Baseline
2. Characteristic of triangulation stations
3. Auxiliary theodolite station near an
inaccessible main triangulation station
4. Computation of coordinates of
traverse/triangulation stations
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 4 1 3
84. What is the minimum number of satellites
required from which signals can be
recorded to enable a global positioning
system receiver to determine latitude,
longitude and altitude ?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
85. Setting off the proper principal distance
in the projectors of projection
stereoplotters is a procedure for which one
of the following?
a. Finding the focal length of the camera
used
13 of 17
b. Evaluating the digital terrain model
c. Carrying out the interior orientation
d. Filling the quotation for the purchase
of A
7
stereoplotters
86. Consider the following statements.:
IRS series satellites are
1. Low orbiting satellites
2. Geostationary satellites
3. Meteorological satellites
4. Resources survey satellites
correct?
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
87. Which one of the following is measured by
the area between the balancing line and the
mass-haul curve?
a. Haul between the balancing points
b. Earthwork accumulated upto that point
c. Excess of excavation
d. Excess of filling
88. For a given road, safe stopping sight
distance is 80 m and passing sight distance
is 300 m. What is the intermediate sight
distance ?
a. 220 m
b. 190 m
c. 160 m
d. 150 m
List I (Test)
A. Impact test
B. Los-Angeles abrasion test
C. Crushing test
D. Stripping test
List II (Purpose)
1. Bitumen adhesion
2. Toughness
3. Hardness
4. Strength
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
90. Consider the following statements : A
transition curve is provided on a circular
curve on a highway to provide
1. gradual introduction of centrifugal
force
2. minimum stopping sight distance
3. gradual introduction of super elevation
4. comfort and security to passengers
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
91. Which one of the following defects
indicates progressive disintegration of
bituminous premix carpet surfacing by loss
of aggregates?
a. Potholes
b. Ravelling
c. Edge breaking
d. Rutting
92. What will be the ruling radius of a
horizontal curve on a national highway for
a design vehicle speed of 100 km/h,
assuming allowable super elevation to be
7% and lateral friction as 0.13 ?
a. 405 m
b. 395 m
c. 385 m
d. 375 m
93. In 500 gm sample of coarse aggregate,
there are 100 gm flaky particles and 80 gm
elongates particles. What are the flakiness
and elongation indices (total) as per I.S. ?
a. 40%
b. 36%
c. 18%
d. 4%
94. The lost time due to starting delay on a
traffic signal approach is noted to be 3
seconds, the actual green time is 25
seconds and amber time is 3 seconds. How
much is the effective green time?
a. 19s
b. 25s
14 of 17
c. 27s
d. 31s
correct?
The orientation of preferential runway in
an airport is influenced by
a. direction of prevailing wind, adequate
length. obstruction-free landing and
take-off zones
b. adequate waiting and service facilities
c. convenience of terminal and control
facilities
d. stable ground and adequate turning
space
96. Consider the following aircraft operations:
1. Normal landing
2. Normal take-off with all engines
3. Engine failure at take-off
4. Emergency landing with all engines
shut
5. Landing with maximum payload with
the help of ILS
Which of the above aircraft operations are
taken into consideration in deciding the
basic runway length required for an
aircraft?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 5
d. 1 and 5
List I (Method)
A. Fll face method
B. Heading and Bench method
C. Drift method
D. American method
List II (Suitability)
1. For tunnelling of large cross- section
area through soft ground driving a top
drift and then widening the sides
2. For rock tunnelling carried out first in
smaller section of the proposed tunnel
and then widened
3. For driving the top portion in advance
of the bottom potion for very large
tunnel section in unstable rocks
4. For tunnelling of small cross- section
area in stable rock attacking the whole
section at time
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
98. A solid cylinder of length L. diameter D
and specific gravity 0.6 floats in neutral
equilibrium in water with its axis vertical.
What is the ratio of L to D ?
a. 3/2
b. 2 3/ 5
c. 4 / 5 3
d. 5 / 4 3
99. Match List I (Causes) with List II (Effects)
pertaining to rotation and
vertical/horizontal motion of liquid masses
at constant acceleration and select the
List I
A. The form of the free surface of liquid
in a rotating open vessel
B. The form of surface of the liquid in a
tanker moving in the direction of its
length
C. The pressure at any point in a
containers base moving with upward
Acceleration
D. The pressure at any point in a
containers base moving with
downward acceleration
List II
1. An inclined plane
2. A paraboloid of revolution
3. Greater than the hydrostatic value
4. Less than the hydrostatic value
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 2 1 3 4
List I (Features)
15 of 17
A. Open ended manometer for positive
pressure
B. Negative pressure manometer
C. For measuring pressure in liquids or
gases
D. For measuring pressure in liquids only.
List II (Types of Manometers)
1.

2.
3.
4.
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 4 3 2
101. For a turbulent boundary layer (under zero
pressure gradient), the velocity profile is
described by the one-fifth power law.
What is the ratio of displacement thickness
to boundary layer thickness ?
a. 1/7
b. 1/6
c. 1/5
d. 1/4
102. Oil ( =0.44 Pa.s, =888 kg/m
3
) is filled
in the space between two parallel plates
which are 18 mm apart. The upper plate is
moving at a velocity of 4 m/s. What is the
shear stress on the plate 7
a. 97.8 Pa
b. 48.9 Pa
c. 79.8 Pa
d. 87.9 Pa
103. A 1 : 30 Scale model of a submarine is to
be tested in a wind tunnel for its drag when
it is operating at 15 km/h in ocean. The
kinematic viscosity of air is 1.51 x 10
5

m
2
/s and for water 1.02 x 10
6
m
2
/s; What
is the velocity of air in wind tunnel that
should be maintained for kinematic
similarity?
a. 1500 m/s
b. 2000 m/s
c. 1850.5 m/s
d. 2500.5 m/s
regarding the conditions to be satisfied for
the maximum discharge through a
trapezoidal channel section with side slope
1 : n, bed width b, flow depth d and having
a fixed bed slope.
1. Sloping sides should have an angle of
300 with vertical
2. Hydraulic mean depth equals half the
flow depth
3. Length of sloping sides should be
equal to twice the bottom width
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
105. Water can flow with 1 m depth in
alternatively four channels of different
sections as shown below

16 of 17

Which one of the following sequences
shows their hydraulic radii, arranged in
descending order ?
a. D-C-B-A
b. D-A-C-B
c. A-B-C-D
d. A-B-D-C
106. In a reach of open channel flow, with q =
m
2
/s, depth of flow at section A is 1.5 m
and at section B. 1 6 m. The difference in
specific energies at two sections can be
correspondingly taken as 0.09 m. The bed
slope is 1 in 2000. The mean energy slope
between the sections is given as 0.003.
What is the length of reach AB ?
a. 54 m with A on the upstream
b. 54 m with B on the upstream
c. 36 m with A on the upstream
d. 36 m with B on the upstream
107. Two long pipes in parallel are used to
carry water between two reservoirs. The
diameter of one pipe is twice that of the
other. Both the pipes have the same value
of friction factor Neglect minor losses.
What is the ratio of flow rates through the
two pipes ?
a. 2.8
b. 5.6
c. 8
d. 11.3
108. A cen4rifugal pump discharges 260 litres
of water per second when running at 600
rpm. The impeller diameter at the outlet is
80 cm. It develops a head of 15.3 m. What
is the approximate minimum starting
speed?
a. 425 rpm
b. 450 rpm
c. 475 rpm
d. 500 rpm
109. A combination of centrifugal pumps of
specific speed 20 and overall efficiency
80%, running at 800 rpm is to be used to
pump 40 lps of water to a height of 75 m.
What should be the arrangement ?
a. 3 pumps in series
b. 3 pumps in parallel
c. 4 pumps in series
d. 4 pumps in parallel
List I (Machines)
A. Centrifugal pump
B. Reciprocating pump
C. Francis turbine
D. Pelton wheel
List II (Associated with)
1. Percent slip
2. Bucket
3. Guide blade
4. Volute chamber
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 2 1 3 4
111. A pelton wheel operates at 630 rpm taking
3 m
3
/s of water under head of 256 m with
a speed ratio of 0.48. (Given = 19.62 =
4.43) What is the diameter of the impeller?
a. 0.90 m
b. 1.03 m
c. 1.42 m
d. 1.80 m
112. An impulse turbine of 3 m diameter is
rated at 10000 kW at 300 rpm under a
head of 500 m. The turbine is operated
under the head of 400 m. What is the
power developed ?
a. 15000 kW
b. 14000 kW
c. 13000 kW
d. 12000 kW
113. An impulse turbine of 3m diameter is rated
at 10000 kW at 300 rpm under a head of
500 m. The turbine is operated under the
17 of 17
head of 400 m. What is the speed at which
it would run ?
a. 324 rpm
b. 336 rpm
c. 348 rpm
d. 364 rpm
114. Which one of the following defines aridity
index (AI)?
a.
PET AET
AI = 100
PET

b.
PET
AI = 100
AET

c.
AET
AI = 100
PET

d.
AET PET
AI = 100
AET

where AET =Actual Evapotranspiration
and PET =Potential Evapotranspiration
115. Which one of the following filters should
be recommended for protected rural water
supply project?
a. Pressure filter
b. Slow sand filter
c. Diatomaceous earth filter
d. Rapid sand filter
correct ?
In Snyders method of synthetic unit
hydrograph development, basin lag is
taken as
a. the time interval between centroid of
the rainfall excess and surface runoff
b. the time interval from mid point of the
unit rainfall excess to the peak of the
unit hydrograph
c. independent of rainfall duration
d. independent of catchment
characteristics
117. A storm with 14 cm precipitation produced
a direct runoff of 8 cm. The time
distribution of the storm is as shown in the
table below

What is the value of p-index of the storm ?
1. 0.5 cm/h
2. 0.7 cm/h
3. 0.8 cm/h
4. 0.9 cm/h
sequence in the increasing order of the
Froude number of flow assumed by the
bed form of an alluvial stream with
movable bed material ?
a. Ripple Plane bed Dune Plane
bed - Antidune
b. Dune Ripple Plane bed
Antidune Plane bed
c. Plane bed Ripple Dune Plane
bed Antidune
d. Plane bed Ripple Antidune
Dune Plane bed
119. A bridge has an expected life of 50 years
and is designed for a flood magnitude of
return period 100 years. What is the risk
associated with this hydrologic design ?
a. 1 (0.99)
50

b. (0.5)
50

c. (0.99)
50

d. (0.99)
100

List I
A. Rising limb of a hydrograph
B. Falling limb of a hydrograph
C. Peak rate of flow
D. Drainage density
List II
1. Depends on intensity of rainfall
2. Function of total channel length
3. Function of catchment slope
4. Function of storage characteristics
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 2 3 4
1 of 16

(PAPERI )

1. Match List I (Machinery) with List II
(Purpose) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists :
List I
A. Bulldozer
B. Power shovels
C. Dragline
D. Clamshell
List II
1. Most suited for verticality lifting loose
materials
2. The bucket in this unit digs by pulling
the load towards it
3. To excavate all types of soils and
dump it into trucks
4. For digging the earth at or below the
operating level and loading it to
hauling units
5. Largely employed for excavating and
moving the earth
A B C D
a. 5 3 4 1
b. 1 4 2 5
c. 5 4 2 1
d. l 3 4 5
2. Consider the following statements?
The main reinforcement in the counter fort
in a counter fort retaining wall of R.C.C. is
provided on the
1. inclined face in front of counter fort.
2. bottom face in back counter fort.
3. inclined face n back counterfoil.
4. bottom face in front counterfoil.
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
3. A doubly reinforced concrete beam has
effective cover d to the centre of
compression reinforcement is the depth of
neutral axis, and d is the effective depth to
the centre of tension reinforcement. What
is the maximum strain in concrete at the
level of compression reinforcement?
a. 0.0035 (1d/d)
b. 0.0035 (1 d/x
u
)
c. 0.002 (1 d/x
u
)
d. 0.002 (1 d/d)
4. Which one of the following method is
employed to manufacture pre-stressed
concrete sleepers for the railways?
a. Post-tensioning
b. Pre-tensioning
c. Pre-tensioning followed by post-
tensioning
d. Partial pre-stressing
In an under-reinforced concrete beam,
1. Actual depth of neutral axis is less than
the critical depth of neutral axis.
2. concrete reaches ultimate stress prior
to steel reaching the ultimate stress.
3. moment of resistance is less than that
of balanced sections.
4. lever arm of resisting couple is less
than that of balanced sections.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
6. What is the minimum number of
longitudinal bars provided In a reinforced
concrete column of circular cross section?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
7. Drop panel is a structural component in:
a. Grid floor
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2005
2 of 16
b. Flat plate
c. Flat slab
d. Slab-beam system of floor
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List I
A. Modular Ratio
B. Seismic Forces
C. Pedestal
D. Composite Column
List II
1. Increase of permissible stresses
2. Minimum eccentricity
3. Limit state method
4. Metal core
5. Permissible compressive stress due to
bending in concrete
A B C D
a. 5 1 2 4
b. 4 2 3 5
c. 5 2 3 4
d. 4 1 2 5
9. Which one of the following systems of
pre-stressing is suitable for pre-tensioned
members?
a. Freyssinet system
b. Magnel-Blaton system
c. Hoyer system
d. Gifford-Udall system
10. Which of the following measures are
resorted to for strengthening masonry
walls?
1. Provide cross walls.
2. Pre-stressing.
3. Provide gunite slab on the surface(s) of
walls.
4. Provide buttresses.
given below:
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. When is a masonry wall known as a shear
wall?
a. If the earthquake load is out-of-plane
b. If the earthquake load is in-plane
c. If it is unreinforced
d. If it is placed as infill to the frame
12. What is number of categories into which
masonry buildings are divided on this
basis of earthquake resistance features?
a. Five
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
13. On which one of the following concepts is
the basic principle of structural design
based?
a. Weak column strong beam
b. Strong column and weak beam
c. Equally strong column-beam
d. Partial weak column-beam
14. Match List I (Post-tensioning System) with
List II (Type of Anchorage) and select the
the Lists :
List I
A. Freyssinet
B. Gifford-Udall
C. Lee-McCall
D. Mangel Blaton
List II
1. Flat steel wedges in sandwich plates
2. High strength nuts
3. Split conical wedges
4. Conical serrated concrete wedges
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
15. If the Youngs modulus E is equal to
bulk modulus K, then what is the value
of the Poissons ratio?
a.
1
4

b.
1
2

c.
1
3

d.
3
4

3 of 16
16. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress
to average shear stress for a circular
section?
a. 2
b.
3
2

c.
4
3

d.
3
4

17. For a state of plane stress o
1
= o
x
= 40
MPa, and o
2
= o
y
= 2OMPa. What are the
values of the maximum in-plane shearing
stress and absolute maximum shearing
stress?
a. ( 10, 20)MPa
b. (10, 10)MPa
c. ( 20, 10) MPa
d. ( 20, 20) MPa
18. At a certain point in a strained material,
there are two mutually perpendicular
stresses o
x
= 100 N/mm
2
(Tensile) and o
x

= 50 N/mm
2
(Compressive).
[Notation : Tension (+);
Compression () ]
What are the values of the principal
stresses in N/mm
2
at that point?
a. 100, 50
b. 100, 50
c. 75, 25
d. 75, 25
19. In a plane strain problem in xy plane, the
shear strain = 12 x 10
6
, and the normal
strain In x and y direction = 0. For this
state of strain, what is the diameter of the
Mohrs Circle of strain?
a. 6 x 10
6

b. 8 x 10
6

c. 12 x 10
6

d. 24 x 10
6

20. A mild steel bar of square cross-section 40
mm x 40 mm is 400 mm long. It is
subjected to a longitudinal tensile stress of
440 N/mm
2
and lateral compressive stress
is 200 N/mm
2
In perpendicular directions.
E = 2 x 10
5
N/mm
2
, = 0.3. What is the
approximate elongation of the bar in the
longitudinal direction?
a. 0.44 mm
b. 088 mm
c. 0.22 mm
d. 1 mm
21. At a certain point in a structural member
there are perpendicular stresses 80 N/mm
2

and 20 N/mm
2
, both tensile. What is the
equivalent stress in simple tension,
according to the maximum principal strain
theory ? (Poissons ratio = 0.25)
a. Zero
b. 20 N/mm
2

c. 60 N/mm
2

d. 75 N/mm
2

22.

A uniform beam of span I carries a
uniformly distributed load w per unit
length as shown in the figure given above.
The supports are at a distance of x from
either end. What is the condition for the
maximum bending moment in the beam to
be as small as possible?
a. x = 0.1071
b. x = 0.207l
c. x = 0.2371
d. x = 0.251
23.

For the simply supported beam shown in
the figure given above, at what distance
from the support A, is the shear force
zero?
a.
4
L

b.
3
L

c.
2
L

d.
3
L

24.
4 of 16

A cantilever AB is loaded as shown in the
figure given above. What is the shape of
the bending moment diagram for portion
AC?
a. Parabolic
b. Linearly varying with maximum value
of the bending moment at C
c. Linear with constant bending moment
value from C to A
d. Linearly varying with maximum value
at A
25.

A cantilever beam AB carries loadings as
shown in the figure above. Which one of
the following is the SFD for the beam?
a.
b.
c.
d.
26.

Couple M is applied at C on a simply
supported beam AB. What is the
maximum shear force for the beam?
a. Zero
b. M
c. 2 M/3
d. M/3
27.

The beam shown in the figure given above
is subjected to concentrated load and
clockwise couple.
What is the vertical reaction at A?
a. 10 kN
b. 40 kN
c. 50 kN
d. 30 kN
28. A beam has the same section throughout
its length with I = 1 x 10
8
mm
4
. It is
subjected to a uniform B.M. = 40 kNm. E
= 2 x 10
5
N/mm
2
. What is the radius of
curvature of the circle into which the beam
will bend in the form of an arc of a circle?
a. 1000m
b. 500m
c. 400m
d. 350m
29.
A bar of circular cross-section of diameter
D is subjected to a torque T at B as shown
in the figure given above. What is the
angle of twist at A?
a. Same as that at B
b. Zero
c. Twice as that at B
d. Half as that at B

30.

Consider the following statements for the
column with a bracket as shown in the
figure given above:
1. Shear force is constant throughout.
5 of 16
2. Maximum moment in the column is
Pe.
3. The compressive axial force in the
column is 0.4 p.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 only
31.

What is the vertical displacement at the
point C of the structure shown in the figure
given above?
a.
3
9Pa
2EI

b.
3
27Pa
2EI

c.
3
27Pa
8EI

d.
3
3Pa
8EI

32.

What is the bending moment at A for the
bent column shown in the figure given
above?
a. 40 kNm
b. 20 kNm
c. 10 kNm
d. zero
33. The deflection at the free end of a
uniformly loaded cantilever of length 1 m
is 7.5 mm. What is the slope at the free
end?
a. 0.01 radian
b. 0.02 radian
c. 0.015 radian
d. 0.025 radian
34. Which one of the following structures is
statically determinate and stable?
a.
b.
c.
d.
35.

A three-hinged loaded semicircular arch
ACB is shown in the figure given above.
What is the shearing force at the hinge C?
a. 20 kN
b. 20 2 kN
c. 10 kN
d. 10 2 kN
correct?
Linear arch is one which represents:
a. centre line of an arch
b. variation of bending moment
c. thrust line
d. variation of shear force
37. A point load applied at shear centre
induces:
a. Zero shear force
6 of 16
b. Zero bending
c. Pure twisting
d. Pure bending
38.

What is the ratio of the forces in the
members AB, BE and AE of the pin-joined
truss shown in the figure given above?
a. 5 : 4 : 3
b. 4 : 3 : 5
c.
1 1 1
: :
4 3 5
| | | | | |
| | |
\ . \ . \ .

d. None of the above
39. Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the influence line for the
bending moment at one- fourths of the
span from left support of a prismatic beam
simply supported at ends?
a. It is composed of straight lines only
b. It is composed of curved lines only
c. It is composed of straight and curved
line
d. It is parabolic
40.

A prismatic beam is shown in the figure
given above.
Consider the following statements:
1. The structure is unstable.
2. The bending moment is zero at
supports and internal hinge.
3. It is mechanism.
4. It is statically indeterminate.
correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
41.
What is the degree of indeterminacy of the
frame shown in the figure given above?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. Zero
1. In a non-circular structural member
subjected to torsion, plane sections
before twisting remain plane after
twisting.
2. The analysis of indeterminate
structures by the theorem of three
moments does not give the exact
solutions.
3. The work done by the external Loads
during a vertical deformation is not
equal to the increase in internal energy
stored in the body.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. None
43.

The figure given above shows a rigid
frame fixed at A and hinged at C. If a pure
moment of 20 kNm is applied at B in the
plane of the figure, then what is the
moment at the fixed end A?
a. 10 kNm
b. 7.5 kNm
c. 5 kNm
d. 2.5 kNm
the Lists :
7 of 16
List I
A. Strain energy method
B. Slope-deflection
C. Moment distribution
D. Kanis method
List II
1. Successive approximation
2. Flexibility method
3. Iteration process
4. Stiffness method
A B C D
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 2 4 1 3
45. Which one of the following statements Is
correct? The number of unknowns to be
determined in the stiffness method is equal
to:
a. the static indeterminacy
b. the kinematic indeterminacy
c. the sum of kinematic indeterminacy
and static indeterminacy
d. two times the number of supports
46. The stiffness matrix of a beam element is
2 1
2
1 2
EI
L
(
| |
| (
\ .

Which one of the following is its
flexibility matrix?
a.
2 1
1 2 2
L
EI
(
| |
| (
\ .

b.
2 1
1 2 3
L
EI
(
| |
| (
\ .

c.
1 2
2 1 5
L
EI
(
| |
| (
\ .

d.
1 2
2 1 6
L
EI
(
| |
| (
\ .

47.

For the propped cantilever beam shown in
the figure given above, the plastic moment
capacity is Mp. What is the value of its
collapse load?
a.
4
p
M
L

b.
6
p
M
L

c.
8
p
M
L

d.
11.7
p
M
L

48.

What is the total degree of indeterminacy,
both internal and external of the plane
frame shown above?
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 14
statement? In beam to column connections
in steel construction, if torsion is permitted
at the ends of simply supported beams by
not providing the cleats, the
a. effective length of the beam increases
by 20%
b. effective length remains same as the
actual length
c. permissible bending stresses are
increased by around
d. joint has to be designed for torsion
50. For a vertical stiffened web of a plate
girder, the lesser clear dimension of the
panel should not exceed:
a. 85 t
b. 180 t
c. 200 t
d. 250 t
(where t is the thickness of the web)
51. What is the permissible tensile stress in
bolts used for column bases?
a. 120 N/mm
2

b. 150 N/mm
2

8 of 16
c. 0.6f
y

d. 0.4 f
y

(where f
y
is the yield stress of the steel)
52. What is the effective height of a free-
standing masonry wall for the purpose of
computing slenderness ratio?
a. 0.5 L
b. 1.0 L
c. 2.0 L
d. 2.5 L
53. A square column section of size 350 mm x
350 mm is reinforced with four bars of 25
mm diameter and four bars of 16 mm
diameter. Then the transverse steel should
be:
a. 5 mm dia @ 240mm c/c
b. 6 mm dia @ 250 mm c/c
c. 8 mm dia @ 250 mm c/c
d. 8 mm dia @ 350 mm c/c
54. Assertion (A) : In resource levelling
approach of resource allocation, activity
start times are scheduled such that the peak
demand for a particular resource remains
within available limit of the resources.
Reason (R) : In resource levelling
approach of resource allocation, the total
project time is not changed.
55. Assertion (A): Interference float is the
event slack at the headed node of an
activity.
Reason (R) : Interference float cannot be
shared by any other activity.
56. Assertion (A): A rectangular element is
subjected to pure shear. This will result in
cracks along one diagonal and crushing
along the other diagonal.
Reason (R) : Pure shear on a rectangular
element results in tension along one
diagonal and compression along the other
diagonal.
57. Assertion (A): In certain special situations,
omitting the shear effect deformations can
lead to significant errors.
Reason (R) : In general, when the bending
moments very along the length of the
beams, the shearing stress, resultants will
be present and will influence deformation.
58. Assertion (A): The total virtual work done
by a system of forces acting on a rigid
body. In equilibrium during a virtual
displacement is zero.
Reason (R) : If a system of forces acting
on a deformable body is in equilibrium, as
the body is subjected to a small
deformation, the external virtual work
done by the forces will also be zero.
59. Assertion (A): The design shear strength
of axially loaded beams is increased by a
factor as per IS codes, 1+
g ck
3Pu
A f
| |
|
|
\ .
or 1.5
whichever is less.
(Where P
u
is axial Load, A
g
gross area of
column and f
ck
characteristic concrete
strength)
Reason (R) : The presence of axial
compressive force is to hasten the
formation of both flexural and inclined
cracks.
9 of 16
60. Assertion (A): The concept of locating the
neutral axis in a reinforced concrete
flexural member as centroidal axis is
applicable in working stress design
method, but not in limit state design
method.
Reason (R) : The working stress design
method assumes that the structural
material behaves in a non-linear elastic
manner and there is strain compatibility in
bond between steel and concrete.
61. Assertion (A): Minimum shear
reinforcement in all shallow beams is
provided when shear stress exceeds 0.5 t
c

(where t
c
is design shear stress).
Reason (R) : Minimum shear
reinforcement prevents formation of
inclined cracks and avoids abrupt failures
and introduces ductility in shear.
62. In a tree, the cambium layer is situated
between:
a. The outer bark and inner bark
b. The inner bark and sap wood
c. The sap wood and heart wood
d. The pith and heart wood
Kiln seasoning of timber results is:
1. reduced density.
2. reduced life.
3. dimensional stability.
Which of the following given above is/are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
64. Match List I (Diagram Based
Nomenclature) with List II (Information
Capability) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists
List I
A. Work-breakdown structure
B. B. Bar chart
C. Linked bar chart
D. D. Time computations on network
List II
1. Target dates for interface events can be
stipulated
2. Can be heretical
3. 3. Can include information on cost
distribution over time
4. Best suited for monitoring including
that for costs
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
statement?
The strength of timber:
a. is maximum in a direction parallel to
the grain
b. is maximum in a direction
perpendicular to the grain
c. is maximum in a direction 45
o
to the
grain
d. remains same in all directions
The disease of dry not in timber is caused
by:
1. complete submergence in water.
2. alternate wet and dry condition.
3. lack of ventilation.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 3 only
10 of 16
c. 2 only
d. 2 and 3
67. Match List I (Term) with List II (Brief
Description) and select the correct answer
List I
A. Heart shakes
B. Knot
C. Rot
D. Sap Wood
List II
1. Disintegration caused by fungi
2. Outer layers of a log of wood
3. A branch base embedded in timber by
natural growth
4. Cracks widest at centre and
diminishing towards the outer
circumference
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 3 1 2
statement? Refractory bricks resist:
a. high temperature
b. chemical action
c. dampness
d. all the above three
statement? Smaller size of aggregates in a
concrete mix:
a. provides larger surface area for
bonding with the mortar matrix which
increases the compressive strength and
reduces the stress concentration at the
mortar-aggregate interface
b. is economical as the concrete mix is
more dense
c. requires lesser cement for a particular
water-cement ratio and hence is
economical
d. is beneficial as these aggregates can
pass through the reinforcement bars
more easily
70. On which of the following is the working
principle of concrete hammer for non-
destructive test based?
a. Rebound deflections
b. Radioactive waves
c. Ultrasonic pulse
d. Creep-recovery
71. Match List I (Apparatus) with List II
List I
A. Le-chatelier
B. Vicat Needle with annular collar
C. Vee-Bee
D. Briquettes test machine
List II
1. Workability of concrete
2. Soundness of cement
3. Tensile strength of cement
4. Final setting time of cement
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 3 1 4
72. Match List I (Type of Cement) with List II
(Characteristics) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the
Lists :
List I
A. Rapidly hardening cement
B. Low heat Portland cement
C. Portland Puzzolana
D. Sulphate resisting cement
List II
1. Lower C
3
A content than that in OPC
2. Contains pulverised fly ash
3. Higher C
3
S content than that is OPC
4. Lower C
3
S and C
3
A contents than that
in OPC
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 3 2 4 1
73. Why is super plasticizer added to
concrete?
1. To reduce the quantity of mixing
water.
2. To increase the consistency
3. To reduce the quantity of cement.
11 of 16
4. To increase resistance to freezing and
thawing.
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 4 only
Cement concrete is a/an:
1. elastic material.
2. visco-elastic material.
3. visco-plastic material.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1 only
75. In a shape test of aggregate, which one of
the following gives the correct slot for
flakiness index of a material passing 50
mm sieve and retained on 40mm sieve?
a. 25 mm
b. 27mm
c. 81 mm
d. 30mm
76. On which one of the following factors,
does strength of concrete depend
primarily?
a. Quality of coarse aggregate
b. Quality of fine aggregate
c. Fineness of cement
d. Water-cement ratio
regarding the phenomenon of bulking of
sand:
1. It is due to film of water around sand
particles.
2. It is due to capillary action.
3. It is more in finer sands.
Which of the following statements given
above is, are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
78. Which one of the following sections
performs better on the ductility criterion?
a. Balanced section
b. Over-reinforced section
c. Under-reinforced section
d. Non-prismatic section
79. A beam of rectangular cross-section (b x
d) is subjected to a torque T. What is the
maximum torsional stress induced in the
beam?
a.
2
T
b d

b.
2
T
bd

c.
T
bd

d.
T
bd

(Where b <d, and o is a constant)
80. Match List I (Codal Parameter) with List II
(Structural Member) and select the correct
Lists :
List I
A. 0.04 b D
B. 250 b
2
/d
C. 100 b
2
d
D. (k
x
l
x
)/D
x

List II
1. Column
2. Cantilever
3. Continuous beam
4. Beam
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
81. Which of the following are the additional
moments considered for design of slender
compression member in lieu of deflection
in x and y directions?
a.
2
2
u ey
u ex
P
P
and
2000 D 2000 D
l
l

b.
u ey
u ex
P
P
and
2000 2000
l
l

12 of 16
c.
2
2
u ey
u ex
P
P
and
2000D 2000b
l
l

d.
2
2
u ey
u ex
P
P
and
200D 200D
l
l

(Where P
u
is axial load; l
ex
and l
ey
are
effective lengths in respective directions;
D depth of section to major axis; b width
of the member)
82. What should be the minimum grade of
reinforced concrete in and around sea
coast construction?
a. M 35
b. M 30
c. M 25
d. M 20
expresses the split tensile strength of a
circular cylinder of length L and diameter
D, subject to a maximum load of P?
a.
P
DL

b.
P
2DL

c.
2P
DL

d.
P
4DL

84. What is the value of flexural strength of M
25 concrete?
a. 4.0 MPa
b. 3.5 MPa
c. 3.0 MPa
d. 1.75 MPa
85. Consider the following statements with
regard to crack formation and its control:
1. The surface width of the crack should
not, in general, exceed 0.30 mm for
structures not subjected to aggressive
environment.
2. When depth of web in a beam exceeds
750 mm, side face reinforcement @
0.1 percent of web area should be
provided on each face.
3. The nominal spacing of main bars in a
slab should not exceed three times the
effective depth of a solid slab or 300
mm, whichever is smaller.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
86. Which of the following should be
employed to provide lateral support to the
beams?
1. Bracing of compression flanges.
2. Shear connectors.
3. Bracing of tension flanges.
4. Embedding compression flanges into
R.C.C. slab.
given below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 4
87. Where should splices in the columns be
provided?
a. At the floor levels
b. At the mid height of columns
c. At the beam-column joints
d. At one-fourth height of columns
88. Which one of the following stresses is
independent of yield stress as a
permissible stress for steel members?
a. Axial tensile stress
b. Maximum shear stress
c. Bearing stress
d. Stress in slab base
89. Why are tie plates provided in laced
columns?
a. To check the buckling of column as
whole
b. To check the buckling of the lacing
flats
c. To check the buckling of the
component columns
d. To check the distortion of the end cross
sections
90. A steel rod of 16 mm diameter has been
used as a tie in a bracing system, but may
be subject to possible reversal of stress due
to the wind. What is the maximum
permitted length of the member?
13 of 16
a. 1600 mm
b. 1400 mm
c. 1200 mm
d. 1000 mm
respect of plate girders:
1. A large number of cover plates are
provided over flange angles so that
curtailed flanges match the bending
moment diagram exactly.
2. At least one cover plate should extend
over the entire span so that rain water
may not enter and corrode the
connections.
3. A minimum of one-third of flange area
should be provided in flange angles
and balance in flange cover plates for
stability.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
92. A beam of rectangular section having
simply supported span L, is subject to a
concentrated load at its mid-span. What is
the length of elasto-plastic zone of the
plastic hinge?
a.
3
L

b.
4
L

c.
5
L

d.
7
L

93. The plastic modulus of a section is 5 x 10
4

m
3
. Its shape factor is 1.2 and the plastic
moment capacity is 120 kNm. What Is the
value of the yield stress of the material?
a. 100 N/mm
2

b. 200 N/mm
2

c. 240 N/mm
2

d. 288 N/mm
2

94.

In the propped cantilever shown in the
figure given above, what are the values of
the bending moment and shear force at the
support A?
a. 2 Pa, P/3
b. Pa, P
c. Pa, P/3
d. 2 Pa, 4P/3
95. A, B, C, D and E are the 5 activities along
the unique critical path of a AOA network
of activities. Their characteristics are as
under:

What is the possible range of project
duration (in days)?
a. 31.2 to 54.8
b. 28.1 to 57.9
c. 25.5 to 60.5
d. 24.6 to 61.4
96. What Is the significant purpose of
monitoring a project through its
implementation phase?
a. To fix responsibility for delays
b. To rerail the project with control over
cost over-run
c. To rerail the project with minimum
time over-run
d. To rerail the project with optimal time
and cost overrun
97. A bulldozer operates on a 30 m stretch and
moves at 2.4 kmph when pushing the
earth, and returns empty at 6 kmph. The
time lost in loading and shifting gears per
trip is 18 seconds. Its operating factor is
nearly 50 mm/hour. What is the number of
trips made per hour?
a. 31
b. 33
c. 35
d. 37
98. Match List I (Reporting Feature) with List
II (Implication and/or Possibility) and
14 of 16
select the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists :
List I
A. PERT study
B. Time-cost study
C. Critical path identification
D. Linked bar chart
List II
1. Cost build up on project over time can
be depicted
2. Choice of technology can be
concurrent
3. Choice of technology is predetermined
4. May be affected by probabilistic
activity durations
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 3 4 2 1
d. l 2 4 3
99.

For an activity 201-207 in an AOA
network, the EEL values, LET values and
activity duration are shown in the figure
given above. Between free float
interference float and independent float,
which one of the following is the correct
sequence in the decreasing magnitude
order?
a. Free float Interference float
Independent float
b. Free float Independent float
Interference float
c. Interference float Free float
Independent float
d. Interference float Independent float
Free float
100.

Two activities A and B are to be done in
the given sequence. The variation of direct
cost (DC) with possible activity duration
(T) (in days) is indicated for each activity
above. What is the increase in total direct
cost between a combined duration of 16
days and 13 days?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
101. What type of vibrator is used for
concreting thin section as well as heavily
reinforced section?
a. Vibrating needle
b. Internal vibrator
c. Surface vibrator
d. Form vibrator
102. Which of the following advantages accrue
to the use of Articulate Dump Trucks
(AD1) over Rigid Dump Trucks (RDT) for
construction and earth moving work?
1. Higher manoeuverability.
2. Low turning radius.
3. Lower fleet costs.
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
103. Match List I with List U and select the
the Lists :
List 1 (Type of Rollers)
A. Pneumatic roller
B. Vibratory roller
C. Sheep foot roller
D. Grid and mesh roller
List II (Uses)
1. Granular and silty materials,
bituminous road works, etc.
2. Compaction of cohesive material like
clay
3. Compaction of non-cohesive soil
4. Compaction of gravel base
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
15 of 16
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 3 1 4
The Salient features of a bar chart over
network are that:
1. It is simple to draw and easy to
understand.
2. It is unable to depict interdependence
of activities.
3. It clearly distinguishes between critical
and noncritical activities.
4. It is not possible to crash activities to
get optimum and minimum duration of
the project.
above are correct?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
105. Match List I (Type of Equipment) with
List II (Purpose) and select the correct
Lists
List 1
A. Agitating Truck
B. Hoe
C. Derrick Pole
D. Sheep Foot roller
List II
1. Quarrying
2. Compacting
3. Hoisting
4. Transporting
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 4 1 3 2
d. 2 3 1 4
106.

What is the equivalent spring stiffness for
the system of springs shown in the figure
given above?
a. 43 kN/m
b. 50 kN/m
c. 58 kN/m
d. 64 kN/m
107.

The free end of a cantilever beam is
supported by the free end of another
cantilever beam using a roller as shown In
the figure given above. What is the
deflection at the roller support B?
a. 8 Pa
3
/(3 EI)
b. 9 Pa
3
/(EI)
c. 64 Pa
3
/(35 EI)
d. 216 Pa
3
/(35 EI)
correct?
Lug angles
a. are necessarily unequal angles
b. are always equal angles
c. increase the shear resistance of joint
d. reduce the length of joint
109. Purlins are provided, in industrial
buildings, over roof trusses to carry dead
loads, live loads and wind loads. As per IS
code, what are they assumed to be?
a. Simply supported
b. Cantilever
c. Continuous
d. Fixed
provision of sag rods:
1. Sag rods reduce span length of purlin
in the weak direction.
2. Sag rods are installed in the plane of
the roof.
3. Ridge purlin is subject to vertical
components of sag rods on either side
of slope.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
16 of 16
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
111. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should
not exceed:
a. 100
b. 200
c. 145
d. 180
Bearing stiffness, in plate girders, are:
1. Provided at supports.
2. Provided under concentrated loads.
3. Provided alternately on the web.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
113. The outstand of the flange of built-up
beams from the line of connection should
not extend beyond:
a. 10 T
b. 85 T
c.
256T
fy

d. 180 t
w

(where T is the thickness of flange and t
w

is the thickness of web)
114. Which one of the following is a
compression member?
a. Purlin
b. Boom
c. Girt
d. Tie
115. In a situation where torsion is dominant,
which one of the following Is the desirable
section?
a. Angle section
b. Channel section
c. I-section
d. Box type section
116. In a gusseted base, when the end of the
column is machined smooth for complete
bearing, the axial load is transferred to
base slab:
a. Fully through fastening
b. filly by direct bearing
c. 50% by direct bearing and 50%
through fastening
d. 60% by direct bearing and 40%
through fastening
117. Which steel member section among the
following combinations can carry
maximum load?
a. A pair of angles welded on opposite
sides of a gusset plate, but not tack
welded
b. A pair of angles welded on opposite
sides of a gusset plate, and tack welded
along its length
c. A pair of angles back to back on same
side of a gusset plate, and tack welded
d. A pair of angles on same side of a
gusset plate, but not tack welded
118.

Which one of the following is the most
critical rivet in the joint shown in the
figure given above?
a. No. 1
b. No. 2
c. No. 3
d. No. 4
119. What is the shape of Influence line
diagram for the maximum bending
moment in respect of a simply supported
beam?
a. Rectangular
b. Triangular
c. Parabolic
d. Circular
120. In a plastic analysis of structures, the
segment between any two successive
plastic hinges is assumed to deform as:
a. A plastic material
b. A rigid material
c. An elastic material
d. An inelastic material
1 of 16

(PAPERI I )

1. The load carrying capacity of an
individually friction pile is 200 kN. What
is the total load carrying capacity of a
group of 9 such piles with group efficiency
factor of 0.8?
a. 1800 kN
b. 1640 kN
c. 1440 kN
d. 900 kN
1. The standard penetration test is a
reliable method for measuring the
relative density of granular soils.
2. For a sand having the same relative
density, N-values remain the same at
all depths.
3. For a sand having the same relative
density, N-values are different at
different depths.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. only 3
d. 1 and 3
3. Which one of the following states of field
compaction of sand deposit truly
represents the corrected standard
penetration test value: N (corrected) =27?
a. Loose
b. Medium dense
c. Dense
d. Very dense
4. In case of footing on the surface or
shallow depth is very dense sand, which
one of the following types of failure is
likely to occur?
a. Punching shear failure
b. Local shear failure
c. General shear failure
d. Any of the above three
5. The bearing capacity factors N
c
, N
q
and
N
r
, are functions of:
a. Width and depth of footing
b. Density of soil
c. Cohesion of soil
d. Angle of internal friction of soil
6. Match List I (Type of Soil) with List II
(Suitable Foundation) and select the
the Lists :
List I
A. Strong soil in surface layer
B. Weak surface layer followed by rock at
shallow depth below ground
C. Swelling soil in surface layer
extending upto a few meters below
ground level
D. Weak heterogeneous surface soil layer
List II
1. Raft foundation
2. Isolated footings
3. End bearing pile
4. Under-reamed piles
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. l 3 4 2
d. 2 4 3 1
7. Match List I (Type of Exploration) with
List II (Soil Profile) and select the correct
Lists :
List I
A. Diamond core drilling
B. Uncased wash boring
C. Open pit excavation
D. Cased boring
List II
1. Medium strong cohesive soils
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2005
2 of 16
2. Rocky formation
3. Soft cohesive soils and cohesionless
soils. Exploration upto relatively larger
depths
4. Exploration upto a shallow depth
below ground level
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
1. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies
that the soil has compressed.
2. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies
that the soil has swelled.
3. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies
that the soil has swelled.
4. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies
that the soil has compressed.
above is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 3 and 4
d. 4 only
9. The wall friction of the retaining wall:
a. Decreases active earth pressure but
increases passive earth pressure
b. Decreases passive earth pressure but
increases active earth pressure
c. Decreases both active and passive
earth pressures
d. Increases both active and passive earth
pressures
10. Stresses obtained from Bousslnesqs
theory are considered reasonably
satisfactory Is foundation engineering
because:
a. They represent stress distribution is
inhomogeneous soil below loaded area
b. They account for anisotropy of soil
properly
c. They give due regard to plastic
behaviour of soils, particularly of
settlement analysis
d. They consider elastic soil medium, and
the intensity of allowable stresses
below foundations in most cases are
quit small and justify elastic solutions
1. Obtaining reliable properties of soil is
very important in geotechnical
engineering. Chunk samples obtained
from the field are the best for this
purpose.
2. Chunk samples may easily be obtained
at all depths below ground level and
for all types of soils.
3. Undisturbed soil samples are enclosed
in rugged containers. As such, they do
not get disturbed easily during
transportation and handling.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
12. Which one of the following Is the
appropriate triaxial test to assess the
immediate stability of an unloading
problem, such as an excavation of a clay
slope?
a. UU test
b. CU test
c. CD test
d. Unconsolidated drained test
13. Well-graded dense saturated sands have
high shear strength because:
a. Such sands have, a better grade
(superior type) of sand grains resulting
in higher strength
b. Such sands have lower water content,
which increases shear strength
c. Such sands have better interlocking of
grains, higher inter-particle contacts
and higher inter-particle frictional
resistance resulting in higher strength
d. Presence of water in such sands
induces capillary pressure generating
higher inter-granular stresses, which
generate apparent cohesion and hence
higher shear strength
3 of 16
14. A footing is resting on a fully saturated
clayey strata. For checking the initial
stability shear parameters are used from
which one of the following?
a. Consolidated non-drained test
b. Unconsolidated drained test
c. Unconsolidated non-drained test
d. Unconsolidated non-drained test with
pore pressure measurement
15. How high should a helicopter pilot rise at a
point. A just to see the horizon at point B,
if the distance AD is 40 1cm?
a. 101.75 m
b. 110.50 m
c. 107.75 m
d. 105.50 m
16. Which one of the following represents a
circumpolar star?
a. Upper culmination above horizon,
lower culmination below horizon
b. Both upper and lower culminations
below horizon
c. Both upper and lower culminations
above horizon
d. Altitude at upper culmination is
minimum
17. In an aerial plhotogrammetric survey, If
the exposure interval is 20 seconds to
cover ground distance of 1000 m between
exposures, what would be the ground
speed of the aircraft?
a. 90 km/hour
b. 120 kin/hour
c. 150 km/hour
d. 180 km/hour
18. Match List I (Phenomenon) with List II
(Method of Survey) and select the correct
Lists
List I
A. Crab and drift
B. Stadia intercept
C. Culmination and elongation
D. Baseline measurement
List II
1. Triangulation
2. Astronomical survey
3. Aerial photogrammetry
4. Tachometric survey
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4
19. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Declination : Horizontal angle between
magnetic meridian & true meridian
b. Bowditchs rule : Employed to adjust
closing error of a closed traverse
c. Deflection angle Measured in case of
open traverse instead of measuring
included angle
d. Reconnaissance : Employed for
detailed survey and precise survey
20. What is the volume of a 6 m deep tank
having rectangular shaped top 6 m x 4 m
and bottom 4 m x 2 m (computed through
the use of prismoidal formula)?
a. 96 m
3

b. 94 m
3

c. 92 m
3

d. 90 m
3

21. If two triangulation signals of 6.75 m
height each, are to be just visible over
ground mutually, what is the maximum
distance between their locations on the
ground surface?
a. 10 km
b. 20 km
c. 30km
d. 40km
22. What Is the actual ground area covered by
a 20 cm x 20 cm size vertical aerial
photograph, at an average scale of 1 cm =
200 m having 60% forward overlap and
30% side overlap?
a. 1.92 km
2

b. 4.48 km
2

c. 6.72 km
2

d. 2.88 km
2

23. Assertion (A) : A turn-out is a combination
of points and crossings, which enable a
4 of 16
branch line to take off from another main
line railway track.
Reason (R) : Turn-outs are in great use in
railway marshalling yards.
24. Assertion (A) : A small quantity of
ammonia is added to water before carrying
out disinfection using chlorine.
Reason (R) : Chloramines are persistent
disinfectants, which provide continued
protection against re-growth of
microorganisms in a water distribution
system.
25. Assertion (A) : Composting is the most
commonly used process for the
decomposition of the organic components
of municipal solid wastes.
Reason (R) : Bangalore method is a
common anaerobic method used for
biological conversion of organic
components of municipal solid wastes.
26. Assertion (A) : The bearing capacity of a
footing always gets affected by the
location of ground water table.
Reason (R) : Water is soil affects the shear
strength parameters as well as the unit
weight.
27. Assertion (A) : Basement walls and bridge
abutments are usually designed for earth
pressure at rest.
Reason (R) : These are usually not
restrained by the floor slab and by the deck
structure at their bases.
28. Assertion (A) : The clay core of an earth
dam is usually compacted on the wet side
of OMC.
Reason (R) : Compaction on the wet side
of OMC reduces permeability and prevents
cracking in core.
29. Assertion (A) : At the critical state of flow,
the specific force is a minimum for the
given discharge.
Reason (R) : For a minimum value of
specific force the first derivative of force
with respect to depth should be unity.
30. Assertion (A) : The earth pressure at rest is
greater than active pressure but less than
passive earth pressure.
Reason (R) : When the wall moves away
from backfill from the rest condition, the
mobilisation of the internal resistance of
soil occurs; on the other hand, if the wall
moves towards the fill, the shearing
resistance builds up.
5 of 16
31. Which type of light energy Is effectively
absorbed by CO
2
in the lower boundary of
the troposphere?
a. X-rays
b. UV-rays
c. Visible light
d. Infra-red rays
sound. Intensity expression with usual
notations?
a. dB =10 log
10
(I/I
0
)
2

b. dB =10 log
10
(I/I
0
)
c. dB =10 1og
10
(I I
0
)
2

d. dB =10 1og
10
(I I
0
)
33. What type of noise can be abated by
providing lining on walls and ceiling with
sound absorbing material?
a. Source noise
b. Reflection noise
c. Structural noise
d. Direct air-borne noise
34. In which type of lakes, does a perfect
ecological equilibrium among the
producers, decomposers and consumer
groups of organisms exist?
a. Senescent lakes
b. Mesotrophic lakes
c. Oligotrophic lakes
d. Eutrophic lakes
35. Match List I (Type of Impurity) with List
II (Effect) and select the correct answer
List I
A. Carbonates and bicarbonates of Ca and
Mg
B. Carbonates and bicarbonates of
Sodium
C. Sulphates and chlorides of Ca and Mg
D. Oxides of iron and manganese
List II
1. permanent hardness
2. Temporary hardness
3. Alkanity and softness
4. Colour and taste
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 3 1 4
A B C D
36. Match List I (Equation/Law) with List II
(Related Application) and select the
the Lists
List I
A. Chicks law
B. Darcy-Weisbach equation
C. Stokes equation
D. Carmen-Kozeny equation
List II
1. Discrete particle settling
2. Head loss in a pipe
3. Head loss in filters
4. Rate of bacterial kill
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 2 1 4
37. A flash mixer of 2.0 m
3
, with a velocity
gradient of mixing mechanism equal to
600/s, and fluid absolute viscosity of 1.0 x
10
3
Ns/m
2
is continuously operated. What
is the power input per unit volume?
a. 360 W
b. 720 W
c. 1440 W
d. 300 W
In water supply distribution network,
1. the grid-iron system requires more
length of pipe lines and larger number
of cut-off valves.
2. the design of the grid-iron system is
difficult but economical.
3. employing a grid-iron system, the dead
ends are completely eliminated.
6 of 16
4. employing a grid-iron system permits
more water to be diverted towards the
affected point from various directions.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. l, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
39. A municipal sewage has BOD
5
of 200
mg/l. It is proposed to treat it and dispose
off into a marine environment. For what
minimum efficiency should the sewage
treatment plant be designed?
a. 85%
b. 60%
c. 50%
d. 33.67%
40. Which one of the following types of
settling phenomenon can be analysed by
the classic sedimentation laws of Newton
and Stokes?
a. Discrete settling
b. Flocculent settling
c. Hindered settling
d. Compression settling
41. Match List I (Treatment Process) with
List II (Related Terms) and select the
the Lists
List I
A. Lagoons
B. Trickling filter
C. Oxidation ponds
D. Activated sludge process
List II
1. Attached growth system
2. Algae-bacteria symbiotic relationship
3. Extended aeration
4. Low cost treatment method
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
42. A summit curve is formed at the
intersection of a 3% upgrade and a 5%
downgrade. What is the length of the
summit curve in order to provide a
stopping distance of 128 m?
a. 271 m
b. 298 m
c. 322 m
d. 340 m
43. Match List I (Study) with List II (Purpose)
code given below the Lists:
List I
A. Primary road system
B. Economic studies
C. Engineering studies
D. Road use studies
List II
1. Population distribution
2. Expressways
3. Traffic volume
4. Topographic details
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
1. Mastic asphalt is a mixture of hard
grade bitumen or blown bitumen,
minerals filter and fine aggregates.
2. % of binder content in the mastic
asphalt is 17.20 percent by weight of
the aggregates.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
45. Match List I (Traffic Survey) with List II
(Method) and select the correct answer
List I
A. Spot speed
B. Traffic volume
7 of 16
C. O-D survey
D. Parking survey
List II
1. By video tape
2. By road side interview
3. By Doppler radar
4. By pneumatic tube
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4
46. Match List I (Unit) with List H (Purpose)
code given below the Lists :
List I
A. Clover leaf interchange
B. Traffic studies
C. Rotary island
D. Road junction approach sign
List II
1. Informatory sign
2. Traffic control device
3. Traffic flow characteristics
4. Grade-separation
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
expression for the versine(h) of a curve?
a.
2
h =
r
l

b.
2
h =
2r
l

c.
2
h =
8r
l

d.
2
h =
r
l

(Where l = length of rail on the curve
portion and r =radius of curvature)
48. A 6 hour storm has 6 cm of rainfall and the
resulting runoff was 3 cm. If =index
remains at the same value, which one of
the following is the runoff due to 12 cm of
rainfall In 9 hours in the catchment?
a. 4.5 cm
b. 6.0 cm
c. 7.5 cm
d. 9.0 cm
correct?
A forebay in a hydel system is provided at
the junction of:
a. the power channel and the tail race
channel
b. the tail race channel and the penstock
c. the penstock and the turbine
d. the power channel and the penstock
50. A catchment has an area of 150 hectares
and a run off/rainfall ratio of 0.40. If due
to 10 cm rainfall over the catchment, a
stream flow at the catchment outlet lasts
for 10 hours, what is the average stream
flow in the period?
a. 60,000 m
3
/hour
b. 100 m
3
/minute
c. 3.5 m
3
/s
d. 1.33 m
3
/s
51. The area between the two isohytes 45 cm
and 55 cm is 100 km
2
, and that between 55
cm and 65 cm is 150 km
2
. What is the
average depth of annual precipitation over
the basin of 250 km
2
?
a. 50 cm
b. 52 cm
c. 56 cm
d. 60 cm
52. Viewing watershed as a system, which one
of the following assumptions is made in
the unit graph theory?
a. Non-linearity
b. Both linearity and time, variance
c. Both time invariance and non-linearity
d. Both linearity and time invariance
53. Which one of the following flood routing
methods involves the concepts of wedge
and prism storages?
a. Coefficient method
b. Muskingum method
8 of 16
c. Puls method
d. Lag method
54. The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25
m. the material of the dam has a specific
gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as
an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What
is the approximate allowable height of the
dam?
a. 64 m
b. 40 m
c. 164 m
d. 80 m
55. Match List I (Relative Position of Canal
and Drainage Channel) with List II (Type
of Cross Drainage Work) and select the
the Lists :
List I
A. Canal taken above the drainage
channel at its grade
B. Drainage channel taken above the
canal at its bed slope
C. Canal taken below the drainage
channel
D. Drainage channel taken below the
canal
List II
1. Cansal siphon
2. Drainage siphon
3. Aqueduct
4. Super passage
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
56. A clay sample has a void ratio of 0.54 in
dry state. The specific gravity of soil solids
is 2.7. What is the shrinkage limit of the
soil?
a. 8.5%
b. 10.0%
c. 17.0%
d. 20.0%
57. Match List I (Equipment) with List II
List I
A. Sheep foot roller
B. Frog hammer
C. Vibratory roller
List II
1. To densify cohesionless soils to
relatively larger depths
2. To compact lumpy cohesive soil fills
3. 3. To compact soils at corners and
places which bigger rollers cannot
access
4. To compact cohesionless soils of
shallow depth
A B C
a. 4 1 2
b. 2 1 4
c. 4 3 2
d. 2 3 4
58. Match List I (Unit) with List 11 (Purpose)
code given below the Lists :
List I
A. Graded filter
B. Lime treatment
C. Impervious clay core
D. Curtain grouting
List II
1. To reduce seepage of water through
body of earth dam
2. To reduce water seepage through
foundation below dam
3. To stabilize black cotton soils
4. 4. To drain water without Losing fines
from the soil
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2
59. A soil deposit has three layers having same
thickness each but the permeabilities of the
layers are in the ratio of 1 :2:4 from top to
bottom. What is the ratio of average
permeability In the horizontal direction to
that in the vertical direction?
a. 7 : 2
9 of 16
b. 14 : 6
c. 28 : 24
d. 49 : 36
60. If the time required for 60% consolidation
of a remoulded soil sample of clay with
single drainage is t, then what Is the time
required to consolidate the same sample of
clay with the same degree of consolidation
but with double drainage?
a. 4t
b. 2t
c. t/2
d. t/4
61. If p is increment of pressure on a
normally consolidated saturated soil mass,
as per Terzaghis theory at the instant of
application of pressure increment i.e. when
time t = 0, what is the pore pressure
developed in the soil mass?
a. Zero
b. Very much less than p
c. Equal to p
d. Greater than p
62. Which one of the following is the best
method for locating sounding to estimate
the dredged material from the harbours?
a. Two angles from shore
b. Two angles from boat
c. One angle from shore and other from
the boat
d. Fixed intersecting ranges
63. Which one of the following gives the
number of gate position in an airport?
a.
Capacity of runway
2
average gate
occupancy time
b.
Capacity of apron
60 2
number of
aircraft movements
c.
Capacity of taxiway
60 2
average gate
occupancy time
d.
Capacity of holding apron
2
average
gate occupancy time
64. Match List I (Unit) with List II (Purpose)
List I
A. Width and length of safety area of
airport
B. Engine failure case
C. Location of exit taxiways
D. Grading of airport size
List II
1. Basic runway length
2. Runway geometric design
3. Airport drainage
4. Runway capacity
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
65. Which of the following are requirements
for the design of a transition curve for a
highway system?
1. Rate of change of grade
2. Rate of change of radial acceleration
3. Rate of change of super elevation
4. Rate of change of curvature
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 1 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
66. California Bearing Ratio (CBR) is a:
a. Measure of soil strength
b. Method of soil identification
c. Measure to indicate the relative
strengths of paving materials
d. Measure of shear strength under lateral
confinement
67. Which of the following factors have to be
considered for the design of the flexible
pavement for a highway?
1. Design wheel load
2. Strength of pavement component
material
3. Expansion joints
10 of 16
4. Climatic factors
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
68. What is the curve resistance for a 50
tonnes train on a BG track on a 4
0
curve?
a. 0.05 tonne
b. 0.06 tonne
c. 0.08 tonne
d. 0.01 tonne
69. Why are moorings provided?
a. For anchoring of ships
b. For towing the ships to the sea
c. For repair of ships
d. For washing of ships and ship boards
70. What is the use of a station pointer?
a. For making soundings in water bodies
b. For plotting of soundings in harbour
area
c. For marking sunken shipping hazards
d. For making tidal observations
1. Dock is a marine structure for mooring
up vessels, loading and unloading of
passengers and/or cargo.
2. Dry dock is generally used only for
carrying out repairs, inspections and
painting.
3. Wet dock is an enclosed or partially
enclosed basin provided with locks and
entrance gate to keep the water level at
a fairly constant level.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3
72. The percentage of time in a year during
which the cross wind component remains
within the limit, is:
a. Wind coverage
b. Head wind
c. Prevailing wind
d. Cross wind
73. At a certain station, the mean of the
average temperature is 25 C and mean of
the maximum daily temperature is 40 C.
What is the airport reference temperature
(ART).?
a. 46.6 C
b. 45 C
c. 35C
d. 30C
respect to tunnelling methods:
1. Full face excavation is suitable for
small size tunnel of short length in
competent rock. It is not suitable in
urban areas.
2. Heading and benching method is
suitable for soft rock tunnelling of
medium size.
3. Drift method is suitable for large
tunnels in difficult or incompetent
rock.
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 2
75. The velocity distribution for flow over a
plate is given by u =0.5 y y
2
where u is
the velocity in m/s at a distance y meter
above the plate. If the dynamic viscosity of
the fluid is 0.9 Ns/m
2
, then what is the
shear stress at 0.20 m from the boundary?
a. 0.9 N/m
2

b. 1.8 N/m
2

c. 2.25 N/m
2

d. 0.09 N/m
2

the Lists :
List I
A. Equation of motion along a streamline
B. Eulers equation
C. Pressure exerted by a free jet
D. Rotating lawn Sprinkler
11 of 16
List II
1. Principle of moment of momentum
2. Bernoullis equation
3. Equation for conservation of
momentum
4. Momentum equation
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
77. The pressure gradient In the direction of
flow is equal to the:
a. Shear gradient parallel to the direction
of flow
b. Shear gradient normal to the direction
of flow
c. Velocity gradient parallel to the
direction of flow
d. Velocity gradient normal to the
direction of flow
not correct?
a. Models are always smaller than the
prototypes.
b. Dynamic similarity between a model
and a prototype can be verified by
equating Reynolds number in a
viscous flow.
c. Mach number achieves significance
when the velocity of fluid approaches
or exceeds the sonic velocity.
d. Distorted models are always
exaggerated on a vertical scale.
correct?
The function of an air vessel in a
reciprocating pump is to obtain:
a. reduction of suction head
b. rise in delivery head
c. continuous supply of water at uniform
rate
d. increase in supply of water
80. Match List I (Type of Curve) with List II
(Flow Condition) and select the correct
Lists :
List I
A. M1
B. H3
C. S2
D. A2
List II
1. Slope upward in the direction of flow
2. Back water profile
3. Hydraulic jump occurs
4. Hydraulic drop occurs
A B C D
a. l 3 4 2
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 2 3 4 1
81. A high efficiency pump is required for low
discharge, high head and low maintenance
cost. Delivery of water need not be
continuous. The pump need not run at high
speed. Which one of the following is the
correct choice?
a. Centrifugal pump
b. Reciprocating pump
c. Air lift pump
d. Hydraulic ram
the Lists
List I
A. Storage
B. Pondage
C. Pondage factor
D. Daily load factor
List II
1. Small storage
2. Ratio of total inflow to the total
number of days power plant operates
in a week
3. Large reservoirs
4. (Average plant load) x (Peak load)
5. Ratio of average load to peak load
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 5
b. 5 1 2 4
c. 3 1 2 5
12 of 16
d. 5 2 1 4
83. Match List I (Factor) with List II (Ratio)
List I
A. Load factor
B. Capacity factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor
List II
1. Sum of individual maximum demands
Simultaneous maximum demand
2. Maximum demand Station capacity
3. Average load Maximum load
4. Energy produced Installed capacity
time in hours
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 3 2 1 4
84. For which one of the following purposes is
the double mass curve used?
a. Checking on the consistency of
precipitation records
b. Prediction of annual precipitation
c. Defining which periods of storm
should be analyzed to obtain the
maximum useful information from
storm rainfall records
d. For estimating the capacity of a
reservoir
85. For a given storm, other factors remaining
same:
a. Basins with large drainage densities
give smaller flood peaks.
b. Low drainage density basins give
shorter time bases of hydrographs.
c. The flood peak is independent of the
drainage density
d. Basins having low drainage density
give smaller peaks in flood
hydrographs.
86. The discharge per unit drawdown at the
well is known as:
a. Specific yield
b. Specific storage
c. Specific retention
d. Specific capacity
87. The channel section can be designed on
the basis of Laceys Theory The steps are
mentioned below:
1. Finding out the perimeter
2. Finding out the velocity
3. Calculation of the silt factor
4. Finding out the area
What is the correct sequence of the steps?
a. 4231
b. 3142
c. 4132
d. 3241
88. In Laceys regime theory the velocity of
flow is proportional to:
a. Qf
2

b. Q/f
2

c. (Qf
2
)
1/6

d. (Q/f
2
)
1/6

89. Which of the following are the purposes of
a groyne as a river training structure?
1. It contracts a river channel to improve
its depth.
2. It protects the river bank.
3. It does not allow silt to deposit in the
vicinity.
4. It trains the flow along a certain
course.
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
90. Denehys groyne is a special type of
groyne which is:
a. Pointing upstream
b. Pointing downstream
c. Hockcy type
d. T-headed
91. In a laminar boundary layer, the velocity
distribution can be assumed to be given, in
usual notations, as
u y
v

13 of 16
expression for the displacement thickness
* for this boundary layer?
a. * =
b. * =/2
c. * =/4
d. * =/6
92. For Froude number of a hydraulic jump is
5.5. The jump can be classified as a/an:
a. Undular jump
b. Oscillating jump
c. Weak jump
d. Steady jump
93. Match List I (Treatment Process) with List
II (Removed Matter) and select the correct
Lists:
List I
A. Plain Sedimentation
B. Chemical Precipitation
C. Slow Sand Filtration
D. Aeration
List II
1. Dissolved gases
2. Dissolved solids
3. Suspended solids with specific gravity
more than 1.0
4. Floating solids
5. Bacterial cells
A B C D
a. 5 1 4 2
b. 3 2 5 1
c. 5 2 4 1
d. 3 1 5 2
94. A sample of ground water at a pH of 7.0
contains 122 mg/l of bicarbonates. What is
the alkalinity of this water (in terms of
CaCO
3
)?
a. 120 mg/l
b. 60 mg/l
c. 100 mg/l
d. 200 mg/l
95. Match List I (Type of Pile) with List II
(Situation for Use) and select the correct
Lists:
List I
A. End bearing pile
B. Pedestal pile
C. Friction pile
D. Sand piles
List II
1. When weak foundation soil is to be
compacted
2. When foundation soil is granular
3. When foundation soil is relatively
weak
4. When hard formation or rock is at a
shallow depth
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 2 3 4
96. While driving a large number of piles in
loose sand:
a. It is advantageous to follow a sequence
of pile driving such that the inner piles
are driven first and then proceed
outwards
b. It is advantageous to follow a sequence
of pile driving such that the piles near
the periphery are driven first and inner
piles are driven later
c. It is advantageous to follow a sequence
of pile driving such that alternately
inner and outer piles are driven
d. Driving of piles can be done in any
random order
97. In a plate load test, how is the ultimate
load estimated from the load settlement
curve on a log-log graph?
a. Directly
b. By drawing tangents to the curve at the
initial and final points
c. By the secant method
d. At 0.2 percent of the maximum
settlement
98. The laboratory tests on a sample yielded
the following results:
Plasticity index: 32%,
Liquidity index : 0.15,
Activity number: 1.58.
14 of 16
Which of the following inferences can be
drawn?
1. The soil is very stiff.
2. The soil is medium soft.
3. The soil is highly plastic.
4. The soil is medium plastic.
5. The soil is active.
given below:
a. 1, 3 and 5
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 5
d. 1, 2 and 4
99. In which one of the following zones is a
logarithmic spiral shape of failure surface
assumed in the case of bearing capacity
analysis of C- soils?
a. Active zone
b. Passive zone
c. Radial Shear zone
d. Surcharge zone
100. Westergaards formula for vertical stress
gives greater value of stress than that by
the Boussinesqs formula, when r/z
exceeds:
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3.5
d. 4.0
101. In a shear test on cohesionless soils, if the
Initial void ratio is less than the critical
void ratio, the sample will:
a. Increase in volume
b. Initially increase in volume and then
remain constant
c. Decrease in volume
d. Initially decrease and then increase in
volume
102. As the state of strain of an element of
dense sand changes from plain strain to
trivial strain condition, the effective angle
of internal friction:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. First increases and then remains
constant
103.

The void-pressure diagram is shown
above. What is the coefficient of
compressibility?
a. 0.5 m
2
/t
b. 0.73 m
2
/t
c. 0.20 m
2
/t
d. 0.25 m
2
/t
104. Match List I (Term) with List H
(Definition) and select the correct answer
(where e is void ratio, p is effective
vertical stress, k is permeability and
w
is
unit weight of water):
List I
A. Compression index, C
B. Coefficient of volume change, m
C. Coefficient of compressibility, a,
D. Coefficient of consolidation, C,
List II
1. Slope of the e-p curve defined as
e/p
2. Slope of e-log p curve given by
{e/(log p)}
3. Term defined as k/(m
v
w
)
4. Slope of the c-p curve defined as
e/p
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
105. A clay layer 3 m deep is sandwiched by a
pervious material. The soil reaches 90%
consolidation in 3 years. At another site,
the same clay layer is bounded by
impervious boundary at the bottom and
sand at the top. What is the time taken by
this layer to reach 90% settlement?
a. 9 years
15 of 16
b. 12 years
c. 15 years
d. 21 years
106. Which of the following factors are
associated with the behaviour of sand mass
during earthquake to cause liquefaction?
1. Number of stress cycles
2. The frequency and amplitude of
vibration of waves generated by an
earthquake
3. Characteristics of sand
4. Relative density
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
107. Which one of the following different types
of submerged soils is susceptible to
liquefaction under earthquake shocks?
a. Dense sand
b. Soft clay
c. Loose silt
d. Fissured clay
correctly matched?
Plume Behaviour Atmospheric Condition
a. Looping : Stable
b. Fumigation : Inversion above and lapse
below the stack
c. Fanning : Inversion
d. Trapping : Inversion above and below
the stack with lapse in between
109. Which is the major pollutant present in
photochemical smog?
a. PAN
b. SO
2

c. HC
d. NO
2

In solid waste management:
1. Density separation of solid wastes can
be accomplished by air classifiers.
2. Iron recovery from solid wastes can be
done by magnetic separators.
3. Aluminium separation from solid
wastes can be accomplished by eddy
current separators.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
not correct?
a. Settling and sludge digestion occurs in
septic tanks in one compartment
b. Settling and sludge digestion occurs in
imhoff tank in different compartments
c. Septic tank is a low-rate anaerobic unit
whereas an imhoff tank is a high rate
anaerobic unit
d. The rate of sludge accumulation in
septic tank is approximately 40-70
liters/capita/year
1. Infiltration galleries are placed along
the river beds at a depth of 4 to 6 m.
2. The draw-down for the infiltration
galleries is more than that for radial
wells.
3. Clogging of pipe pores in infiltration
galleries is less than that for radial
wells.
4. The cost of extracting unit volume of
water is more in case of infiltration
galleries as compared to radial wells.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 4 only
113. Among the following, which is/are not
pre-treatment unit(s)?
a. Bar screen and grit chamber
b. Flow equalization and proportioning
tank
c. Neutralization for pH adjustment tank
d. Nutrient removal tank
16 of 16
regard to aerobic and anaerobic treatment
processes:
1. Biomass production in the aerobic
treatment process is more as compared
to the anaerobic treatment process.
2. Start-up period is more in the aerobic
treatment process as compared to the
anaerobic treatment process.
3. Energy consumption and production is
more in the aerobic treatment process
as compared to the anaerobic treatment
process.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. only 2
d. only 1
115. What is 5 days 20C BOD equal to?
a. 3 days 27 C BOD
b. 4 days 30 C BOD
c. 6 days 32 C BOD
d. 7 days 35 C BOD
116. Match List I (Parameter) with List II
[General Standard for Discharge into the
Inland Surface Water in mg/l (max] and
given below the Lists:
List I
A. BOD(5 day20 C)
B. COD
C. Oil and grease
D. Suspended solids
List II
1. 250
2. 100
3. 20
4. 10
5. 30
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 5
b. 5 4 3 2
c. 2 4 3 5
d. 5 1 4 2
117. When the recirculation ratio in a high rate
trickling filter is unity, then what is the
value of the recirculation factor?
a. 1
b. >1
c. <1
d. Zero
118. Presence of nitrogen in a waste water
sample is due to the decomposition of:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Fats
d. Vitamins
119. According to the theory of filtration in
water treatment, which of the following
mechanisms come into play when water is
filtered through a filter bed?
1. Mechanical straining
2. Capillary action
3. Centrifugal force
4. Electro kinetic phenomenon
5. Osmotic force
6. Bacteriological action
given below:
a. 1, 2, 4 and 6
b. 2, 3 and 5
c. 3, 4, 5 and 6
d. 1, 3, 4 and 6
120. Which of the following are associated with
alum coagulation?
1. A decrease of alkalinity in treated
water
2. Formation of hydroxide flocs of
aluminium
3. A slight decrease of pH in treated
water
4. An increase of permanent hardness
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
1 of 18

(PAPERI )

1. The timber preservative creosote
belongs to the group of
a. Water soluble salts
b. Organic solvent type
c. Tar oil type
d. Inorganic solvent type
2. The strength of timber is maximum in a
direction
a. Parallel to the grains
b. Perpendicular to the grains
c. 45
0
to the grains
d. 30
0
to the grains
3. When a I
st
class brick is immersed in cold
water for 24 hours, it should 1101 absorb
water by weight more than
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 30%
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the
the Lists:
List - I (Species)
A. Babul
B. Ben teak
C. Bijsal
D. Mulbury
List-Il (Uses)
1. Tennis rackets (sports goods)
2. Boats
3. Agricultural tools
4. Furniture
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 1 4 2
5. The temperature at which the bricks are
burnt in kiln vanes from
a. 500 to 8000 C
b. 800 to 10000 C
c. 1000 to 1200 C
d. 1200 to 1500 C
the Lists :
List-I (Job Requirement)
A. High early strength
B. Lining for canals
C. Frost and acid resistance
D. Marine Structure
List-II (Type of Cement Binder)
1. Pozzolanic cement
2. Rapid hardening
3. Sulphate resisting
4. High Alumina
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 2 4 3 1
7. As per specifications, the initial setting
time of ordinary Portland cement should
not be less than
a. 10 minutes
b. 20 minutes
c. 30 minutes 60 minutes
8. In cements, generally the increase in
strength during a period of 14 days to 28
days is primarily due to
a. C
3
A
b. C
2
S
c. C
3
S
d. C
4
AF
9. What is the approximate ratio of the
strength of cement concrete at 7 days to
that at 28 days curing ?
a. 0.40
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006
2 of 18
b. 0.65
c. 0.90
d. 1.15
10. Which one of the following properties of
cement concrete is ascertained by
conducting compaction factor test ?
a. Bulk density
b. Compressive strength
c. Modulus of rupture
d. Workability
11. As per IS 4562000, which one of the
following correctly expresses the modulus
of elasticity of concrete ? (read with the
relevant units)
a. E
e
=0.7
ck
f
b. E
e
=500
ck
f
c. E
c
=5000
ck
f
d. E
c
=5700
ck
f
12. The mix design for pavement concrete is
based on
a. The flexural strength
b. The characteristic compressive
strength
c. The shear strength
d. The bond strength
13. If G is the modulus of rigidity, E the
modulus of elasticity and the Poissons
ratio for a material, then what is the
expression for G?
a.
3
2(1 2 )
E
G
=
+

b.
5
(1 )
E
G
=
+

c.
2(1 )
E
G
=
+

d.
(1 2 )
E
G
=
+

14. A thin cylinder of thickness t, width b
and internal radius r is subjected to a
pressure p on the entire internal surface.
What is the change in radius of the
cylinder ? ( is the Poissions ratio and E
is the modulus of elasticity)
a.
2
(2 ) p r
Et

b.
2
(2 ) pr
Et

c.
2
(2 )
2
pr
Et

d.
2
(1 ) p
Et

15. A bar of 40 mm diameter and 400 mm
length is subjected to an axial load of l00
kN. It elongates by 0.150 mm and the
diameter decreases by 0.005 mm. What is
the Poissions ratio of the material of the
bar ?
a. 0.25
b. 0.28
c. 0.33
d. 0.37
16.

The Mohrs circle given above corresponds to
which one of the following stress conditions
a.
b.
c.
d.
3 of 18
17. Match List I with List II and select
the correct answer (o =direct stress, t =
shear stress, M
x
=Bending moment, E =
Modulus of elasticity, G = Modulus of
rigidity, I =Area moment of inertia, V
Volume)
ListI (Strain Energy)
A.
2
2
v
E
o

B.
2
2
v
G
t

C.
2
4
v
G
t

D.
2
0
2
L
M dx
EI
}

List II (Gradually Applied Load)
1. Axial load
2. Bending Load
3. Shear load
4. Torsional load
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. l 4 3 2
c. 2 4 3 1
d. l 3 4 2
18. If the maximum principal stress for an
element under biaxial stress situation is
100 MPa (tensile) and the maximum shear
stress is also 100 MPa, then what is the
other principal stress?
a. 200 MPa (tensile)
b. 200 MPa (compressive)
c. 100 MPa (compressive)
d. 0
19. A thin cylindrical tube closed at ends is
subjected to internal pressure. A torque is
also applied to the tube. The torque is also
applied to the tube. The principal stresses
p
1
and p
2
developed are 80.0 units and
20.0 units respectively. If the yield stress is
240 units, then what is the factor of safety
according to Maximum shear stress
theory?
a. 3.00
b. 4.00
c. 5.00
d. 6.00
20. If p
1
and p
2
are the principal stresses at a
point in a strained material with Youngs
modulus E and Poissons ratio 1/rn, then
what is the principal strain ?
a.
1 2
p p
mE
+

b.
1 2
p p
mE

c.
1 2
p p
E mE

d.
1 2
p p
E mE
+
21. In a two-dimensional stress system, the
two principal stresses are p
1
=180 N/mm
2

(Tensile), and p
2
which is compressive.
For the material, yield stress in simple
tension and compression is 240 N/mm
2

and Poissons ratio is 0.25. According to
maximum normal strain theory, for what
values of p
2
, shall yielding commence?
a. 240 N/mm
2

b. 180 N/mm
2

c. 195 N/mm
2

d. 200 N/mm
2

22.

A simply supported beam AB has span L
as shown in the figure above, Point C is
the midspan of the beam. It is subjected
to u.d.l. w/unit length, in the portion A to
C. Which of the following are the SFD and
BMD for the beam ?
a.
b.
c.
4 of 18
d.
23.

A beam of square cross section is placed
horizontally with one diagonal horizontal
as shown in the figure above. It is
subjected to a vertical shear force acting
along the depth of the cross section.
Maximum shear stress across the depth of
cross section occurs at a depth x from the
top. What is the value of x?
a. x =0
b. x =(2/3) D
c. x(3/4)D
d. D
24.

indicates the shear stress distribution for
the beam as shown in the figure above?
a.
b.
c.
d.
25.

For the circular shaft AB, as shown in the
figure above, a torque T is applied at the
section XX at C, such that b/a =1.5. The
shaft is uniform in section. What is the
ratio of T
A
/T
B
?
a. 3
b. 1.5
c. 0.67
d. 0.5
26. The failure surface of a standard cast iron
torsion specimen, subjected to a torque is
along
a. the surface helicoidal at 450 to the axis
of the specimen
b. the curved surface at the grips
c. the plane surface perpendicular to the
axis of the specimen
d. the curved surface perpendicular to the
axis of the specimen
27.

A horizontal beam shown in the figure
given above is subjected to transverse
loading. Which one of the following
diagrams represents the distribution of
shear force along the crosssection ?
a.

b.

5 of 18
c.
d.
28.

What is the force in number AB of the
pinjointed frame as shown above ?
a. P (Tension)
b. P (Compression)
c. P / 2 (Compression)
d. Zero
29.

corresponds to the influence line diagram
for moment at A of the beam shown above
in the figure?

a.

b.
c.
d.
30.
BMD for the loaded uniform sized beam
as shown in the figure given above?
a.
b.
c.
d.
1. Even though a threehinged parabolic
arch is subjected only to vertical loads,
it generates horizontal reactions and
axial forces.
2. A cable uniformly loaded along the
horizontal span assumes the shape of a
parabola, whereas a cable uniformly
loaded along its length takes the shape
of a catenary.
3. Cables loaded uniformly along the
horizontal span are by far the types
most commonly used structures in
practice.
correct ?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
the Lists :
List-I (Loading Condition)
A. Cantilever with concentrated load W at
end
B. Cantilever with udi (w/unit length)
across the complete span (W =wl)
C. Simply supported beam with
concentrated load W at the centre
D. Simply supported beam with udl
(w/unit length) across complete span
(W=wl)
6 of 18
List-II Maximum Slope)
1. W1
2
/16 El
2. W1
2
/24 El
3. W1
2
/2 El
4. W1
2
/6 El
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. l 4 3 2
d. 3 2 1 4
33.

A cantilever truss carries a concentrated
load P as shown in the figure above. What
are the magnitudes of axial forces in the
members I, II and III, respectively?
a. 1.00P, 1.33P & 1.67P
b. l.67P, l.33P& l.00P
c. 1.33 P, 0.75 P & 1.60 P
d. 0.60 P. 0.75 P & 1.0 P
34.

Which one of the following is the bending
moment diagram for the vertical cantilever
beam loaded as shown in the figure above?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine
the deflection in
1. an arch.
2. a truss.
3. a rigid frame.
correct ?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Only 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
36. A propped cantilever AB, with fixed edge
A is propped at B and carries uniformly
distributed load over the entire span. If the
prop heaves up (displaces upward), which
one among the following is true if prop
reaction =R
B
, Moment at A =M
A
?
a. Both R
B
and M
A
will increase
b. R
B
will increase, M
A
will decrease
c. R
B
will decrease, M
A
will increase
d. Both R
B
and M
A
will decrease
37.

For the fixed beam as shown in the figure
above, what is the fixed end moment at A
for the given loading?
a.
2
2
2
cos
Wab
L
u
b.
2
2
2
cos
Wa b
L
u
c.
2
2
cos
Wab
L
u
7 of 18
d.
2
2
2
cos
Wa b
L
u
38.

What is the ratio of magnitudes of
moments in the member BC at the ends B
and C in the figure given above?
a. 1 : 1
b. 3 : 1
c. 3 : 4
d. 1 : 3
39.

For the frame as shown in the figure
above, the final end moment MDC has
been calculated as 40 kNm. What is the
end moment MCD?
a. +40 kNm
b. 40 kNm
c. +30 kNm
d. 30 kNm
40.

What is the degree of static indeterminacy
of the plane structure as shown in the
figure above ?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
Hardy Cross method of moment
distribution can be applied to analyse
1. Continuous beams including non
prismatic structures.
2. continuous beams with prismatic
elements.
3. structures with intermediate hinges.
4. rigid frames.
correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Only 1, 2 and 3
c. Only 1, 2 and 4
d. Only 3 and 4
42.

What is the carryover factor from A to
B while using moment distribution for
analysing beam as shown in the figure
given above ?
a. 1/2
b. 1.0
c. <1/2
d. >1/2
43.

The rigid plane frame ABCD has to be
analysed by slope deflection method. What
is the number of unknown displacements /
rotations for the frame as shown in the
figure given above ?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 5
d. 2
regarding the analysis of indeterminate
structures
1. The force method consists in applying
displacement compatibility conditions
at the nodes.
8 of 18
2. The stiffness method consists in
formulating equilibrium equations at
the nodes.
correct ?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
45.

What is the stiffness matrix for a prismatic
cantilever with coordinates as shown in
figure ?
a.
2
2 3
0 0
4 6
0
6 12
0
AE
L
EI EI
L L
EI EI
L L
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(

b.
2
2 3
0 0
4 6
0
6 12
0
AE
L
EI EI
L L
EI EI
L L
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(

c.
2
4
0
0 0 0
6 4
0
AE EI
L L
EI EI
L L
(
(
(
(
(
(

d.
2
2
3 3
4 6
6
0 0
6 12
0
AE AE EI
L L L
EI
L
EI EI
L L
(
(
(
(
(
(
(
(

46.

The beams in the two storey frame shown
in the figure above have a cross section
such that the flexural rigidity may be
considered infinite. Which among the
following is the stiffness matrix for the
structure in respect of the global
coordinates 1 and 2?
a.
3
1 1
24
1 2
EI
(
(

b.
3
1 1
24
1 1
EI
(
(

c.
3
2 1
24
1 2
EI
(
(

d.
3
1 1
24
1 1
EI (
(

47. What is the total strain energy of a
member subject to an axial stress f (E =
Youngs modulus)
a. (f
2
/2E) volume of bar
b. (f/E) volume of bar
c. (f
2
/E) volume of bar
d. (f/2E) volume of bar

48.

Considering only flexural deformations,
which is the stiffness matrix for the plane
frame shown in the figure given above?
a.
4 3
3 4
EI
(
(

b.
3 1
1 3
EI
(
(

c.
2 1
1 2
EI
(
(

9 of 18
d.
1 1
1 1
EI
(
(

1. MullerBresiaus principle is
applicable only to indeterminate
structures
2. MullerBreslaus principle is
applicable only to determinate
structures
3. MullerBreslaus principle is
applicable to both determinate and
indeterminate structure
4. For a two span Continuous beam ABC,
the influence line diagrams is/are
(i)

(ii)
correct ?
a. 1 and 4(ii)
b. 3 and 4(i)
c. 2 and 4(i)
d. 3and4(ii)
50.

A load 500 kN applied at point A, as
shown in the figure above, produces a
vertical deflection at P and C of the beam
as A
b
= 10 mm and A
b
= 15 mm
respectively. What is the deflection at A
when loads of 100 kN and 300 kN are
applied at B and C. respectively?
a. 6mm
b. 8mm
c. 11mm
d. 12.5 mm
51.

Three wires of steel 1, 2 and 3, each
having area A support load W. What is
the ratio between collapse load and the
load corresponding to yielding of, on of
the wires?
a. 3 : l
b. 3 : 2
c. 3 : 3
52. Match List I with ListII and se1ect the
the Lists :
List I
(Loaded prismatic beam of uniform M
p
)
A.
B.
C.
D.
List II(Plastic Load)
1. 4 Mp/L
2. 16 Mp/L
3. 6 Mp/L
4. 8 Mp/L
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. l 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. l 3 4 2
53. A beam of square crosssection of side x
is composed of material whose yield stress
in compression is 1.5 times the yield stress
in the tension. What is the distance of the
neutral axis from the centre for the fully
plastic condition?
a. 0.1 x
b. 0.15 x
c. 0.2 x
d. 0.25 x
54. Which one of the following is not correct?
10 of 18
a. The shape factor for any section is
equal to Mp/My
b. For a thinweb wideflange beam,
shape factor is close to unity
c. For a circular section, shape factor is
nearly 1.7
d. Shape factor for an Isection
sometimes may be more than that for a
rectangular section
55. What is the ratio of the shape factors for
beam crosssections having rectangular,
circular and triangular shapes and of same
area?
a. 1.00 : 0.73 : 0.64
b. 1.00 : 0.88 : 1.38
c. 1.00 : 1.13 : 1.56
d. 1.00 : 1.56 : 1.13
56.

A plate girder of depth d bears a
concentrated load P through a distribution
plate of width 0.5 d as shown in the figure.
If the maximum allowable critical
buckling stress is calculated as f, what is
the value of P ? Web plate thickness =t
a. 0.5 dt f
b. 1.0 dtf
c. 1.5 dt f
d. 2.0 dt f
57. A bolt is subjected to shear force V and
tension T. The capacity of the bolt in
resisting shear and tension respectively are
V
0
and T
0
. Which one of the following
diagrams represents interaction relations?
a.
b.
c.
d.
58.

Which one of the bolts in a web splices of
a plate girder as shown in the figure is
stressed maximum?
a. Bolt 1
b. Bolt 2
c. Bolt- 3
d. Bolt4
59.

A bracket has been attached to flange of a
column as shown in the figure. What is the
maximum force in the bolt ?
a. P/4
b. P/2
c. P
d. 2P
60. An equal angle of area A has been
attached to the support by means of a lug
angular. If allowable stress in tension is f,
what is the load carrying capacity of the
member ?
a. 0.5 fA
b. 0.85 fA
c. 0.9 fA
d. 1.0 fA
11 of 18
61. What is the maximum slenderness ratio
permitted as per IS 800-1984 of design of
a tie member subjected to reversal of stress
due to earthquake ?
a. 180
b. 250
c. 300
d. 350
62. A welded plate girder has web plate 1500
6 mm. which one of the following is
correct about stiffening the web ?
a. The web is left unstiffened
b. The web is provide with vertical
stiffeners only
c. The web is provided with vertical
stiffeners and a horizontal stiffener at
0.4 from the top flange
d. The web is provided with vertical
stiffener and two rows of horizontal
stiffeners, on e at 0.4 d form the top
flange and another at the mid height of
the web.
63.

An industrial portal frame shown has weak
floor beams. What is the effective length
of column ?
a. 3 m
b. 4 m
c. 6 m
d. 8 m
64. Which one of the following section sis the
most efficient for a simply supported
gantry girder ?
a. I-section with equal flanges
b. I-section with a channel attached to the
top flange
c. I-section with a wide bottom flange
d. I-section with a heavy plate connected
to the bottom flange
65. A laterally unsupported compression
flange of beam has been strengthened by
channel, angle and plates as shown. Areas
of all the members added are equal. Which
one of the following options will yield
higher allowable stress ?
a.
b.
c.
d.
66. Conventional practice is to brace end
panels of the side walls of an industrial
building. Instead bracing can be provided
in the bays near centre of the building.
Which one of he following reasons is
correct ?
a. Wind pressure at the mid length is
higher compared to ends
b. Trusses are erected starting from the
ends of the building
c. Fixing the bracings to end gables is
convenient
d. Free change of length between centre
and the ends of the building is possible
in mid-span bracing.
67. What is the maximum permissible
slenderness ratio of a major compression
number with undergoes reversal of stress
due to wing load ?
a. 180
b. 250
c. 300
d. 400
68. Which one among the following is the
correct ratio of effective length to actual
length of a discontinuous angle strut, if
ends are welded ?
a. 0.65
b. 0.85
c. 1.0
12 of 18
d. 1.2
69. A fixed beam of length l has been loaded
with central concentrated load. The beam
has been strengthened at the supports with
cover plates so that the flexural resisting
yield moment capacity at the ends is thrice
of that at the centre. If this capacity is to be
fully effective resulting in higher collapse
load, to what length from the ends should
the cover plate extend?
a. l/3
b. l /4
c. l /6
d. l /8
70. In the case of a tension member consisting
of two angles back to back on the same
side of gusset plate, what is k equal to?
(Area of connected leg = A
1
, Area of
outstanding leg =A
2
)
a.
1
1 2
3
3
A
A A +

b.
1
1 2
3
3
A
A A +

c.
1
1 2
5
5
A
A A +

d.
1
1 2
5
5
A
A A +

maximum shear capacity of a prismatic
beam under plasting design of steel
structures ?
a. 0.5 A
w
F
y

b. 0.55 A
w
F
y

c. 0.75 A
w
F
y

d. A
w
F
y

(where A
w
and F
y
,, are web area and yield
stress, respectively)
72. Characteristic strength of M20 concrete is
20 MPa. What the number of cubes having
28 dayss compressive strength greater
than 20 MPa out of 100 cubes made with
the concrete?
a. All
b. 95
c. 80
d. 50
73. The distance between theoretical cutoff
point and actual cutout point in respect
of the curtailment of reignforcement of
reignforced concrete beams should not be
less than
a. Development length
b. 12 dia of bar or effective depth
whichever is greater
c. 24 dia of bar or effective depth
d. 30 dia of bar or effective depth
74. The maximum strain in the tension
reinforcement in the section at failure
when designed for the limit state of
collapse should be
a. 0.002
1.15
y
s
f
E
| |
> +
|
\ .

b. 0.002
1.15
y
s
f
E
| |
< +
|
\ .

c. exactly equal to 0.002
1.15
y
s
f
E
| |
+
|
\ .

d. <0.002
Where, f
y
= Characteristic strength of
steel,
and E
s
=Modulus of elasticity of steel
75. The final & reflection due to all including
effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage
measured from ascast level of the
supports of floors, roofs and all other
horizontal members of reinforced concrete
should not normally exceed
a. Span / 350
b. Span / 250
c. (Span I 350) or 20 mm whichever is
less
d. (5/348) of span
76. Shear strength of concrete in a reinforced
concrete beam is a function of which of
the following:
1. Compressive strength of concrete
2. Percentage of shear reinforcement
3. Percentage of longitudinal
reinforcement in tension in the section
4. Percentage total longitudinal
reinforcement in the section
13 of 18
given below
a. l, 2 and 4
b. l, 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 3
d. Only 1 and 4
77. An axially loaded column is of 300 x 300
mm size. Effective length of column is 3
m. What is the minimum eccentricity of
the axial load for the column?
a. 0
b. 10mm
c. 16 mm
d. 20 mm
78. A rectangular reinforced column (B x D)
has been subjected to uniaxial bending
moment M and axial load P. Characteristic
strength of concrete = f
ck
. Which one
amone the following column design curves
shows the relation between M and P
qualitatively?
a.
b.
c.
d.
79. In the case of isolate square concrete
footing, match the locations at which the
stress resultants are to be checked where d
is effective depth of footing and select the
the lists
Stress Resultant
A. Bending moment
B. One way shear
C. Punching shear
Location
1. At face of columns
2. At d/2 from face of column
3. At d from face of column
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 3 1 2
c. 1 1 3
d. 1 2 3
80. A beam is designed for uniformly
distributed loads causing compression in
the supporting columns. Where is the
critical section for shear? (d is effective
depth of beam the L
d
is development
length)
a. A distance L
d
/3 from the face of the
support
b. A distance d from the face of the.
support
c. At the centre of the support
d. At the mid span of the beam
81. As per codal provisions in two way slabs,
the minimum mild steel reinforcement to
be provided in the edge strip is
a. On the basis of minimum bending
moment
b. Half of the area of steel provided in
middle strip in the shorter span
c. Half of the area of steel provided m
middle strip in the longer span
d. 0.15 % of the crosssectional area of
concrete.
82. An R.C. structural member rectangular in,
cross section of width b and depth D is
subjected to a combined action of 1bendin;
moment M and torsional moment T. The
longitudinal reinforcement ha1l be
designed for moment Me given by
a.
(1 / )
1.7
T D b
Me M
+
= +
b.
(1 / )
1.7
T b D
Me M

= +
c.
(1 / )
1.7
T D b
Me

=
14 of 18
d.
(1 / )
1.7
T b D
Me

=
83. A Tbeam roof section has the following
particular :
Thickness of slab =100mm
Width of rib =300mm
Depth of beam =500mm
Centre to centre distance of beams
=3.0 m
Effective span of beams =6.0
Distance between points of contra-flexure
=3.6 m
What is the effective flange width of the
Tbeam ?
a. 3000 mm
b. 1900 mm
c. 1600 mm
d. 1500 mm
84. At Tbeam behaves as a rectangular
beam of width equal to its flange if its
neutral, axis
a. coincides with centroid of
reinforcement
b. coincides with centroid of Tsection
c. remains within the flange
d. remains in the web
85. The profile of the centroid of the tendon is
parabolic with a central dip h. Effective
prestressing force is. P and the span .
What is the equivalent upward acting
uniform load?
a. 8h /P
b. 8hP/
2

c. 8h
2
/P
d. 8b
2
P/
86. What is the uplift at centre on release of
wires from anchors due to pretensioning
only for force P and eccentricity e for a
pretensioned rectangular plank ?
a. PeL
2
/6EI
b. Pe
2
L/6EI
c. PeL
2
/8EI
d. Pe
2
/8EI
87. An ordinary mild steel bar has been
prestressed to a working stress of 200
MPa. Youngs modulus of steel is 200
GPa. Permanent negative strain due to
shrinkage and creep is 0.0008. How much
is the effective stress left in steel ?
a. 184 MPa
b. 160 MPa
c. 40 MPa
d. 16 MPa
statement?
Prestressing anchorage units using
multiple wire cables exist in the
a. Freyssinet system
b. LeeMcCall system
c. GiffordUdall system
d. Hoyer system
the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists :
List - I (Post Tensioning System)
A. Freyssinet
B. GiffordUdall
C. LeeMcCall
D. MagnelBlaton
List-II
(Arrangement of Tendons in the Duct)
1. Single bars
2. Wires evenly spaced by perforated
spacers
3. Horizontal rows of four wires spaced
by metal grills
4. Wires spaced by helical wire core in
annular spacer
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 3 1 2 4
90. A prestressed concrete beam of cross
sectional area A, moment of inertia I,
distance of top extreme fibre from neutral
axis y
t
, and distance of bottom extreme
fibre from neutral axis Y
b
; is subjected to
prestressing force such that stress at top
fibre is zero. What is the value of
eccentricity (r is radius of gyration):
a. A/y
b

b. r
2
/y
b

c. r
2
/y
t

15 of 18
d. ry
b
/y
t

91. Concordant cable profile is
a. A cable profile that produces no
support reactions due to pre-stressing
b. A cable profile which is parabolic in
nature
c. A cable profile which produces no
bending moment at the supports of a
beam
d. A cable profile laid corresponding to
axial stress diagram
92. For a prestressed concrete continuous
beam subject to different load
combinations, which one of the following
is correct for concordant cable profile?
a. It is not unique, but located in a narrow
zone
b. It is unique
c. It is selected as compromise between
secondary stresses and working
stresses
d. It is selected based on deflection
profile
93. A masonry wall has height h, length L
and thickness t. The allowable stress
based on slenderness is calculated on the
basis of
a. h/t only
b. L/t only
c. Lesser of L/t and h/t
d. Greater of L/t and h/t
94. The net effect of vertical and lateral forces
acting on a masonry wall can be expressed
as vertical load p/unit length acting at an
effective eccentricity e. If e > (t/6),
tension develops in the wall. Ignoring in
the part of thickness t in tension, what is
the compressive stress in extreme fibre?
a. p/{(t/2)e}
b. [2p/3 {(t/2)e}]
c. [p/3 {(t/2)e}]
d. [p/6 {(t/2)e}]
95. Which one of the following is not a factor
affecting strength of a brick masonry wall?
a. Size and location of door in a wall
b. Positioning of cross walls
c. Type of roof the wall bears and its
connection
d. Type of plastering on the wall
A mixer designated 400 NT indicates that
1. it is non-tilting type mixer
2. its nominal mix batch capacity is 400
litres
3. it requires 300 revolutions for proper
mixing of the batch using one bag of
cement
which of the statements given above are
correct ?
97. Transportation of concrete-mix by pumps
is very convenient method, particularly in
case of
a. Housing complex
b. Cement concrete pavement
c. Low rise buildings
d. Tunnellining
98. What is the correct sequence of operations
involved in concrete production?
a. BatchingMixingHandling
Transportation
b. MixingBatchingHandling
Transportation
c. TransportationHandlingMixing
Batching
d. HandlingTransportationMixing
Batching
99. Match ListI with ListII and select the
the Lists :
List-I(Type of work)
A. To dig trenches, footings or basement
where the precise control of depth is
required
B. To handle loose materials such as sand,
gravel, coal, etc.
C. To excavate all classes of earth except
the rock & load it into the trucks
D. To excavate the earth from a canal an
to be deposited on nearby banks
ListII(Type of Machine)
1. Clam shells
2. Power shovel
3. Back hoe
4. Scraper
5. Drag line
A B C D
16 of 18
a. 3 5 2 1
b. 2 1 4 5
c. 3 1 2 5
d. 2 5 4 1
100. Which of the following are the advantages
of crawler mounted bulldozer over wheel
mounted bulldozers ?
1. Higher travel speed
2. Able to travel over very soft soil
3. Able to travel over very rough surfaces
having no haul roads
given below :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 1 and 3
d. Only 2 and 3
associated with critical path :
1. Critical path is the most important
sequence of activities which has no
float and which determines the project
completion period
2. Critical path is the largest path with
shortest duration withing which the
project can be completed
3. The difference between early start time
and late finish time must be equal to
the activity duration
Which of the statements given above arc
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 1 and 3
d. Only 2 and 3
102. Consider the following tasks:
1. Placing of reinforcement (P) for roof
slab cannot start before bending of
reinforcement (B) and erection of
flame work (E).
2. As soon as placing of reinforcement is
finished, concreting (C) will follow.
The correct activity on arrow diagram
representing for the above tasks is
a.
b.
c.
d.
103. Consider the following activities of a
housing project
1. Flooring
2. Wallplastering
3. Conceal wiring
4. Fixing doorswindow frames
5. Fixing doorwindow shutters
What is the correct logical sequence of the
above activities?
a. 43251
b. 31542
c. 14523
d. 12345
104. Activities A and B can be started
independently. Activity C follows activity
A, and activity D follows activities B and
C. Activity E follows activity B and
precedes activity F. The activities D and F
merge at the objective event. Which one of
the following is the correct network of the
project?
a.
b.
c.
d.
105. If a is the optimistictime, b is the
pessimistic time, and m is most likely
time of activity, then what is the expected
time of activity ?
17 of 18
a.
3
a m b + +

b.
2
5
a m b + +

c.
4
6
a m b + +

d.
3
6
a m b + +

106.

A small project, consists of seven activities
in the activityonnode diagram as
shown in the figure above. The duration of
these activities, in days and the
predecessor relationships are shown. What
is the total project duration of the project?
a. 39 days
b. 35 days
c. 34 days
d. 41 days
107. What is the process of incorporating
changes and rescheduling or preplanning
called?
a. Resource allocation
b. Resource smoothing
c. Resource 1evelling
d. Updating
108.

The activity duration (days) and resource
requirements (units) are shown in the
figure above. What is the maximum
resource required in a day?
a. 14 units
b. 11 units
c. 19 units
d. 18 units
109. A cantilever is to be attached to column.
Which one among the following is the best
connection.?
a. Framed connection
b. Seated connection
c. Stiffened seated connection
d. End plate connection
110. Assertion (A) : The strength of brick
masonry s purely dependent upon the type
of mortar used.
Reason (R) : Mortar is the binding material
in masonry.
111. Assertion (A) : Low heat Portland cement
is used in dam construction.
Reason (R) : Low heat Portland cement
attains higher 28 days strength than
ordinary Portland cements.
112. Assertion (A) : Rebound hammer (Schmidt
hammer) test gives only approximate
estimation of strength of the concrete
specimen.
Reason (R) : The test represents the
hardness of the surface and provides no
idea of the concrete inside.
113. Assertion (A) : In working stress method
of design, the values of strain in cement
concrete and steel at any point are same.
18 of 18
Reason (R) : There is a perfect bond
between steel and surrounding cement
concrete.
114. Assertion (A) : For a ductile material the
maximum shear distortion theory is most
suitable.
Reason (R) : The maximum shear
distortion theory of failure assumes that
yielding can occur in a general three
dimensional state of stress.
115. Assertion (A) : In limit state design, over-
reinforced sections are not permitted.
Reason (R) : As the Concrete failure is
brittle, the structure fails suddenly without
any warning.
116. Assertion (A) : The working stress method
of R.C.C. design of beams is also known
as modular ratio method.
Reason (R) : The ratio of stress in steel and
concrete is the same as that of elastic
modulii of steel and concrete in beam.
117. Assertion (A) : For low discharges at high
heads, reciprocating pumps are not
suitable.
Reason (R) : In a reciprocating pump, the
liquid is pushed out of the cylinder by
actual displacement of a piston or a
plunger.
118. Assertion (A) : Deflection of a beam with
bolted connections is greater than that of a
beam with riveted connections.
Reason (R) : Bolted connections allow
greater slip between components than
riveted connections.
119. Assertion (A) : Angle of inclination of
lacing bars in a built- up column is
constrained as 70
0
> >40, where is
angle of lacing with vertical.
Reason (R) : When this limit is not
maintained, the total length of the bar will
be large.
120. Assertion (A) : Smooth wheeled rollers are
preferred for compacting granular soils but
not cohesive soils.
Reason (R) : Cohesive soils tend to form a
crust over the rolling smooth surface.
1 of 16

(PAPERI I )

1.

Which one of the following expresses the
difference in the pressure at the floors of
the tank shown above in the figure?
a. (
2
1
)gH
2

b. (
2
1
)gH
1

c. p
1
gH
1
+p
3
gH
2
p
2
gH
2

d. p
1
gH
1
+p
3
g(H
2
H
1
)p
2
gH
2

Where
1
,
2
and
3
are the densities of
the different fluids.
2. A flat plate of 0.l5m
2
is pulled at 20 cm/s
relative to another plate, fixed at a distance
of 0.02 cn from it with a fluid having =
00014 Ns/m separating them. What is the
power required to maintain the motion ?
a. 0.0l4 W
b. 0.021 W
c. 0.035 W
d. 0.042 W
3. Multi U-tube manometers with different
fluids are used to measure
a. Low pressures
b. Medium pressures
c. High pressures
d. Very low pressures
4. A pilot-static tube, with a coefficient of
098 is used to measure the velocity of
water in a pipe. The stagnation pressure
recorded is 3 m and the static pressure is
0.5 m. What is the velocity of flow ?
a. 7.2 m/s
b. 6.8 m/s
c. 5.9 m/s
d. 5.2 m/s
5. Which one of the following assumptions in
deriving the boundary layer equation of
flow past a flat plate at zero incidence is
not correct ?
a. Uniform flow =0
b. Outside boundary layer velocity is v
0

throughout
c. The boundary layer thickness is very
small compared to distance x
d. Pressure remains constant throughout
the flow both within and outside the
boundary layer
6. Which one of the following gives the lift
force F
L
produced on a rotating circular
cylinder per unit length in a uniform flow?
a. F
L
=u I/
b. F
L
=uI
c. F
L
=uI/
d. F
L
=u/I
Where u =free stream velocity ;
I =Circulation
=density of the fluid
7. Drag force on a cylinder for turbulent flow
compared to Laminar flow is
a. Same
b. More
c. Less
d. Very high
correct answer :
ListI
A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Mach number
D. Weber number
List-II
1. Formation of liquid droplet
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006
2 of 16
2. High speed flow of a gas
3. Flow in closed conduits
4. Sloping interface exists between fluids
of different densities
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 2 4 3 1
9. Match ListI with List II and select the
correct answer :
List-I
A. Froude number
B. Euler number
C. Reynolds number
D. Mach number
List-II
1. Related to inertia force & elastic force
2. Related to inertia force to viscous force
3. Related to inertia force to pressure
force
4. Related to inertia force to gravity force
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
respect of specific energy of flow in an
open channel of fixed width :
1. There is only one specific energy curve
for a given channel.
2. Alternate depth are the depths of flow
at which the specific energy is the
same.
3. Critical flow occurs when the specific
energy is minimum.
correct ?
a. Only 1 and 2
b. Only 1 and 3
c. Only 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
11. If the Froude number of flow in a
rectangular channel at a depth of flow of
y
0
is F
0
, then what is y/y
0
equal to ?
a.
1/3
0
F
b.
2/3
0
F
c.
3/2
0
F
d.
0
1
F

12. A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal
section of open channel flow carries water
at the optimal depth of 0.6 m. Chezy
coefficient is 75 and bed slope is 1 m 250.
What is the discharge through the channel?
a. 1.44 m
3
/s
b. 1.62 m
3
/s
c. 1.92 m
3
/s
d. 2.24 m
3
/s
13. In the step methods (both direct and
standard), the computations must
a. Proceed downstrem in subcritical flow
b. Proceed upstream in subcritical flow
c. Always proceed upstream
d. Always start at a control section
14. Which of the following equations are used
for the derivation of the differential
equation for water surface profile in open
channel flow?
1. Continuity Equation
2. Energy Equation
3. Momentum Equation
given below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 3
c. Only I and 2
d. Only 2 and 3
15. In a wide rectangular channel if the normal
depth is increased by 20%, then what is the
approximate increase in discharge ?
a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 35%
d. 40%
3 of 16
not correct ?
a. Water hammer is a phenomenon which
occurs due to oscillation of water
column away from the valve
b. Rigid water column theory specifies
that water is incompressible and pipe
material does not expand
c. Water hammer occurs under unsteady
conditions of flow
d. Rigid water column theory is used less
in practice as it does not reflect field
situation
not correct ?
a. Solution of pipe network by Hardy
Cross method is a trial and error
solution
b. At a junction of pipes, total inflow is
equal to the total outflow
c. Loss of head due to flow in a
clockwise direction should be equal to
loss of head in a counter clockwise
direction
d. Hardy Cross method can be extended
to open channel flow also
18.

Water flows into junction J from reservoirs
A and B through connecting pipes, the
head loss through these being, respectively
10.
2
A
Q and 4.
2
B
Q . The water level
elevations at the reservoirs at A and B are
25.9 m and 18 m, respectively. The inflow
at J is discharged out at C into the
atmosphere. The head loss through pipe J C
is 1.
2
C
Q . The gauge pressure at J is 9 m.
What is the residual gauge pressure of the
outflow at C?
a. 2.56 m
b. 1.86 m
c. 1.16 m
d. 0.46 m
19. Which one of the following inferences is
not drawn by studying performances
curves of centrifugal pumps ?
a. Discharge increases with speed
b. Power decreases with speed
c. Head increases with speed
d. Manometric head decreases with
discharge
20. The centrifugal pump should be installed
above the water level in the sump such that
a. Its height is not more than 10.3 m at
room temperature of liquid
b. Its height is not allowed to exceed 6.7
m
c. The negative pressure does not reach
as low as the vapour pressure
d. The negative pressure is not allowed to
develop in the impeller
correct?
a. Pumps operating in series boost the
discharge whereas pumps operating in
parallel boost the head
b. Pumps operating in parallel boost the
discharge whereas pumps operating in
series boost the head
c. In both the above cases there would be
a boost in discharge only
d. In both the above cases there would be
a boost in head only
not correct ?
a. Draft tubes decrease efficiency of a
turbine
b. Wheels of a reaction turbine must
always run full
c. When the load on a reaction turbine is
decreased, the system reduces quantity
of flow of water in an immersed flow
reaction turbine and reduces the power
produced.
d. Pelton wheels are impulse turbine
the correct answer
List I
A. Pelton
B. Kaplan
4 of 16
C. Banki
D. Francis
ListIl
1. Draft tube is used
2. Draft tube is not used
3. Operates under high head & low
discharge
4. Operates under low head & high
discharge
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 3 1 2 4
not correct ?
a. Storage and pondage can be obtained
from flow duration curve
b. Primary or form power corresponds to
maximum stream flow condition
c. Secondary power is occasionally called
surplus power
d. Often, flash boards are put on dams to
augment the pondage at low flow
durations
25. In the selection of turbine by specific
speed or head, which one of the following
statements is not correct ?
a. For specific speed 1035, Kaplan
turbines
b. For specific speed 60300, Francis
turbines
c. For head 501 50 m. Francis turbines
d. For head above 300 m, Pelton wheel
26. Recorded annual maximum 24hour
rainfall magnitudes at stations KTX are as
under :
Year 1960 1961 1962 1963 1964 1965 1966 1967 1968 1969
Rainfall,
12.0 6.0 4.8 7.9 12.0 14.2 13.6 6.0 3.7 2.9
cm

What is the return period, in years, for a
6.0 cm annual rainfall according to (i)
Hazen formula; and (ii) Weibull formula
respectively ?
a. 10/7, 11/7
b. 20/13, 22/13
c. 5/3, 11/7
d. 20/11, 11/6
27. Which one of the following is not a major
type of storm precipitation?
a. Frontal storm
b. Air mass storm
c. Orographic storm
d. Continental storm
28.

A DRH due to a storm over a basin has a
time base of 90 hours with straight line
portions of the hydrograph with flow rates
of 0, 10, 70, 90, 40 and 0 m
3
/s at elapsed
durations of 0, 10, 20, 30, 50 and 90 hours
as indicated on the above diagram,
respectively. The catchment area is 300
km 2 What is the rainfall excess in the
storm ?
a. 2.83 cm
b. 3.46 cm
c. 3.87 cm
d. 4.02 cm
29. Double mass curves are used
a. to check on the consistency of
precipitation records
b. as basis for storm rainfall analysis
c. to determine average rainfall over an
area
d. to indicate rainfall distribution
30. Penmans equation is based on
a. Energy budgeting only
b. Energy budgeting and water budgeting
c. Energy budgeting and mass transfer
d. Water budgeting and mass transfer
31. The time of concentration at the outlet in
an urban area catchment of 1.5 km
2
area
with a run off coefficient of 0.42 is 28
minutes. The maximum depth of rainfall
with a 50 year return period for this time
of concentration is 48 mm. What is the
peak flow rate at the outlet for this return
period ?
5 of 16
a. 12 m
3
/s
b. 14 m
3
/s
c. 16 m
3
/s
d. 18 m
3
/s
below the Lists :
ListI (Technique/Principle)
A. Index
B. Slopearea method
C. Flow duration curve
D. Dilution technique
ListII (Purpose)
1. Dependable flow
2. Reservoir regulation
3. Steady stream discharge determination
4. Runoff volume
5. Unsteady stream discharge
determination
A B C D
a. 3 5 1 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 5 1 3
33. In the case of large rivers, a number of
equidistant vertical sections of the total
width of flow are indentified, for the
purpose of finding by umerical integration,
the total discharge on any day. On each
section, the mean velocity is taken as the
arithmetic average of two typical depths
on that Section. Then the mean velocity is
worked out for, that section.
Usually, the mean velocity on any section,
corresponds to which one of the
following?
a.
0.1 0.9
2
d d
V V +

b.
0.2 0.8
2
d d
V V +

c.
0.3 0.7
2
d d
V V +

d.
0.4 0.6
2
d d
V V +

(V represents the point velocity at the
given section and the depth such as 0.ld,
0.2d etc.)
below the Lists :
ListI
A. Location
B. Stability
C. Variation of discharge
D. Plan form
ListII
1. Perennial
2. Degrading
3. Tidal
4. Braided
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 2 1 4
35. The basic equation of flood routing
through a reservoir can be modified for
discrete successive intervals At by which
one of the following ?
a.
1 2 1 2
1 2
2 2 2
l l Q t Q t
t S S
+ A A ( ( (
A + + = +
( ( (

b.
1 2 1 2
1 2
2 2 2
l l Q t Q t
t S S
+ A A ( ( (
A + = +
( ( (

c.
1 2 1 2
1 2
2 2 2
l l Q t Q t
t S S
+ A A ( ( (
A + + =
( ( (

d.
1 2 1 2
1 2
2 2 2
l l Q t Q t
t S S
+ A A ( ( (
A + =
( ( (

36. By using Gumbels method, the flood
discharge with a return period of 500 years
at a particular township neighborhood was
estimated as 18000 m
3
/s with a probable
error of 2000 m
3
/s. What are the 95%
confidence probability limits of the 500-
year flood at the location ?
a. 16100 m
3
/s to 19900 m
3
/s
b. 17050 m
3
/s to 18950 m
3
/s
c. 14080 m
3
/s to 21920 m
3
/s
d. 13600 m
3
/s to 22400 m
3
/s
6 of 16
37. Which type of fall can be generally used
for a moderate discharge of 4060
cumecs and low fall heights of I to 1.5 m?
a. Vertical drop fall
b. Ogee fall
c. Glacis fall
d. Baffle fall
38. If the sensitivity of an irrigation module is
0.5, then what per cent variation in outlet
discharge will be caused by 50 percent
variation in canal water depth ?
a. 100%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 12.5%
39. A 252 km
2
catchment area has a 6 hr U.II.
which is a triangle with time base of 35
hours. What is the peak discharge of the
DRI-I due to 5 cm effective rainfall in 6
hours from that catchment ?
a. 45 cumecs
b. 115 cumecs
c. 200 cumecs
d. 256 cumecs
40. In a river carrying a discharge of 142 m
31s, the stage at a station A was 3.6 m and
the water surface slope was 1 in 6000. If
during a flood, the stage at A was 3.6 m
and the water surface slope was 1 in 3000,
what was the flood discharge
(approximately)?
a. 284 m
3
/s
b. 200 m
3
/s
c. 164 m
d. 96 m
41. The moisture tension for a soil is 8
atmospheres. The soil is then at
a. Permanent wilting point
b. Field capacity
c. Optimum moisture content
d. Equivalent moisture
42. Consider the following terms relating to
irrigation requirements:
1. Consumptive irrigation requirement
2. Net irrigation requirement
3. Field irrigation requirement
4. Gross irrigation requirement
For a given set up, which one of the
following is the correct relation?
a. 1>2>3>4
b. 1<2<3<4
c. (1=2)<3<4
d. l<(2=3)<4
43. A drainage coefficient
a. Decides the choice of the method of
the drainage
b. Decides the kind of crop that can be
grown on the land
c. Is the depth of water that can be
removed from the drainage area in unit
time
d. Is the flow of water from the soil into
the tile laterals per unit time
the correct answer (s = bed slope, q =
discharge intensity, Q =Discharge) :
List I
A. Mean velocity in a Lacey regime
channel
B. Mean velocity in a lined channel
C. Normal scour depth in an alluvial
channel
D. Wilted perimeter of a Lacey regime
channel
List II
1. s
1/2

2. s
1/3

3. q
2/3

4. q
1/3

5. Q
1/2

A B C D
a. 2 5 3 1
b. 3 1 4 5
c. 2 1 3 5
d. 3 5 4 1
45. What type of cross drainage work is
provided when the canal runs below the
drain, with FS L of canal well below the
bed of the drain?
a. Aqueduct
b. Super passage
7 of 16
c. Level crossing
d. Siphon acueduct
46. What is the equivalent calcium carbonate
concentration of 110 mg/l of CaCl
2
?
a. 50 mg/l
b. 58.5 mg/l
c. 100 mg/l
d. 117 mg/i
47. Which of the following cations impart(s)
pseudohardness to water?
a. Calcium only
b. Magnesium only
c. Calcium and magnesium
d. Sodium
48. Which one of the following is th range of
ozonosphere in atmosphere ?
a. Troposphere to Stratosphere
b. Tropospause to Stratospause
c. Tropospause to Mesosphere
d. Stratosphere to Mesosphere -
below the Lists :
ListI (Equipment)
A. Tintometer
B. Nephelometer
C. Imhoff cone
D. Muffle furnace
ListII (Parameter)
1. Temperature
2. Colour
3. Turbidity
4. Settleable solids
5. Volatile solids
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 5
b. 2 5 4 3
c. 4 5 1 3
d. 2 3 4 5
correctly matched ?
a. Corioilis : The effect of earths rotation
on wind effect direction and velocity
b. PAN : Found during photochemical
smog
c. Cyclone : Employed for particulate
matter removal
d. Wind rose : Employed in forecast of
pollutant dispersion in ambient air
51. A standard multipletube fermentation
test was conducted on a sample of water.
The results of the analysis for the
confirmed test are given below :
Sample
Size
(ml)
No. of positive
results out of 5
tubes
No. of negative
results out of 5
tubes
10
1
0.1
0.01
4
2
1
0
1
3
4
5

MPN Index for combination of positive results
when 5 tubes used per dilutions (10 m, 1.0ml,
0.1 ml)
Combination
of positives
MPN
Index
per
100 ml
Combination
of positives
MPN
Index
per 100
ml
543 280 421 26
431 33 210 7
Using the above MPN Index table, what is
the most probable number (MPN) of the
sample ?
a. 280
b. 33
c. 26
d. 70
52. Chlorides from water are removed by
a. Lime soda process
b. Reverse osmosis
c. Cation exchange process
d. Chemical coagulation
53. Chlorination with Cl
2
produces
hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which may
further dissociate as hypochiorite ion
(OCI
) depending upon pH of the water.

The reaction is represented as
HOCI H +OC1
(k =2.5 x 10
8
moles/I
at 20C).
8 of 16
What is the fraction of HOCI in the water
at pH 7.0 ?
a. 0.95
b. 0.80
c. 0.20
d. 0.05
54. In which treatment unit is Schmutz
decke formed?
a. Sedimentation tank
b. Rapid sand filter
c. Coagulation tank
d. Slow sand filter
55. Which one of the following chemicals is
employed for decholrination of water?
a. Sodium solphite
b. Sodium bicarbonate
c. Calcium carbonate
d. Hydrogen peroxide
sequence of slow sand filter (SSF), rapid
sand filter (RSF), dual media filter (DMF)
and mixed media filter (MMF) in the
decreasing order of their filtration rates ?
a. MMF DMF>RSF>SSF
b. DMF>RSF>SSF >MMF
c. RSF>SSF >MMF DMF
d. SSF>MMF DMF>RSF
57. After which of the following water
treatment units, the turbidity is maximum ?
a. Chlorination
b. Primary sedimentation
c. Flocculation basin
d. Secondary sedimentation
58. In context of water polluted, with sewage,
what does BOD signify ?
a. Biological oxygen demand
b. Bacteriological oxygen demand
c. Biochemical oxygen demand
d. Biology of degradation
59. What is the most common cause of acidity
in water ?
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide
60. If total hardness & alkalinity of a water
sample are 200 mg/l as CaCO
3
and 260
mg/l as CaCO
3
respectively, what are the
values of carbonate hardness and non-
carboness hardness?
a. 200 mg/l and zero
b. Zero and 60 mg/l
c. Zero and 200 mg/l
d. 60 mg/l and zero
below the Lists:
List I (Process/Bacteria)
A. Anabolism
B. Autotrophs
C. Catabolism
D. Heterotrophs
List II (Energy/Material)
1. Providing energy for the synthesis of
new cells and maintenance of other
cell functions
2. Obtaining energy and material for
growth from organic sources
3. Providing the material necessary for
cell growth
4. Obtaining energy and material for
growth from inorganic sources
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 4 1 2
62. Consider the following clay minerals
1. Kaolinite
2. Illite
3. Montmorillonite
sequence of the minerals given above in
the increasing order of their grain size?
a. 321
b. 132
c. 123
d. 312
9 of 16
1. Mica is a clay mineral
2. Rock dust particles, even of clay size
are nonplastic
3. A particle of Kaolinite is electrically
charged
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
64. Which one of the following relation gives
the value of degree of saturation s, in terms
of unit weight , water content w (as ratio)
and specific gravity of soil solids G
s
,
w
is
unit weight of water?
a. s =
( )( ) / 1 1/
w s
w
w G +

b. s =
( )( ) / 1 1/
w s
w
w G + +

c. s =
( )( ) / 1 1/
w s
w
w G + +

d. s =
( )( ) / 1 1/
w s
w
w G +

below the Lists :
ListI
A. Smooth wheel rollers
B. Sheep foot rollers
C. Pneumatic tyred rollers
D. Rammers
List-II
1. Most suitable for compacting cohesive
soils
2. Most suited for compacting coarse
grained soils
3. Used for compacting soils in confined
places
4. Suitable for both cohesionless &
cohesive soils
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
below the Lists :
List - I (Type of Soil)
A. Wet clays and silts
B. Crushed rock
C. Fills soils
D. Sands
List-II (Compaction Equipment)
1. Smooth wheel rollers
2. Vibrators
3. Pneumatic tyred rollers
4. Grid rollers
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 4 1 3 2
d. 3 2 4 1
67. A soil mass under seepage has a
downward flow of water. Which of the
following statements are correct with
regard to stresses at any point in the soil
mass ?
1. Effective stress is decreased by an
amount equal to the seepage force
2. Effective stress is increased by an
amount equal to the seepage force
3. Total stress will change
4. Total stress will be unaltered
given below
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
68. In a consolidation test void ratio decreased
from 0.80 to 0.70 when the load was
changed front 40 kN/m
2
to 80 kN/m 2
What is the compression index ?
a. 0.14
b. 0.16
c. 0.33
d. 0.66
10 of 16
69. In a consolidation test the sample tested
has height H; water content is w; specific
gravity of solids G. After increasing the
loading by an increment Ap, the height
decrease is AH Which one of the following
expresses the corresponding change in
void ratio Ae?
a. Ae =
( ) 1
H
H wG
A
+

b. Ae =
( ) 1 H wG
H
A +

c. Ae =
( ) 1 H wG
H
+
A

d. Ae =
( ) 1
H
H wG A +

1. A sand with its void ratio higher than
its critical void ratio increases in
volume when sheared.
2. A sand with its void ratio less than its
critical void ratio increases in volume
when sheared.
3. For a sand at critical void ratio, the
volume change during shear is
minimum.
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
the shearing resistance as a function of
effective stress
1. Effective stress on the failure plane
governs the shearing resistance and not
the total stress.
2. Two soils equally dense, consolidated
to same effective stress will show
different shear resistance with drainage
and undrained condition.
3. The post peak drop off in shearing
resistance is less pronounced in over
consolidated clays and more in
normally consolidated clays at same
effective stress.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 3
c. Only 1 and 2
d. Only 2 and 3
1. Stress path is a locus of stress points
developed by stress changes in the soil
and can be obtained from Mohrs
Stress Circle.
2. Stress path can be used to determine
the intensity of stress at a point due to
the application of uniformly applied
circular loaded area.
3. Stress path has a value in giving
insight into probable soil response -
particularly if a part of the previous
history stress path can be reproduced.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
73. A point load of 650 kN is applied on the
surface of a thick layer of clay. Using
Boussinesqs elastic analysis, what is
approximate value of the estimated vertical
stress at a depth 2 m and a radial distance
of 1.0 m from the point of application of
load?
a. 55 kN/m
2

b. 44 kN/m
2

c. 41 kN/m
2

d. 37 kN/m
2

74. In a braced vertical excavation of 5 m
height and 250 m width in a cohesive soil
having undrained cohesion equal to 20
kN/m
2
and bulk unit weight of 20 kN/m
3
,
what is the factor of safety against heave
failure at its base ?
a. 1.0
b. 1.20
c. 1.40
d. 2.0
11 of 16
75. During a sampling operation, the drive
sampler is advanced 600 mm and the
length of the sample recovered is 525 mm.
What is the recovery ratio of the sample?
a. 0.125
b. 0.140
c. 0.875
d. 0.143
76. A sampling tube with a cutting edge is
used for extracting the samples. The
sampling tube has the following
dimensions:
Inner diameter of cutting edge =D
c
. Outer
diameter of cutting edge = D
w
. Inner
diameter of the sampling tube =D
s
. Outer
diameter of the sampling tube =D
t
,.
What is the area ratio A, of the sampling
tube?
a.
2 2
2
100%
w c
r
c
D D
A
D
=
b.
2 2
2
100%
t c
r
c
D D
A
D
=
c.
2 2
2
100%
t w
r
w
D D
A
D
=
d.
2 2
2
100%
t s
r
s
D D
A
D
=
below the Lists
List-I (Type of Foundations)
A. Spread footings
B. Underreamed piles
C. Raft foundation
D. Deep foundation
List-II (Suitability)
1. Soft clay for 20 m followed by hard
rock stratum
2. Upto 3 m black cotton soil followed by
medium dense sand
3. Compact sand deposit extending to
great depth
4. Loose sand extending to great depth
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 1 4 2
1. The proportioning of a footing is more
often governed by its bearing capacity.
2. Friction piles are also called floating
piles.
correct ?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
79. A test plate 30 cm square, settles by l2 m
under a load of 4.5 kN in a sandy soil. By
how much will a footing 2m x 2m
subjected to a load of 200 kN settle by ?
a. 36.3 mm
b. 20.87 mm
c. 75.75 mm
d. 1815 mm
1. Initial load tests and routine tests are
carried out on test piles and working
piles, respectively.
2. A cyclic load test is performed to
determine a piles skin resistance and
base resistance separately.
3. In a pile load test, the safe load is taken
as half the final load at which the
settlement equals 10% of pile
diameter.
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 2 and 3
d. Only 1 and 3
81. Which one of the following verniers is
employed in Abney Level?
a. Retrograde vernier
b. Double vernier
c. Double folded vernier
d. Extended vernier
82. What is the angle between two plane
mirrors of an optical square ?
12 of 16
a. 30
0

b. 60
0

c. 45
0

d. 90
0

83. Which of the following figures are equal to
one acre?
1. 43560 sq. ft.
2. 40 gunthas
3. 10 sq. Gunters chain
4. 4850 sq. yds.
given below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
84. What is the slope correction for a length of
30.0 m along gradient of 1 in 20?
a. 3.75 cm
b. 0.375 cm
c. 37.5 cm
d. 0.0375 cm

85.

The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 30
E. If the declination is 6 West, then what
is the true bearing ?
a. S 36E
b. N 36W
c. S 24 E
d. N 24 W
86. A 30 m metric chain is found to be 10 cm
too short throughout a measurement. If the
distance measured is recorded as 300 m,
what is the actual distance ?
a. 300.1 m
b. 301.0 m
c. 299.0 m
d. 310.0 m
87. Diurnal variation is greater
a. In winter than in summer
b. At smaller latitudes than at higher
latitudes
c. At magnetic equator points
d. In summer than in winter
88. What is the angle of intersection of a
contour and a ridge line?
a. 30
b. 0
c. 180
d. 90
below the Lists :
List-I
A. Adjustment of surveying instruments
B. Bowditch rule
C. Triangulation
D. Bessels method
List-II
1. Bringing the various fixed parts of the
instruments into proper relations with
one another
2. Solution of three point problem
3. Measuring all the angles and base line
4. Balancing the latitudes and departures
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 3 2 1 4
90. A level when set up 25 m from peg A and
50 m from peg B reads 2.847 m on staff
held on A and 3.462 m on staff held on B,
keeping bubble at its centre while reading.
If the reduced levels of A and B are
283.665 m and 284.295 m respectively,
what is the collimation error per 100.0 m?
a. 0.0l5m
b. 0.30m
c. 0.045m
d. 0.060m
91. For air borne application and
materialization of GPS receiver and easy
construction, which is the most frequently
used antenna ?
13 of 16
a. Microstrip
b. Micropole
c. Spiral helix
d. Choke ring
92. What is the minimum length of a transition
curve for a design speed of 80 kmph in a
horizontal curve of 240 m radius?
a. 32 m
b. 42 m
c. 52 m
d. 72 m
93. A runway is located 450 m above the
mean sea level. If the aeroplane reference
field is 1800 m, what is the approximate
corrected runway length for elevation ?
a. 1849 m
b. 1889 m
c. 1987 m
d. 2013 m
below the Lists :
List-I (Type of Binder)
A. 80/100 Penetration grade bitumen
B. 85/25 Blownbitumen
C. MC70 Cutback
D. RT-5 Road tar
List-II (Use)
1. Masticassphalt
2. Bituminous roads
3. Grouting works
4. Prime-coat
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 4 1 3
95. What are the standards for testing of road
macadam in Aggregate Impact Test ?
a. 14 kg wt, 38 cm drop, 15 blows
b. 14 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 20 blows
c. 18 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 15 blows
d. 18 kg wt, 30 cm drop, 20 blows
96. Which one of the following is the set of
physical requirements of coarse aggregates
for construction of WBM roads as per IRC
recommendation?
LAV(%) AIV(%) Fl (%)
a. <50 <40 <15
b. <50 <30 <15
c. <40 <30 <20
d. <40 <30 <15
97. On a road the free speed was 65 kmph and
the space headway at jam density was 625
m. What is the maximum flow which
could be expected on this road?
a. 2600 vph
b. 1625 vph
c. 1300 vph
d. 406 vph
98. A mucking operation is to be carried out
by hauling trucks of 6 m
3
capacity.
Further,
1. Volume of muck per blast =60 m
3

2. Time allotted for mucking is 60
minutes with operating efficiency =50
minute per hour.
3. Effective cycle time of hauling truck
25 mm.
What is the number of hauling trucks
required for mucking?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
below the Lists :
List-I (Signal)
A. Outer signal
B. Starter signal
C. Repeater signal
D. Disc signal
List-Il (Function)
1. Departure signal
2. Reception signal
3. Shunting signal
4. Coacting signal
14 of 16
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
100. What is the value of the steepest gradient
to be provided on a 2 degree curve for
B.G. line having ruling gradient of 1 in
200?
a. 1 in 238 (b)
b. 1 in.227
c. 1 in 202
d. 1 in 198
101. The ruling gradient on B.G. section of
railway is 1 in 150 and a 4 curve is also
there on it. What is the allowable ruling
gradient?
a. 1 in 146
b. 1 in 154
c. 1 in 196
d. 1 in 232
102. For design of a runway length, match
ListI with ListII and select the correct
Lists:
List- I (Factor)
A. Standard basic length
B. Elevation
C. Temperature
D. Effective gradient
List - II (Correction)
1. 7% for every 303 metres
2. 0.5%
3. 20% for each 1% gradient
4. Depends upon aircraft and obtained
from ICAO Standard Tables
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
103. If M
i
=Proportion of ith type of aircraft in
the mix, T
i
=Gate occupancy time of the
ith type of aircraft. G =Number of gates
(considering that all the available gates can
be used by all aircrafts).
Which one of the following equations
gives the ultimate gate capacity C?
a.
1
1
n
i
i
n
i
i
G M
C
T
=
=

b.
1
60
n
i i
i
G
C
M T
=

c.
1
n
i
i
i
M
C T
G
=
| |
=
|
\ .

d.
1
n
i i
i
G
C
M T
=
=

104. The total correction percentage for
altitude and temperature, in calculating the
runway length from basic runway length,
normally does not exceed
a. 7
b. 14
c. 28
d. 35
105. The present population of a community is
28000 with an average water demand of
150 lpcd. The existing water treatment
plant has a design capacity of 6000 m
3
/d. It
is expected that the population will
increase to 48000 during the next 20 years.
What is the number of years from now
when the plant will reach its design
capacity assuming an arithmetic rate of
population growth ?
a. 86 years
b. 120 years
c. 150 years
d. 165 years
106. Which one of the following diagrams
illustrates the relationship between flow
value (FV) and percentage bitumen (%
BIT)?
a.
15 of 16
b.
c.
d.
below the Lists :
List I (Method of Design for Flexible
Pavement)
A. Group Index Method
B. CBR Method
C. US Navy Method
D. Asphalt Institute Method
List II (Principle)
1. Semitheoretical
2. Quasirational
3. Empirical method using soil
classification test
4. Empirical method using soil strength
test
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 1 4 3
108. What ratio do the versines of a circular
curve when measured at the quarter point
of a full chord and, when measured at the
same point on half chord bear?
a. 100 : 1
b. 60 : 1
c. 3 : 1
d. 1 : 1
109. The design speed of a highway is 80 km/hr
and the radius of circular curve is 150 m in
plain topography. Which one of the
following is the minimum length of
transition curve?
a. 115 m
b. 85 m
c. 65 m
d. 43 m
110. A rising gradient of 1 in 50 meets a falling
gradient of 1 in 30. Which one of the
following is the length of vertical curve if
the stopping sight distance is 120 m ?
a. 174 m
b. 158 m
c. 140 m
d. 120 m
111. A 4hour unit hydrograph of a basin can
be approximated as a triangle with a base
period of 48 hours and peak ordinate of
300m
3
/s. What is the area of the catchment
basin ?
a. 7776 km
2

b. 5184 km
2

c. 2592 km
2

d. 1294 km
2

112. Hardness to water is caused by the
presence of calcium (Ca
+2
) and magnesium
(Mg
+2
) ions. Which are the least soluble
forms of calcium and magnesium at
normal water temperature?
a. CaCl
2
and MgCO
3

b. Ca(HCO
3
)
2
and MgCl
2

c. Ca(OH)
2
and Mg(HCO
3
)
2

d. CaCO
3
and Mg(OH)
2

113. Assertion (A) : Boundary layer theory is
applicable only in the vicinity of the
leading edge of the plate.
Reason (R) : Boundary layer theory is
based on the assumption that its thickness
is small when compared to other linear
dimensions.
16 of 16
114. Assertion (A) : It takes longer to drain a
reservoir with a long vertical pipe taken
down from its bottom discharging into
atmosphere than with an orifice at the
bottom.
Reason (R) : The relative height of the
water surface elevation in the reservoir
compensates for the friction loss in the
pipe besides the entry and exit losses in the
pipe.
115. Assertion (A) : The unit hydrograph
cannot be applied for areas less than 5000
sq. km.
Reason (R) The runoff hydrograph
reflects the physiographic factors of a
catchment.
116. Assertion (A) : The USBR type 11 stilling
basin length requirement is less than that
in type III basin for similar design
conditions.
Reason (R) : Energy dissipation is
primarily accomplished by hydraulic jump
in USBR type II stilling basin.
117. Assertion (A) : Flocculating particles settle
in curved path in a long rectangular
sedimentation tank designed for a constant
flow rate.
Reason (R) : The downward settling
velocities of particles as well as their
respective horizontal velocities remain
constant during their stay in the tank.
118. Assertion (A) : Large weir overflow rates
will result in excessive velocities at the
outlet of. A settling basin.
Reason (R) : These excessive velocities
will extend backward into the settling
zone, causing particles and floes which
would otherwise be removed as sludge to
be drawn into the outlet.
119. Assertion (A) : The state of earth pressure
at rest is the state of equilibrium with zero
strain condition.
Reason (R) : In rest condition neither the
wall nor the soil moves.
120. Assertion (A) : The super elevation
provided on a curve of a railway track is
less than the equilibrium cant.
Reason (R) : Subject to a maximum value
depending on speed and gauge, cant
deficiency is allowed and therefore actual
cant provided is less than the equilibrium
cant.
1 of 15

(PAPERI )

1.

What is the most appropriate method for
analysis of a skeletal plane frame shown in
the figure above?
a. Slope - deflection method
b. Strain energy method
c. Moment distribution method
2. A fixed beam AB of span l carries a
uniformly distributed load w/unit length.
During loading, the support B sinks
downwards by an amount o. If o =
4
72
wl
EI
,
what is the fixing moment at B?
a.
2
12
wl

b.
2
6
wl

c.
2
6EI
l
o

d. Zero
3. What does the Williot - Mohr diagram
yield?
a. Forces in members of a truss
b. Moments in a fixed beam
c. Reactions at the supports
d. Joint displacement of a pinjointed
plane frame
4. Two shafts, one of solid section and the
other of hollow section, of same material
and weight having same length are
subjected to equal torsional force. What is
the torsional stiffness of hollow shaft?
a. Equal to that of the solid shaft
b. Less than that of the solid shaft
c. More than that of the solid shaft
d. Exactly half of that of the solid shaft
5.
What is the inclination of resultant
reactions at A with the vertical for the
frame shown in the above figure?
a. 60
0

b. 40
0

c. 30
d. 50
6. Match List - I with List - II and select the
the Lists :
List-I (Load Case)
A. Slope for tip load of W
B. Deflection for tip load of W
C. Slope for total UDL of W
D. Deflection for total UDL of W
(Flexural rigidity = El)
List-II (Expression for Slope/Deflection)
1. WL
3
/ 8E1
2. WL
2
/ 6E1
3. WL
3
/ 3E1
4. WL
2
/ 2E1
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 3 2 1
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2007
2 of 15
d. 1 2 3 4
7.

What is the magnitude of the force in the
member BD in the figure given above?
a. 5 kN
b. 7 kN(App)
c. 4 2 kN
d. Zero
8. A cantilever beam of T cross -section
carries uniformly distributed load. Where
does the maximum magnitude of the
bending stress occur ?
a. At the top of cross - section
b. At the junction of flange and web
c. At the mid- depth point
d. At the bottom of the section
9.

What is the vertical deflection of joint C of
the frame shown above?
a. PL/AE
b. 2PL/AE
c. PL / 2AE
d. 3PL / AE
10.

What are the magnitudes of horizontal and
vertical support reactions, respectively at
support A of the frame shown above ?
a. 16 kN, 18 kN
b. 16 kN, 6 kN
c. 6kN,l6kN
d. 8kN,6kN
11.

A circular shaft of diameter 30 mm having
shear modulus G = 80 GPa is subjected to
moment as shown above.
What is the maximum shear stress
developed at periphery of shaft at A?
a. 20.6 MPa
b. 15.3 MPa
c. 7.4 MPa
d. Zero
12. A close - coiled helical spring with n coils,
mean radius R and diameter d is subjected
to an axial load W. What is the
compression in the spring?
a.
3
3
64WR n
Cd

b.
3
4
64WR n
Cd

c.
3
3
32WR n
Cd

d.
3
4
32WR n
Cd

1. In a beam, the maximum shear stress
occurs at the neutral axis of the beam
cross - section.
2. The maximum shear stress in a beam
of circular cross - section is 50% more
than the average shear stress.
3. The maximum shear stress in a beam
of triangular cross-section, with its
vertex upwards occurs at b/6 above the
neutral axis.
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
3 of 15
d. 1 and 3 only
14. Length of plastic hinge of a beam depends
on which of the following?
1. Span of the beam
2. Type of loading
3. Shape of cross - section
4. Yield strength of steel
given below
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 4 only
15.

If a uniform beam shown in the figure
above has the plastic moment capacity M
p

for span AB and 0.9 Mp for span BC, what
is the correct virtual work equation?
a.
2
.2
3
p p
M M W
| |
+ + =
|
\ .

b.
2
0.9 .2
3
p p p
M M M W + + =
c.
2
0.9 .2
3
p p
M M W
| |
+ + =
|
\ .

d.
2 2
0.9 .2
3 3
p p
M M W
| |
+ + + =
|
\ .

16.

Collapse moment for the frame shown
above has been worked out as M
p
= Wl/5.
What is the horizontal reaction at A at
collapse conditions
a. 0
b. 0.1 W
c. 0.2 W
d. 0.4 W
respect of gantry girders:
1. Gantry girders are designed for 23%
extra load of crane capacity for impact.
2. Maximum deflection for dead and
imposed loads without impact is
limited to span / 500
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
18. Diagonal member of a roof truss of length
I has been designed with tube of 100 mm
mean diameter and 3 ruin thick. The force
in the member is tensile due to dead and
live loads, and compressive due to
occasional winds. What is the maximum
permissible effective length of the
member?
a. 63m
b. 875m
c. 1225m
d. 140m
19. At what value (nearly) is the maximum
spacing of purlins for standard asbestos
roofing sheets kept ?
a. 1.0 m
b. 1.4 m
c. 1.8 m
d. 2.0 m
20. Horizontal stiffeners are needed in plate
girders if the thickness of web is
a. < 6 mm
b. < d/200
c. <L / 500
d. nearly equal to flange thickness
4 of 15
where d distance between the flanges and
L = span
pertaining to intermediate stiffeners
1. Stiffeners are provided to exclusively
bear concentrated loads.
2. Stiffeners should bear tightly against
top and bottom flanges.
3. Maximum spacing of stiffeners is
restricted 180t, where t is the thickness
of web.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 2 only
22. A symmetrical plate girder has been
fabricated with three equal plates. If a
circular hole of diameter equal to half of
its height is centrally cut in the web, what
is the approximate ratio of the strength of
this punctured girder to that of the original
girder?
a. 93%
b. 85%
c. 75%
d. 56%
23. For a pair of identical steel channel
sections, tack - welded as a tension
element, what is the net area of cross -
section for design purposes ?
a. Net area of the webs only
b. Net area of the flanges only
c. Net area of the webs and flanges
d. Web area plus a portion of the area of
the flanges
24. The portal bracing is designed for which of
the following?
a. Wind forces only
b. Wind force + 1
1
4
% of the
compression force in two end posts
c. Wind force + 25% of the compression
force in two end posts
d. Lateral shear + 25% of the
compression force in two end posts
25. Why are intermediate vertical stiffeners
provided in plate girders?
a. To eliminate web buckling
b. To eliminate local buckling
c. To transfer concentrated loads
d. To prevent excessive deflection

26.

Four bolts share the load P as shown in the
figure above. The shear strength of bolt is
30 kN and tension strength of bolt is 40
kN.
Which one of the following is the value of
P?
a. 96 kN
b. 105 kN
c. 117 kN
d. 134 kN
27. What is the ratio of the permissible bearing
stress in power -driven shop rivets relative
to the yield stress of mild steel?
a. 1.0
b. 0.8
c. 0.6
d. 0.4
28. A reduction in the allowable stress in steel
chimney construction is necessary if the
temperature exceeds
a. 75C
b. 100C
c. 200 C
d. 300 C
29. A compound column had been fabricated
with 4 angles of ISA 50 50 6 placed at
corners of a square 300 mm 300 mm.
The radius of gyration of the angle is 10
mm. For the fabricated column, the overall
slenderness ratio is 40. What is the
5 of 15
maximum distance between lacing bar
attachments at the fabricated columns ?
a. 500 mm
b. 400 mm
c. 300mm
d. 280 mm
30. In the case of a continuous RC beam, in
order to obtain the maximum positive span
moment, where should the live load be
placed?
a. On all the spans
b. On alternate spans starting from the
left
c. On spans adjacent to the spans under
consideration
d. On the span plus alternate spans
31. What is the allowable upward deflection in
a prestress concrete member under
serviceability limit state condition ?
a. Span/250
b. Span/300
c. Spacn/350
d. Span/500
32. Which one of the following predicts the
effective modulus of elasticity of concrete.
a.
1
c
E
u +

b.
1 2
c
E
u +

c.
1 3
c
E
u +

d.
1 5
c
E
u +

where E
c
is short-term elastic modulus and
u is the ultimate creep coefficient
33. What is the limiting principle tensile stress
in prestress uncracked concrete member of
M 25 grade?
a. 1 MPa
b. 1.5 MPa
c. 2 MPa
d. 2.5 MPa
34. What is the minimum nominal percentage
longitudinal reinforcement to be provided
in a concrete pedestal as per relevant IS
code ?
a. 0.4
b. 0.2
c. 0.15
d. 0.1
expression to estimate the development
length of deformed reinforcing bar as per
IS code in limit state design?
a.
4.5
s
bd
o
t
u

b.
5
s
bd
o
t
u

c.
6.4
s
bd
o
t
u

d.
8
s
bd
o
t
u

where u is diameter of reinforcing bar, o
s

is the stress in the bar at a section and t
bd

is bond stress
36. The cover of longitudinal reinforcing bar
in a beam subjected to sea spray should
not be less than which one of the
following?
a. 30 mm
b. 70 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 80 mm
37. Which one of the following is correct in
respect of the material efficiency of RCC
flexural elements in rectangular beam, T-
beam and two-way slab?
a. All the three sections are equally
efficient
b. T-beam section is most uneconomical
c. Two-way slab is most economical
d. The efficiency of rectangular section
lies between that of T-beam and two-
way slab sections
38. Which one of the following is correct
working stress method of design for
reinforced concrete is
a. not a limit state design
6 of 15
b. a serviceability limit state design
c. a Limit state for crack width
d. a collapse limit state
39. At the time of initial tensioning, the
maximum tensile stress immediately
behind the anchorage should not exceed
a. 0.50 ultimate tensile stress
b. 0.60 ultimate tensile stress
c. 0.70 ultimate tensile stress
d. 0.80 ultimate tensile stress
40. Which one of the following is correct for
horizontal spacing between the group of
prestressing cables as per IS code ?
a. Greater of, 40 mm and 5 mm plus
maximum size of coarse aggregate
b. Greater o1 40 mm and -5 mm plus
maximum size of coarse aggregate
c. 50mm
d. 25mm
41. High strength steel used in prestressed
concrete can take how much maximum
strain?
a. 2%
b. 3 %
c. 4%
d. 6%
42. In pretensional beams, which of the
following losses is/are not considered ?
1. Anchor loss
2. Shrinkage
3. Creep
4. Relaxation
5. Friction
6. Elastic shortening
given below
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 4, 5 and 6 only
c. 5 only
d. 6 only
43. Prestressing force in a wire under thermal
stressing can be estimated from which of
the following?
1. Pressure gauge with jack
2. Elongation of wire
3. Temperature rise
given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 only
Modulus of elasticity of concrete is
1. tangent modulus
2. secant modulus
3. proportional to
ck
f
4. proportional to 1/
ck
f
correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 and 4 only
45. Which one of the following is employed to
determine strength of hardened existing
concrete structure ?
a. Bullet test
b. Kelly ball test
c. Rebound hammer test
d. Cone penetrometer
expression for the target mean strength f
t

of concrete mix ?
a. f
t
= kf
ck
+ S
b. f
t
= f
ck
+ KS
c. f
t
= f
ck
+ S
d. f
t
= kf
ck
+ S
Where f
ck
is characteristic strength, K is
probability factor and S is standard
deviation
7 of 15
47. What is the correct sequence of the
following metals in the decreasing order of
their Poissions ratio ?
1. Aluminium
2. Cast iron
3. Steel
given below
a. 1-2-3
b. 2-1-3
c. 1-3-2
d. 3-1-2
48. A steel rod, 100 mm long is held between
two rigid supports. It is heated by 20 C. If
the coefficient of thermal expansion of the
material of the rod is 15 10
6
/C and
modulus of elasticity is 200 10
3
MN/m
2
,
what is the stress in the rod?
a. 20 MN/m
2

b. 40 MN/m
2

c. 60 MN/m
2

d. 80 MN/m
2

49.

An element is subjected to stress as given
above
For this state of stress, what is the
maximum shear stress ?
a. 2.5 MPa
b. 5 MPa
c. 10 MPa
d. 15 MPa
50. If modulus of elasticity of a material is
189.8 GN/m
2
and its Poissons ratio is 0.30,
what is the approximate value of shear
modulus of the material?
a. 73 GN/m
2

b. 93.3 GN/m
2

c. 103.9 GN/m
2

d. 123.3 GN/m
2

51. A 20 cm long rod of uniform rectangular
section, 8 mm wide 1.2 mm thick is bent
into the form of a circular arc resulting in a
central displacement of 0.8 cm. Neglecting
second order quantities in computations,
what is the longitudinal surface strain
(approximate) in the rod?
a. 7.2 10
4

b. 8.4 10
4

c. 9.6 10
4

d. 10.8 10
4

52. Mohrs stress circle helps in determining
which of the following ?
1. Normal stresses on one plane
2. Normal and tangential stresses on two
planes
3. Principal stresses in all Three
directions
4. Inclination of principal planes
given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2 and 4 only
Mohrs strain circle can be drawn
1. for plane stress conditions
2. if strains in three directions are known
3. if strains on two mutually
perpendicular planes are known
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
54. What is the angle between principal strain
axis and maximum shear strain axis?
a. 0
0

b. 30
0

c. 45
0

d. 90
0

8 of 15
55. In a strained material, the principal stresses
in the x and y directions are 100 N/mm
2

(tensile) and 60 N/mm
2
(compressive). On
an inclined plane, the normal to which
makes an angle 30 to the x- axis, what is
the tangential stress in N/mm
2
?
a. 30 3
b. 40 3
c. 60
d. 40
56. For a masonry dam of base width b, at
which location w.r.t. the central line,
should the resultant loading intersect the
sections. to avoid tension in any horizontal
section ?
a. Outside of b /6
b. Within b /6
c. Within b / 8
d. At the central line
57. According to maximum shear stress
criterion, at what ratio of maximum shear
stress to yield stress of material, does the
yielding of material take place ?
a. 2
b. 2 3
c. 1/ 3
d. 1/2
58. At what value of the ultimate shear
strength, shall the material under the action
of uniform axial tension fail due to shear?
a. <0.5 times the ultimate tensile strength
b. <0.7 times the ultimate tensile strength
c. = ultimate tensile strength
d. > the ultimate tensile strength
59.

At what distance from left support of the
above beam, is the shear force zero?
a. 1 m
b. 1.25 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 2.5 m
60.

For the simply supported beam in the
figure above, C is the centre of the span. C
is also the point through which the
resultant of the column load W passes. The
column rests on the beam over a small
length symmetrically on either side of C.
What is the shearing force at C ?
a. W/2
b. W14
c. W
d. 0
61. The depreciation charges for a machine are
thirty paise per working hour. The
machine has a scrap value of Rs 2,000 and
a working hour average life of 24000
hours. What is the purchase price of the
machine ?
a. Rs 1,800
b. Rs 7,200
c. Rs 9,200
d. Rs 14,275
62. Match List - I with List - II and select the
the Lists:
List-I
A. Agitator truck
B. Needle vibrator
C. Concrete pump
D. Tremie pipe
List-II
1. Placing of concrete
2. Underwater concreting
3. Compaction of concrete
4. Ready mixed concrete transport
A B C D
9 of 15
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 1 2 4 3
d. 4 3 1 2
63.

The performance of a centrifugal pump [H
and P vs. Q] is typically shown in the
figure with four curves numbered 1, 2, 3
and 4. which one of the following is
correct?
a. 1 and 2 refer to P, with P along 1
referring to greater speed than P along
2
b. 1 and 2 refer to H, with H along 1
referring to greater speed than H along
2
c. 3 and 4 refer to P. with P along 3
referring to lesser speed than P along 4
d. 3 and 4 refer to H, with H along 3
referring to greater speed than H along
4
64. Consider the following types of bridges
1. Arch bridge
2. Double cantilever bridge
3. Suspension bridge 4. Truss bridge
What is the correct sequence in the
ascending order of the span ranges
generally adopted for the bridges given
above ?
a. 2-4-l-3
b. 1-3-2-4
c. 2-3-l-4
d. 1-4-2-3
65. As the span of a bridge increases, how
does the impact factor vary?
a. It decreases
b. It increases
c. It remains constant
d. It increases up to a critical value of
span and then decreases
66. The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic
time estimates of an activity are 5, 10 and
21 days respectively. What are the
expected time and standard deviation?
a. 12, 3
b. 11,4
c. 11,267
d. 10, 16
67. What is the time by which the completion
of an activity can be delayed without
affecting the start of succeeding activities,
called?
a. Total float
b. Interfering float
c. Independent float
d. Free float
68. Duration along the critical path defines
which of the following?
1. Shortest duration needed
2. Shortest duration permissible
3. Longest duration needed
4. Longest duration permissible
given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 and 4 only.
1. Setting and hardening of cement takes
place after the addition of water.
2. Water causes hydration and hydrolysis
of the constituent compounds of
cement which act as binders
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
70. Assertion (A) : Wooden window shutters
should be fitted, leaving proper tolerances
for dimensional changes.
10 of 15
Reason (R) : Timber sections change in
volume with change in seasons.
R is the correct explanation of A.
R is not the correct explanation of A.
71. Assertion (A) : Time - cost studies have to
be firmed up before the EOQ and ABC
analyses can be undertaken
Reason (R) : Time-cost studies can be
premised on no bottlenecks or shortages in
materials procurement.
72. Assertion (A) : Critical path can pass
through dummy arrows also.
Reason (R) : Necessary additional nodes
are introduced to ensure uniqueness of i-j
notation for activities.
73. Assertion (A) Slenderness ratio of tension
members is restricted to 250.
Reason (R) : Slenderness ratio for tension
members is a stiffness criterion associated
with self - weight.
74. Assertion (A) Even though vibration is the
best technique of obtaining a durable and
strong concrete, it cannot produce a
compact concrete, if the mix is not
properly graded or designed.
Reason (R) : Over-vibrating of concrete
with a slump of more than 10 cm may lead
to honeycombing and a top surface which
is not durable.
75. Which one of the following is the most
preferred wood for high quality and
durable furniture?
a. Sandalwood
b. Deodar wood
c. Teakwood
d. Shishani wood
76. As a natural material, timber is which one
of the following?
a. Isotropic
b. Anisotropic
c. Homogeneous
d. Heterogeneous
77. Shear strength of timber depends on which
one of the following ?
a. Lignin with fibres
b. Medullary rays
c. Heartwood
d. Sapwood
78. The defect which develops due to
uncontrolled and non - uniform loss of
moisture from wood is known as which
one of the following?
a. Kont
b. Shake
c. Warping
d. Cross grain
79. For ornamental work, which type (s) of
bricks is/are preferred?
1. Silica bricks
2. Silica lime bricks
3. Bricks produced in autoclaves
11 of 15
given below
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 only
d. 2 only
80. Which one of the following is the nominal
size of standard modular brick?
a. 25 cm 13 cm 8 cm
b. 25cm 10 cm 8 cm
c. 20 cm 10 cm 10cm
d. 20 cm 15 cm 10 cm
81. Why are bricks soaked in water before
using in brick masonry?
a. For removing dust
b. For reducing air voids
c. For preventing depletion of moisture
from mortar
d. For reducing efflorescence
82. Which type of brick masonry bond is
provided for heavy loads on masonry?
a. English bond
b. Zigzang bond
c. Single Flemish bond
d. Double Flemish bond
83. Consider the following type of cements:
1. Portland pulverized fuel ash cement
2. High alumina cement
3. Ordinary Portland cement
4. Rapid hardening cement
sequence of the above cements in terms of
their increasing rate of strength gain?
a. 2-3-4-l
b. 1-3-4-2
c. 2-1-3-4
d. 3-1-2-4
84. Ultimate strength of cement is influenced
by which one of the following?
a. Tricalcium silicate
b. Dicalcium silicate
c. Tricalcium aluminate
d. Tetracalcium alumino - ferrite
85. Why is lime added to cement slurry for the
topcoat of plastering?
a. To improve the strength of plaster
b. To stiffen the plaster
c. To smoothen the plaster for ease of
spread
d. To make the plaster non - shrinkable
the Lists :
List-I
(Cement Mortar for Different Work)
A. Cement mortar for normal brick work
B. Cement mortar for plastering work
C. Cement mortar for grouting the
cavernous rocks
D. Cement mortar for guniting
List - II(Cement : Sand in Mortar)
1. 1 : 4
2. 1: 3
3. 1: 6
4. 1 : 1.5
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 2 3 1
87. In what context is the slump test
performed?
a. Strength of concrete
b. Workability of concrete
c. Water-cement ratio
d. Durability of concrete
The use of superlasticizers as admixture
1. increases compressive strength of
concrete
2. permits lower water - cement ratio,
thereby strength is increased
3. reduces the setting time of concrete
12 of 15
4. permits lower cement content, thereby
strength is increased
correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 3 and 4 only
d. 2 only
Curing of concrete is necessary because
1. concrete needs more water for
chemical reaction
2. it is necessary to protect the water
initially mixed in concrete from being
lost during evaporation
3. penetration of surrounding water
increases the strength of concrete
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
90. Match List-I with List-Il and select the
the Lists
List-I
A. Absorption and surface moisture in
aggregates
B. Deleterious material
C. Grading of aggregate
D. Chemical stability
List-II
1. Interferes with hydration of cement
2. Improves workability of mix
3. Ensures durability of all types of
structures
4. Affects the mix proportions
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 1 2 3
longitudinal pitch in staggered riveted
compression joints ?
a. 500 mm
b. 400 mm
c. 300mm
d. 100mm
92. A concentrated load W moves on the span
of a three- hinged arch. The horizontal
thrust at the supports is maximum when
the load is at which one of the following ?
a. The springing
b. One-sixth of the span from one end
c. Quarter span
d. The crown
statement ? In a gusseted base, when the
end of the column is machined for
complete bearing on the base plate, the
axial load is assumed to be transferred to
the base plate
a. fully by direct bearing
b. fully through the fastenings
c. 50% by direct bearing and 50%
through fastenings
d. 75% by direct bearing and 25%
through fastenings
94.

In the structure shown in the figure above,
what is the distance through which the
points A move towards each other?
a. 4 Pa
3
/ EI
b. l6 Pa
3
/ 3EI
c. 28 Pa
3
/ 3EI
d. 6 Pa
3
/ EI
the Lists
List - I (Shape of Structural Section)
13 of 15
A. Rectangular
B. Circular
C. I-section
D. Diamond
List - II (Shape Factor)
1. 2.0
2. 1.1 to 1.2
3. 1.5
4. 1.7
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4
96.

What is the ultimate load for the frame
shown in the figure above ?
a. M / a
b. 2 Mp / a
c. 3 M / a
d. 4 Mg / a
97. What is the number of plastic hinges
which will cause the overall total collapse
of a structure ?
a. One more than the order of statical
indeterminacy
b. Equal to order of statical
indeterminacy
c. One less than the order of statical
indeterminacy
d. Not determinable
98.

The above figure shows a fix - ended beam
of elastic material possessing sufficient
ductility and of uniform cross-section. It
carries a uniformly distributed load which
is gradually increased to its ultimate value
Wu/unit length, at which the beam is
transformed into a failure mechanism.
What is the magnitude of Wu in terms of
the ultimate moment Mu of the beam -
section and span l
a. 8 Mu / l
2

b. 12 Mu / l
2

c. 16 Mu / l
2

d. 24 Mu / l
2

99. What is / are the use(s) of influence lines ?
a. To study the effect of moving loads on
the structure
b. To calculate the value of stress
function with the critical load
condition
c. To find the position of live load for a
maximum value of particular stress
function
d. Towards all the above purpose
100. What is the variation of influence line for
stress function in a statically determinate
structure ?
a. Parabolic
b. Bilinear
c. Linear
d. Uniformly rectangular
101.

Which one of the following is the reaction
of the cantilever at B as shown in the
figure above ?
a. 3/8 wl
b. 5/8 wl
c. 6/17 wl
d. 3/21 wl
102. The displacement method is also referred
to as which one of the following?
a. Minimum strain energy method
14 of 15
b. Maxwell-Mohr method
c. Consistent deformation method
d. Slope-deflection method
103. A beam carries a uniformly distributed
load throughout its length. In which of the
following configurations will the strain
energy be maximum?
a. Cantilever
b. Simply supported beam
c. Propped cantilever
d. Fixed beam
104.

The shear equation for the portal frame
shown in the above figure will be
a.
1 2
0
CD DC AB BA
M M M M
P
L L
| | | | + +
+ + =
| |
\ . \ .

b.
1
0
BC CB AB BA
M M M M
P
L L
| | + + | |
+ + =
| |
\ .
\ .

c.
2
0
BC CB CD DC
M M M M
P
L L
| | + + | |
+ + =
| |
\ .
\ .

d.
1
0
AB CD BA DC
M M M M
P
L L
| | + + | |
+ =
| |
\ .
\ .

correct?
a. In slope-deflection method, the forces
are taken as unknowns
b. In slope-deflection method, the joint
rotations are taken as unknowns
c. Slope-deflection method is not
applicable for beams and frames
having settlement at the supports
d. Slope-deflection method is also known
as force method
106.

What are the bending moments at the ends
A and B of a uniform beam AB fixed in
direction and position at A and B when
acted upon by two concentrated loads at
1/3rd span as shown in the figure above?
a. 2/9 WL
b. 4/9 WL
c. 6/9 WL
d. 8/9 WL
107. A tractor-trailer assembly has a gross
weight of 25 tonnes. When moving over a
level road, its rolling resistance is 42 kg
per tonne. It is moved up a road of 5%
grade. What is the required tractive effort ?
a. 1050.5 kg
b. 1060.5 kg
c. 1085 kg
d. 1102.5kg
108. Which one of the following shovel
excavators is considered most efficient in
loading carriers ?
a. Dipper shovel
b. Dragline
c. Backhoe
d. Clamshell
109. Bottom-dump wagons are suitable for
handling which of the following?
a. Wet sticky clay
b. Sand and gravel
c. Quarry rocks
d. Any type of material
110. Vibratory rollers are more useful for
compacting which of the following?
a. Sandy soils
b. Silty soils
c. Clayer soils
d. Mixed soils
111. When power shovels are operated under
different site conditions (in terms of
material handled), what is the correct
sequence in. the increasing order of the
output for the following materials?
1. Well - blasted rock
2. Hard and tough clay
3. Poorly blasted rock
4. Moist loam or sand
given below :
15 of 15
a. 1-2-3-4
b. 1-4-3-2
c. 4-2-3-l
d. 4-3-1-2
112. For three - dimensional movement of a
weight, which one of the following is most
suitable ?
a. Chain hoist
b. Winch
c. Crane
d. Jack
113. Match List-I with List- II and select the
the Lists :
List - I (Crane)
A. Tower crane
B. Floating crane
C. Mobile crane
D. Gantry crane
List - II (Suitable for)
1. Hydraulic structures
2. High industrial plant
3. Longitudinal and lateral movements of
load
4. Railway electrification
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 1 4 2
114. How are concrete mixers specified?
a. By the number of cement bags used in
a batch
b. By the nominal volume of concrete
that can be mixed in a batch
c. By the volume of water used
d. By the volume of aggregate used
115. What is the minimum width of roadway
for a six - lane high -level bridge
constructed for the use of road traffic
only?
a. 215 m
b. 225 m
c. 240 m
d. 255 m
116. What is the optimum mortar mix type for
maximum masonry unit strength of 15 N /
mm
2

a. M
1

b. M
2

c. H
1

d. H
2

117. In load- bearing wall, the depth of
horizontal chassis should not exceed which
a. 1 / 3 thickness of masonry
b. 1/4 thickness of masonry
c. 1/5 thickness of masonry
d. 1/6 thickness of masonry
118. What is a tendon profile, in which the
eccentricity is proportional to the bending
moment caused by any loading on a rigidly
supported indeterminate structure, at all
cross - sections ?
a. Cable profile
b. Resultant profile
c. Concordant profile
d. Reduced profile
119. What is the distance between the kems for
the section given below?
a. 100 units
b. > 100 units, < 150 units
c. <100 units
d. > 150 units
120.

For a rectangular prestressed beam
designed for operating stress conditions,
what is the maximum prestressing force ?
a. bdo
c

b.
1
2
(bdo
c
)
c.
1
3
(bdo
c
)
d.
1
6
(bdo
c
)
1 of 15

(PAPERI I )

the lists :
List I (Format of Representation)
A.
u v
x y
o o
o o
+
B.
v u
x y
o o
o o

C.
u v
u v
x y
o o
o o
+
D.
2
qu
t

List-II (Context /Relevant to)
1. Relevant to a velocity potential
2. Rate of rotation about a relevant axis
3. Pressure gradient in a relevant
direction
4. Continuity of flow
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 2 3 1
2. Which one of the following expresses the
height of rise or fall of a liquid in a
capillary tube ?
a.
4
cos
wd
o o

b.
cos
4w
o o
o

c.
4cos
wd
o o

d.
4 cos
wd
o o

w = Specific weight of the liquid
o = Angle of contact of the liquid surface
o = Surface tension
3. If the stream function = 3x
2
y
3
, what is
the magnitude of velocity at point (2, 2)?
a. 9
b. 13
c. 15
d. 17
4. During a flood in a stream of width 200
(taken as rectangular section), the gauge
reading was found to rise by 18 cm per
hour. What would be the difference in
discharges at two sections, each 250 m on
either side of the gauge station ?
a. 10 m
3
/ s less at downstream section
b. 75 m
3
c. 5 m
3
d. 5 m
3
/ s more at downstream section
5. A flat plate with a sharp leading edge
placed along a free stream of fluid flow.
Local Reynolds number at 3 cm from the
leading edge is 10
5
.What is the thickness
of the boundary layer?
a. 0.47 mm
b. 0.35 mm
c. 0.23 mm
d. 0.12 mm
statement? A streamlined body is one for
which the
a. skin friction is zero.
b. thickness of the body is less than 1/100
of its length
c. corners are rounded off.
d. separation occurs, if at all, at the
farthest downstream part of the body
7. A circular pipe of radius R carries a
laminar flow of a fluid. The average
velocity is indicated as the local velocity at
what radical distance, measured from the
centre?
a. 0.50 R
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2007
2 of 15
b. 0.71 R
c. 0.67 R
d. 0.29 R
8. In the model of a highway bridge
constructed to a scale of 1 : 25, the force of
water on the pier was measured as 5 N.
What is the force (approximate) on the
prototype pier?
a. 15.6 kN
b. 25.3 kN
c. 78 kN
d. 90 kN
9. A river model is constructed to a
horizontal scale of 1: 1000 and a vertical
scale of 1:100. A model discharge of 0.1
m
3
/ s would correspond to a discharge in
the prototype, of what magnitude?
a. 10
2
m
3
/s
b. 10
3
m
3
/s
c. 10
4
m
3
/s
d. 10 m
3
/s
10. Body M has twice the weight, twice the
projected area and twice the drag
coefficient of body N. How many times is
the terminal velocity of the body M in air,
compared to that of the body N ?
a. 8
b. 2
c. 2
d. 1/ 2
11. A rectangular channel 3 m wide is laid on
a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow
in the channel is 1.5 m, what is the average
boundary shear stress (nearly) ?
a. 0.3 N/m
2

b. 0.15 N/m
2

c. 3.0 N/m
2

d. 1.5 N/m
2

12. A right-angled triangular channel,
symmetrical in section about the vertical,
carries a discharge of 5 m
3
/s with a
velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the
approximate value of the Froude number
of the flow?
a. 0.3
b. 0.4
c. 0.5
d. 0.6
13. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m
and 0.5 m. What is the discharge (per
metre width) ?
a. 1.0 m
2
/s
b. 1.4 m
2
/s
c. 2.0 m
2
/s
d. 2.8 m
2
/s
14. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and
discharges 30 m
3
s
1
. The upstream depth
is 2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10
m s
2
. Then, what is the specific energy
(approximate)?
a. 2.5
b. 0.3
c. 2.3
15. For a smooth hump in a sub-critical flow
to function as a broad crested weir, the
height AZ of the hump above the bed must
satisfy which one of the following ?
a. AZ > (E
1
y
c
)
b. AZ > (E
1
E
c
)
c. AZ s (E
1
y
c
)
d. AZ s (E
1
E
c
)
the lists :
List - I (Flow Section Type)
A. Shallow parabolic
B. Triangular
C. Rectangular
D. Trapezoidal
List - II (Critical Discharge is
proportional to :) [where y is the depth
of fowl]
1. y(z
3/2
)
2. y
3/2

3. y
5/2

4. y
2

A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
3 of 15
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
not correct?
A control section in an open channel is the
site
a. where the flow quantity can be
controlled
b. at which flow is known to be critical
c. where the discharge can be measured
d. where the specific energy is
determined
18. What is the normal depth in a wide
rectangular channel carrying 0.5 m
2
/s
discharge at a bed slope of 0.0004 and
Mannings n = 0.01 ?
a. 0.13 m
b. 0.32 m
c. 0.43 m
d. 0.50 m
19. Flow happens at a critical depth of 0.5 m
in a rectangular channel of 4 m width.
What is the value of discharge?
a. 5.4 m
3
/s
b. 5.1 m
3
/s
c. 4.9 m
3
/s
d. 4.4 m
3
/s
20. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carrying
laminar flow of a liquid with it = 1.6
centipoise, the velocity at the axis is 2 m/s.
What is the shear stress midway between
the wall and the axis ?
a. 0.01 N/m
2

b. 0.0125 N/m
2

c. 0.0175 N/m
2

d. 0.02 N/m
2

21. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a
spillway. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the
energy dissipated in m (approximate)?
a. 27
b. 10.5
c. 15
d. 42
22. In connection with a gradually varied flow
with notations y
0
= normal depth, y
c
=
critical depth and y = depth in the
gradually varied flow, Match List I with
List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the lists :
List-I
A. Y > y
0
> y
B. y
0
> y > y
C. y > y
c
> y
o

D. y > y
0
> y
c

List-II
1. M
1

2. S
3

3. M
2

4. S
1

A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
23. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase
in the normal depth 20% corresponds to
how much (approximate) increase in
discharge ?
a. 12%
b. 20%
c. 36%
d. 48%
24. A penstock is 2000 m long and the
velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s.
Water hammer pressure head for
instantaneous closure of valve at the
downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the
valve is closed in 4 s, then what is the peak
water hammer pressure in m of water?
a. 15
b. 30
c. 60
d. 120
25. At a rated capacity of 44 cumec, a
centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head
when operating at 725 r.p.m: What is its
specific speed?
a. 327
b. 255
c. 350
4 of 15
d. 45
26. In an air flow the velocity is measured by a
Pitot tube (coefficient = 1.0). The mass
density of air can be taken as 1.2 kg/m
3
. If
the head difference in a vertical U - tube
holding water is 12 mm, then what is the
velocity of air in m/s
a. 10
b. 14
c. 17
d. 20
27. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a
plunger diameter 25 cm and stroke 35 cm.
The speed of the pump is 60 r.p.m., and it
delivers 165 litres/second of water. What
is the value of the theoretical discharge ?
a. 16.8 lps
b. 17.2 lps
c. 18.0 lps
d. 18.4 lps
28. To generate 8100 kW under a head of 81
m while working at a speed of 540 r.p.m.,
what type of turbine is suitable?
a. Pelton
b. Kaplan
c. Bulb
d. Francis
29. During a certain week a power plant turns
out 8,400,000 kWhr and the peak load
during the week is 100,000 kW. What is
the load factor during the week
a. 40%
b. 45%
c. 50%
d. 60%
30. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan,
corresponding to Indian Standards, is
installed at the banks of a surface
reservoir. The water surface area on a
particular day is 100 heactares. The
recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on
a certain day, is nearly 4.0 cm. What is the
anticipated evaporation loss from the
reservoir for that day?
a. (1.8 to 2) 10
4
m
3
per day
b. (2.5 to 2.75) 10
4
m
3
per day
c. (3.0 to 3.25) 10
4
m
3
per day
d. (3.8 to 4.05) 10
4
m
3
per day
31. What is the probable maximum
precipitation (PMP)?
a. Projected precipitation for a 100-yr
return period
b. Maximum precipitation for all past
recorded storms
c. Upper limit of rainfall, which is
justified climatologically
d. Effective perceptible water
32. Which one of the following is a method of
extending the length of record for a
frequency curve at a station ?
a. Double Mass Curve method
b. The Station Year method
c. Thiessen method
d. Isohyetal method
the lists :
List - I (Parameter)
A. Rainfall Intensity
B. Rainfall Excess
C. Rainfall Averaging
D. Mass Curve
List - II (Relatable Term)
1. Isohyets
2. Cumulative rainfall
3. Hyetograph
4. Direct Runoff hydrograph
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 3 4 2 1
34. The total observed runoff volume during a
4 hour storm with a uniform intensity of
2.8 cm/hr is 25.2 10
6
m
3
from a basin of
280 km
2
area. What is the average
infiltration rate for the basin?
a. 36 mm/hr
b. 48 mm/hr
c. 52 mm/hr
d. 55 mm/hr
5 of 15
35. The rainfall hyetograph shows the
variation of which one of the following?
a. Cumulative depth of rainfall with time
b. Rainfall depth with area
c. Rainfall intensity with time
d. Rainfall intensity with cumulative
depth of rainfall
36. In constructing a 4 hour synthetic unit
hydrograph for a basin, the lag time is
estimated to be 40 hours. When will the
peak discharge in the synthetic unit
hydrograph occur from start of the storm?
a. 36 hours
b. 40 hours
c. 42 hours
d. 44 hours
1. Only the surface flow constitutes the
flood hydrograph due to an isolated
storm.
2. For a given storm, the flood peak is
dependent on the drainage density.
3. Fan shaped catchments give narrow
hydrograph with low peak.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 3 only
38. A unit hydrograph for a watershed is
triangular in shape with base period of 20
hours. The area of the watershed is 500 ha.
What is the peak discharge in m
3
/hour?
a. 7000
b. 6000
c. 5000
d. 4000
39. How is the average velocity along the
vertical in a wide stream obtained?
a. By averaging the velocities at 0.2 &
0.8 depth from surface
b. By measuring velocity at 0.6 depth
below the surface
c. By measuring velocity at half the depth
d. By measuring velocity at 01 times the
depth below the surface
40. Groynes are adopted for river bank
protection works. When it is placed
inclined downstream in the direction of
flow in the river, it is designated as which
a. Repelling groyne
b. Attracting groyne
c. Neither repelling nor attracting groyne
d. Fixed groyne
41. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic
jump in a rectangular channel is 16.48.
What is the Froude number (approximate)
at the beginning of the jump?
a. 9.0
b. 12.0
c. 5.0
d. 8.0
42. The quantitative statement of the balance
between water gains and losses in a certain
basin during a specified period of time is
known as which one of the following ?
1. Water budget
2. Hydrologic budget
3. Groundwater budget
given below
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
43. A soil sample has an exchangeable sodium
percentage of 16%, its electrical
conductivity is 32 milli - Mhos/cm and pH
of 9.5. How is the soil classified ?
a. Saline soil
b. Saline - alkaline soil
c. Alkaline soil
44. How is the determination of aquifer
parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
1. By recording the drawdown in a
pumped well at different time
intervals.
6 of 15
2. By recording the drawdown in
installed observation wells at different
time intervals.
given below
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in
which
1. a canal is carried over the drainage
channel
2. a drainage channel is carried over the
canal
3. both drainage channel and canal are at
the same level.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
46. If the discharge required for different
crops is 0.4 cumes in the field and the
capacity factor and time factors are 0.8 and
0.5 respectively, then what is the design
discharge for the distributory t its head
a. 0.80 Cumecs
b. 0.16 Cumecs
c. 1.0 Cumecs
d. 1.24 Cumecs
47. Which one of the following is the purpose
of providing the downstream sheet pile in
a barrage?
a. To control failure due to piping by
high value of exit gradient
b. To control failure due to scour
c. To stop failure due to sliding
d. To stop failure due to uplift pressure
48. What are the recommended setting options
of an adjustable proportional module
worked with an open flume type outlet?
1. 3/10
2. 9/10
3. 1/2
4. 5/3
given below
a. 1 and 2
b. 1and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
49. The flood plain of a river carries a
discharge of 2000 m
3
/s. What are the
values of the meander length and dominant
flow width?
a. 160 m,48 m
b. 180 m,42 m
c. 200 m, 38 m
d. 220 m, 36 m
50. What is eutrophication of lakes primarily
due to ?
a. Multiplication of bacteria
b. Excessive inflow of nutrients
c. Increase in benthic organisms
d. Thermal and density currents
the lists :
List - I (Parameter)
A. Excess sulphates
B. Lack of iodide
C. Excess hardness
D. Excess dissolved oxygen
List - H (Impact)
1. Greater soap consumption
2. Laxative effect
3. Goitre
4. Corrosion of pipes
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 1 3 2
52. The concentration of hardness producing
cations estimated using which one of the
following ?
a. Conductivity meter
7 of 15
b. pH meter
c. Spectrophotometer
d. Flame photometer
53. Which one of the following treatments is
economically effective in the control of
guinea worm disease?
a. Chlorination
b. Filtration
c. Ozonation
d. Sedimentation
correct answer using may be the code
given below the lists :
List - I (Disinfectant)
A. Chlorine
B. Ozone
C. Iodine
D. Ultra-violet rays
List - II (Property)
1. No carcinogenics result
2. Ineffective in the presence of
suspended solids
3. Not affected by the Ammonium ion
4. Feasible residual content
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2
55. What is the predominating coagulation
mechanism for raw water having high
turbidity and high alkalinity?
a. Ionic layer compression
b. Adsorption and charge neutralization
c. Sweep coagulation
d. Inter particle bridging
the lists :
List I (Physical properties of filtering
material for trickling filters)
A. Crushing strength, N/mm
2

B. Hardness
C. Percent wear
D. Specific gravity
List-II (Limiting Value)
1. 12.0
2. 100.0
3. 4.0
4. 2.6
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 2 4 3 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2 1 3 4
the lists :
List-I (Contaminant)
A. Suspended solids
B. Nutrients
C. Heavy metals
D. Dissolved inorganic solids
List-II (Environmental significance)
1. May cause eutrophication
2. Toxic, may interfere with effluent
reuse
3. May interfere with effluent reuse
4. Cause sludge deposits
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 2 1 4 3
solid waste management conserves energy
most efficiently in the form of gas or oil?
a. Incineration with heat recovery
b. Composting
c. Fluidized - bed incineration
d. Pyrolysis
the lists :
List - I (Equation/Method)
A. Mannings Equation
B. Darcy-Weisbach Equation
8 of 15
C. Hardy Cross Method
D. Rational Method
List - II (Application)
1. Frictional head loss estimation in pipe
flow
2. Sanitary sewer design
3. Storm sewer design
4. Water distribution system design
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 4 2 3
60. In conventional activated sludge process,
MLSS is generally kept in which range ?
a. < 100 mg/l
b. 1000 - 2000 mg/l
c. 2000 - 3000 mg/l
d. 3000 - 5000 mg/l
the lists
List - I (Pathogen)
A. Bacteria
B. Virus
C. Protozoa
D. Helminth
List- II (Epidemic)
1. Gastroenteritis
2. Cholera
3. Worms
4. Polio
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
62. Which among the following brings about
the Hazardous Waste Management and
Handling Rules in India?
a. Central Pollution Control Board
b. Ministry of Environment and Forests
c. Ministry of Urban Development
d. Ministry of Rural Development
63. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists
of which one of the following?
a. Compacted soil
b. Geomembrane
c. Geotextile
d. Geocomposite
the lists
List-I (Air Pollutant)
A. Particulates
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Sulphur oxides
D. Photochemical oxidants
List-II (Impact on Human Health)
1. Impairs transport of O
2
in bloodstream
2. Irritation of mucous membranes of
respiratory tract
3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath
headache etc.
4. Causes respiratory illness
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
65. Which type of plume may occur during
winter nights?
a. Looping
b. Inversion
c. Coning
d. Lofting
66. A machine in a steel plate fabricating
industry is found to be producing a sound
level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one
more such machine needs to be added.
What will be the combined noise level?
a. 80 - 100 dB
b. 101 - 150 dB
c. 51 - 70 dB
d. 40 - 50 dB
9 of 15
statement? A heterotroph is an organism
that obtains
a. its cell carbon from an inorganic
source.
b. its energy from the oxidation of simple
inorganic compounds.
c. its cell carbon as well as its energy
from organic matter.
d. its energy from a natural ecosystem.
68. The term biological magnification
indicates which one of the following?
a. Likelihood of increasing size of
animals during evolution
b. Magnification pertaining to
microscopy
c. Accumulation of pollutants in soil
d. Accumulation of pollutants in
successive consumers
statement ?
The contact pressure distribution below
rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
a. uniform for the full width
b. maximum at the centre and minimum
at the edges.
c. maximum at the edges and minimum
at the centre.
d. of an irregular shape.
70. The following soils are compacted at the
same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct
sequence in the increasing order of their
maximum dry density?
a. Silt clay - Clay - Sand - Gravel sand
clay mixture
b. Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture - Silty
clay - Clay
c. Clay - Silty clay - Sand - Gravel sand
clay mixture
d. Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture - Clay
- Silty clay
On addition of lime to a clay soil,
generally
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase.
2. M.D.D. decreases but strength
increases.
3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
Which of the statements given above is
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
72. From a flow net which of the following
information can be obtained ?
1. Rate of flow
2. Pore water pressure
3. Exit gradient
4. Permeability
given below :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1 only
1. Organic matter increases the
permeability of a soil
2. Entrapped air decreases the
permeability of a si1
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Dewatering increases the slope stability of
a cohesionless soil mainly because
1. it causes changes in pH.
2. it reduces pore water pressure.
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
75.
10 of 15

The virgin compression curve for a soil is
shown in the figure above. What is the
compression index of the soil ?
a. 0.3
b. 0.5
c. 1.5
d. 15
76. What does the confining pressure used in
triaxial compression tests on an
undisturbed soil sample represent ?
a. The in-situ total normal stress
b. The in-situ total lateral stress
c. The in-situ effective average principal
stress
d. The in-situ shear stress
Liquefaction is a phenomenon
1. observed in fine sands
2. associated with development of
positive pore pressure.
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
78. A static cone penetration test is usually
conducted when the structure is likely to
be founded on which of the following?
a. Shallow foundations
b. Pile foundations
c. Drier foundations
d. Improved ground
79. A machine and its foundation weigh 981
kN and has a spring constant k = 10,000
kN/m. What is the value of damping
coefficient C
c
if system is to be critically
damped ? (Acceleration due to gravity g =
9.81 m/s
2
)
a. 1000 kN s/m
b. 4000 kN s/m
c. 2000 kN s/m
d. 8000 kN s/m
1. The bearing capacity of a footing on
clay does not significantly get altered
by the presence of water table
2. The bearing capacity of a footing on
saturated clay (| = 0) is a function of
its size.
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
81. Which of the following types of piles is
likely to have the highest load capacity in
compression?
a. Driven pre - cast concrete pile
b. Pre - cast pile placed in a pre - drilled
bore
c. Driven steel pipe pile
d. Steel pipe pile placed in a pre-drilled
bore
82. What is the value of negative skin friction
for a group of piles of 30 cm diameter, 5
M long and spaced at 80 cm c/c and
having cohesive strength of soil as 25
kN/m
2
(Neglect bottom contribution in
bearing capacity)
a. 925 kN
b. 950kN
c. 975 kN
d. 1000 kN
83. If the coefficient of active earth pressure is
1/3, then what is the value of the
coefficient of passive earth pressure ?
a. 1/9
b. 1/3
c. 3
d. 1
Criteria for satisfactory performance of
footings are that the
11 of 15
1. soil supporting the footing must be
safe against shear failure.
2. footing must not settle more than a pre-
specified value.
3. footing must be rigid.
4. footing should be above water table.
correct ?
a. 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
85. Why are weep holes provided at the back
of retaining walls?
a. To reduce the active earth pressure on
the walls
b. To reduce the build - up of hydrostatic
pressure
c. To provide better compaction
d. To increase the passive earth pressure
86. An increase in compaction effort will lead
to which of the following?
a. Decrease in both the optimum moisture
content (OMC) and maximum dry
density
b. Decrease in both the optimum moisture
content (OMC) and increase in the
maximum dry density
c. Increase in the optimum moisture
content (OMC) and decrease in the
maximum dry density
d. Increase in both the optimum moisture
content (OMC) and maximum dry
density
87. A 20 m chain was found to be 10 cm too
long after chaining a distance of 2000 m. It
was found to be 18 cm too long at the end
of the days work after chaining a total
distance of 4000 m. What is the true
distance if the chain was correct before the
commencement of the days work ?
a. 3962 m
b. 4019 m
c. 3981 m
d. 4038 m
88. There are ten instrument stations occupied
in succession during a traverse survey. An
observer makes equal error in each station,
the magnitude of which is ou in each
instance at all the stations. What is the
probable error of the final bearing at the
end of the traverse ?
a. 10 ou
b. + 100 (ou)
2

c. 10
d. 10 ou
89. Which of the following instruments have
both horizon glass and index glass?
1. Optical square
2. Line ranger
3. Box sextant
4. Pedometer
given below
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 4 only
90. Which one of the following instruments
can be used as a clinometer?
a. Prism square
b. Line ranger
c. Abney level
d. Optical square
91. Match List I with List 11 and select the
the Lists :
List - I (Instrument)
A. Subtense bar
B. Sextant
C. Tangent clinometer
D. Range finder
List - II (Use)
1. To determine difference in elevation
between points
2. To determine horizontal distance
3. To measure angles
4. To establish right angles
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
12 of 15
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 1 4 2 3
92. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship,
just sees the light beam from a lighthouse
on the shore. If the height of the sailors
eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse,
above the sea level, are 9 m and 25 m
respectively, what is the distance between
the sailor and the lighthouse ?
a. 29.8 km
b. 31.1 km
c. 31.9 km
d. 33.2 kin
correct?
a. The axis of plate level should be
parallel to the vertical axis.
b. The axis of striding level must be
parallel to the horizontal axis.
c. The axis of the altitude level must be
perpendicular to the line of
collimation.
d. The line of collimation must be
perpendicular to the plate level axis.
the lists :
List- I (Triangulation Station)
A. Main Stations
B. Subsidiary
C. Satellite Stations
D. Pivot Stations
ListII (Definition)
1. Control points of triangulation network
2. Points not for observation but for
continuation of triangulation network
3. Points to provide additional rays to
intersected points
4. Points close to main stations to avoid
intervening obstructions
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 3 1 2 4
the lists :
List I(Term)
A. Apparent solar day
B. Sidereal day
C. Tropical year
D. Sidereal year
List - II (Definition)
1. The time interval between two
successive upper transits of the first
point of Aries over the same meridian
2. 2. Time interval between two
successive lower transits of the center
of the Sun across the same meridian
3. 3. Time interval between two
successive passage of the Sun over the
meridian of any of the fixed stars
4. The time interval between two
successive vernal equinoxes
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
96. If the mean temperature of Suns surface
6000 K and m of its radiation is 0.5 what
is the mean temperature of Each surface
for which m is 100 m, according to
Wiens Displacement Law in Remote
Seniror Concept?
a. 25 C
b. 28 C
c. 27C
d. 30 C
the lists :
List - I (Type of Construction)
A. Bituminous macadam
B. Dense bituminous macadam
C. Bituminous concrete
D. Bitumen mastic
List - H (Binder Content Generally
Specified)
1. 8- 15%
13 of 15
2. 3 - 35%
3. 4 - 45%
4. 45 - 60%
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
98. If a road surface is adequately
superelevated on horizontal curve, which
one of the. following is the proper
distribution of pressure on the vehicle
wheels ?
a. Pressure on both outer and inner
wheels is equal
b. Pressure on inner wheels is more than
the outer wheels
c. Pressure on inner wheels is less than
the outer wheels
d. Pressure on front wheels is thrice the
pressure on rear wheels
to interchanges
1. In diamond interchange there is the
possibility of illegal wrong - way turns.
2. Diamond interchange is far superior to
cloverleaf design.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
100. Based on Fullers maximum density
criterion, for 4 mm maximum size of soil
particles, what is the percentage of
particles between 4 mm and 2 mm by
weight?
a. 80
b. 50
c. 30
d. 20
101. What are the maximum value of CBR and
minimum value of G.I. of any material,
respectively?
a. 100,0
b. 100,20
c. 50, 5
d. 10, 0
to Los Angeles Abrasion test on
aggregates
1. It evaluates hardness of source - rock.
2. It has a coefficient of variation of
about 30 percent
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
103. A road surface is corrected by spreading a
layer of dry sand in a thickness varying
from 5 mm to 10 mm and rolling the
surface by heavy rollers. Which one of the
following maintenance works does it apply
to?
a. Repair of ruts and patches
b. Repairing of blow ups
c. Repair of bleeding surface
d. Sealing of joints and cracks
104. The weight of aggregate having specific
gravity 2.65, completely filled into a
cylinder of volume 0.003 m
3
is 52 kg.
What is the value of the angularity index
of aggregate (approximately) as given by
Murdock?
a. 1
b. 0.34
c. 0.15
d. 0.05
105. Which one of the following criteria is used
for obtaining the value of modulus of
subgrade reaction from plate bearing test
data?
a. Slope of pressure settlement graph
b. Pressure corresponding to the
settlement of 1.25 mm
c. Deflection corresponding to a pressure
of 1.25 kg/cm
2

d. Pressure corresponding to the
settlement of 1.50 mm
14 of 15
106. Which of the following factors are used for
calculating temperature stress at the
critical edge region in rigid pavement
design ?
1. Maximum temperature difference
between summer and winter
2. Coefficient of thermal expansion of
concrete
3. Slab length
4. Slab width
given below
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
the lists
List - I (Type of Wall)
A. Parapet wall
B. Check wall
C. Breast wall
D. Gabion wall
List - II (Feature)
1. Constructed with dry stone masonry
encased in wire mesh
2. To add the overall stability to the hill
face
3. To buttress the uphill slopes of the
road cross - section
4. To give protection to the motorists
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 2 4 3 1
108. Emulsion is used as a binder in which the
following stages of construction ?
1. Surface dressing work
2. Sealing open textured surfacing
3. Filling cracks in pavement
4. Prime coat
5. Pre-coating of aggregates
given below
a. 1, 2, 3 and 5
b. 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1 and 3 only
the lists
List-I (Speed)
A. Space mean speed
B. Journey speed
C. Running speed
D. Spot speed
List-Il (Application)
1. Road conditions studies
2. Regulatory measures
3. Traffic flow studies
4. Delay studies
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1 2 3 4
110. Which one of the following methods is
generally considered the best for tunnel
ventilation ?
a. Driving a drift through the tunnel
b. Blow in method
c. Blow out method
d. Combination of Blow in and Blow
out methods
111. Which one of the following is not related
to theories of creep of rails ?
a. Wave theory
b. Percussion theory
c. Drag theory
d. Reversal theory
112. What is the steepest gradient permissible
on a 20 curve for B.G. line having reeling
gradient of I in 200?
a. 1 in 250
b. 1 in 238
c. 1 in 209
15 of 15
d. 1 in 198
113. Which one of following is not correct for
container ports ?
a. The berth capacity is great
b. Overall transit time is less
c. There is minimal damage to cargo
d. Minimal land is required for the
marshalling area
114. Which one of following statements
associated with groynes :
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of
groynes is influenced by the
characteristics of particles that
constitute the littoral drift.
2. Groyne is constructed approximately
parallel to shore.
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
115. What is the wave velocity for a uniform
train of wave beyond the storm centre for a
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water?
a. 5.5 m/s
b. 11.2 m/s
c. 4.5 m/s
d. 9 m/s
116. As the elevation increases, the runway
length has to be changed at what rate ?
a. Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in
elevation above M.S.L.
b. Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in
c. Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in
d. Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in
117. Assertion (A) : A discrete particle (of
diameter d
0
) setting in a circular
sedimentation tank follows a parabolic
path.
Reason (R) : The downward settling
velocity (v
0
) of the discrete particle (of
diameter d
0
) in a circular sedimentation
tank does not change with time.
118. Assertion (A) : Shear strength parameters
of sand can be estimated by conducting
unconfined compression test.
Reason (R) : The effective angle of
shearing resistance of sand is nearly the
same for thy and saturated sands, in
drained condition.
119. Assertion (A) : Estimation of settlement of
foundations on sandy soils can be done by
using SPT values.
Reason (R) : Sampling- in cohesionless
soils without disturbing the structure is
difficult.
120. Assertion (A) : The water content of
inorganic soils is determined by heating
the soil in an oven at a temperature of 105
to 110
0
C.
Reason (R) : The free water, adsorbed
water & structural water are all completely
removed from the soil by heating it at 105
to 110
0
C.
1 of 15

(PAPERI )

1.

What is the total degree of indeterminacy
(both internal and external) of the
triangular planar truss shown in the figure
above?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

2.

in the continuous prismatic beam shown in
the above figure?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

3.

(both internal and external) of the
cantilever plane truss shown in the above
figure?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

4.

What is the number of independent
degrees of freedom of the tow-span
continuous beam of uniform section
shown in the above figure?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5.

What is the kinematics indeterminacy for
the frame shown above? (member
inextensible)
a. 6
b. 11
c. 12
d. 21

6. If the axial deformation is neglected, what
is the kinematics indeterminacy of a signal
bay portal frame fixed at base?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
7.

I.E.S (OBJ) 2008
2 of 15
For the rigid frame shown above, what is
the moment reaction at A?
a. 5 kNm
b. 10 kNm
c. 12.33 kNm
d. 15 kNm
Ans. b
8. If the free end of a cantilever of span l and
flexure rigidity EI undergoes a unit
displacement (without rotation), what is
the bending moment induced at the fixed
end?
a.
2
3
l
EI

b.
2
4
l
EI

c.
2
5
l
EI

d.
2
6
l
EI

Ans. d
9.

A fixed beam AB, of constant EI, shown
in the above figure, supports a
concentrated load of 10 kN. What is the
fixed end-moment M
FAB
at support A?
a. 4.8 kNm
b. 6.0 kNm
c. 7.2 kNm
d. 9.5 kNm
Ans. c
10.

In the portal frame shown above, what are
the distribution factors for members BA,
BC and BD respectively?
a.
3
1
,
3
1
,
3
1

b.
4
1
,
4
1
,
2
1

c. 0 ,
3
1
,
3
2

d.
2
1
,
4
1
,
4
1

Ans. a
the lists:
List I
(Analysis Method)
A. Kanes method
B. Force method
C. Column method
D. Displacement method
List II
(Structure Type)
1.
2.
3.
4.
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 3 1 4
Ans. b
12. Muller-Breslau Principle is applicable to
get influence line for which one of the
following?
a. Reaction at the ends of simple beam
b. Bending moment at a section
c. Shear force at a section
d. Forces and moments at any section
Ans. d
3 of 15
13. What is the number of plastic hinges
formed if an indeterminate beam with
redundancy R is to become determinate?
a. R -1
b. R
c. R +1
d. R +2
Ans. b
14.

A portal frame has a collapse mechanism
as shown above. What is the type?
a. Pure portal mechanism
b. Panel mechanism
c. Combined mechanism
d. Dual beam mechanism
15. A steel beam is connected to a steel
column by means of two angles placed on
the two sides of the web of the beam.
What is it called?
a. Stiffened seat connection
b. Unstiffened seat connection
c. Framed connection
d. Rigid connection
16.

What is the failure of a section in the
figure above called?
1. Web buckling
2. Web crippling
3. Web crimpling
4. Column bucking
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 4
17. In the plastic analysis of a steel beam,
which of the following assumptions is/are
made?
1. Plane sections under bending
remain Plane at all stages of bending.
2. The stress-stair, relation is bilinear, i.e.
consisting of tow straight lines.
3. Shear deformations are neglected.
given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
18. A load P is applied at the middle of a
simply supported beam of span L. If the
beam is made of ductile material, and M
P
is the plastic moment, what is the ultimate
value of P?
a. M
P
/ (4L)
b. 2M
P
/ L
c. 2.5 M
P
/L
d. 4 M
P
/ L
19. What value of the shape factor is taken for
a rectangular section in plastic design?
a. 1.0
b. 1.5
c. 2.0
d. 2.5
20. Plastic analysis of structures is applicable
to the structures made of which one of the
following?
a. Ductile and brittle materials
b. Any structural material
c. Brittle material only
d. Ductile material only
21. The effective length of an angle member in
a riveted truss is equal to which one of the
following?
(Where l is the centre to centre between
the joints).
a. l
b. 0.85 l
c. 0. 65 l
d. 0.5 l
22. Which one of the following is correct:
The purling in the roof trusses are
subjected to unsymmetrical bending
because the loading
a. is parallel to the minor principle axis,
but doesnt coincide
b. is perpendicular to the minor principle
axis
c. is inclined to the minor principal axis
4 of 15
d. coincides with the minor principal axis
23. Which one of the following is correct?
An intermediate vertical stiffener
connected to the web is designed to
withstand a shearing force of not less than
a.
h
t 100

b.
h
t
2
150

c.
2
125
t
h

d.
h
t
2
125

Where t is web thickness in mm and h is
the outstand of stiffener in mm.
24. Which one of the following forces is used
for the design of battens of a built-up
column?
a. Axial load
b. Twisting moment
c. Vertical shear
d. Transverse shear
25. Which of the following parameters govern
the permissible stress in compression in
columns?
1. Modulus of section
2. Effective length
3. Radius of gyration
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
slenderness ratio for steel ties likely to be
subjected to compression?
a. 400
b. 350
c. 250
d. 180
27. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are
reduced by what percentage?
a. 10 %
b. 15 %
c. 25 %
d. %
3
1
33
28. An equal angle of are A has been welded
on one side of a Gusset plate and carries
tension along the axis. What is the
effective area of the angle?
a. 0.5 A
b. 0.75 A
c. 0.875 A
d. A
The permissible stresses in a weld are
usually taken as
a. less than those of the parent body
b. equal to those of the parent body
c. more than those of the parent body
d. any desired value
30. How are structural members composed of
two angles back to back connected
throughout their length?
a. By locking rivets
b. By spacing rivets
c. By gripping rivets
d. By tacking rivets
Steel structures are ideally suitable for
impact loads because they have high
a. toughness value
b. elastic modulus
c. design stress
d. plastic modulus
32. What is the allowable direct tensile stress
in structural steel (approximately)?
a. 0.45 f
v

b. 0.6 f
y

c. 0.66 f
y

d. 0.80 f
y

Where f
y
is the yield stress or proof stress.
Compared to mild steal, aluminum has
1. lesser ductility
2. lesser value of Youngs modulus.
3. lesser tensile strength.
4. no definite yield point.
correct?
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 3 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4 only
range of fineness modulus of medium sand
usable in preparing cement mortar?
a. 1.5 to 2.2
5 of 15
b. 2.6 to 2.9
c. 2.9 to 3.2
d. 5.5 to 6.5
matched?
1. Particle size: Affects workability
2. Absorption and surface moisture:
Affects mix proportions
3. Grading: Maximizes cement
4. Bulk density: Significant for stability
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
1. Rise in temperature does not cause any
change in the color of cement concrete.
2. Curing minimizes the shrinkage of
cement concrete when it sets.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. In reinforced cement concrete, modular
ratio is defined by ratio (modulus of
elasticity of steel) (modulus of
elasticity of concrete).
2. Modulus of rupture of cement concrete
is a function of its characteristic
compressive strength.
3. The characteristic compressive
strength of M20 grade cement concrete
at 7 days is 20 N/mm
2
.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
38. What is the percentage of the fine
aggregate of fineness modulus 2.6 to be
combined with coarse aggregate of
fineness modulus 6.8 for obtaining
combined aggregate of fineness modulus
5.4?
a. 30 %
b. 40 %
c. 50 %
d. 60 %
the lists:
List-I
(Admixture)
A. Calcium lignosulphonate
B. Aluminum powders
C. Tartaric acid
D. Sodium silicate
List-II
(Action in concrete)
1. Accelerators
2. Retarded
3. Air entertainer
4. Water reducer
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 2 3 4
40. Which factors influence the workability of
concrete without sacrificing strength?
1. Fine aggregate
2. Quality of mixing water
3. Maximum size of coarse aggregate
4. Shape of coarse aggregate.
given below:
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
41. The workability of concrete can be
increased by which of the following?
1. Increasing the quantity of coarse
aggregate without altering the total
aggregate quantity
2. Decreasing the quantity of coarse
aggregate and at the same time
correspondingly increasing the
quantity of fine aggregate
3. Using round aggregate
given below:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
6 of 15
d. 1, 2 and 3
regarding cement concrete:
1. Bleeding indicates deficiency of
coarser materials in the mix.
2. Segregation generally indicates poor
aggregate grading.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 3
Curing of concrete by steam under
pressure
1. increases the compressive strength of
concrete.
2. reduces the shear strength of concrete.
3. increases the speed of chemical
reaction.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 only
44. Match the sequence of determination of
components of a concrete mix as per
Indian standard method of mix design and
given below the lists:
List-I
A. Cement content
B. Aggregate content
C. Water content
D. Water cement ratio
List-II
1. First step
2. Second step
3. Third step
4. Fourth step
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 4 2 3
45. In a body loaded under plane stress
conditions, what is the number of
independent stress components in order to
completely specify the state of
stress at a point?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 9
46. The value of modulus of elasticity for a
material in 200 GN/m
2
and Poissons ratio
is 0.25. What is its modulus of rigidity?
a. 250 GN/m
2

b. 320 GN/m
2

c. 125 GN/m
2

d. 80 GN/m
2

47.

A stepped column carries loads as shown
above. What is the maximum normal stress
in the column at B in the larger diameter
column?
a.
A
P
5 . 1

b.
A
P

c.
A
P
5 . 1
2

d.
A
P 2

48. A composite system where the
components are of equal lengths is
subjected to temperature rise. Which one
of the following stresses will be developed
in the component having highest
coefficient of linear expansion?
a. Compressive stress
b. Tensile stress
c. Shear stress
d. Zero stress
49. What is the nature of stress in a ceiling fan
rod?
a. Bending
b. Tensile
c. Compressive
d. Shear
7 of 15
50.

What is the diameter of Mohrs circle of
stress for the state of stress shown above?
a. 20
b. 2 10
c. 10
d. Zero
51. In a plane strain situation in xy plane, the
displacements at a point are given as:
u =(-2x +8y) 10
-6
unit.
v =(-3x +5y) 10
-6
unit
What is the shearing strain?
a. 9 10
-6

b. 7 10
-6

c. 5 10
-6

d. 3 10
-6

52. If a body carries two unlike principal
stresses, what is the maximum shear
stress?
a. Half the difference of magnitude of the
principal stresses.
b. Half the sum of the magnitude of
principal stresses.
c. Difference of the magnitude of
principal stresses.
d. Sum of the magnitude of principal
stresses
53. In a bi-axial strain system
x
and
y,
what is
the maximum engineering shearing strain?
a.
x
+
y

b.
x
-
y

c.
2
y x

d.
2
y x

54. A symmetrical I section is subjected to
shear force.
The chear stress induced across induced
across the section is maximum at which
location?
a. Extreme fibers
b. At the bottom of flanges in
flanges
c. At the bottom of flanges in web
portion
d. At the neutral axis
55. A simply supported beam AB of span L
carries two concentrated loads W each at
points L/3 from A and B. What is the S.F.
in the middle one-third portion of the
beam?
a. W/2
b. 2W
c. W
d. Zero
56. A beam is made of two identical metal
flats soldered together. What is the ratio of
stiffness of this beam to the stiffness of a
beam in which the two flats are not
soldered and which acts independently?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
57. A circular shaft is subjected to a bending
moment M
b
and a twisting moment M
t.

What is the ratio of maximum shear stress
and the maximum bending stress?

a.
b
t
M
M 2

b.
b
t
M
M

c.
b
t
M
M
2

d.
b
t
M
M 5 . 1

58. A thin cylinder of unit length, thickness t
and radius r is subjected to internal
pressure p. What is the circumferential
stress?
a.
Et
pr
2

b.
t
pr
2

c.
t
pr

8 of 15
d.
t
pr 2

59.

What is the force in the vertical member
CD of the pin-jointed frame shown above?
a. 12 T (tension)
b. 2 T (compression)
c. 7 T (compression)
d. 5 T (tension)
60. What if the ratio of load carrying capacity
of a fixed beam to the of a cantilever beam
of same span, having same maximum
bending moment and loaded with
uniformly distributed load throughout the
span?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 2
the lists:
List-I
(Chart)
A. Bar chart
B. Milestone
C. W.B.S
D. Linked Bar chart
List II
(Facilitation)
1. Activity dependencies can be implied
2. Resource requirement can be depicted
3. Higher level of authority can effect
monitoring and control
4. Trade based site supervision can be
assigned
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
62. Fill factor range of a power shovel
when used for well blasted rock is
a. 0.9 1.0
b. 0.8 0.9
c. 0.6 0.75
d. 0.4 0.5
of a crawler mounted power shovel over a
rubber-typed equipment?
1. It can operate of soft and hard soil.
2. It is less expensive than rubber-tyred
equipment.
3. It works faster than rubber-tyred
equipment,
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
64. The strain of the boom of a hoist is
minimum when it is in the
a. Vertical position
b. Horizontal position
c. Inclined position general
d. 45 inclined position
the lists:
List I
(Equipment)
A. Clamshell
B. Designation S
C. Designation E
D. Centralized production
List II
(Used as with)
1. Paving mixer
2. Aggregate storage bins at batching and
mixing plant
3. Transit mixer
4. Construction mixer
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 1 4 2 3
66. For high class brick masonry, which area
the proper bricks?
a. Refractory bricks
9 of 15
b. J humb bricks
c. Bull nose bricks
d. Modular bricks
Fully priestesses concrete beams
a. resist all the working loads by priestess
b. resist the full live load by priestess
c. resist the part of the load by priestess
d. resist only the dead loads
68. What is the assumption in the steel beam
theory of doubly reinforced beams?
a. Only steel bars will resist tension
b. Only concrete will resist tension
c. Stress in tension steel equals the stress
in compression steel
d. Both concrete and steel will resist
compression
regarding CPM technique of project
planning:
1. The critical path consists of those
activities for which the total float is
zero.
2. Independent float is expressed as the
difference between total float and the
slack at the head event.
3. It is not possible to complete an
activity earlier than the crash time.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
70. A compounded bar consists of material A
encased in material B. It is tightly secured
at the ends. The coefficient of thermal
expansion of A is more than of B. If the
temperature of the bar is increased, the
stresses induced will be
a. tensile in both materials
b. compressive in both materials
c. tensile in material B and compressive
in material A
d. compressive in material B and tensile
in material A
the lists:
List-I
(Equipment)
A. Derrick crane
B. Hoe
C. Clam shell
D. Dumper truck
List-II
(Category)
1. Excavating equipment
2. Hauling equipment
3. Hoisting equipment
4. Lifting equipment
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 4 2 3 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 4 1 3 2
72. The approximate hourly output of a
scraper is given by
28 ) 30 / (
100
D
C
where c
is the struck capacity of the scraper in m
3
and D is the one-way haul distance in
meters. For a nominal 7 m
3
scraper hauling
over 65 m, the hourly output will nearly be
a. 170 m
3

b. 160 m
3

c. 150 m
3

d. 140 m
3

73. Which one of the following techniques is
most suitable in case of research and
development type of activity?
a. Critical Path Method
b. Project Evaluation and Review
Technique
c. Bar chart
d. Graphical Evaluation and Review
Technique
74. A tunnel of length of 800m is to be driven.
Part of the total length is through granite
and balance is through sandstone. Granite
can be tunneled at 10m per day and
sandstone at 20m per day. Two mutually
exclusive site conditions can be. (1) A
probability of 0.4 for 600m granite with
200m sandstone; (2) Probability of 0.6 that
each is 400m lone. The probabilistic
estimate of total tunneling duration is
a. 74 bays
b. 68 days
c. 64 days
d. 60 days
10 of 15
75. Assertion (A): addition of calcium chloride
while preparing concrete proves more
effective with slow hardening Portland
cement than with rapid hardening cement.
Reason (R): Calcium chloride is an
effective accelerator in increasing the rate
of relevant reaction.
76. Assertion (A): The volume of mortar
needed for plastering on both faces of a
one-brick wall is more than that for the
same are on both faces together of any
other thickness of brick wall.
Reason (R): More water evaporates form
the wetted bricks in case of a one-brick
wall and also the joints have to be more
commonly raked.
77. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a case
iron specimen, the failure of the specimen
is one a cross section perpendicular to the
axis of the specimen.
Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is
on a plane subjected to maximum tensile
stress and cast iron is relatively weak in
tension.
78. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a mild
steel specimen, the failure of the specimen
is along a plane at 45 to the cross section.
Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is
on a plane subjected to maximum shear
stress and mild steel is relatively weak in
shear.
b. Both A and R are individually
true but R is the correct explanation of
A
79. Assertion (A): Linked bar chart cannot be
developed form an AON network as easily
as form an AOA network.
Reason (R): AON networks do not
incorporate information corresponding to
dummy arrows of AOA networks.
80. Assertion (A): Where as crashing
considers only the negative cost slop
aspects, resource allocation may need
consideration of the positive cost slope
aspects also.
Reason (R): Implement ability is based on
manageability and affordability of
resource histograms.
81.

For the propped cantilever shown in the
above figure, a hinge is provided at C.A
and B is at the same level. What is the
force reaction at the fixed end A?
a. (4/3) P
b. P
c. (3/4) P
d. P/2
A suspension bridge with a two-hinged
stiffening girder is
a. Statically determinate
b. Indeterminate of one degree
c. Indeterminate of two degrees
d. A mechanism
11 of 15
83.

What is the shear equation in slope
deflection method for the portal frame
shown above?
a. 0
P
L
M M
L
M M
DC CD BA AB

b. 0
P
L
M M
L
M M
CB BC BA AB

c. 0
P
L
M M
L
M M
DC CD CB BC

d.
0
p
L
M M
CB BC

84.

The fixed beam AB has hinge C at mid
span. A concentrated load P is applied at
C. What is the fixed end moment M
A
?
a. Pl
b. Pl/2
c. Pl/4
d. Pl/8
85.

The propped cantilever AB carries a
uniformly distributed load of q/unit length.
In this condition the moment reaction
M
A
=
8
2
ql
What is the clockwise
moment required at B to make the slope of
the deflection curve equal to zero?
a.
8
2
ql

b.
16
2
ql

c.
12
2
ql

d.
4
2 ql

86.

What is the statical indeterminacy for the
frame shown above?
a. 12
b. 15
c. 11
d. 14
A statically indeterminate structure is the
one which
a. cannot be analysed at all
b. can be analysed using equations of
statics only
c. can be analysed using equations of
statics and compatibility equations
d. can be analysed using equations of
compatibility only
88. By which one of the following methods is
an approximate quick solution possible for
frame subjected to transverse loads?
a. By cantilever or portal method
b. By strain energy method
c. By moment distribution method
d. By matrix method
89. match list-I with list-II and select the
the lists:
List-I
A. Maxwells diagram
12 of 15
B. Hennebergs method
C. New marks method
D. Williot-mohr diagram
List-II
1. Displacement of joints in a truss
2. Deflection by numerical procedure
3. Forces in bar members
4. Concept of substitute member
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 1 4 2 3
90. Some structural members subjected to long
time sustained loads deform progressively
with time especially at elevated
temperatures. What is such a phenomenon
called?
a. Fatigue
b. Creep
c. Creep relaxation
d. Fracture
91.

What is the reaction at the support D of the
rigid jointed structure shown above?
a. 10 kN
b. 20 kN
c. 30 kN
d. 40 kN
A determinate structure
a. Cannot be analyzed without the correct
knowledge of modulus of elasticity
b. Must necessarily have roller support at
one of its ends
c. Requires only statical equilibrium
equations for its analysis
d. Will have zero deflection at its ends
When a load is applied to a
structure with rigid joints
a. There is no rotation or displacement of
joint
b. There is no displacement of joint
c. There is no displacement of joint
d. There can be rotation and displacement
of joint but the angle between the
members connected to the joint
remains same ever after application of
the load
94.

In the frame shown above, what is true
horizontal reaction at left support?
a. 15 kN
b. 13 kN
c. 7 kN
d. 2 kN
95.

What is the force in the member BC of the
place frame shown above?
a. 10 kN tensile
b. 10 kN compressive
c. 5.76 kN compressive
d. Zero
1. The bending stiffness of a beam cannot
be determined and the dimensions of
cross-section of the beam.
2. The boundary conditions of a structure
are important in sketching its deflected
shape qualifiedly as well as for
computing the displacement
quantitatively.
correct?
a. 1 only
13 of 15
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
97. Match list-I with list-II and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Wood Element)
A. Pitch
B. Sapwood
C. Heart wood
D. Cambium layer
List-II
(Description)
1. Innermost portion of the tree
2. Inner annual rings surrounding the
pitch
3. Outermost annual rings
4. Thin layer of sap between sapwood
and inner bark
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 3 1 4
98. In respect of moisture content in wood
fiver saturation point refers to which one
of the following?
a. Free water present in the cells
b. Free water present in cell walls and
cell cavities
c. No moisture present in cell walls and
cell cavities
d. No free water exists in cell cavities but
cell walls are saturated
99. The moisture content of timber used in
building frames can be
a. 2% to 5%
b. 8% to 12%
c. 12% to 18%
d. >20%
100. Match list-I with List-II and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Disease of Timber)
A. Dry rot
B. Grey rot
C. Wet rot
D. White rot
List-II
(Effect of Disease)
1. Attack of sapwood by fungus
2. Damage to wood fibers due to
chemical decomposition of wood
3. Destruction of cellulose of wood due o
fungal attack
4. Destruction of lignin of wood due to
fungal attack
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 2 4 1 3
101. For flatly laid single brick soling, what is
the number of bricks required of nominal
size 20 cm 10 cm, with 1.2 cm wide
cement mortar all around and with
allowing up to 1% wastage for 10 m
2
area?
a. 400
b. 410
c. 425
d. 440
1. Soil containing more than 30% of
calcium hydroxide is used for
manufacture of sand lime brick.
2. Carbon brick is made form crushed
coke bonded with tar.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
103. What is the number of traditional bricks
required for 10m
3
of brickwork with
standard thickness of cement mortar (1:3
to 1:5, as the case may be)?
a. 4750
b. 4850
c. 4950
d. 5050
104. Consider the following statements on
cement mortar in brick masonry:
1. Cracking in brick masonry in most of
the cases is due to differential
movement of the structure.
14 of 15
2. Rich mix cement mortar in brick
masonry makes the structure
unnecessarily rigid.
3. small quantity of hydrated lime in
cement mortar reduces shrinkage
cracks.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
the lists:
List-I
(Composition of raw material used in
manufacture of cement)
A. 25%
B. 65%
C. 5%
D. 5%
List-II
(Component of raw material)
1. Silica
2. Calcium oxide
3. Aluminum oxide
4. Ferrous and magnesium oxides
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 4 2 3 1
106. Match List-I with List-II in respect of
ordinary Portland cement and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Compound)
A. Tribalism silicate
B. Dualism silicate
C. Tribalism aluminate
D. Tertra calcium aluminoferrite
List-II
(Proportion)
1. 25 to 30%
2. 50 to 60%
3. 6 to 8%
4. 8 to 12%
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
the lists:
List-I
(Equipment)
A. Briquette testing machine
B. I e chatelier
C. Vicat apparatus
List-II
(Property)
1. Compressive strength
2. Consistency
3. Soundness
4. Tensile strength
Code:
A B C
a. 1 3 2
b. 1 2 3
c. 4 2 3
d. 4 3 2
108. When sand for construction work is stored
at site in stacks of 61 cm height, what
allowance due to sink age and shrinkage
should be provided?
a. 5%
b. %
2
1
7
c. 10%
d. %
2
1
12
109. How can shear strength be ensured in a
beam?
a. By providing binding wire on main
bars
15 of 15
b. By providing HYSD bars instead of
mild steel bars
c. By providing rounded aggregate
d. By providing stirrups
110. How is the depth of footing for an isolated
column governed?
1. By maximum bending moment
2. By shear force
3. By punching shear
given below:
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
111. Usually stiffness of a simply supported
beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to
depth does not exceed which one of the
following?
a. 7
b. 10
c. 20
d. 26
112. When is an R.C.C roof slab designed as a
two way slab?
a. If the slab is continuous over two
opposite edges only
b. It the slab is un-supported at one edge
only
c. If the ratio of spans in two directions is
>2
d. If the ratio of spans in two directions is
<2 s
When HYSD bars are used in place of
mild steel bars in beam, the bond strength
a. Does not change
b. Increases
c. Decreases
d. Becomes zero
114. In a singly reinforced beam, the tensile
steel reaches its maximum allowable stress
earlier than concrete. What is such a
section known as?
a. Under-reinforced section
b. Over-reinforced section
c. Balanced section
d. Economic section
115. Why is the design of a R.C. section as
over-reinforced undesirable?
a. It consumes more concrete
b. It undergoes high strains
c. It fails suddenly
d. Its appearance is not good
116. What is the moment capacity of an under-
reinforced rectangular RCC beam?
a. R b d
2

b. R d b
2

c. A
st

st
j d
d. A
st
j d
(Symbols have the usual meaning)
117. What is the bond stress acting parallel to
the reinforcement on the interface between
bar and concrete?
a. Shear stress
b. Local stress
c. Flexural stress
d. Bearing stress
118. In a singly reinforced concrete beam
section maximum compressive stress in
concrete and tensile stress in steel reach
their permissible stresses simultaneously.
What is such a section called?
a. Under reinforced section
b. Economic section
c. Balanced section
d. Over-reinforced section
While designing combined footing, the
resultant of the column loads passes
through the centrc of gravity of the footing
slab such that the net soil pressure
obtained is
a. Parabolic
b. Trapezoidal
c. Uniform
d. Non-uniform
120. For shorter storey height, cheaper form
work and better lighting facilities, what is
the recommended slab floor?
a. T beam and slab
b. Two way slab
c. Flat slab
d. Framed structure

1 of 15

(PAPERI I )

1. The type of jump that forms when initial
Froude number lies between 2-5 and 4-5 is
a. Weak jump
b. Steady jump
c. undular jump
d. oscillating jump
2. During the consolidation of a clay layer, if
instead of double drainage, the drainage is
allowed at single face only, the rate of
compression will be
a. 4 times slower
b. 4 times faster
c. 2 times slower
d. 2 times faster
3. For a proposed building, raft foundation
isolated footings and combined footings
are being considered. These foundations
are to be listed in the decreasing order of
preference in terms of performance. Which
one of the following is the correct order of
listing?
a. Raft foundation combined footings
isolated footings
b. Isolated footings Raft foundation
combined footings
c. Combined footings Raft foundation
isolation footings
d. Combined footings isolated footings
raft foundation
foundation design in expansive soil can be
done by
1. Isolating the foundation from the
swelling soil
2. Taking measures to prevent the
swelling
3. Employing measures to make the
structure withstand the moment.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
5. Which one of the following is carried out
by two the dilate method?
a. Circular curve ranging
b. Tachometric survey
c. Geodetic survey
d. Astronomical survey
6. Electronic the odolites of various ranges in
which measured angels are displayed
originally on display board area based on
a. Special optical technology
b. Introduction of microprocessor
technology
c. Electro-optical technology
d. Special gearing
7. If the weight of an angle A (= 40 24'24
say) is 2, then the weight of the angle A/3
(= 1328' 08) will be
a. 4
b.
3

c. 9
d. 18
8. Flam steed gave numbers to stats observed
by him in each constellation according to
their
a. Brilliance
b. Altitudes
c. Co-declinations
d. Right ascensions
9. If o is the declination of a star and is the
latitude of the place of observation, then
for a circumpolar star

a. o |
b. o |
c. o (90-2|)
d. o (90-2|)
10. Which one of the following surveys
employs alidade?
I.E.S (OBJ) 2008
2 of 15
a. Contour survey
b. Archeological survey
c. Plane table survey
d. Reconnaissance survey
11. A particular runway measures 6 cm on a
vertical photograph, whereas the same
runway measures 4 cm on a map plotted
on a scale of 1/24000. The scale of the
photograph at the runway elevation is :
a. 1/36000
b. 1/24000
c. 1/36000
d. 1/16000
12. Assertion (A): Rankines earth pressure
theory should not be used for concrete
retaining walls and coulombs theory
should not be used for estimating passive
earth pressures.
Reasons (R): Rankine assumed that the
retaining wall has a vertical beck and
coulomb assumed that the resultant
reaction due to earth pressure acts at one-
third the height of the wall.
R is the correct expiation of A
13. Assertion (A): generally driven pilcs are
adopted in granular soils and not in clays.
Reason (R): Vibratory loading helps in
densification of sands but it has adverse
effects in clays.
14. Assertion (A): Under-reamed piles are
suitable for loose filled up sites and black
cotton soils.
Reasons (R): Black cotton soil have
expansive montmorillonite clay minerals.
15. Assertion (A): foundation on expansive
soils must be designed for as high a
bearing pressure as possible consistent
with bearing capacity and settlement
requirement.
Reasons (R) : Lightly loaded single and
two strayed buildings experience
maximum damage when built on
expansive soils.
16. Assertion (A): Triangulation networks are
to be formed by well conditioned triangles.
Reason (R): triangulation signals should
be conspicuous and centered accurately
over the stations.
17. Assertion (A): Road camber helps in
surface drainage.
Reason (R): In a curved road alignment,
super elevation serves the purpose of
camber.
18. Assertion (A): California bearing ratio test
is carried out to evaluate the stability of
soil sub grade and other flexible pavement
materials over stressed.
Reason: It is essential at no time are the
soil sub grade as well as other flexible
pavement materials over stressed.
3 of 15
19. Assertion (A): wind rose diagrams,
showing wind direction duration and
intensity are an essential requirement for
planning the best direction of main runway
of the airport.
Reason (R): corrections for elevation,
temperature and gradient have to be
applied to determine the length of the main
runway of an airport, as per ICAO
recommendations.
20. Assertion (A): runway capacity will be
more in airport operating under VFR than
IFR.
Reason (R): VFR gives more clear visual
reference of airport during good weather
conditions.
21. Which of the following statements is/are
correct?
Lining of irrigation canals has necessarily
to be carried out in the reaches where the
channel passes through
1. Sandy soil
2. Coarse aggregate soil
3. Clay soil
4. Fine silt and clay
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 3 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
22. A 4 hr storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the
resulting direct runoff was 20 cm. if the |-
index remains at the same value,
the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 8 hrs
in the catchment is:
a. 6.0 cm
b. 7.5 cm
c. 2.3 cm
d. 2.8 cm
23. While using darcy-weisbach equation for
estimating head loss in a pipe flow the
friction factor was misjudged by +20%.
For this case, the error in estimating
discharge is:
a. + 10%
b. + 40%
c. 40%
d. 10%
Due to aging of pipes in a pipe network
1. The roughness increases linearly with
time.
2. The pipes get rusted and bent.
3. The pipes become smoother with time.
correct?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1 only
25. The shape number in the case of pumps
refers to which one of the following?
a. Ratio of sizes of suction pipe and
delivery pipe
b. Ratio of diameter and thickness of
impeller
c. Non dimensional form of specific
speed
d. Ratio of blade angle at the inlet to the
blade angle at the exit
1. Hydraulically most efficient channel
section for an open channel flow will
carry maximum discharge for a given
area of cross section.
2. For a given cross sectional area
hydraulic radius maximum when the
wetted perimeter is minimum.
correct?
4 of 15
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. Fluids of low viscosity are all
irrigational.
2. Rotation of the fluid is always
associated with shear stress.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
the lists:
List I
(component)
A. Taxiways
B. Control tower
C. Hanger
D. Apron
List II
(Design Feature)
1. Large span structure
2. Visibility all round and sound-proof
3. Turning radius
4. Waiting capacity for aircraft
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 4 1 2
29. The size of hangar in an airport is guided
by which of the following?
a. Speed and direction of wind and
visibility
b. Weight of aircraft and turning needs
c. The fuelling capacity and storage space
d. The length, wingspan and height of
aircraft
30. The orientation of runway is decided by
which factors?
1. Maximum wind coverage and
least cross winds
2. Landing characteristics of aircrafts
3. Scope for future expansion
4. Obstruction-free approaches
given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
31. Mean sea level at Indian ports and
harbours has generally been established
based on the analysis of tidal sea water
level fluctuations over which period?
a. 10 years
b. 16 years
c. 19 years
d. 25 years
32. Match list-I with List-II and select the
the lists:
List I
(Component)
A. Keel and Bilge blocks
B. Capstons and Bolards
C. Fenders
D. Apron
List II
(Function)
1. Impact absorbers of quay walls
2. Floating indicators
3. Supports for ships in dry docks
4. Anchorage devices for ships
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 2 1
33. Echo-sounding machine is used for which
of the following?
1. Locating objects on sea shore
2. Measuring sea-surface levels
3. Determining depth of sea-bed below
sea surface
5 of 15
4. Location sunken objects below sea
surface
given below:
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
matched?
1. Vishakhapatnam Plymouth : Semi-
natural harbor
2. Para dip and Mangalore: Lagoon
harbor
3. New York : Natural harbor
given below
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
1. Piles are provided in groups, which are
connected together by a pile cap. The
structure rests on top of the pile cap.
The pile cap is situated below the
ground level.
2. For situations where pile is subjected
to upward pull, pedestal piles or under-
reamed piles are more suitable type of
foundations.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
36. In comparison to Atterberg limits of
normal soil, the expansive soils have
1. More liquid limit
2. Less plastic limit
3. Less shrinkage limit
4. More volumetric shrinkage
given below:
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
On addition of lime to swelling soils,
1. Their liquid limit increases
2. Their plastic limit increases
3. Their shrinkage limit increases
4. Their swelling potential decreases
correct?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
the under-reamed pile in swelling soils:
1. Its bulb provides anchor against
movement due to volume changes of
soil.
2. It is a driven pile.
3. Its bulb diameter is 2-5 times its shaft
diameter.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
39. A scale of 1 inch = 50 ft. is mentioned on
an old map. What is the corresponding
equivalent scale?
a. 1 cm = 5 m
b. 1cm = 6 m
c. 1cm = 10 m
d. 1 cm = 12 m
40. The whole circle bearings of lines AB and
BC are 30 15 and 120 30. What is the
included angle ABC between the lines AB
and BC?
a. 229 45
b. 89 45
c. 269 45
d. 90 15
41. What is ZABC if FB of line AB is 40 and
BB of line BC is 280?
a. 90
b. 120
6 of 15
c. 240
d. 320
not correct?
a. Change point is a point denoting
shifting of level
b. For leveling work both centering and
leveling of a dumpy level are
prerequisite
c. Bench mark is a point whose R.L. is
always known
the characteristics of contours:
1. Closed contour lines with higher
values inside show a lake.
2. Contour is an imaginary line joining
points of equal elevations.
3. Closely spaced contours indicate steep
slop.
4. Contour lines can cross each other in
case an overhanging cliff.
correct?
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 4
d. 1,2 and 3
44. Which of the following can be used as a
map substitute?
a. Terrestrial photographs
b. Vertical aerial photographs
c. Oblique aerial photographs
d. Vertical aerial photo-mosaics
the list
List I
A. Visual interpretation
B. Geographical information system
C. National remote sensing agency
D. Supervised image classification
List II
1. Creation of data bank of multi
information for a project area
2. Visual identification of objects from
image characteristics
3. Computer classification of
digital image data
4. Supplier of aerial and satellite based
remote sensing data products in India
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 1 4 2 3
46. Which one of the following is not strictly a
method of remote sensing?
a. Thermal and multi spectral scanning
b. Microwave sensing
c. Earth resource satellite
d. Stereoscopy
47. Consider the following bituminous
surfacing:
1. SDBM
2. PMC
3. A.C.
4. S.D.
5. Mastic asphalt (M.A.)
sequence in increasing order with respect
to their performance and wearing
qualities?
a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
c. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
reference to water bound macadam
(WBM) and wet mix macadam (WMM):
1. WBM is a road mix and WMM is a
plant mix.
2. WBM usually has plastic filler, while
WBM has non-plastic filler.
3. WBM is a modern road mix and
WMM is a traditional road mix.
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 only
d. 2 only
7 of 15
49. A line load of infinite length has an
intensity q per unit length. What is the
vertical stress o
z

at a depth z below the
earth at the centre of the load?
a.
2
z
qz
s
p
=
b.
2
z
q
z
s
p
=
c.
2
2
z
qz
s
p
=
d.
2
2
z
q
z
s
p
=
50. IRC code No. 37-1985 deals with which
a. Design of rigid pavements, taking
ESWL and CBR into account
b. Design of rigid pavements, taking axle
load and CBR into account
c. Design of flexible pavement, taking
ESWL and CBR into account
d. Design of flexible pavement taking
cumulative axle loads and CBR into
account.
51. Match list- I with list-II and select the
the lists:
List I
A. Traffic volume
B. Traffic density
C. Traffic Regulations
D. Rotary Intersection
List II
1. Number of vehicles occupying a unit
length of road at a given instant of
time.
2. Number of vehicles passing a given
point on road in a given unit of time in
a given direction
3. Where all converging vehicles are
forced to move in one direction around
a large central traffic island
4. Rules covering all aspects of control of
vehicles, drivers and all other road
users
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
52. Which of the following factors are not
strictly related to design of traffic rotary
intersections?
1. Radius of central island
2. Weaving length
3. Ramps and interchanges
4. Acceleration lanes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 and 4
53. A pressure gauge reads 57.4k pa and 80k
pa respectively at heights of 8m and 5m
fitted on the side of a tank filled with
liquid. What is the approximate density of
the liquid in kg/m
3
?
a. 393
b. 768
c. 1179
d. 7530
54. What is the momentum thickness for the
boundary layer with velocity distribution
?
u y
U o
=
a. o/6
b. o/2
c. 3 o/2
d. 2 o
55. In model similarity, if gravitational and
inertial forces are the only important
forces, then what is the discharge ratio?
a. L
r
3/2
b. L
r
1/2
c. L
r
5/2
d. L
r
1/3
Where L
r
=
ratio of length dimension.

56. When discussing most efficient section of
flow into open channels, what is the
perimeter P as a proportion of depth of
flow h (ie., P/h) fir (i) a triangular section,
and (ii) a trapezoidal section, respectively?
a. 2.25, 2.83
b. 2.25, 3.15
8 of 15
c. 2.83, 3.15
d. 2.83, 3.46
57. What is the energy loss through a length of
pipe form which all the discharge is taken
out unifo5rmly along its length, with
respect to the case when all the discharge
is delivered to the end?
a. 2/3
b. 1/3
c. 3/2
d. 1/2
the lists:
List I
(Principle)
A. Hele Shaw flow
B. Strokes law
C. Hagen-Poiseuille flow
D. Pascals law
List II
(Effect)
1. Surface of equal pressure
2. Settling of fine particles
3. Laminar flow between parallel plates
4. Laminar flow in tubes
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 3 2 1 4
59. A fast centrifugal pump impeller has
a. Forward facing blades
b. Radial blades
c. Backward facing blades
d. Propeller type blades
An air vessel is fitted on the suction side of
a reciprocating pump to
1. Achieve higher speed without
separation
2. Reduce work in overcoming frictional
resistance
3. Avoid excessive vibration
4. Have uniform discharge
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4
61. Water is supplied form a height of 2.8 m at
the rate of 35 lps to a hydraulic ram which
delivers 2 lps to a height of 28 m above the
ram. What is the Rankines efficiency?
a. 58%
b. 55%
c. 52%
d. 44%
the lists:
List I
(Type of Power House)
A. Tidal Plant
B. Storage Plant
C. Pumped Stored Plant
D. Run-of-river Plant
List II
(Feature)
1. Utilizes reversible turbines and
improves utilization factor
2. Utilizes current flow in stream, and
has pond age to improve load factor
3. Utilizes current flow in stream, and has
pond age to improve load factor
4. Utilizes annually average flow with
storage
Code
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 1 4 3 2
63. Kilpich equation is used to determine
a. Run-off form a given rainfall
b. Base time of a unit hydrograph
c. Time of concentration in run-off
hydrograph
9 of 15
64. Form the analysis of rainfall data at a
particular station, it was found that a
rainfall of 400 mm had a return period of
20 years.
a. (0.95)
10

b. 1-(0.95)
10

c. 1-(0.05)
10

d. (0.05)
10

65. Inconsistency of rainfall data can be
checked by which one of the following?
a. Normal ratio method
b. Mass curve method
c. Double-mass curve method
d. Depth duration frequency curve
66. What is the chemical symbol for ice as per
UNESCO terminology?
a. H
8
O
4

b. H
2
O
c. H
6
O
3

d. H
4
O
2

67. What is the depth of water seal in the
traps?
a. < 2.5 cm
b. 2.5 7.5 cm
c. 7.5 12.5 cm
d. Not less than 15 cm
68. Bangalore and Indore process of
composting are which of the following?
a. Both anaerobic processes
b. Both aerobic processes
c. Anaerobic process and aerobic process,
respectively
d. Aerobic process and anaerobic process,
respectively
69. A solid waste sample has been segregated
and one of the components has been
subjected to elemental analysis. The result
of analysis in percent by mass revealed C
(40%), H (6.0%), O (44%), N (0.3%).
What is the likely waste component?
a. Food waste
b. Paper and cardboard waste
c. Plastic waste
d. Leather waste
70. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to
inhalation of which one of the following?
a. Silica
b. NO
x
c. Lead

d. Cadmium

71. Which one of the following conditions of
automobile gives maximum unburned
hydrocarbons?
a. Idling
b. Cruise
c. Acceleration
d. Deceleration
72. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful for
which one of the following industries?
a. Tannery
b. Hydroelectric power generation
c. Thermal power generation
d. Textile factory
73. What will be the resultant decibel level
when two sources make noise of equal
decibels?
a. Decibel level will be the same
b. Decibel level will increase by 3
decibels
c. Decibel level will decrease by 3
decibel
d. Decibels of the two sources
74. Match List I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the cod3e given
below the lists:
List I
(Air pollutant)
A. CO
B. CO
2

C. SO
2

D. NO
x

List II
(Effect)
1. Acid rain
2. Acute toxicity
3. Ozone liberation
4. Greenhouse effect
Code
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 4 1 2
10 of 15
75. Biological magnification of pesticides
takes place through which of the
following?
a. Population pyramids
b. Hydrologic cycle
c. Food chains
d. Air cycle
the lists:
List I
(Soil Classification Symbol)
A. GW
B. SW
C. ML
D. CL
List II
(Soil Property)
1. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 6
2. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 4
3. Soil having law plasticity
4. Soil having low compressibility
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 1 2 3 4
77. Match ListI with List-II and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Soil)
A. Fine sand
B. Silt
C. Peat
List II
(Type)
1. Expansive oil
2. Coarse grained soil
3. Fine grained soil
4. Organic soil
Code:
A B C
a. 3 2 1
b. 4 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 2 3 4
78. Match ListI with List-II and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Symbol)
A. ML
B. SM
C. Pt
D. MH
List II
(Soil)
1. Silty sand
2. Inorganic silt with large
compressibility
3. Inorganic silt with small
compressibility
4. Soil with high organic content with
high compressibility
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 2 3 1
79. Maximum possible discharge form a small
catchment corresponding to a particular
rainfall intensity is independent of which
a. Soil moisture conditions
b. Drainage characteristics of catchment
c. Area of the catchment
d. Duration of the rainstorm
80. The permissible tractive force in an
erodible channel depends upon which of
the following?
1. Angle of repose of the material
2. Particle size
3. Sediment content of water
4. Wetted perimeter of channel
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 4 only
11 of 15
Semi-module outlets are those outlets in
which
a. Discharge gets affected by the change
in water level of field channel
b. Discharge gets affected by the change
in water level of the distributing
channel but not with the change in
water level of field channel
c. Discharge is independent of water
levels in the distributing channel and
the field channel
82. For calculating the maximum flood
discharge in an alluvial stream, which is
the best suited relation?
a. v R
2/3
S
1/3

b. v R
2/3
S
1/2

c. v R
1/2
S
1/2

d. v D
0.64

83. For water supply to a medium town, what
is the dailv variation factor?
a. 1.5
b. 2.5
c. 3
d. 3.5
84. Which one of the following factors has the
maximum effect on figure of per capita
demand of water supply of a given town?
a. Method of charging of the
consumption
b. Quality of water
c. System of supply-intermittent or
continuous
d. Industrial demand
the lists:
List I
(Predominance of Compounds)
A. Monochloramine
B. Dicholoramine
C. Nitrogen tricholoride
List II
(pH range)
1. Below pH 4.4
2. Over pH 7.5
3. Between pH 5 to 6.5
Code:
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 3 2 1
of cast-iron pipe for its use in water
supply?
1. Resistant to corrosion to a reasonable
extent
2. Very easy to join the pipes
3. Easy to transport
4. Longer life
given below:
a. 1, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 4 only
d. 2, 3 and 4
87. Which one of the following valves is
seldom used in water distribution systems
because of high head loss characteristics?
a. Butterfly
b. Globe
c. Plug
d. Sluice
88. Son scope is used for which one of the
following?
a. Checking the accuracy of water meters
b. Regulating the fire hydrants
c. As a replacement of venturimeter for
discharge measurement
d. Detection of leakage in underground
water mains
89. In the design consideration of sewerage
system, the sewers must have which one of
the following?
a. Maximum velocity of flow
b. Only 50 percent of maximum velocity
of flow
c. Minimum velocity of not less than
cleansing velocity of flow
d. High pressure at all times
12 of 15
90. Which one of the following is considered
as the thermophilic range of sludge
digestion?
a. 60 C to 70C
b. 50C to 57C
c. 29 C to 40C
d. 20C to 30C
In context of sludge volume index (SVI).
1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (in
cu. Cm) of the activated sludge for one
gram of dry weight of the sludge.
2. A higher value of SVI indicates a light
and fluffy sludge which is not easily
settle able.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
92. Which one of the following can fix
atmospheric nitrogen?
a. Green algae
b. Blue green algae
c. Red algae
d. Brown algae
93. An industry has a sewage treatment plant
which produces sludge with a moisture
content of 98%. With the solid content
remaining the same, the sludge is
thickened so that the moisture content now
is 96%. If the original quantity of sludge is
P, what is the quantity of the quantity of
the thickened sludge?
a. 0.98 P
b. 3 P/4
c. 2 P/3
d. P/2
94. a well operating activated sludge process
unit, what is the value of sludge volume
index?
a. < 50
b. 100-150
c. 200-300
d. >300
95. What does the presence of excess nitrates
in river water indicate?
a. Recent pollution of water with
sewage
b. Past pollution of water with sewage
c. Intermittent pollution of water with
sewage
d. No pollution of water with sewage
96. What is the minimum turning radius for a
passenger ship?
a. 2 ship length
b. 3 ship length
c. (1.5 ship length) + water depth
d. (2 ship length) + (1.5 draft)
the lists:
List I
(Harbour Structure)
A. Dolphins
B. Groynes
C. Fenders
D. Slipways
List II
(Purpose)
1. To protect the beach or retained earth
2. To cushion to absorb shock of shine
during loading the unloading
3. Mooring structure in combination with
loading platform
4. Repairing and building ship
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 3 4 2 1
98. Which of the following are related to
maintenance of railway track?
1. Jim crow and gauge bar
2. Through packing and boxing
3. Buffer stop and sand hump
4. Creep adjustment
given below:
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
13 of 15
d. 2, 3 and 4
99. The vertical water on tongue rail should
not exceed which one of the following?
a. 6 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 12 mm
d. 15 mm
100. What is the hauling capacity of a railway
locomotive having 4 pairs of driving
wheels, carrying an axle load of 24 tonnes
each? (Assume 0.166 as the coefficient of
friction)
a. 16.5 tonnes
b. 16.0 tonnes
c. 15.5 tonnes
d. 17.0 tonnes
101. Which of the following factors help in
ensuring track modulus, in a railway track?
a. Gauge and formation width
b. Track materials and sleeper density
c. Degree of curvature and super
elevation
d. Length of rail and flange width
102. The track modulus is an index of
measure of which of the following?
a. Resistance due to friction
b. Resistance due to shear
c. Resistance due to deformation
d. Resistance due to rolling
103. How can additional access, quick removal
of muck and natural ventilation in long
tunnels be achieved?
a. By providing jumbos and pumps
b. By providing scaffolding and liner
plates
c. By providing adits and shafts
d. By providing pilot tunnels and well
points
104. Weishbach triangle method may be used
for which one of the following?
a. To carry out surface alignment of a
tunnel
b. To transfer levels underground tunnel
surveys
c. To connect two ends of an
underground tunnel surveys
d. To connect two ends of an
underground tunnel
105. Which one of the following
methods of tunneling is employed if the
strata is sub-aqueous?
a. Shield tunneling
b. Drift system
c. Liner plate method
d. Pilot tunnel method
106. In modal choice studies which one of the
following factors influences the shape of
diversion curves?
a. Trip purpose
b. Trip length
c. Income
d. Residential density
107. In urban transportation planning, the
modal split is the process of which one of
the following?
a. Staggering of working hours
b. Segregation of fast and slow modes
c. Separation of traffic streams by
flyovers
d. Deciding the choice for a mode
In laboratory compaction tests, the
optimum moisture content of soil
decreases
a. With increase of compaction energy
and with decrease of coarse grains in
the soil
b. With decrease of compaction energy
and with increase of coarse grains in
the soil
c. With increase of both compaction
energy and coarse grains in the soil
d. With decrease of both compaction
energy and coarse grains in the soil
1. Coefficient of consolidation normally
increases with decreasing liquid limit
of clay.
2. The larger the value of coefficient of
consolidation, the longer it takes for
full consolidation to occur.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
14 of 15
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
1. Pore pressure parameter a is a constant
for a soil.
2. The shear strength of soil is a function
of the effective stress in the soil and
not of the total stress in the soil.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
111. Match List-I with list-II and select the
the lists:
List I
(Equipment)
A. Hydrometer
B. Plate load test set up
C. Pycnometer
D. Direct shear apparatus
List II
(Use)
1. Determination of shear parameter
2. Determination of bearing capacity of
specific gravity
3. Determination of bearing capacity of
soils
4. Grain size distribution tests for clays
Code:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
112. A vertical cut is to be made in saturated
clay with C=15 kN/m
2
, | = and Y= 20
kN/m
3
. What is the theoretical depth to
which the clay can be excavated without
side collapse?
a. 6 m
b. 2 m
c. 2.5 m
d. 3 m
113. In seismic exploration method,
velocities V
1
and V
2
were 600 m/s and
4000 m/s the distance corresponding to the
break point of velocities was 30 m. based
on this detail, what is the depth of
overburden?
a. 11.5 m
b. 12.5 m
c. 12.9 m
d. 13.2 m
respect of static cone penetration test:
1. The cone used has an apex angle of
60 and base area of 10 cm
2.

2. This test gives a continuous record of
cone resistance.
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
the lists:
List-I
(Foundation)
A. Under-reamed piles
B. Floating rafts
C. Combined footing
D. Strap footing
List II
(Demanding Situation)
1. To restrict settlement of soft clays/silts
2. To transfer the moment in between two
adjacent footings
3. To restrict damages due to volume
changes of swelling soils
4. When columns are very close to the
property line
Code:
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 3 1 4 2
15 of 15
116. A differential free swell test on a soil gives
a value of differential free swell of 40%
what is the degree of swelling?
a. Low
b. Medium
c. High
d. Very high
117. Which factors influence the bearing
capacity of a purely cohesion less soil?
1. Relative density of soil
2. Width and depth of footing
3. Unit weight of soil
given below:
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1,2 and 3
118. Match list I with list-II and select the
the lists:
List II
(Field Test)
A. Plate load test
B. Standard penetration test
C. Vane shear test
D. Dilatancy test
List II
(Suitability)
1. To estimate bearing capacity of
granular soil
2. To estimate in situ strength of soft clay
3. To identify silt from clay
4. To estimate bearing capacity for
permissible settlement, in clays
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 3 4 1
the lists:
List I
(Test)
A. Field Density test
B. Plate load test
C. C.B.R test
List II
(Utility)
1. Stress deformation characteristics
2. Compaction characteristics
3. Design of pavement
4. Safe load bearing capacity of soil
Code:
A B C
a. 2 4 1
b. 4 2 1
c. 4 2 3
d. 2 4 3
120. Match listI with list-II and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Method)
A. Static formulae
B. Dynamic formulae
C. Static pile load test
D. Cyclic pile load test
List-II
(Suitability)
1. To estimate allowable load for
permissible settlement for a pile
2. To separate point bearing and friction
bearing capacities of a pile
3. To estimate allowable load for driven
piles in granular soils
4. To estimate allowable load for board
piles in clays
Code:
A B C D
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 1 2 4 3


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) depending upon pH of the water.

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