JAR Databank Preparation 10.1.1.

4 (7)
The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be
considered:
10.1.1.1 (1)
a) binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national
An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring
difference
state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?
b) advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
a) 2nd freedom
c) binding for all member states
b) 1st freedom
d) binding for all air line companies with international traffic
c) 3rd freedom
d) 4th freedom
10.1.2.0 (8)
Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO ?
10.1.1.1 (2)
a) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes,
Annexes to the convention
a) standards and recommended international practices for contracting member
b) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
states.
c) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
b) aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
d) ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and any suspended validity of such
c) proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
licenses
d) standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to
the Chicago convention.
10.1.2.0 (9)
The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
10.1.1.2 (3)
a) limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis passenger and goods
The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :
transported
a) Chicago convention 1944
b) the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
b) Warzaw convention 1929
c) operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation
c) Geneva convention 1948
d) the security system at airports
d) Geneva convention 1936

10.1.2.0 (10)
10.1.1.2 (4)
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Montreal by written
The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the
notification to the depositary governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
international convention of :
a) 6 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
a) Chicago
Governments
b) The Hague
b) 3 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
c) Warsaw
Governments
d) Montreal
c) 2 months following the date ICAO is informed
d) 4 months following the date on which notification is received by the Depositary
10.1.1.3 (5) Governements
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
a) develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
10.1.2.0 (11)
b) approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person
c) approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft
has commited or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against
d) approve new international airlines
penal law
a) may deliver such person to the competent authorities
10.1.1.4 (6) b) may request such person to disembark
Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and Recommended Practices (SARPS) c) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
for submission for adoption ? d) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
a) the Air Navigation Commission
b) the Assembly
10.1.2.0 (12)
c) the Council
Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of Tokyo by notification
d) the Regional Air Navigation meeting
addressed
a) International Civile Aviation Organisation
b) the other Contracting States

1
c) United Nations 10.1.2.4 (19)
d) to all States Members of United Nations The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of
international air carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is
the :
10.1.2.0 (13)
a) Warsaw Convention.
The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is :
b) Tokyo Convention.
a) the convention of Tokyo
c) Hague Convention.
b) the convention of Paris
d) Montreal Convention.
c) the convention of Rome
d) the convention of Chicago
10.1.4.0 (20)
The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with :
10.1.2.1 (14)
a) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
""Cabotage"" refers to:
b) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
a) domestic air services ,
c) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
b) a national air carrier,
d) offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
c) a flight above territorial waters,
d) crop spraying
10.1.4.0 (21)
The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate
10.1.2.1 (15)
compensation for persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
The second freedom of the air is the :
aircraft is :
a) right to land for a technical stop
a) the Rome Convention
b) right to overfly without landing
b) the Warsaw Convention
c) right to ""cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
c) the Paris Convention
d) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two
d) the Tokyo Convention
states.

10.1.4.0 (22)
10.1.2.1 (16)
Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage
The first freedom of the air is:
was caused by an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will
a) The right to overfly without landing.
be entitled to compensation as provided by :
b) The right to land for a technical stop.
a) the Rome Convention
c) The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with passengers on board between two
b) the Chicago Convention
states.
c) the Warsaw Convention
d) The right to board passengers from the state where the aircraft is registered and to fly to
d) the Montreal Convention
an other state.

10.2.0.0 (23)
10.1.2.2 (17)
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used
The convention which deals with offences againts penal law, is
which might be confused with the
a) the convention of Tokyo
a) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals
b) the convention of Warsaw
b) four letter combinations beginning with Q
c) the convention of Rome
c) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals
d) the convention of Madrid
d) letters used for ICAO identification documents

10.1.2.2 (18)
10.2.0.0 (24)
The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a continuing structural integrity
a) caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered
program to ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
there in , by an aircraft registered in the territory of another contraction state
information concerning corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes :
b) only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an aircraft registered in the territory of
a) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
another contracting state
b) over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
c) caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft regardless the registration
c) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
d) the above convention does not deal with this item
d) up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

2
10.2.0.0 (25) which might be confused with urgent or distress signals for example
The loading limitations shall include : a) XXX
a) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass distributions and floor b) DDD
loadings c) RCC
b) all limiting mass and centres of gravity d) LLL
c) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
d) all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor loadings
10.3.0.0 (32)
The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than air aircraft shall be
10.3.0.0 (26) a) at least 50 centimetres
The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will b) at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres
be made by : c) at least 60 centimetres
a) the International Civil Aviation Organisation d) at least 75 centimetres
b) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union
c) the International Telecommunication Union
10.3.0.0 (33)
d) the state of registry
The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the
vertical tail surfaces of heavier than air aircraft shall be
10.3.0.0 (27) a) at least 30 centimetres
The common mark shall be selected from the series of symbols included in the b) at least 40 centimetres
radio call signs allocated : c) at least 20 centimetres
a) to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the International d) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
Telecommunication Union
b) to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation Organisation
10.4.0.0 (34)
c) to the State of registry by the International Telecommunication Union
The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the
d) to state of the operator
previous profeciency check was the 30th of June. The period of the new
profeciency check can be and can't exceed:
10.3.0.0 (28) a) 31th of December the same year
The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters and b) 15th of October the same year
numbers and shall be that assigned by : c) 30th of October the same year
a) the state of registry or common mark registering authority d) 30th of April the following year
b) the state of registry only
c) the International Civil Aviation Organisation
10.4.0.0 (35)
d) the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder operating in an area distant from
designated medical examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion of the
10.3.0.0 (29) licence authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an exception
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which and shall not exceed:
might be confused with urgent signals for example a) A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
a) TTT engaged in non-commercial operations.
b) FFF b) Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a flight crew member of an
c) RCC aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
d) LLL c) A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
d) Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a flight crew member of an
10.3.0.0 (30)
aircraft engaged in non-commercial operations.
When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which
might be confused with urgent signals for example
a) PAN 10.4.0.0 (36)
b) RCC When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting
c) LLL state, the validity of the authorization:
d) DDD a) Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence.
b) Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which renders valid the licence.
c) Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
10.3.0.0 (31)
d) Is only considered for PPL.
When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used
3
10.4.0.0 (37) a) After 21 days of consecutive ""illness""
Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum b) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
specifications for a crew licence to have international validity? c) after one calendar month of consecutive illness
a) Annex 1 d) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
b) Annex 2
c) Annex 3
10.4.0.0 (44)
d) Annex 4
The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of an aircraft required to be
operated with a co-pilot, shall be entitled to be credit with not more than :
10.4.0.0 (38) a) 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time required for a
You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a higher grade of pilot licence
PPL b) 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of
a) With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating a pilot licence
b) With an ATPL c) 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
c) With a PPL plus flight instructor rating d) 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time required for a higher grade of
d) With a CPL a pilot licence

10.4.0.0 (39) 10.4.0.0 (45)

The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall not be less than :
a) 1 year a) 18 years of age
b) 6 months b) 21 years of age
c) 5 years c) 17 years of age
d) 2 years d) 16 years of age

10.4.0.0 (40) 10.4.0.0 (46)

The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is : An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold
a) 17 years a) a current class I medical assessment
b) 16 years b) a current class II medical assessment
c) 18 years c) a current class III medical assessment
d) 21 years d) a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the state issuing the licence

10.4.0.0 (41) 10.4.0.0 (47)

To be able to execute a public transport flight, the minimum and maximum age Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
(with ATPL) is : a) Land/inactive.
a) 21 and 59 years b) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive.
b) 16 and 60 years c) Single-engine/inactive.
c) 17 and 59 years d) 1999-06-08 0:00
d) 18 and 60 years
10.4.0.0 (48)
10.4.0.0 (42) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be :
The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the Authority of any illness which they a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than
are suffering which involves incapacity to undertake those functions to which the commercial air transportation
licence relates throughout a period of a certain number of days or more. The b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
number of days is : c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than
a) 21 in commercial air transportation
b) 30 d) none of the answers are correct
c) 60
d) 90
10.4.0.0 (49)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less
10.4.0.0 (43) than ........ hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross
If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-NM), in the course of which full
that licence due to illness, the authority must be informed : stop landings at two different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and distance
4
referred are : 10.4.0.0 (54)
a) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
b) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM) aeroplanes not less than :
c) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM) a) 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
d) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM) b) 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
c) 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
d) 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
10.4.0.0 (50)
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than : 10.4.0.0 (55)
a) 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross The licensing authority shall determine whether experience as pilot under
country flight not less than 540 km (300NM) instruction in a synthetic flight trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part
b) 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight of the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such experience shall be limited to
not less than 540 km (300NM) a maximum of :
c) 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight a) 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been acquired in a flight
not less than 540 km (300NM) procedure trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
d) 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross country flight b) 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a basic instrument
not less than 540 km (300NM) flight trainer
c) 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
10.4.0.0 (51)
d) 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been acquired in a flight procedure
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence aeroplane shall have completed
trainer or basic instrument flight trainer
in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up by
not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the additional flight time as co-
pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and 10.4.0.0 (56)
functions of a pilot in command provided that the method of supervision employed An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot licence aeroplane for the issue
is acceptable to the licensing authority. The stated above hours are respectively : of an instrument rating, shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight time
a) 250 hours and 100 hours as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories acceptable to the licensing Authority,
b) 200 hours and 75 hours of which not less than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours, are
c) 200 hours and 100 hours respectively
d) 150 hours and 75 hours a) 50 hours and 10 hours
b) 40 hours and 10 hours
c) 40 hours and 15 hours
10.4.0.0 (52)
d) 50 hours and 15 hours
The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of cross-country flight time, of which not less
than ...... hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot performing, under the 10.4.0.0 (57)
supervision of the pilot in command, the duties and functions of a pilot in In certain circumstances a medical examination may be deferred at the discretion
command, provided that the method of supervision employed is acceptable to the of the licensing authority, provided that such deferment shall only be made as an
licensing authority. The state above hours are respectively : exception and shall not exceed :
a) 200 hours and 100 hours a) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft
b) 250 hours and 10 hours engaged in non commercial operations.
c) 150 hours and 75 hours b) Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case of a flight crew member of an
d) 200 hours and 75 hours aircraft engaged in non commercial operations
c) A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in
commercial operations.
10.4.0.0 (53)
d) in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall have completed in
aeroplanes not less than :
a) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be 10.4.0.0 (58)
instrument ground time. The duration of the period of currency of a medical assessment shall begin on the
b) 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours of instrument ground time date :
c) 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75 hours of instrument ground time. a) the medical assessment is issued
d) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours of instrument ground time. b) the licence is issued or validated
c) the licence is issued or renewed
d) the licence is delivered to the pilot
5
10.4.0.0 (59) a) 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a course of approved
When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting training as a pilot of aeroplanes
state the validity of the authorization b) 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
a) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence c) 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
b) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence d) 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
c) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own
discretion
10.4.0.0 (65)
d) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not
flights
less than :
a) 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be
10.4.0.0 (60) instrument ground time
When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences aeroplane and helicopter have b) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument
passed their 40th birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : ground time.
a) 12 months to 6 months c) 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument
b) 12 months to 3 months ground time
c) 24 months to 12 months d) 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours as pilot in command
d) none of the answers are correct
10.4.0.0 (66)
10.4.0.0 (61) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex containing standards and
Type ratings shall be established recommended practices for Personnel Licensing is :
a) for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by the authority a) Annex 1
b) only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots b) Annex 2
c) only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots and c) Annex 11
each type of helicopter d) Annex 12
d) all the answers are correct
10.4.0.0 (67)
10.4.0.0 (62) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
supervision of the pilot in command the functions and duties of a pilot in command a) At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State concerned for a period
shall be entitled to be credit : not exceeding the period validity of basic licence
a) in full with his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of b) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
pilot licence exceeding one year
b) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a c) At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State concerned for a period not
higher grade of pilot licence exceeding one year, provided that the basic licence remains valid.
c) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance d) 1998-11-27 0:00
with the requirements of the licensing authority
d) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
10.4.0.0 (68)
More than 12 hours
10.4.0.0 (63) a) More than 12 days
For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant shall have completed in b) More than one week
aeroplanes not less than if the privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night c) Any period
a) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in d) 1998-11-30 0:00
command
b) 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5 landings either as pilot in command
10.4.0.0 (69)
or as co-pilot
According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for private pilots will be valid for
c) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command
a) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12 months until age of 65
d) 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5 landings as pilot in command
and 6 months thereafter
b) 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
10.4.0.0 (64) c) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane shall have completed in d) 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6 months thereafter
aeroplanes not less than :

6
10.4.0.0 (70) c) The application is received by the Authority.
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who has satisfactorily followed an d) Of the last medical certificate
completed an integrated flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued or accepted by a JAA
10.4.0.0 (76)
Member State at least:
According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class ratings are valid for :
a) 150 hours of flight time
a) Two years
b) 200 hours of flight time
b) One year
c) 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
c) Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
d) 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground time
d) Five years after licence issuie.

10.4.0.0 (71)
10.5.0.0 (77)
According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are CORRECT?
a) one year
a) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : not
b) two years
required ,
c) The period of validity of the licence.
b) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : required ,
d) Indefinitely
c) Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical, ATC Clearance : required ,
d) Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service, ATC Clearance : not required
10.4.0.0 (72)
According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall hold a PPL (A)including a
10.5.1.0 (78)
night qualification or CPL(A) and shall have completed at least 50 hours :
Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic pattern of an aerodrome,
a) Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes or helicopters of
experiencing radio failure to indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.
requiring immediate assistance?
b) Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours
a) The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
shall be in aeroplanes.
b) Switching on and off three times the landing lights
c) Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes.
c) Switching on and off four times the landing lights
d) Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of aeroplanes or helicopters of which
d) Switching on and off four times the navigation lights
at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes.

10.5.1.0 (79)
10.4.0.0 (73)
If radio communication is established during an interception but communications
According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established for single pilots aeroplanes
in a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the
not requiring a type rating, including :
intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing ?
a) All self.-sustaining gliders.
a) Descend
b) All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with a turbojet engine.
b) Let down
c) Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic control surfaces acting in all
c) You land
three dimensions.
d) Descend for landing
d) Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.

10.5.1.0 (80)
10.4.0.0 (74)
If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on
According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be
a common language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the
assessed on the basis of three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable to comply with the
aeroplane has :
instructions received ?
a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training
a) CAN NOT
b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
b) CAN NOT COMPLY
c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
c) UNABLE TO COMPLY
d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
d) NOT POSSIBLE

10.4.0.0 (75)
10.5.1.0 (81)
According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and multi-engine class ratings
A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:
will be one year from the date :
a) The airport is unsafe, do not land
a) Of issue
b) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling
b) Of the skill test

7
c) Give way to other aircraft in emergency 10.5.1.0 (88)
d) Continue circling and wait for further instructions The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""B"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
a) clear of clouds, 8 km visibility
b) 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
10.5.1.0 (82)
c) 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall
d) 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 8 km visibility
give way to:
a) aircraft taking off or about to take off
b) other vehicles and pedestrians 10.5.1.0 (89)
c) other converging aircraft The VMC minima for an airspace classified as ""G"" above 10 000 feet MSL are :
d) all vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle a) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
b) 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds, 5 km visibility
c) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility
10.5.1.0 (83)
d) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:
a) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being
performed. 10.5.1.0 (90)
b) An area unit for the movement of aircraft. A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate ATC unit whenever the
c) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways. average True Air Speed at cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
d) Need special precautions while approaching for landing. given in the flight plan by plus or minus:
a) 5%
b) 3%
10.5.1.0 (84)
c) 2%
Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or
d) 10%
leave a control zone when ceiling is less than :
a) 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
b) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km 10.5.1.0 (91)
c) 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped with SSR transponder shall,
d) 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km unless otherwise instructed by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the
following code on mode ""A""
a) 7 700
10.5.1.0 (85)
b) 7 500
The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight
c) 7 600
time is:
d) 7 000
a) The commander
b) The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace
c) The aircraft owner 10.5.1.0 (92)
d) The airliner operator An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish
radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
a) 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
10.5.1.0 (86)
b) 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land ?
c) 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
a) Emergency aircraft
d) 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
b) Military aircraft
c) VIP (Head of state) aircraft
d) Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing immediate medical attention 10.5.1.0 (93)
Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting aircraft if the pilot wants to
communicate to the intercepted aircraft ""YOU MAY PROCEED"" ?
10.5.1.0 (87)
a) Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of
An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL
flight of the intercepted aircraft.
outside controlled airspace under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
b) Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft.
a) 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
c) Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.
b) 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 8 km visibility.
d) Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights.
c) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface, 8 km visibility.
d) 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds, 5 km visibility.
10.5.1.0 (94)
Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding level to be maintained by
8
an aircraft flying IFR outside controlled airspace?
a) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of the estimated
position of the aircraft
b) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of course
c) 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
d) 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles of course
10.5.1.0 (95)
Aircraft ""A"" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control
area. Aircraft ""B"" with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the
same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?
a) Aircraft ""B"" if ""A"" is on its left
b) Aircraft ""A"" if ""B"" is on its right
c) Aircraft ""A"" regardless of the direction which ""B"" is approaching
d) Aircraft ""B"" regardless of the direction ""A"" is approaching
10.5.1.0 (96)
Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a) Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b) Inform the ATC unit immediately
c) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
10.5.1.0 (97)
While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an
ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
a) The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action taken as soon as
circumstances permit
b) Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
c) Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
d) Squawk 7700
10.5.1.0 (98)
A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body , then
clench fist
b) Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head
d) Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground
10.5.1.0 (99)
An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an area where the visibility is
unlimited and the sky is clear (free of clouds), when it totally loses
radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
a) land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of
landing
b) adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
c) continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances then with filed
flight plan.
d) descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
10.5.1.0 (100)
A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :
a) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
b) Come back and land.
c) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
d) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
10.5.1.0 (101)
Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to
use the air traffic advisory service:
a) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes made thereto to the
ATS unit providing that service.
b) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be
notified.
c) need to file a flight plan
d) may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
10.5.1.0 (102)
When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its current flightplan, ATC has
to be informed in case :
a) the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in the flightplan.
b) of an emergency.
c) the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
d) it is a deviation from the track.
10.5.1.0 (103)
Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an
aircraft above the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :
a) at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
b) at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c) at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d) at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
10.5.1.0 (104)
An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:
a) on the ground when the engines are running
b) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed,
c) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed,
d) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable,
10.5.1.0 (105)
The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that :
a) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ,
b) gliderflying is performed outside the landing area,
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only,
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways
10.5.1.0 (106)
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is
forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
9
communicate with ATS shall try to: ft margin above the following two levels:
a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet a) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290 b) 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
b) Fly the emergency triangle c) FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
c) Declare an emergency d) FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference
between cabin pressure and outside pressure
10.5.1.0 (113)
An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful interference ('hijacked') and is
10.5.1.0 (107) forced to divert from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to
An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft communicate with ATS shall try to:
from the rear on a line forming an angle of less than : a) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000 feet
a) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower than FL 290
b) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter b) Fly the emergency triangle
c) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter c) Declare an emergency
d) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter d) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order minimize the difference
between cabin pressure and outside pressure
10.5.1.0 (108)
VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, 10.5.1.0 (114)
are : While taxying an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control
a) 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds , tower : series of red flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
b) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , a) must vacate the landing area in use.
c) 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical distance from clouds , b) must stop.
d) No minima, VFR flights are not permitted c) must return to its point of departure.
d) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
10.5.1.0 (109)
During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio 10.5.1.0 (115)
communication failure. You will : While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport controller the following light
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC , signal : a series of green flashes. This signal means that the aircraft :
b) Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to destination , a) may continue to taxy towards the take-off area.
c) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight , b) must stop.
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC c) must return to its point of departure.
d) is cleared for take-off.
10.5.1.0 (110)
Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraftThe signals given by this aircraft 10.5.1.0 (116)
conflict with ATC instructionsYou should : An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives a series of red flashes from
a) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft. the control tower. This signifies that the aircraft must :
b) follow ATC instructions. a) not land because the airport is not available for landing.
c) request ATC for other instructions. b) give way to another aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder. c) return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course.
d) not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions.
10.5.1.0 (111)
Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green 10.6.2.0 (117)
flashes from the tower. The aircraft : What does the abbreviation OIS mean?
a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time. a) Obstacle identification surface.
b) is cleared to land. b) Obstacle in surface.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area. c) Obstacle identification slope.
d) must give way to another aircraft. d) Obstruction in surface.

10.5.1.0 (112) 10.6.2.0 (118)

Given:AGL = above ground levelAMSL = above mean sea levelFL = flight What does the abbreviation DER mean?
levelwithin uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 a) Depature end of runway.
10
b) Distance end of route. 10.6.3.0 (124)
c) Departure end of route. In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of the aligment of the runway
d) Distance end of runway. centre line within:
a) 15°.
b) 30°.
10.6.2.0 (119)
c) 45°.
The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid
d) 12.5°.
within a sector of :
a) 25 NM
b) 10 NM 10.6.3.0 (125)
c) 15 NM Turning departures provide track guidance within :
d) 30 NM a) 10 Km
b) 5 Km
c) 15 Km
10.6.3.0 (120)
d) 20 Km
A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an airport where poor weather
conditions are prevailing. The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours
away.The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield are: 10.6.3.0 (126)
a) ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or We can distinguish two types of departure routes. During a straight departure the
equal to VH required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure initial departure track is within :
b) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing on the runway to be a) 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
used b) 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
c) ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal visibility) greater or equal to VH c) 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged with d) 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
one engine out
d) VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for landing, and ceiling greater or
10.6.4.0 (127)
equal to ceiling required for landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a
dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
10.6.3.0 (121) a) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane b) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
is published, the pilot is expected: c) Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.
a) To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace. d) Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length.
b) To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
c) To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.
10.6.4.0 (128)
d) To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach
segment in an instrument approach procedure?
10.6.3.0 (122) a) 150m (492 ft).
In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument b) 300m (984 ft).
departure procedure? c) 450m (1476 ft).
a) The terrain surrounding the airport. d) 600m (1968 ft).
b) ATC requirements.
c) Navigation aids.
10.6.4.0 (129)
d) Airspace restrictions.
In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and
descent for landing are made is called:
10.6.3.0 (123) a) Final approach segment.
In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the b) Initial approach segment.
departure end of runway equals: c) Intermediate approach segment.
a) 0 ft. d) Arrival segment.
b) 3.3 % gradient.
c) 35 ft.
10.6.4.0 (130)
d) 0.8 % gradient.
In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:
a) FAP.
b) FAF.
11
c) MAP. 10.6.4.0 (136)
d) IF. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a
turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along
the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
10.6.4.0 (131)
a) Procedure turn.
The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are
b) Base turn.
determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
c) Race track.
a) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure,
d) Reversal track.
approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land
(with or without prescribed flight tracks).
b) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and 10.6.4.0 (137)
approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA
procedures. should not be made until :1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight2. visual
c) The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle
aeroplane categories. clearance can be maintained and a landing can be madeThe combination
d) 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and regrouping all the correct answers is :
approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° a) 1, 2, 3.
for missed approach procedures. b) 1, 2.
c) 2, 3.
d) 1, 3.
10.6.4.0 (132)
Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its
descend below the OCA? 10.6.4.0 (138)
a) When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum
lights in sight allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection
b) When the aircraft has the control tower in sight envelope, is:
c) When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet a) 135 kt
d) When seems possible to land b) 120 kt
c) 125 kt
d) 150 kt
10.6.4.0 (133)
A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the
outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a: 10.6.4.0 (139)
a) Base turn In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30°
b) Procedure turn offset track is limited to:
c) Reversal procedure a) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) Race track b) 1 minute.
c) 2 minutes.
d) 3 minutes.
10.6.4.0 (134)
If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be
made so as to : 10.6.4.0 (140)
a) pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude. How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.
b) follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path. a) Up to 5.
c) pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory. b) 3.
d) leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt. c) 4.
d) Up to 4.
10.6.4.0 (135)
In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to: 10.6.4.0 (141)
a) Mean sea level. Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure
b) Aeredrome reference point. commence?
c) Relevant runway threshold. a) At the IAF.
d) Aerodrome elevation. b) At the IF.
c) At the FAF.
d) At the final en-route fix.

12
10.6.4.0 (142) standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment and glide path antenna, not greater than:
in an instrument approach procedure? a) 6m.
a) At least 300m (984 ft). b) 3m.
b) 150m (492 ft). c) 9m.
c) 300m (984 ft). d) 12m.
d) At least 150m (492 ft).
10.6.4.0 (149)
10.6.4.0 (143) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is a) Initial, intermediate and final.
performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for: b) Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
a) 1 minute. c) Arrival, intermediate and final.
b) 1 minute 15 seconds. d) Initial and final.
c) 1minute 30 seconds.
d) 2 minutes.
10.6.4.0 (150)
Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach
10.6.4.0 (144) climb gradient of:
In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is a) 2.5%.
performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for: b) 0.8%.
a) 1 minute 15 seconds. c) 3.3%.
b) 1 minute. d) 5%.
c) 1 minute 30 seconds.
d) 2 minutes.
10.6.4.0 (151)
Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?
10.6.4.0 (145) a) At the point where the climb is established.
In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is b) At the missed approach point.
called: c) At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.
a) Shuttle. d) At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
b) Based turn.
c) Racetrack pattern.
10.6.4.0 (152)
d) Procedure turn.
The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not
10.6.4.0 (146) suitably located for straight-in approach, is:
In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights a) Visual manoeuvring (circling).
above runway elevation from: b) Visual approach.
a) 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft). c) Contact approach.
b) 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). d) Aerodrome traffic pattern.
c) 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
d) 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
10.6.4.0 (153)
It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a
10.6.4.0 (147) prominent obstacle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the
In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot final approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the
does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, published procedure:
more than: a) Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
a) Half a scale deflection. b) Permits circling only in VMC.
b) One scale deflection. c) Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.
c) A quarter of scale deflection. d) Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
d) One and a half of scale deflection.
10.6.4.0 (154)
10.6.4.0 (148) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle
In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:
13
a) For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them. c) the pilot-in-command ,
b) Only for categories A and B aircraft. d) the ""flight-operations"" of the company
c) Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
d) For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
10.6.4.0 (161)
On a non-precision approach a so-called ""straight-in-approach"" is considered
10.6.4.0 (155) acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway
A circling approach is: centreline is :
a) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. a) 30 degrees or less
b) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. b) 40 degrees or less
c) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring. c) 20 degrees or less
d) A contact flight manoeuvre. d) 10 degrees or less

10.6.4.0 (156) 10.6.4.0 (162)

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment
expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the: to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :
a) Landing runway. a) 6,5%.
b) MAP. b) 5%.
c) FAF. c) 7%.
d) Final missed approach track. d) 8%.

10.6.4.0 (157) 10.6.4.0 (163)

If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
what actions should be taken ? a) A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full
a) Initiate a missed approach obstacle clearance is provided.
b) Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact b) the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very
c) If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact carefully,
d) Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude c) the first part of the segment ,
d) the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the
appropriate minimum
10.6.4.0 (158)
What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind
leg ? 10.6.4.0 (164)
a) Initiate a missed approach In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment
b) Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude provides at least :
c) Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome a) 984 ft
d) Request an amended clearance b) 1476 ft
c) 492 ft
d) decreasing from 984 to 492 ft
10.6.4.0 (159)
Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot
does not deviate from the centre line more than : 10.6.4.0 (165)
a) half scale deflection of the localizer indicator. During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the
b) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator. initial approach segment primary area is equal to :
c) half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline. a) 150 m (492 ft)
d) full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath b) 300 m (984 ft)
indicator. c) 210 m (690 ft)
d) 120 m (394 ft)
10.6.4.0 (160)
Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approavh 10.6.4.0 (166)
procedure? During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
a) the state obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
b) the operator a) 30 m (98 ft)
b) 50 m (164 ft)
14
c) 90 m (295 ft) a) using bearing, elevation and distance information.
d) 120 m (384 ft) b) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance
information.
c) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director
10.6.4.0 (167)
or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
d) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
a) 30 m (98 ft)
b) 50 m (164 ft) 10.6.4.0 (174)
c) 90 m (295 ft) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC
d) 120 m (384 ft) charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:
a) 2.5%
b) 2%
10.6.4.0 (168)
c) 5%
During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum
d) 3.3%
obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :
a) 50 m (164 ft)
b) 30 m (98 ft) 10.6.5.0 (175)
c) 90 m (295 ft) What will be your action if you can not comply with a standard holding pattern?
d) 120 m (384 ft) a) inform the ATC immediately and request a revised clearance.
b) a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
c) it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern at pilots discretion.
10.6.4.0 (169)
d) Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the
IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:
a) 25 NM 10.6.5.0 (176)
b) 20 NM In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
c) 10 NM a) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser
d) 5 NM bank.
b) rate of 3°per second.
c) maximum bank angle of 25°.
10.6.4.0 (170)
d) rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :
a) ± 5 NM
b) ± 10 NM 10.6.5.0 (177)
c) ± 12.5 NM Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum
d) ± 2.5 NM speed ?
a) 230 kt IAS.
b) 230 kt TAS.
10.6.4.0 (171)
c) 240 kt IAS.
In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:
d) 240 kt TAS.
a) the OCH
b) 200 ft
c) 350 ft 10.6.5.0 (178)
d) 400 ft Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into
the holding pattern shall be made into which direction?
a) To the right.
10.6.4.0 (172)
b) To the left.
For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :
c) First right and then to the left.
a) 200 ft
d) Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
b) 250 ft
c) 150 ft
d) 100 ft 10.6.5.0 (179)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to FL 140?
a) 1 minute
10.6.4.0 (173)
b) 2 minutes
A ""precision approach"" is a direct instrument approach...

15
c) 1,5 minutes 10.6.5.0 (186)
d) 30 secondes Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
a) Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound
b) Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
10.6.5.0 (180)
c) Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding
d) Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
procedure is: all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry
procedure. 10.6.6.0 (187)
a) Either ""off set"" or ""parallel"". The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall change the altimeter setting
b) Off set. from QNH to standard setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
c) Parallel. a) Transition altitude.
d) Direct. b) Transition layer.
c) Transition level.
d) The level specified by ATC.
10.6.5.0 (181)
What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?
a) 1 minute 30 seconds. 10.6.6.0 (188)
b) 1 minute. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:
c) 2 minutes. a) 3000 ft.
d) 2 minutes 30 seconds. b) 2500 ft.
c) 1500 ft.
d) 1000 ft.
10.6.5.0 (182)
In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be
according to: 10.6.6.0 (189)
a) Heading. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be
b) Course. reported:
c) Bearing. a) as altitude.
d) Track. b) as height.
c) as hlight level.
d) according pilot's choice.
10.6.5.0 (183)
Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern, there is a zone of flexibility
on either side of the sectors boundaries of: 10.6.6.0 (190)
a) 5°. The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported :
b) 10°. a) as flight level.
c) 15°. b) as height.
d) 20°. c) as altitude.
d) According to pilot's choice.
10.6.5.0 (184)
How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area? 10.6.6.0 (191)
a) 5 NM. During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should
b) 3 NM. be expressed as
c) 5 km. a) altitude above mean sea level during descent
d) 3 km. b) altitude above mean sea level during climb
c) flight level during descent
d) either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb
10.6.5.0 (185)
In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
a) to the right 10.6.6.0 (192)
b) to the left Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:
c) in a direction depending on the entry , a) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.
d) in a direction depending on the wind direction b) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.
c) only at transition altitude.
d) only at transition level.
16
10.6.6.0 (193) b) Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.
In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical c) Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
position of the aircraft shall be expressed in: d) Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.
a) altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
b) altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
10.6.7.0 (200)
c) flight level on or below the transition level
The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications shall set the transponder
d) flight level on or below the transition altitude
to Mode A Code:
a) 7600.
10.6.6.0 (194) b) 2000.
At what moment during the approach should the reported airfield altimeter setting c) 7500.
be set? d) 7700.
a) When passing the transition level
b) When passing the transition altitude
10.6.7.0 (201)
c) Within the transition layer
When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, the pilot-in-command shall
d) When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
indicate the situation by setting the transponder to:
a) 7500.
10.6.6.0 (195) b) 7700.
The transition level: c) 7600.
a) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has d) 7000.
been established
b) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
10.6.7.0 (202)
established
Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
c) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
a) Requested by ATC.
d) is calculated and decided by the commander
b) They operate within controlled airspace.
c) They operate a transponder with Mode C.
10.6.6.0 (196) d) They operate within non controlled airspace.
The transition level:
a) Is calculated by ATS
10.6.7.0 (203)
b) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome
When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilots shall:
c) Is calculated by the commander
a) Read back the mode and code to be set.
d) Will be distributed via NOTAM
b) Use only the word ROGER.
c) Use only the word WILCO.
10.6.7.0 (197) d) Read back only the code to be set.
What will be the transponder mode and code for radio communication failure?
a) Mode A code 7600.
10.6.7.0 (204)
b) Mode A code 7500.
Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
c) Mode B code 7600.
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
d) Mode A code 7700.
a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
b) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
10.6.7.0 (198) c) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the d) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
transponder:
a) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside
10.6.7.0 (205)
airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.In flight, in case of radio
b) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
communications failure, you will squawk code :
c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
a) A 7600 Mode C
d) Only when directed by ATC.
b) A 5300 Mode C
c) A 7620 Mode C
10.6.7.0 (199) d) A 0020 Mode C
When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:
a) Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
17
10.7.0.0 (206) 10.7.1.0 (212)
When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) :
flight, if a) it can only supply limited services to the users and under no circumstances may
a) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such it supply ATC services.
that the aircraft is still airworthy b) its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state organisation.
b) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the c) it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC organisation but its activity is neither
aircraft is still airworthy continuous nor regular.
c) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a d) its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in flight or on the ground.
nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
d) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the
10.7.1.0 (213)
aircraft is still airworthy
An information issued by a meteorological watch office concerning the occurence
or expected occurence of specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
10.7.1.0 (207) the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was not already included in
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is: the forecast issued for low level flights in the flight information region concerned
a) Control area. or sub-area thereof is
b) Control zone. a) An AIRMET information
c) Advisory airspace. b) A SIGMET information
d) Flight Information Region. c) A NOTAM
d) An En-Route Meteo Report
10.7.1.0 (208)
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a 10.7.1.0 (214)
specified upper limit is: Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains international
a) Control zone. standards and recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
b) Control area. a) Annex 11
c) Air traffic zone. b) Annex 14
d) Advisory airspace. c) Annex 6
d) Annex 17
10.7.1.0 (209)
ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air 10.7.1.1 (215)
traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as: Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may be considered controlled?
a) Class B. a) The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower.
b) Class A. b) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone.
c) Class D. c) The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
d) Class E. d) The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR) and provided with a Control
Tower.
10.7.1.0 (210)
Aerodrome traffic is: 10.7.1.1 (216)
a) All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within which the following services
b) All traffic on the manoeuvring area. are provided:
c) All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome. a) Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
d) All traffic in the aerodrome circuit. b) Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory Service.
c) Flight Information Service only.
d) Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
10.7.1.0 (211)
Air Traffic Service unit means:
a) Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air Services reporting 10.7.1.1 (217)
offices. Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
b) Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers. a) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
c) Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices. b) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
d) Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices. c) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.
d) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.

18
10.7.1.1 (218) c) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000ft AMSL,
A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least: d) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
a) 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in
the direction from which approaches may be made.
10.7.1.1 (224)
b) 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
which approaches may be made.
a) two way radiocommunication is not required.
c) 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
b) a clearance is required.
which approaches may be made.
c) a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required.
d) 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes concerned in the direction from
d) a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required.
which approaches may be made.

10.7.1.1 (225)
10.7.1.1 (219)
An air traffic control unit :
A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground
a) may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for safety reasons when
level or water of not less than:
there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call signs.
a) 200 metres.
b) may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion
b) 300 metres.
between two or more similar call signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
c) 150 metres.
c) must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
d) 500 metres.
d) may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after accepting the flight plan.

10.7.1.1 (220)
10.7.1.1 (226)
The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another is done :
a) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office -
a) by agreement with the receiving unit.
Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic Services reporting office.
b) automatically at the control zone boundary.
b) Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and Aerodrome Control Tower.
c) with the pilot's consent.
c) Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach Control Office
d) through a central control unit.
and Tower.
d) Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach Control Office and Tower.
10.7.1.1 (227)
Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4,
10.7.1.1 (221)
represents a navigation accuracy of
The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service
a) plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
a) An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and departing controlled
b) plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis
flights.
c) plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
b) An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and departing.
d) plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
c) An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR flights within a Control Zone.
d) An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone.
10.7.1.1 (228)
Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording devices shall be checked as
10.7.1.1 (222)
necessary to ensure correct time to within plus or minus
Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
a) 30 seconds of UTC at all times
a) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the
b) 15 seconds of UTC at all times
manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
c) 10 seconds of UTC at all times
b) Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air
d) 1 minute of UTC at all times
traffic
c) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic 10.7.1.1 (229)
d) Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic Except in some special cases the establishment of change-over points should be
limited to route segments of
a) 60 NM or more
10.7.1.1 (223)
b) 75 NM or more
Which statement is correct?
c) 50 NM or more
a) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700ft AGL,
d) 100 NM or more
b) The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of at least 1500ft AGL,

19
10.7.1.1 (230) b) has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed c) have to be as indicated by ICAO council
a) by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements d) have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
b) by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
c) by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
10.7.1.1 (237)
d) by regional air navigation agreements
The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace classified as B, is :
a) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
10.7.1.1 (231) b) 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and 1500 m horizontal and 300
What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? m vertical from clouds
a) 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 c) 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of clouds
b) 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195 d) 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
c) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels from cloud
d) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
10.7.1.1 (238)
10.7.1.1 (232) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as B has to maintain the
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
a) Not applicable b) 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
b) 250 KT IAS c) 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
c) 250 KT TAS d) 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
d) 240 KT IAS
10.7.1.1 (239)
10.7.1.1 (233) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace classified as C has to maintain the
The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying following minima of flight visibility and distance from clouds
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : a) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical
a) 250 KT IAS from clouds
b) 250 KT TAS b) 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
c) Not applicable clouds
d) 240 KT IAS c) 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
clouds
d) 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of clouds
10.7.1.1 (234)
The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as E, when flying
below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, is : 10.7.1.1 (240)
a) 250 KT IAS An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to
b) 250 KT TAS air traffic control service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and
c) Not applicable from VFR flights VFR flights are separated from IFR flights and receive traffic
d) 260 KT IAS information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
a) Airspace C
b) Airspace D
10.7.1.1 (235)
c) Airspace E
The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights inside ATS airspace
d) Airspace B
classified as B, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is :
a) Not applicable
b) 250 KT IAS 10.7.1.1 (241)
c) 250 KT TAS An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to
d) 260 KT IAS air traffic control service and are separated from each other is classified as
a) Airspace B
b) Airspace C
10.7.1.1 (236)
c) Airspace D
Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is established, the procedures
d) Airspace E
applicable there in :
a) need not to be identical with those applicable in the underlying flight
information region
20
10.7.1.1 (242) 10.7.1.2 (248)
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all flights are subject You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence expires at 0920. What
to air traffic control service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and does it mean ?
receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic a) If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
information in respect of all other flights, is classified as : b) Do not take off before 0920
a) Airspace D c) The take off clearence is expected at 0920
b) Airspace B d) After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
c) Airspace E
d) Airspace A
10.7.1.2 (249)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
10.7.1.1 (243) cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR flights are subject to Air speed, is:
Trafic Control Service and are separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive a) 10 minutes.
traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as b) 5 minutes.
a) Airspace E c) 15 minutes.
b) Airspace D d) 3 minutes.
c) Airspace B
d) Airspace A
10.7.1.2 (250)
The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
10.7.1.1 (244) cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more
flights receive an air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
information service if requested, is classified a) 5 minutes.
a) Airspace F b) 3 minutes.
b) Airspace G c) 10 minutes.
c) Airspace E d) 15 minutes.
d) Airspace D
10.7.1.2 (251)
10.7.1.1 (245) The longitudinal separation minima based on time between aircraft at same
An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information cruising level where navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and
service if requested, is classified as speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more
a) Airspace G faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
b) Airspace F a) 3 minutes.
c) Airspace C b) 5 minutes.
d) Airspace E c) 6 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.
10.7.1.2 (246)
Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose of: 10.7.1.2 (252)
a) Achieving separation between controlled flights The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
b) Achieving separation between IFR flights aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is
c) Providing flight Information Service maintaining a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
d) Providing advisory service a) 5 minutes.
b) 3 minutes.
c) 10 minutes.
10.7.1.2 (247)
d) 2 minutes.
Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the purpose of:
a) Achieving separation between controlled flights
b) Providing flight Information Service 10.7.1.2 (253)
c) Providing advisory services The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft departed from the same
d) Providing alerting services aerodrome and following the same track, and the preceeding aircraft is
maintaining a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding aircraft, is:
a) 3 minutes.

21
b) 5 minutes. b) 1 minute
c) 10 minutes. c) 2 minutes
d) 8 minutes. d) 3 minutes

10.7.1.2 (254) 10.7.1.3 (260)

When an aircraft will pass through the level of another aircraft on the same track, Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information shall be updated
the following minimum longitudinal separation shall be provided: a) immediately a significant change occurs
a) 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed. b) at least every half an hour independently of any significant change
b) 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed. c) as prescribed by the meteorological office
c) 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed. d) as prescribed by the state
d) 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
10.7.1.3 (261)
10.7.1.2 (255) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and dissemination of the ATIS
The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME, and each aircraft message shall be the responsability of
""on track"" uses DME stations, is: a) the air traffic services
a) 20 NM. b) the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
b) 10 NM. c) both air traffic services and the meteorological office
c) 5 NM. d) the unit as prescribed the states
d) 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the
succeding aircraft.
10.7.1.3 (262)
ATIS broadcast
10.7.1.2 (256) a) shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C. Another aircraft below at b) Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a discrete VHF frequency or on the
FL 140 is receiving a clearance to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the voice channel of a VOR
area. When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL 140 or below can be c) Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
expected ? d) Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
a) When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended through FL 130
b) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
10.7.1.3 (263)
c) When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL 70
Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in order to avoid collision
d) When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
hazards when operating in airspace classes :
a) C, D, E, F, and G
10.7.1.2 (257) b) F and G only
What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing between a 'Heavy' aircraft c) A, B, C, D, E, F and G
preceding a 'Light' aircraft d) F only
a) 6 NM
b) 3 NM
10.7.1.3 (264)
c) 2 km
Flight information service provided to flights shall include the provision of
d) 10 km
information concerning collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace classes:
a) C to G (inclusive)
10.7.1.3 (258) b) A to G (inclusive)
When are ATIS broadcasts updated ? c) A to E (inclusive)
a) Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported d) F and G
values
b) Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for VFR , otherwise hourly
10.7.1.3 (265)
c) Only when weather conditions change enough to require a change in the active runway or
ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and arrival information should
instrument approach in use
include cloud cover, when the clouds are :
d) Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value
a) below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude,
whichever is the greater
10.7.1.3 (259) b) below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever practicable, not exceed greater
a) 30 seconds c) below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector altitude, whichever is the
22
greater c) air traffic coordination centres.
d) cumulonimbus d) control centres only.

10.7.1.4 (266) 10.7.1.5 (272)

When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty, the decision to initiate
the alert phases is the responsibility of the:
a) operational air traffic control centres
b) flight information or control organisations
c) air traffic co-ordination services
d) search and rescue co-ordination centres
10.7.1.4 (267)
The Alerting Service is provided by:
a) The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
b) The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment, when it is provided with 121.5
MHz.
c) Only by ATC units.
d) The Area Control Centres.
10.7.1.4 (268)
The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or believed in emergency are:
a) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase.
b) uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
c) uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.
d) uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency phase.
10.7.1.4 (269)
A radio communications, ""Distress"" differs from ""Urgency"" because in the first
case:
a) There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.
b) The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its fitness to fly.
c) The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
d) The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight immediately interrupted.
10.7.1.4 (270)
Which of the following statements regarding Alerting service is correct?
a) Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often provided by the same
ATS unit
b) The Alert phase is established when no communication has been received from an aircraft
within a period of thirty minutes after the time a communication should have been received,
c) The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed th be the subject of
unlawful interference
d) Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful
interference, shall be informed about this,
10.7.1.4 (271)
When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering of the alert phase is the
responsibility of:
a) air traffic control and flight information centers.
b) search and rescue coordination centres.
Alert phase is defined as follows:
a) A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants.
b) An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be threatened
by a danger.
c) A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are considered to be in a state of
emergency.
d) A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel on board is exhausted.
10.7.1.5 (273)
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that all turns shall be made
within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments with a radius of :
a) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL 190
b) 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 200
c) 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
d) 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190
10.7.1.5 (274)
When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that all turns shall be made
within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments defined with a radius of :
a) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
b) 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL 250
c) 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
d) 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
10.7.3.0 (275)
The rule governing flight over water for a single engined aeroplane engaged in the
public transport of passengers:
a) limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the engine fails.
b) does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
c) limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest shore.
d) limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore.
10.7.3.0 (276)
The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU (flow control centre):
a) is 15 minutes.
b) depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international flights, 5 minutes for domestic
flights).
c) is 10 minutes.
d) is 5 minutes.
10.7.3.0 (277)
A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a controlled flight at least:
a) 60 minutes prior to departure.
b) 10 minutes prior to departure.
23
c) 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks. b) 2 and 4
d) 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks. c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3
10.7.3.0 (278)
If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR flight in IMC, generally the 10.7.3.1 (283)
pilot shall: A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:
a) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations - a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then
Transmit being indicating important details required 2 times. clenching fist.
b) Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the termination of the flight to ATC. b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c) Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or aircraft stations. c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
d) Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times. d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

10.7.3.0 (279) 10.7.3.1 (284)

The pilot in command of an aircraft:1 - must comply immediately to all instructions
received from ATC.2 - is responsible only if he is the ""pilot flying"".3 - may deviate
from air regulations for safety reasons.4 - may be exempt from air regulations in
order to comply to an ATC instruction.5 - may ask for the modification of an
unsatisfactory clearance.Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
a) 05-Mar
b) 2003-04-05
c) 1 - 4
d) 2002-03-05
10.7.3.0 (280)
A strayed aircraft is :
a) An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended track or which
reports that it is lost
b) only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended track
c) only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
d) an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been established
10.7.3.1 (281)
""ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC"" is that controlled flight to which the provision of
separation by ATC is applicable, but which, in relation to a particular controlled
flight is not separated therefore by the appropriate separation minima. Whenever
separation minima is not applied. The following flights are considered essential
traffic one to each other.
a) All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.
b) Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
c) All IFR flights.
d) Only controlled IFR flights.
10.7.3.1 (282)
When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in command of an IFR flight
wishes to continue his flight in accordance with visual flight rules, until the
destination is reached:1 He must inform the control unit (""cancel IFR"")2 He must
request and obtain clearance.3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to
a VFR flight plan.4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight plan.The
correct combination of statements is:
a) 1 and 4
In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the submitted flight plan should be
amended or cancelled and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is:
a) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
b) 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
c) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.
d) 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure.
10.7.3.1 (285)
Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
a) Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
b) Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
c) Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
d) Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
10.7.3.1 (286)
The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the
order listed:
a) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over and ensuing significant point.
b) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point.
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over.
d) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
10.7.3.1 (287)
Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in respect to terrain clearance?
a) The pilot in command.
b) The aircraft operator.
c) The ATC.
d) The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the flight plan.
10.7.3.1 (288)
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in
accordance with VFR and subsequently changes to IFR?
a) Z
b) I

24
c) V 10.7.3.1 (295)
d) Y If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate airport (box 16) of a flight
plan form...
a) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information)
10.7.3.1 (289)
ALTN/followed by the name of theairport.
Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the flight commences in
b) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) ALTN/followed by the
accordance with IFR and subsequently changes to VFR?
name of theairport
a) Y
c) write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
b) I
name of the airport
c) V
d) write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional information) DEGT/followed by the
d) Z
name of theairport.

10.7.3.1 (290)
10.7.3.1 (296)
In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a flight plan has been
The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the cruising portion of the
submitted, the flight plan should be amended or a new flight plan submitted and
flight must be entered in the speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
the old one cancelled, when:
a) true air speed (TAS).
a) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
b) estimated ground speed (G/S).
b) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-blocks.
c) indicated air speed (IAS).
c) The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of departure.
d) true air speed at 65% power.
d) The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off departure.

10.7.3.1 (297)
10.7.3.1 (291)
The ""estimated total time"" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time :
A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:
a) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport.
a) Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
b) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the
b) Read back those parts containing level assignments, vectors or any part requiring
end of the flight (block time).
verification.
c) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing.
c) Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and transponder codes.
d) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day.
d) Read back should be unsolicited.

10.7.3.2 (298)
10.7.3.1 (292)
Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way
Change from IFR to VFR will always take place :
communication failure?
a) on the initiative of the aircraft commander
a) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
b) at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions
b) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route, start approach at your ETA.
c) as instructed by an air traffic control unit
c) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
d) when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC
conditions.
d) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
10.7.3.1 (293)
A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.In section I the pilot fills in :
10.7.3.2 (299)
a) a position report, including aircraft identification, height, position and time ,
Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB shall be applied requiring
b) weather noted ,
the aircraft to fly:
c) flight identification and weather noted ,
a) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
d) urgent messages
b) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
10.7.3.1 (294) d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
The letter ""L"" is written in the wake turbulence box of a flight plan form when
the maximum certified take-off weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
10.7.3.2 (300)
a) 7 000 kg.
Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX shall be applied requiring
b) 14 000 kg.
the aircraft to fly:
c) 20 000 kg.
a) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the fix.
d) 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters.
b) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX.

25
c) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the FIX. 10.7.3.2 (307)
d) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the FIX. Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring
the aircraft to fly:
a) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
10.7.3.2 (301)
b) At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft:
c) At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from the facility.
a) He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended clearance.
d) At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more from the facility.
b) He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned has to accept the pilot request.
c) The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has been based on the flight plan filed
with ATC. 10.7.3.2 (308)
d) The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC concerned. Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you receive and acknowledge the
following instruction from the radar controller:""Turn immediately, continue
heading 050° until further advised"".Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find
10.7.3.2 (302)
out that radio communication cannot be stablished again and you have to return to
The ""VMC and own separation"" ATC clearance is used for a controlled flight to
your current flight plan route:
cross the level of another controlled flight when:
a) On the nearest way.
a) Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized by the state
b) With an intercept of 20° or more.
overflown.
c) With an intercept of at least 45°.
b) Requested by the pilot and during the day light.
d) With an intercept of at least 30°.
c) Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown.
d) This procedure is not allowed.
10.7.3.2 (309)
Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation between aircraft on the
10.7.3.2 (303)
same direction is:
Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar controller have to be executed
a) 4 000 feet.
as:
b) 2 000 feet.
a) Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
c) 3 000 feet.
b) Decided on pilot's discretion.
d) 1 500 feet.
c) Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
d) the weather permits.
10.7.3.2 (310)
The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and each aircraft ""on track""
10.7.3.2 (304)
uses DME stations, is:
What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied by ATC?
a) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 20 kt or
a) Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
more faster than the succeding aircraft.
b) Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
b) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster
c) Time separation and track separation.
than the succeding aircraft.
d) Composite separation.
c) 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
than the succeding aircraft.
10.7.3.2 (305) d) 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of 10 kt or more faster
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled than the succeding aircraft.
airspace below FL 290 is:
a) 1000 feet (300 m).
10.7.3.2 (311)
b) 2000 feet (600 m).
A ""RNAV"" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level
c) 500 feet (150 m).
is crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same ""on
d) 2500 feet (750 m).
track"" way-point. This minimum is:
a) 80 NM.
10.7.3.2 (306) b) 60 NM.
The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled c) 50 NM.
airspace above FL 290 is: d) 20 NM.
a) 2000 feet (600 m).
b) 1000 feet (300 m).
10.7.3.2 (312)
c) 500 feet (150 m).
A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR flights, when operating in
d) 4000 feet (1200 m).
controlled airspaced classified as:

26
a) B. 10.7.3.2 (319)
b) B and C. Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by DME-distances from the
c) B, C and D. same DME and it is confirmed that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
d) B, C, D and E. shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible for one aircraft to climb or
descend
a) 10 NM
10.7.3.2 (313)
b) 12 NM
One minute separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly on
c) 15 NM
tracks diverging by at least:
d) 20 NM
a) 45° immediately after take-off.
b) 30° immediately after take-off.
c) 15° immediately after take-off. 10.7.3.2 (320)
d) 25° immediately after take-off. Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is suspected, and where
automatic distinct display of SSR Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided,
the radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
10.7.3.2 (314)
a) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and thereafter to code 7700
Two minutes separation may be used between departing aircraft if they are to fly
b) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and thereafter to code 7500
on the same track, when:
c) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby and thereafter to code 7700
a) The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby and thereafter to code 7500
b) The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
c) The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the following aircraft.
d) The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the following aircraft. 10.7.3.2 (321)
When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, and the preceding
aircraft shall maintain a mach number equal to or greater than the following
10.7.3.2 (315)
aircraft a RNAV distance based separation minimum may be used on the same
The separation method whereby the vertical and horizontal separation may be
direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes longitudinal separation minimum. The
reduced till a maximum of half the standard criteria is called :
distance is :
a) Composite separation
a) 80 NM
b) Combined separation
b) 100 NM
c) Reduced separation
c) 70 NM
d) Essential separation
d) 60 NM

10.7.3.2 (316)
10.7.3.2 (322)
What is the minimum vertical separation between aircraft flying IFR below flight
Longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME for aircraft at the
level 290?
same cruising level and track, provided that each aircraft utilizes ""on Track"" DME
a) 1000 feet
stations and separation is checked by obtaining simultaneous DME readings, is :
b) 500 feet
a) 20 NM
c) 1500 feet
b) 10 NM
d) 2000 feet
c) 25 NM
d) 40 NM
10.7.3.2 (317)
Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled airspace shall be given as flight
10.7.3.2 (323)
level (FL)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
a) Above the transition altitude when applicable
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed
b) When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 40 Kt or
c) only in airspace class A
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be
d) if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
a) 3 minutes
b) 5 minutes
10.7.3.2 (318) c) 10 minutes
Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible d) 2 minutes
a) If the commander so requests
b) If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during the next 30 minutes
10.7.3.2 (324)
c) If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the next 60 minutes
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising
d) Only when leaving controlled airspace
27
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed 10.7.3.3 (330)
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true air speed of 20 Kt or A so called ""Visual Approach"" can be performed :
more faster than the succeeding aircraft will be a) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the
a) 5 minutes underlying ground,
b) 3 minutes b) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC,
c) 10 minutes c) during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
d) 2 minutes procedure,
d) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
10.7.3.2 (325)
Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising 10.7.3.3 (331)
level when navigation aids permit frequent determination of position and speed An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
will be a) all mentioned answers are correct
a) 10 minutes b) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight,
b) 15 minutes c) the aircraft gets radar vectors ,
c) 5 minutes d) the pilot is following the published approach procedure
d) 3 minutes
10.7.3.3 (332)
10.7.3.2 (326) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible, in case the expected
Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on delay is :
the same day(s) of consecutive weeks and : a) 5 minutes or more.
a) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive b) 15 minutes or more
days c) 10 minutes
b) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days d) 20 minutes
c) On at least 20 days consecutively
d) On at least 20 occasions
10.7.3.3 (333)
Which statement is correct ?During a ""Visual Approach"" in Controlled Airspace
10.7.3.3 (327) (Classe C):
The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres obstacle clearance within how a) ATC will apply separation with other traffic
many miles radius from the navigation facility upon which the instrument b) the pilot to apply separation with other traffic,
approach procedure is predicated: c) ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
a) 25 NM (46 km). d) ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
b) 15 NM (28 km).
c) 20 NM (37 km).
10.7.3.3 (334)
d) 30 NM (55 km).
If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a departing aircraft may
take off in any direction
10.7.3.3 (328) a) until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
""Time Approach Procedure"" is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a instrument runway
number of arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft: b) until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument
a) To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time. runway
b) To pass a specified point. c) until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
c) To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the approach sequence. d) until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the instrument runway
d) To maintain a specified speed during the approach procedure.
10.7.3.3 (335)
10.7.3.3 (329) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the estimated time of arrival
During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the pilot should contact is the estimated time at which the aircraft:
departure control: a) will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
a) When advised by Tower. b) will land.
b) Before penetrating the clouds. c) will stop on the parking area.
c) When clear of the airport and established on the first heading given in the clearance. d) will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
d) After take-off.

28
10.7.3.3 (336) a) the pilot in command.
For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the vicinity of an airport, separation b) the approach controller.
minima may be reduced: c) the radar controller.
a) When the commander in the following aircraft has the preceding aircraft in sight d) the airport controller.
and is able to maintain own separation
b) At the discretion of the air traffic controller
10.7.3.3 (342)
c) If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests
A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished
d) Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in sight
inbound on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This
minimum is, when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
10.7.3.3 (337) a) 300 m (1000 ft)
If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report b) 200 m (660 ft)
'field in sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain c) 150 m (500 ft)
conditions d) 100 m (330 ft)
a) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
b) Continued approach will be according to VFR
10.7.3.3 (343)
c) The approach must be passing the FAF
A minimum radar separation shall be provided until aircraft are etablished inbound
d) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km
on the ILS localizer course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum is,
when independent parallel approaches are being conducted :
10.7.3.3 (338) a) 3.0 NM
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind b) 5.0 NM
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface c) 1.0 NM
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean cross-wind d) 2.0 NM
component significant change is :
a) 5 KT
10.7.3.3 (344)
b) 3 KT
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
c) 10 KT
that :
d) 8 KT
a) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 30° (degrees)
from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
10.7.3.3 (339) b) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 20° (degrees) from the
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind missed approach track of the adjacent approach
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface c) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 25° (degrees) from the
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind missed approach track of the adjacent approach
component significant change is : d) the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at least 45° (degrees) from the
a) 2 KT missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) 4 KT
c) 5 KT
10.7.3.3 (345)
d) 3 KT
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted and vectoring to
intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall
10.7.3.3 (340) be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final
At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind approach track at an angle not greater than :
information in the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface a) 30 degrees
wind direction and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind b) 25 degrees
component significant change is : c) 20 degrees
a) 10 KT d) 15 degrees
b) 5 KT
c) 8 KT
10.7.3.3 (346)
d) 4 KT
Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
that a no transgression zone (NTZ) of at least :
10.7.3.3 (341) a) 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted
During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic on the radar display
avoidance is the responsibility of: b) 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar

29
display between aircraft and approach control ,
c) 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar d) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation ,
display
d) 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on the radar
10.7.3.4 (352)
display
A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
a) Poor
10.7.3.3 (347) b) Good
When independent parallel approaches are being conducted to parallel runways c) Medium/poor
and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the d) Medium
vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be established on the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track in level flight for :
10.7.3.4 (353)
a) at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS
Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they
elevation angle
can be again brought into operation :
b) at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
a) At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
c) at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
b) At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
d) at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or specified MLS elevation angle
c) At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
d) At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
10.7.3.3 (348)
Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided
10.7.3.4 (354)
that : the missed approach track for one approach diverges by :
Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate locally within a control zone
a) at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
when the ground visibility is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is
b) at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within class :
c) at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
a) E airspace
d) at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the adjacent approach
b) D and E airspaces
c) D airspace
10.7.3.4 (349) d) C, D and E airspaces
When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi holding positions have not been
established, aircraft shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than:
10.7.3.4 (355)
a) 50 metres.
In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving aircraft and using timed
b) 30 metres.
approaches, what minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
c) 45 metres.
medium aircraft ?
d) 60 metres.
a) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes
b) medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes
10.7.3.4 (350) c) light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes
Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome control service is correct? d) medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes
a) An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of ATC, will be cleared
to land if this is desirable ,
10.7.3.4 (356)
b) The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the purpose of preventing collisions
According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local
between aircraft on the movement area,
variation and given in degrees magnetic :
c) Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the aerodrome controller,
a) Before landing and take-off
d) ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a vehicule
b) When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.
c) In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
10.7.3.4 (351) d) When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified
Which statement regarding approach control service is correct ? points transmits a PIREP
a) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes or more, an
Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the
10.7.3.4 (357)
aircraft
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
b) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
in any event when they are expected to exceed 45 minutes ,
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is
c) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact
landing on the same runway in the opposite direction or on a parallel opposite
direction runway separated by :
30
a) Less than 760 m 10.7.3.6 (363)
b) 760 m Where a ""Secondary Surveillance Radar"" (SSR) is not available, radar
c) Less than 730 m identification may be achieved by one of the following procedures:
d) 730 m a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
10.7.3.4 (358)
d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.
A separation minimum shall be applied between a light or MEDIUM aircraft and a
HEAVY aircraft and between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the
heavier aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the lighter aircraft is 10.7.3.6 (364)
utilizing an opposite direction runway for take off, this minimum is : Which code shall be used on Mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an aircraft
a) 2 minutes subjected to unlawful interference?
b) 5 minutes a) Code 7500.
c) 3 minutes b) Code 7700.
d) 1 minute c) Code 7600.
d) Code 2000.
10.7.3.4 (359)
In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what minimum separation should be 10.7.3.6 (365)
applied when a medium aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are Which does ATC Term ""Radar contact"" signify?
using the same runway ? a) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight
a) 2 minutes instructions will be provided until radar identification is terminated.
b) 3 minutes b) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
c) 4 minutes contact with this radar facility.
d) 1 minute c) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
radar contact has been lost.
d) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you
10.7.3.5 (360)
are advised that contact has been lost.
Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be
affected by the information and which are:
a) Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise known to the 10.7.3.6 (366)
relevant air traffic service units. What is meant when departure control instruct you to ""resume own navigation""
b) Provided with air traffic control services, only. after you have been vectored to an airway?
c) Known to the relevant air traffic services units. a) You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation equipment.
d) Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed flight plan. b) Radar Service is terminated.
c) Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.
d) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
10.7.3.5 (361)
Alerting service shall be provided:
a) For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to be subject of 10.7.3.6 (367)
unlawful interference, and in so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have crossed a level when the SSR
plan or otherwise known to the ATS. mode C derived level information indicates that it has passed this level in the
b) For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only. required direction by:
c) To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference, only. a) More than 300 ft.
d) In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known by the b) 300 ft.
ATS. c) +/- 300 ft.
d) More than 200 ft.
10.7.3.5 (362)
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation criteria when a light aircraft is 10.7.3.6 (368)
taking off behind a medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ? The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not below:
a) 2 minutes a) 3.0 NM.
b) 3 minutes b) 5.0 NM.
c) 1 minute c) 2.0 NM.
d) 5 minutes d) 1.5 NM.

31
10.7.3.6 (369) c) Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable for position reports.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller d) You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.
should notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is
approximately:
10.7.3.6 (375)
a) 8 NM.
The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent collisions with terrain.
b) 10 NM.
a) Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
c) 5 NM.
b) Prevent collisions with terrain
d) 6 NM.
c) Do not prevent collisions with terrain
d) Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.
10.7.3.6 (370)
An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised to consider executing a
10.7.3.6 (376)
missed approach, if the position or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during
Which code shall be used on mode ""A"" to provide recognition of an emergency
any portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display
aircraft?
for significant interval during the last:
a) Code 7700.
a) 2 NM.
b) Code 7500.
b) 3 NM.
c) Code 7600.
c) 1 NM.
d) Code 7000.
d) 4 NM.

10.7.3.6 (377)
10.7.3.6 (371)
One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the radar controller shall
control service is:
terminate the surveillance radar approach, except as determined by the
a) To conduct surveillance radar approaches.
appropriate ATS authority, at a distance of:
b) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR flights and VFR flights.
a) 2 NM from touchdown.
c) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
b) 3 NM from touchdown.
d) To provide instructions in order to reduce separations minima, if accepted by the pilots.
c) 2.5 NM from touchdown.
d) 1 NM from touchdown.
10.7.3.6 (378)
The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
10.7.3.6 (372)
a) To provide radar separation.
Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS authority, a radar controller
b) To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
may request radar-controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when established on
c) To assist aircraft on the location storms.
intermediate and final approach. This speed adjustment should not be more than:
d) To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
a) +/- 20 kt.
b) +/- 10 kt.
c) +/- 15 kt. 10.7.3.6 (379)
d) +/- 8 kt. When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:
a) Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of
radar.
10.7.3.6 (373)
b) Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust the speed where the
c) not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
aircraft has passed:
d) Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.
a) 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
b) 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
c) 3 NM from the threshold on final approach. 10.7.3.6 (380)
d) 5 NM from the threshold on final approach. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach
control service is:
a) To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
10.7.3.6 (374)
b) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on
c) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.
the airway and to ""resume own navigation"". This phrase means that:
d) To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
a) You are to assume responsability for your own navigation.
b) You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

32
10.7.3.6 (381) 10.7.3.6 (387)
Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS authority a Surveillance Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the horizontal radar
Radar Approach (SRA) shall be terminated at a distance from the touchdown of: separation minimum shall be:
a) 2 NM. a) 5.0 NM.
b) 4 NM. b) 3.0 NM.
c) 5 NM. c) 10.0 NM.
d) 3 NM. d) 3.5 NM.

10.7.3.6 (382) 10.7.3.6 (388)

When ""Secondary Radar"" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the The criterion which shall be used to determine that a specific level is occupied by
following procedures: an aircraft shall be, (except that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller
a) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from criterion):
""ON"" to ""STBY"" and back to ""ON"". a) +/- 300 ft.
b) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""ON"". b) +/- 200 ft.
c) To request pilot to set transponder on position ""OFF"". c) +/- 150 ft.
d) To request pilot to switch from ""ON"" to ""STDBY"". d) +/- 250 ft.

10.7.3.6 (383) 10.7.3.6 (389)

When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned level as long as the SSR
furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at mode C derived level information indicated that it is within:
an angle not greater than: a) +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
a) 30 degrees. b) +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
b) 25 degrees. c) +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
c) 15 degrees. d) +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
d) 20 degrees.
10.7.3.6 (390)
10.7.3.6 (384) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and
The following minimum radar separation shall be provided between aircraft on the restorage is impossible, than :
same localizer with additional longitudinal separation as required for wake a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
turbulence: b) you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide
a) 3 NM. for continuation of the flight,
b) 2 NM. c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner,
c) 5 NM. d) you are not allowed to commence the flight
d) 2.5 NM.
10.7.3.6 (391)
10.7.3.6 (385) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the
The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft established on the pilot?
localizer course shall be: a) The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
a) 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. b) The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
b) 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. c) The aircraft is subject to positive control
c) 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. d) Position reports may be omitted
d) 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
10.7.3.6 (392)
10.7.3.6 (386) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final approach may be requested to
The tolerance value used to determine that mode C derived level information make minor speed adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be more
displayed to the controller is accurate shall be: than :
a) +/- 300 ft. a) 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold
b) +/- 200 ft. b) 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold
c) +/- 250 ft. c) 15 knots at any stage
d) +/- 500 ft. d) 25 knots at any stage

33
10.7.3.6 (393) b) 3 NM from touchdown
Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be achieved if a radar blip is c) 4 NM from touchdown
observed within a certain distance from the end of the runway.Identification has to d) 5 NM from touchdown
be achieved within :
a) 1NM
10.7.3.6 (399)
b) 2NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to execute a missed
c) 3NM
approach if no clearance to land has been received from the non-radar controller
d) 5NM
by the time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
a) 2 NM from the touchdown
10.7.3.6 (394) b) 4 NM from the touchdown
Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible by agreements, aircraft c) 5 NM from the touchdown
under radar-control shall not be vectored closer to the boundary of controlled d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown
airspace than :
a) 2,5 NM
10.7.3.6 (400)
b) 1,5 NM
An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed to consider executing a
c) 3 NM
missed approach if the aircraft is not visible on the radar display for any significant
d) 5 NM
interval during the :
a) Last 2 NM of the approach
10.7.3.6 (395) b) Last 4 NM of the approach
During radar-control, a ""radar-controller"" shall issue a missed-approach c) Last 3 NM of the approach
instruction, in case the ""tower-controller"" has not issued a ""landing-clearance"" d) Last 5 NM of the approach
at the moment the aircraft is :
a) 2 NM from touch-down,
10.7.3.6 (401)
b) 1NM from touch-down,
What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot should be requested to make
c) 3 NM from touch-down,
when under radar control and established on intermediate and final approach ?
d) 4 NM from touch-down,
a) ± 20KT
b) ± 15 KT
10.7.3.6 (396) c) ± 10KT
When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued to the threshold of the d) ± 25 KT
runway transmission should not be interrupted for intervals of more than five
seconds while the aircraft is within a distance of :
10.7.3.6 (402)
a) 4 NM from the touchdown
When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the
b) 2 NM from the touchdown
pilot must fly heading:
c) 3 NM from the touchdown
a) 030° magnetic
d) 1.5 NM from the touchdown
b) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
c) 030° true
10.7.3.6 (397) d) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a distance of 2 NM from the
touchdown except when as determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
10.8.1.0 (403)
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be continued to a prescribed point less
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to areas
than 2 NM from the touchdown. In this case distance and level information shall be
and/or routes for which meteorological service is provided?
given at each
a) GEN.
a) half NM
b) RAC.
b) 1 NM
c) COM.
c) 1.5 NM
d) MET.
d) half mile

10.8.1.0 (404)
10.7.3.6 (398)
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to refuelling
Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received from the non-radar
facilities and limitations on refuelling services?
controller should normally be passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of :
a) AD.
a) 2 NM from touchdown
b) FAL.
34
c) GEN. 10.8.1.0 (411)
d) SAR. An integrated aeronautical information package consists of the following elements
a) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and pre-flight
information bulletin (PIB), AIC, checklists and summuries
10.8.1.0 (405)
b) AIP, including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC and checklist
In which section of AIP are contained information elements relating to prohibited,
summaries
restricted and dangerous areas?
c) AIP, supplements to AIP, NOTAM and PIB, AIC and checklist summaries
a) ENR.
d) AIP including amendment service, supplements to AIP, NOTAM, AIC, AIRAC
b) MAP.
c) GEN.
d) AGA. 10.8.1.0 (412)
The identification of each prohibited, restricted and danger area shall be composed
by :
10.8.1.0 (406)
a) The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the state or territory,
A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical,
followed the letters P. R and D and figures
administration or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:
b) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) for the area concerned and
a) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC).
figures
b) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP).
c) The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to the state, followed by P, R and
c) NOTAM.
D
d) AIRAC.
d) The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous) followed by figures

10.8.1.0 (407)
10.8.1.0 (413)
A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air Traffic Services and Air
In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers given to each prohibited
Navigation Procedures and distributed in advance of its effective date is:
area, restricted area and danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
a) An AIRAC.
a) At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they refer
b) A NOTAM RAC.
b) At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
c) An ATS NOTAM.
c) At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer
d) An Advisory NOTAM.
d) At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they refer

10.8.1.0 (408)
10.8.1.0 (414)
Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical Information Service (AIS) in
Temporary changes on specifications for AIP supplements of long duration and
its territory and for areas in which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic
information of short duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics shall
Services outside its territory, and this shall include the preparation and origination
be published as AIP supplements. It is considered a long duration.
of:
a) Three months or longer
a) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
b) Six months or longer
b) Only AIP and NOTAM's.
c) One year or longer
c) AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.
d) Two months or longer
d) Only NOTAM's and Circulars.

10.8.1.0 (415)
10.8.1.0 (409)
Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be published in accordance with :
The closure of a runway for a year, because of maintenance, will be published :
a) AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
a) in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
b) NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM followed by a number
b) only in NOTAM
c) AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical
c) only in AIP
d) AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed by a number
d) NOTAM, AIP and MAL

10.8.1.0 (416)
10.8.1.0 (410)
A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall be issued at intervals of :
In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with ""location indicators""?
a) Not more than one month
a) GEN
b) Not more than three months
b) AGA
c) Not more than 28 days
c) ENR
d) Not more than 2 months
d) AD

35
10.8.1.0 (417) b) NOTAM
A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued at the AFTN at intervals of : c) Trigger NOTAM
a) Not more than one month d) 1999-06-08 0:00
b) No more than 15 days
c) Not more than 28 days
10.8.1.0 (424)
d) Not more than 10 days
The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) are :
a) GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
10.8.1.0 (418) b) GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.
The ASHTAM provides information on the status of activity of a volcano when a c) GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
change in its activity is, or is expected to be of operational significance. This d) GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
information is provided using the volcano level of colour code. When volcanic
eruption in progress or volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash plume/cloud is
10.8.1.0 (425)
reported above FL 250 or is expected to rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour
The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part :
code is
a) GEN
a) RED
b) ENR
b) YELLOW
c) AGA
c) GREEN
d) MET
d) ORANGE

10.8.1.0 (426)
10.8.1.0 (419)
The informations concerning charges for aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation
Which of the following is information that is not given in AIP approach and landing
Services are on the following part of the AIP
charts
a) GEN
a) Visibility minima
b) FAL
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
c) RAC
c) OCH or OCA
d) AD
d) DME-frequencies

10.8.1.0 (427)
10.8.1.0 (420)
The informations on holding, approach and departure procedures, are found in the
Which information is not included in Instrument Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP
following part of the AIP
a) Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate
a) ENR
b) Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
b) GEN
c) OCA or OCH
c) AD
d) DME-frequencies
d) MAP

10.8.1.0 (421)
10.8.1.0 (428)
ASHTAM
An AIRAC is :
a) GVATAM
a) An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification based on common
b) NAVTAM
effective dates, of circumstances necessitating significant changes in operating
c) VULTAM
procedures.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
b) A publication issued by or with the authority of a state containing aeronautical information
of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
10.8.1.0 (422) c) A notice distributed by means of telecommunication containing information concerning the
AIRAC establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility service, procedure or hazard,
a) IFPS the timely knowledge of which is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
b) NOTAM d) A package which consists of the following elements : AIP, supplements to the AIP, NOTAM,
c) EATCHIP AIC, checklists and summaries.
d) 1999-06-08 0:00
10.9.1.0 (429)
10.8.1.0 (423) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago convention contains minimum
AIP Supplements specifications for the design of aerodromes?
a) AIP Amendments a) Annex 14
36
b) Annex 6 c) 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
c) Annex 11 d) 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
d) Annex 10
10.9.1.1 (436)
10.9.1.1 (430) In the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the code element 2 shall identify:
""Instrument runways"" are the following runways intended for the operation of a) The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
aircraft using instrument approach procedures. b) Only the aircraft wing span.
a) Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and c) The width of the aircraft wing.
III. d) The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.
b) Precision approach runways category I, II and III.
c) Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways category I, II and III.
10.9.1.1 (437)
d) Precision approach runways in general.
The ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" is a code composed of two elements which are
related to the aeroplane performance characteristics and dimensions. These
10.9.1.1 (431) elements are a combination of a number and a letter as in the example under
""Code letter D"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway used by aircraft having an listed:
outer main gear wheel span of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: a) 2B.
a) 18 m. b) 6D.
b) 15 m. c) 5E.
c) 23 m. d) 4F.
d) 25 m.
10.9.1.1 (438)
10.9.1.1 (432) According with the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"" the ""Code number 4"" shall
""TODA"" take-off distance available is: identify an aircraft reference field length of:
a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if a) 1 800 m and over.
provided). b) 1 600 m.
b) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided). c) 1 500 m.
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if d) 1 200 m.
provided).
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.
10.9.1.1 (439)
The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of take-off
10.9.1.1 (433) run available prepared as a suitable area where:
""Clearway"" is defined rectangular area established to: a) An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-off.
a) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height. b) A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of runway.
b) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway. c) A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.
c) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations. d) An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
d) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
10.9.1.1 (440)
10.9.1.1 (434) ""ASDA"" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
Which ""code letter"" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway to be used by an a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway (if stopway
aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m? provided) .
a) Code letter ""C"". b) The length of the runway plus the length of stopway available (if stopway provided).
b) Code letter ""B"". c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway and clearway (if
c) Code letter ""D"". provided) .
d) Code letter ""E"". d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway.

10.9.1.1 (435) 10.9.1.1 (441)

According to the ""Aerodrome Reference Code"", the ""Code Letter E"" shall Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
identify an aircraft wing span of: are codes for different runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
a) 52 m up to but not including 65 m. runway code 4?
b) 36 m up to but not including 52 m. a) 45 metres
b) 35 metres
37
c) 40 metres a) Fixed lights showing green.
d) 50 metres b) Fixed lights showing blue.
c) Fixed lights showing yellow.
d) Fixed lights showing white.
10.9.1.2 (442)
Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced threshold shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white. 10.9.1.2 (449)
b) Fixed lights, white or yellow colour. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
c) Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow. lights shall be:
d) Flashing white. a) Fixed lights showing variable white.
b) Flashing lights showing variable white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable green.
10.9.1.2 (443)
d) Flashing lights showing variable green.
Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, should be:
a) Flashing white.
b) Fixed green. 10.9.1.2 (450)
c) Flashing green. The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
d) Fixed white. a) Precision Approach Path Indicator.
b) Precision Approach Path Index.
c) Precision Approach Power Indicator.
10.9.1.2 (444)
d) Precision Approach Power Index.
The light shown by an ""Aerodrome Identification Beacon"" at a land aerodrome
shall be:
a) Green colour identification given by Morse Code. 10.9.1.2 (451)
b) Blue colour identification given by Morse Code. The ""PAPI"" shall consist of:
c) White and green colour identification given by Morse Code. a) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) White colour identification given by Morse Code. b) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
c) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
10.9.1.2 (445)
In the ""VASIS"" , how many light units are in each wing bar?
a) 3. 10.9.1.2 (452)
b) 2. In the ""PAPI"" system the pilot during an approach will see the two units nearest
c) 4. the runway as red and the two units farthest from the runway as white when:
d) 5. a) On or close to the approach slope.
b) Above the approach slope.
c) Below the approach slope.
10.9.1.2 (446)
d) Only on the approach slope.
In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the single, two and three light
sources on the centre line have a length of:
a) 300 m. 10.9.1.2 (453)
b) 150 m. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
c) 200 m. supplemented:
d) 250 m. a) By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C""
and ""R"".
b) By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
10.9.1.2 (447)
c) By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in final approach, is following
d) By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no letter.
a normal glide path defined by a PAPI?
a) 2.
b) 3. 10.9.1.2 (454)
c) None. Taxiway edge lights shall be:
d) 1. a) Fixed showing blue.
b) Fixed showing green.
c) Fixed showing yellow.
10.9.1.2 (448)
d) Flashing showing blue.
Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

38
10.9.1.2 (455) c) a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
Runway end lights shall be: d) a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of the runway.
10.9.1.2 (462)
c) Fixed lights showing variable red.
When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence
d) Fixed lights showing variable white.
at :
a) 300 m from threshold
10.9.1.2 (456) b) 150 m from threshold
Runway threshold lights shall be: c) 450 m from threshold
a) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the d) 600 m from threshold
runway.
b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
10.9.1.2 (463)
c) Fixed lights green colours.
Runway-lead-in lighting should consist :
d) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.
a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway ,
b) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
10.9.1.2 (457) c) of flashing lights only,
Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration : d) of an arbitrary amount of green lights,
a) information signs, yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
b) mandatory instruction signs , red background with black inscriptions.
10.9.1.2 (464)
c) information signs, orange background with black inscriptions.
Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes
d) mandatory instruction signs, black background with red inscriptions.
is a specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What
should be the length of this approach light system?
10.9.1.2 (458) a) 900 metres
Which of the following alternatives describes the complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of b) 420 metres
approach light system? c) 1000 metres
a) 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit d) 1200 metres
b) 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
c) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit
10.9.1.3 (465)
d) 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a) Flashing white.
10.9.1.2 (459) b) Flashing red.
What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway c) Fixed red.
CAT II : d) Fixed orange.
a) 900m
b) 150m
10.9.1.3 (466)
c) 300m
Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be:
d) 600m
a) Flashing red or preferably yellow.
b) Fixed red or preferably orange.
10.9.1.2 (460) c) Fixed red or preferably blue.
What is a ""barrette""? d) Flashing blue.
a) three or more groundlights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.
b) a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
10.9.1.3 (467)
c) a CAT II or III holding position.
Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
d) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.
a) Fixed red.
b) Flashing red.
10.9.1.2 (461) c) Flashing yellow.
A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument runway served by ILS and d) Fixed orange.
visual aids intended for operations down to:
a) a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
10.9.1.4 (468)
b) a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
The runway edge lights shall be :

39
a) white 10.10.1.0 (474)
b) blue In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States, which are not engaged in
c) green schedule international services, and which are making flights across the territory
d) red of a Contracting State or stopping for non traffic purposes, such Contracting State
shall accept the information contained in a flight plan as adequate advance
notification. This information is to be received :
10.9.1.5 (469)
a) at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:
b) at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
a) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and
c) at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
its maximum fuselage width.
d) at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
b) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its
maximum fuselage weight.
c) The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. 10.10.1.0 (475)
d) The longuest aeroplane maximum width only An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled international air services and which
is making a flight to or through any designated airport of a Contracting State and is
admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed to remain within that State
10.10.1.0 (470)
without security for customs duty.
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of persons and their
a) For a period to be established by that State
baggage in international flights is :
b) for a period of 24 hours
a) annex 9
c) for a period of 48 hours
b) annex 8
d) for a period of 12 hours
c) annex 6
d) annex 15
10.10.1.0 (476)
Which one of the statements is correct :
10.10.1.0 (471)
a) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage from passengers
The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of cargo and other articles
and crew
on international flights is :
b) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from crew
a) annex 9
c) contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of baggage only from passengers
b) annex 8
d) contracting states may not accept oral declaration of baggages
c) annex 15
d) annex 16
10.10.2.0 (477)
When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as a public health measure,
10.10.1.0 (472)
the desinsecting is made when the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an
A contracting state which continues to require the presentation of a cargo manifest
automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying, but as far in advance as
shall, apart from the information indicated in the heading of the format of the
possible and:
cargo manifest, not require more than the following item(s) :
a) At least 30 minute prior to land.
a) The air waybill number, the number of packages related to each air waybill
b) At least one hour prior to land.
number and the nature of the goods
c) At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.
b) The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
d) At least immediately before landing.
c) The air waybill number and the number of packages related to the air way bill number
d) The air waybill number
10.10.2.0 (478)
The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away from the territory of a
10.10.1.0 (473)
Contracting State shall terminate from the moment such person has been
Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent or pilot-in-command to
definitely admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
deliver to the public authorities concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more
a) The stated above is correct.
than some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and stores list. The
b) The operator has no obligation.
numbers of the copies are :
c) The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator.
a) 2 of each
d) The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the person leaves the aeroplane.
b) 3 of each
c) 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and one copie of a simple stores list.
d) 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and of a stores list 10.10.2.0 (479)
When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not unladen at their intended
destination but are unladen at another international airport, the contracting state

40
where the unlading takes place, if satisfied that there has been no gross
negligence or careless by the operator
a) shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes on the operator
b) shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and taes on thexes on the operator
c) shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but taxes on the operator
d) shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom duties on the operator
10.10.2.0 (480)
Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared under the procedure
applicable to :
a) accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs procedure distinct
from that normally applicable to other cargo
b) cargo and is covered by a traffic document
c) cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
d) cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be completed by the passenger
prior to shipment
10.10.2.0 (481)
Contracting states shall carry out the handling, forwarding and clearance of airmail
and shall comply with the documentary procedures as prescribed :
a) in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
b) by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
c) by IATA and accepted by ICAO
d) by the Regional Postal Office
10.10.2.0 (482)
Except in special circumstances determined by the public authorities concerned,
when a passenger is passing through the territory of a contracting state and has to
stay in that contracting state until the next flight for lack of facilities or any other
circumstances, the contracting state where the international airport is located
shall permit such a passenger to remain within its territory without requiring visas
prior to the arrival when
a) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from the day of his (her)
arrival
b) the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks from the day of his (her) arrival
c) the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from the day of his (her) arrival
d) the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two) hours from the time of arrival
of that passenger
10.10.2.0 (483)
The documents for entry and departure of aircraft :
a) are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink
b) has to be typewritten
c) has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data processing techniques
d) are accepted at the contracting state discretion
10.10.2.0 (484)
When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to the operator for transport
away from the territory of the state, the operator :
a) shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any transportation costs
arising from his (her) inadmissibility
b) shall not recover from such person any transportation costs arising from his (her)
inadmissibility
c) is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the receiving state
d) and the state of the operator are both responsible for the person inadmissible
10.10.2.0 (485)
In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid passport and no visa is
required of him, contracting states
a) shall not require him to obtain any other identity document from their
consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
b) may require him to obtain any other identity document prior to the commencement of his
flight
c) in certain cases any other identity may be required
d) none of the answers are applicable
10.11.1.1 (486)
The units responsable for promoting efficient organization of search and rescue
service are:
a) Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
b) Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
c) Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
d) Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
10.11.1.3 (487)
Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten minute intervals,
overhead the scene of a recent aircraft accident.-aircraft (1) is unable to establish
contact with the Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (2) is able to contact the
Search and Rescue Centre-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopterThe
command of the situation is the responsibility of,
a) (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
b) (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of operations.
c) (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
d) (1) until the completion of operations.
10.11.1.4 (488)
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers
according to the following code:
a) Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing.
c) Black for food and water.
d) Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
10.11.1.4 (489)
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers
according to the following code:
a) Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
b) Red for food and water.
c) Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
d) Black for food and water.
41
10.11.1.4 (490) 10.11.1.4 (496)
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages (For this question use annex 010-9805A)Using the ground - air visual signal code,
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers the letter similar to the symbol meanning ""REQUIRE MEDICAL ASSISTANCE"" is :
according to the following code: a) 1
a) Blue for food and water. b) 2
b) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. c) 3
c) Black for food and water. d) 4
d) Red for miscellaneous equipment.
10.11.1.4 (497)
10.11.1.4 (491) (For this question use annex 010-9806A)What is the meanning of the showed
The color identification of the contents of droppable containers and packages symbol in the ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ?
containing survival equipment should take the form of coloured streamers a) operation completed
according to the following code: b) we have found all personnel
a) Black for miscellaneous equipment. c) we have found only some personnel
b) Blue for blankets and protective clothing. d) we are returning to base
c) Red for food and water.
d) Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
10.11.1.4 (498)
Which of the following is NOT an international distress frequency ?
10.11.1.4 (492) a) 2430 KHz
(For this question use annex 010-9801A)Using the ground - air visual code the b) 121.5 MHz
letter(s) similar to the symbol meaning ""REQUIRE ASSISTANCE"" is (are) : c) 243.0 MHz
a) 1 d) 2.182 KHz
b) 2
c) 3
10.11.1.4 (499)
d) 4
An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which a search is being carried
out to find the survivors of an aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in
10.11.1.4 (493) the form of an ""X"".This indicates :
(For this question use annex 010-9802A)Using the ground - air visual code the a) ""Need medical assistance"".
symbol meaning ""we have found all personnel"" is : b) ""Landing impossible"".
a) 1 c) ""All occupants alive"".
b) 2 d) ""Need mechanical assistance"".
c) 3
d) 4
10.11.1.4 (500)
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help. To indicate that he
10.11.1.4 (494) has received these ground signals, the pilot must :
(For this question use annex 010-9803A)What is the meaning of the showed a) switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so equipped, his
symbol in the ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ? navigation lights twice.
a) Require medical assistance b) make at least one complete turn over the group of people in difficulty.
b) Require assistance c) transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter ""R"" using his navigational lights.
c) Landing here impossible d) fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
d) Drop emergency supplies at this point
10.12.1.0 (501)
10.11.1.4 (495) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers some supplementary
(For this question use annex 010-9804A)The ground - air visual code illustrated safeguards are to be observed such as :
means : a) boarding prior to all passengers
a) Require assistance b) boarding after to all other passengers
b) Please indicate direction c) the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion
c) Proceding in the direction shown d) the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
d) Require medical assistance
10.12.1.0 (502)
Aeronautical part
42
a) Security program. screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have been passed
b) Manoeuvring area. a) the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before
c) Terminal. boarding an aircraft
d) 1999-06-08 0:00 b) only the passengers are to be re screened
c) only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
d) the persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
10.12.1.0 (503)
The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected by
an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, world be retained, 10.12.1.2 (508)
unless its departure is justified to protect lives. Each member state should designate an appropriate authority with its
a) The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that an aircraft affected administration to be responsible for the development implementation and
by an unlawful seizure act, which has landed in their territory, would be detained maintenance of a national aviation security programme. This programme should
in all cases. apply :
b) The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids, air transit services, etc, to an a) to all international civil air transport including aircraft engaged solely in the
aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act. carriage of cargo and yet to domestic flights at the discretion of each member
c) The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of consusltations between the State state
where an aircraft affected by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft b) only to all international civil transport including aircraft engaged solely in the carriage of
operator's State. cargo
d) 1999-06-08 0:00 c) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights
d) only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport flights and domestic flights
10.12.1.1 (504)
The national civil aviation security programme shall be established by : 10.12.1.2 (509)
a) Each contracting state When a member state allows police officers, security staff, bodyguards or other
b) ICAO agents of foreign states to carry weapons in their territory for the protection of
c) ECAC aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons should be conditional
d) ICAO and other organisations including the contracting state concerned upon :
a) Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign state in which the
weapons will be carried on the airport of arrival and notification of the pilot in
10.12.1.1 (505)
command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate authority within its
b) Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a weapon to be carried on
administration to be responsible for the development, implementation and
board his aircraft only
maintenance of the national civil aviation security programme. The said
c) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state of destination
appropriate authority :
d) Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport of arrival
a) Shall be specified to ICAO
b) Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
c) Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting states 10.12.1.2 (510)
d) Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC Member states should introduce specific security measures for the air transport of
the following groups of potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
a) Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful custody
10.12.1.2 (506)
b) Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
Each contracting state shall establish measures to ensure that the aircraft operator
c) Deportees and inadmissible persons only
is informed when passengers are obliged to travel because they have been the
d) None of the answers is correct
subject of judicial or administrative proceedings in order that appropriate security
measures can be taken
a) The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in command and the aircraft 10.13.1.0 (511)
operator are to be informed. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls
b) Correct. into a hole, which seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the
c) The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be informed when any departure.
passenger is the subject of judicial proceedings. a) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
d) These measures are of the discretion of the contracting state. b) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are
related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.
10.12.1.2 (507)
c) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay
When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security
caused by necessary repair.
control and other persons not subjected to such control after the security

43
d) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within 21.1.1.0 (517)
the next 48 hours. 'Fail safe construction' is :
a) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part
of the structure fails.
10.13.1.0 (512)
b) A simple and cheap type of construction.
Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago convention for the initation of
c) A type of construction for small aircraft only.
an accident investigation?
d) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
a) The government of the state in which the accident took place
b) Operators of the same aircraft type
c) The aircraft manufacturer 21.1.1.0 (518)
d) The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the aircraft is registered The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is
to:
a) assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
10.13.1.0 (513)
b) withstand the shear stresses.
Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the state of occurrence for
c) provide sound and thermal isolation.
participation, the state of design and the state of manufacture shall in the case of
d) integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them
an accident or serious incident inform the state of occurence of the name of its
into a tensile stress.
representative to be present at the investigation when the aircraft :
a) Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
b) Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg 21.1.1.0 (519)
c) Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot
d) Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies is that
a) the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load
spectrum
21.1.0.0 (514)
b) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :1 The mounting principle is parallel
c) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
mounting.2 No routine check is necessary.3 The member is removed at the end of
d) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the
the calculated life cycle.4 Certain components may not be accessible.5 The
aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way
principle is the redundancy of components6 The failure of a member causes the
loads to be shared between the other system components.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is : 21.1.3.0 (520)
a) 1,5,6 The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is
b) 2,3,4 subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root
c) 1,3,4 to the wing tip, to operate in:
d) 2,5,6 a) compression, then in tension.
b) tension, then in compression.
c) tension.
21.1.1.0 (515)
d) compression.
DURALUMIN alloys :1 have an aluminium-copper base.2 have an aluminium-
magnesium base.3 are easy to weld.4 are difficult to weld.5 have a good thermal
conductivity.6 have a poor air corrosion resistanceThe combination regrouping all 21.1.3.0 (521)
the correct statements is : In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that
a) 1,4,5 produce a bending moment which is:
b) 2,4,5 a) highest at the wing root
c) 1,3,6 b) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span
d) 2,3,6 c) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span
d) lowest at the wing root
21.1.1.0 (516)
Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently 21.1.3.0 (522)
transmit the:1. normal bending stresses2. tangent bending stresses3. torsional The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:1 Is a limitation set by regulation.2 Is designed for a
moment4. shear stressesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is : maximum load factor.3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.4
a) 1, 2, 3 Requires to empty external tanks first.5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.The
b) 2, 3, 4 correct combination of true statements is :
c) 1, 2, 4 a) 1,2,3
d) 1, 3, 4 b) 2,5

44
c) 2,4 a) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.
d) 1,3,5 b) Increased on the faster turning wheels.
c) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
d) Increased on the slower turning wheels.
21.1.3.0 (523)
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the
vertical bending moments Mx are: 21.1.5.0 (530)
a) the spars. The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:
b) the ribs. a) Multiple disk brake.
c) the webs. b) Drum type brake.
d) the skin. c) Single disk brake.
d) Belt brake.
21.1.4.0 (524)
The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the vertical stabilizer is : 21.1.5.0 (531)
a) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they :
b) to a have greater effectiveness at high speed a) release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
c) that it does not require a de-icing system b) prevent the brakes from overheating.
d) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation c) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
d) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
21.1.5.0 (525)
A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to : 21.1.5.0 (532)
a) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut. Thermal plugs are installed in:
b) absorb the spring tension. a) wheel rims.
c) control the wheels. b) fire warning systems.
d) lock the landing gear. c) cabin windows.
d) cargo compartments.
21.1.5.0 (526)
In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually: 21.1.5.0 (533)
a) Hydraulically driven. When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
b) Mechanically driven. a) 0
c) Pneumatically driven. b) 1
d) Electrically driven. c) 0.1
d) 0.5
21.1.5.0 (527)
Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended 21.1.5.0 (534)
if there is a complete hydraulic system failure. Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:1. the wheels
a) Mechanically tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground2. the wheels no longer respond
b) Electrically. to the pilot's actionsThis effect is overcome by means of:3. the torque link4. an
c) Pneumatically. accumulator associated with the steering cylinderThe combination of correct
d) By hydraulic accumulators. statements is:
a) 1, 3.
b) 1, 4.
21.1.5.0 (528)
c) 2, 4.
If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:
d) 2, 3.
a) Repaired several times.
b) repaired once.
c) Never repaired. 21.1.5.0 (535)
d) Used on the nose wheel only. The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is :
a) locked-down.
b) in the required position.
21.1.5.0 (529)
c) locked-down and its door is locked.
The operating principle of an anti skid system is as follows : the brake pressure will
d) not in the required position.
be :

45
21.1.5.0 (536) c) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
A tubeless tyre has :1- a built-in-air tube.2- no built-in-air tube.3- a crossed side d) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.
casing.4- a radial side casing.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2, 4.
21.1.5.0 (542)
b) 1, 4.
A main landing gear is said to be ""locked down"" when:
c) 2, 3.
a) the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism.
d) 1,3.
b) it is in the down position.
c) the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel.
21.1.5.0 (537) d) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber.
In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:
a) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic
21.1.5.0 (543)
failure.
The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
b) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic
data is:1. idle wheel speed (measured)2. braked wheel speed (measured)3. brake
braking system.
temperature (measured)4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate5. tire pressureThe
c) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
wheel blocking.
a) 1, 2, 4.
d) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
braking.
c) 2, 4.
d) 1, 3.
21.1.5.0 (538)
Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on
21.1.5.0 (544)
larger aircraft ?
On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is
a) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
derived from :
b) Nitrogen.
a) the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
c) Oxygen.
b) the master cylinders.
d) Springs.
c) pressure to the rudder pedals.
d) the brake actuators.
21.1.5.0 (539)
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being
21.1.5.0 (545)
inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of :
""Nose wheel shimmy"" may be described as :
a) A latch located in the landing gear lever.
a) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
b) An aural warning horn.
b) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
c) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
c) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
d) A bolt.
d) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.

21.1.5.0 (540)
21.1.5.0 (546)
A tubeless tyre is a tyre:1. which requires solid or branched wheels2. whose valve
The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie
can be sheared in sudden accelerations3. whose mounting rim must be flawless4.
gear is
which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device5.
a) Taxiing with a small turning radius.
which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture6. which eliminates internal
b) Touch down with crosswind
friction between the tube and the tireThe combination regrouping all the correct
c) Gear down selection
statements is :
d) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.
a) 1, 5, 6.
b) 3, 4, 5.
c) 1, 2, 5. 21.1.5.0 (547)
d) 2, 3, 6. Tyre ""creep"" may be described as the :
a) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
b) the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient temperature.
21.1.5.0 (541)
c) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.
Landing gear torque links are used to:
d) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
a) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
b) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.

46
21.1.5.0 (548) example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:
The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after landing .. a) a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature
a) by pilot action (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
b) automatically b) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
c) at a certain low speed c) the ""Emergency Burst"" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
d) the system is always armed temperature.
d) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
21.1.5.0 (549)
The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are : 21.1.5.0 (555)
a) the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:
function a) will wear at the shoulders
b) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function. b) it's tread will deteriorate faster
c) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping c) will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
function. d) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway
d) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-
dissipation function.
21.1.6.1 (556)
The trim tab :
21.1.5.0 (550) a) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
The function of a fusible plug is to b) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.
a) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature. c) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
b) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature. d) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.
c) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
d) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.
21.1.6.1 (557)
The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
21.1.5.0 (551) a) reduce or to cancel control forces.
(For this question use appendix )Associate the correct legend to each of the b) trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
numbered diagrams : c) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
a) 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels d) lower manoeuvring control forces.
b) 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem
c) 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
21.1.6.1 (558)
d) 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels
An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:
a) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.
21.1.5.0 (552) b) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to : c) there is a trimmable stabilizer.
a) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber. d) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
b) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
c) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of
21.1.6.1 (559)
the nosewheel.
An artificial feel unit system:
d) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.
a) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.
b) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.
21.1.5.0 (553) c) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.
Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following d) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.
characteristics :1 - high heating2 - valve fragility3 - lower risk of bursting4 - better
adjustment to wheelsThe combination containing all the correct statements is:
21.1.6.1 (560)
a) 04-Mar
A Yaw Damper is :
b) 03-Fev
a) A rudder damper designed to avoid the ""Dutch roll"".
c) 04-Fev
b) An elevator augmentor.
d) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
c) An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
d) A roll trim tab.
21.1.5.0 (554)
On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for
47
21.1.6.1 (561) c) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ... d) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
a) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will
retract and the left one will extend.
21.1.6.2 (567)
b) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the
On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
left one will retract.
a) leading edge flaps close to the wing root
c) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the
b) trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
left one will retract.
c) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
d) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the
d) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
left one will extend.

21.1.7.1 (568)
21.1.6.2 (562)
Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:1. thermal stability2. low
The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic
emulsifying characteristics3. corrosion resistance4. good resistance to
power required to operate the control surfaces2. lesser sensitivity to lightning
combustion5. high compressibility6. high volatility7. high viscosityThe combination
strike3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems4.
regrouping all the correct statements is :
immunity to different interfering signals5. improvement of piloting quality
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
throughout the flight envelopeThe combination regrouping all the correct
b) 1, 2, 5, 7
statements is :
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
a) 3 and 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 6
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 5
d) 2 and 3 21.1.7.1 (569)
In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi.An
electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of
21.1.6.2 (563)
3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the gas section of
Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall warning computers?
the accumulator, reads:
a) Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.
a) 3000 psi
b) Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
b) 1200 psi
c) Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR.
c) 4200 psi
d) Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.
d) 1800 psi

21.1.6.2 (564)
21.1.7.1 (570)
On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:
Hydraulic fluids :
a) leading edge flap
a) Are irritating to eyes and skin.
b) trailing edge flap
b) Cause high fire risk.
c) leading edge flap close to the wing root
c) Do not require special care.
d) leading edge flap close to the wing tip
d) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.

21.1.6.2 (565)
21.1.7.1 (571)
The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate
Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:
switches is
a) Phosphate ester base fluids.
a) To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
b) Water base fluids.
b) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
c) Vegetable base fluids.
c) Because there are two trim motors.
d) Mineral base fluids.
d) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate
at low speed
21.1.7.1 (572)
Hydraulic power is a function of :
21.1.6.2 (566)
a) System pressure and volume flow.
On an aeroplane, spoilers are :
b) Pump RPM only.
a) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
c) System pressure and tank capacity.
b) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
d) Pump size and volume flow.

48
21.1.7.1 (573) 21.1.7.1 (580)
Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system (For this question use annex 021-6716A)In the hydraulic press schematically
pressure of approximately: shown, what balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side ? (The
a) 3000 psi diagram is not to scale)
b) 4000 psi a) 100 N.
c) 2000 psi b) 1000 N.
d) 1000 psi c) 20 N.
d) 1 N.
21.1.7.1 (574)
In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used 21.1.7.1 (581)
are: Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :
a) Synthetic oil. a) an increased fluid temperature.
b) Mineral oil. b) fluid loss.
c) Vegetable oil. c) a decreased fluid temperature.
d) Water and glycol. d) an increased fluid pressure.

21.1.7.1 (575) 21.1.7.1 (582)

The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is: Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will :
a) synthetic oil a) fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
b) vegetable oil b) always remain the same.
c) mixture of mineral oil and alcohol c) initially increase with system pressurisation.
d) mineral oil d) increase as ambient temperature decreases.

21.1.7.1 (576) 21.1.7.1 (583)

The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest resistance against cavitation is : Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the
a) Synthetic fluid. hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the
b) Mineral oil based fluid. indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be :
c) Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil). a) 3000 psi.
d) Water and glycol based fluid. b) 2000 psi.
c) 1000 psi.
d) 4000 psi.
21.1.7.1 (577)
The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure into a linear motion is
called ... 21.1.7.1 (584)
a) An actuator or jack. For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is :
b) A hydraulic pump. a) the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-
c) An accumulator. passes, and the fire shut-off valve.
d) A Pressure regulator. b) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to
210 kg/cm²).
c) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all
21.1.7.1 (578)
hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.
The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:
d) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a
a) high pressure and large flow.
pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
b) high pressure and small flow.
c) small pressure and large flow.
d) small pressure and small flow. 21.1.7.2 (585)
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?
a) At the pumps.
21.1.7.1 (579)
b) In the reservoirs.
Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:
c) At actuators.
a) purple.
d) At the coolers.
b) pink.
c) blue.
d) red.
49
21.1.7.2 (586) 21.1.7.2 (593)
In a modern hydraulic system, ""hydraulic fuses"" can be found. Their function is : Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic
a) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line. system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
b) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system. a) 1500 psi.
c) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution. b) 2500 psi.
d) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without c) 1000 psi.
further damage to the system. d) 500 psi.

21.1.7.2 (587) 21.1.7.2 (594)

In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to: An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :
a) prevent pump cavitation a) store fluid under pressure.
b) seal the system b) increase pressure surges within the system.
c) keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d) reduce fluid combustibility d) reduce fluid temperature only.

21.1.7.2 (588) 21.1.7.2 (595)

The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: (For this question use annex 021-6736A)The schematic diagram annexed illustates
a) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure. a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming hydraulic
b) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure. pressure throughout :
c) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems. a) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place.
d) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump. b) since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces.
c) the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
d) the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
21.1.7.2 (589)
Shuttle valves will automatically:
a) Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply. 21.1.7.2 (596)
b) Shut down systems which are overloaded. In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :
c) Guard systems against overpressure. a) allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
d) Reduce pump loads. b) is a self-lapping non-return valve.
c) allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
d) regulates pump delivery pressure.
21.1.7.2 (590)
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used :
a) for damping pressure surges in the system. 21.1.7.2 (597)
b) for fluid storage. To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a
c) for pressure storage. hydraulic system often incorporates
d) as a pressure relief valve. a) a high pressure relief valve.
b) a stand-by hydraulic pump.
c) an accumulator.
21.1.7.2 (591)
d) auxiliary hydraulic motors.
The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a :
a) check valve.
b) flow control valve. 21.1.7.2 (598)
c) distribution valve. The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to :
d) shutoff valve. a) prevent cavitation in the pump
b) ensure sufficient pump output
c) prevent overheating of the pump.
21.1.7.2 (592)
d) prevent vapour locking.
The function of the selector valve is to:
a) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.
b) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure. 21.1.7.2 (599)
c) automatically activate the hydraulic system. The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for :
d) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high. a) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
b) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

50
c) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system. c) FL 280
d) flap extension only. d) FL 180

21.1.7.2 (600) 21.1.8.3 (606)

The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized: The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to :
a) by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine. a) Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and
b) in flight only. minimise cabin pressure surges.
c) by the air conditioning system. b) regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
d) by an auxiliary system. c) discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
d) regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.
21.1.7.2 (601)
The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an alarm if : 21.1.8.3 (607)
a) the pump output pressure is insufficient. Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal
b) the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit. flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
c) there is a leak in the reservoir return line. a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
d) the pump power accumulator is deflated. b) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
c) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
d) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
21.1.8.3 (602)
If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
a) decreases 21.1.8.3 (608)
b) increases Cabin pressure is controlled by :
c) remains constant a) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the
d) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is outflow.
taken. b) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
c) the cabin air re-circulation system.
d) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
21.1.8.3 (603)
The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform
the following functions:1. control of cabin altitude,2. control of cabin altitude rate- 21.1.8.3 (609)
of-change,3. limitation of differential pressure4. balancing aircraft altitude with During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased,
cabin altitude5. cabin ventilation6. keeping a constant differential pressure even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
throughout all the flight phases.The combination regrouping all the correct a) Partially open.
statements is : b) fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
a) 1, 2, 3 c) At the pre-set position for take-off.
b) 2, 6, 4 d) Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
c) 5, 6, 1
d) 4, 5, 3
21.1.8.3 (610)
The purpose of a ditching control is to:
21.1.8.3 (604) a) close the outflow valve(s).
During a normal pressurised climb after take-off: b) achieve rapid depressurisation.
a) cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure c) open the outflow valve(s).
b) the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached d) direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.
c) the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
d) absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft
21.1.8.3 (611)
The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
21.1.8.3 (605) a) Outflow valve.
(For this question use annex 021-786A)In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin b) Air cycle machine.
altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the c) Air conditioning pack.
differential pressure to 5 psi.The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the d) Cabin inlet airflow valve.
same cabin altitude is:
a) FL 230
b) FL 340
51
21.1.8.3 (612) 21.1.8.3 (619)
The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized
a) The cabin outflow valve. cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
b) The cabin inlet airflow. a) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
c) The engine's RPM. b) Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
d) The engine's bleed valves. c) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
d) Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
21.1.8.3 (613)
Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between: 21.1.8.3 (620)
a) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure. The ""cabin differential pressure"" is:
b) cockpit and passenger cabin. a) cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
c) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL. b) approximately 5 psi at maximum.
d) actual cabin pressure and selected pressure. c) approximately 15 psi at maximum.
d) the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
21.1.8.3 (614)
Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to 21.1.8.3 (621)
exceed: The cabin rate of descent is:
a) 8000 ft a) a cabin pressure increase.
b) 4000 ft b) always the same as the airplane's rate of descent.
c) 6000 ft c) a cabin pressure decrease.
d) 10000 ft d) is not possible at constant airplane altitudes.

21.1.8.3 (615) 21.1.8.3 (622)

Cabin altitude means the: The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is
a) cabin pressure expressed as altitude. approximately:
b) difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling. a) 9.0 psi
c) flight level the aircraft is flying at. b) 3.5 psi
d) flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure. c) 13.5 psi
d) 15.5 psi
21.1.8.3 (616)
A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This 21.1.8.3 (623)
warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level.During the flight, a
a) 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m) malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of
b) 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m) climb indicator reads -200ft/min.Given that :DELTA P: Differential pressureZc:
c) 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m) Cabin altitude
d) 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m) a) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves
to open.
b) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches
21.1.8.3 (617)
14000ft.
On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential
c) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
pressure is approximately:
d) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.
a) 7 - 9 psi
b) 3 - 5 psi
c) 13 - 15 psi 21.1.8.3 (624)
d) 22 psi An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.Following a malfunction of
the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :VZc:
Cabin rate of climb indicationZc: Cabin pressure altitudeDELTA P: Differential
21.1.8.3 (618)
pressureThis will result in a:
On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
a) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P decrease
a) Airflow leaving the cabin.
b) VZc decreaseZc increaseDELTA P decrease
b) Airflow entering the cabin.
c) VZc increaseZc increaseDELTA P increase
c) RPM of the engine.
d) VZc decreaseZc decreaseDELTA P increase
d) Bleed air valve.
52
21.1.8.3 (625) b) mass air flow into the cabin.
In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally c) position of the inward relief valve.
controlled by : d) position of the duct relief valve(s).
a) a rate of change selector.
b) the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the
21.1.8.3 (632)
aeroplane altitude.
If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air
c) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller
pressure the :
and ambient barometric pressure.
a) negative pressure relief valve will open.
d) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
b) negative pressure relief valve will close
c) outflow valve open completely.
21.1.8.3 (626) d) air cycle machine will stop.
The term ""pressure cabin"" applies when an aeroplane :
a) has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
21.1.8.4 (633)
b) is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:
c) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
a) wings.
d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
b) pitot tubes.
c) propellers.
21.1.8.3 (627) d) engine intakes.
Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by :
a) regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
21.1.8.4 (634)
b) pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against
c) engine rpm.
the formation of ice, the only correct statement is:
d) inward relief valve(s).
a) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.
b) The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and
21.1.8.3 (628) easy to maintain.
Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal c) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained : d) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular
a) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin. to the leading edges.
b) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
c) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
21.1.8.4 (635)
d) the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.
A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..
a) When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
21.1.8.3 (629) b) When entering areas with icing conditions.
Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should c) When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
indicate : d) Only at take-off and during approach.
a) a rate of climb.
b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.
21.1.8.4 (636)
c) zero.
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-
d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
icing devices, one can affirm that :1 - They prevent ice formation.2 - They are
triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.3 - A cycle lasts more
21.1.8.3 (630) than ten seconds.4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.The combination
Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow which regroups all the correct statements is :
valve(s) would close. The result would be that: a) 03-Fev
a) the pressure differential would go to the maximum value b) 04-Fev
b) the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure c) 03-Jan
c) the air supply would automatically be stopped d) 04-Jan
d) the skin of the cabin would be overstressed
21.1.9.1 (637)
21.1.8.3 (631) The pneumatic system accumulator is useful :
A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the : a) to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
a) position of the outflow valve(s). b) to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
53
c) to offset for the starting of some devices. 21.1.9.2 (644)
d) in emergency cases. The term ""cabin pressure"" applies when an aeroplane:
a) has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient
pressure.
21.1.9.1 (638)
b) is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport aircraft, the air pressure is
c) has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.
regulated. This pressure regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
d) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
a) low pressure bleed air valve
b) high pressure bleed air valve
c) fan bleed air valve 21.1.9.2 (645)
d) intermediate pressure check-valve When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen
content is:
a) unaffected.
21.1.9.2 (639)
b) decreased.
In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:
c) increased.
a) in the turbine.
d) dependent on the degree of pressurisation.
b) in a pressure relief valve.
c) of Freon in a heat exchanger.
d) of Freon in the turbine. 21.1.9.2 (646)
The term ""bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
pressurisation system, refers to the:
21.1.9.2 (640)
a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
Main cabin temperature is:
b) source of the charge air.
a) controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.
c) means by which pressurisation is controlled.
b) controlled by individual passenger.
d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
c) not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
d) Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
21.1.9.2 (647)
In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
21.1.9.2 (641)
a) compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion
Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the water separation unit is
turbine.
placed:
b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat
a) after the cooling turbine.
exchanger.
b) before the heat exchangers.
c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
c) before the cooling turbine.
d) compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger.
d) just after the heat exchangers.

21.1.9.2 (648)
21.1.9.2 (642)
In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is
The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft consists of several components:
routed via the:
these include two heat exchangers, the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary
a) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
exchanger (S).The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
b) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
a) P: precools the engine bleed airS: reduces the temperature of the air from the
c) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
primary exchanger or from the pack's compressor.
d) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
b) P: warms up engine bleed airS: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
c) P: warms up engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack. 21.1.9.2 (649)
d) P: pre-cools the engine bleed airS: increases the temperature of the air used for air- Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet
conditioning of cargo compartment (animals). aeroplanes is usually taken from the:
a) compressor section.
b) fan section.
21.1.9.2 (643)
c) turbine section.
""Conditioned"" air is air that has:
d) by-pass ducting.
a) been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.
b) oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
c) oxygen content increased. 21.1.9.2 (650)
d) oxygen content reduced. What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?
54
a) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground 21.1.9.2 (657)
operation. In a ""bootstrap"" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air
b) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight. unit to:
c) Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air. a) ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
d) Cooling of the APU compartment. b) increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
c) ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
d) maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
21.1.9.2 (651)
The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied by:
a) main engine compressors. 21.1.9.2 (658)
b) piston compressors. A turbo-fan cold air unit will:
c) roots type compressors. a) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge
d) single radial compressors. air.
b) not affect the charge air pressure.
c) increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
21.1.9.2 (652)
d) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:
a) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if
necessary. 21.1.9.2 (659)
b) the second fan stage. The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from :
c) the low pressure compressor. a) hot air coming from the engine's compressors.
d) the high pressure compressor. b) hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
c) a fuel heater system.
d) an electrical heater system.
21.1.9.2 (653)
In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
a) humidity. 21.1.9.2 (660)
b) purity. The pack cooling fan provides:
c) pressure. a) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and
d) temperature. ground operation.
b) cooling air to the pre-cooler.
c) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
21.1.9.2 (654)
d) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:
a) cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
b) allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups 21.1.9.2 (661)
in operation. The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit :
c) cool bleed air. a) outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
d) allow a steady compressor outlet temperature. b) inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
c) outlet and uses an evaporation process.
d) inlet and uses an evaporation process.
21.1.9.2 (655)
The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):
a) drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the 21.1.9.2 (662)
conditioning air. The term ""Bootstrap"", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and
b) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation. pressurisation system, refers to the :
c) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin. a) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
d) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air. b) source of the charge air.
c) means by which pressurisation is controlled.
d) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
21.1.9.2 (656)
In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air
temperature and pressure is achieved by: 21.1.9.2 (663)
a) an expansion turbine. In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :
b) a compressor. a) compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an
c) a condenser. expansion turbine.
d) an evaporator. b) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary
55
heat exchanger. b) Pneumatic system with expandable boots.
c) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger. c) Liquid de-icing system.
d) used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low. d) Electrical de-icing system.

21.1.9.2 (664) 21.1.9.3 (670)

The function of an air cycle machine is to : During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect
a) cool the bleed air. a) leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.
b) decrease the pressure of the bleed air. b) the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
c) remove the water from the bleed air. c) slats and the leading edge flaps only.
d) pump the conditioned air into the cabin. d) leading edges only.

21.1.9.2 (665) 21.1.9.3 (671)

""Conditioned"" air is air that has : In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary supplied by
a) been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure. a) bleed air from the engines.
b) had any moisture removed from it. b) turbo compressors.
c) had the oxygen content increased. c) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
d) had the oxygen content reduced. d) the APU.

21.1.9.3 (666) 21.1.9.3 (672)

In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern
commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is: turboprop aeroplanes is :
a) Thermal (use of hot air). a) Pneumatic boots.
b) Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid). b) Electrical heating.
c) Electrical (electrical resistances). c) Thermal anti-icing.
d) Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge). d) Fluid de-icing.

21.1.9.3 (667) 21.1.9.3 (673)

Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is: The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works
a) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent a) electrically.
icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...). b) pneumatically.
b) on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very c) with hot air.
often used for large surfaces de-icing. d) with anti-icing fluid.
c) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore
they only need little energy.
21.1.9.3 (674)
d) on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices
The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :1. Simple and reliable system2. Profiles
for pitot-tubes, static ports, windshield...
maintained3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor4. Direct use of
the hot air from the jet engine without substantial reduction in engine thrustThe
21.1.9.3 (668) combination of correct statements is:
The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:1) a) 1,2
engine air intake and pod.2) front glass shield.3) radome.4) pitot tubes and waste b) 3,4
water exhaust masts.5) leading edge of wing.6) cabin windows.7) trailing edge of c) 1,3
wings.8) electronic equipment compartment.The combination regrouping all the d) 2,4
correct statements is :
a) 1, 2, 4, 5
21.1.10.1 (675)
b) 1, 4, 5, 7
On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by :
c) 1, 2, 5, 6
a) Electric heating.
d) 1, 2, 3, 8
b) Vinyl coating.
c) Anti-icing fluid.
21.1.9.3 (669) d) Rain repellent system.
The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
a) Hot air system.
56
21.1.10.1 (676) c) close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on: d) prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.
a) Pitot tubes.
b) Elevator leading edges.
21.1.11.1 (683)
c) Slat leading edges.
The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:
d) Fin leading edges.
a) vent system.
b) tank drains.
21.1.10.1 (677) c) top off unit.
The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: d) dump system.
a) Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely
affect the useful life of the components.
21.1.11.1 (684)
b) Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
c) Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
a) stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
d) Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
b) cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
c) stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.
21.1.10.1 (678) d) stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that :
a) rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is
21.1.11.1 (685)
very heavy
Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :
b) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the
a) All bonding and earthing connections between ground equipment and the
cockpit windows.
aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.
c) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
b) Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
d) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection
c) Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire
extinguishers are readily available.
21.1.11.1 (679) d) Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:
a) Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side
21.1.11.1 (686)
slipping...).
The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to
b) Prevent overpressure in the tank.
a) increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
c) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
b) trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
d) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
c) distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
d) ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
21.1.11.1 (680)
On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
21.1.11.2 (687)
a) Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
b) A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
a) centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.
c) Bleed air from the engines.
b) electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure.
d) The return lines of the fuel pumps.
c) mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
d) removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.
21.1.11.1 (681)
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
21.1.11.2 (688)
a) Integral tanks.
The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of
b) Cell tanks.
the main fuel filter so as to:
c) Combined fuel tanks.
a) prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained
d) Fixed built-in tanks.
in the fuel.
b) maintain and improve fuel heating power.
21.1.11.1 (682) c) ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to : d) prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
a) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
b) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.

57
21.1.11.2 (689) 21.1.11.2 (696)
On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...
supplied with electric power of the following type: a) Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
a) 115 V AC b) Through the refueling cap of every tank
b) 28 V AC c) By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
c) 28 V DC d) By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refueling
d) 115 V DC center).

21.1.11.2 (690) 21.1.11.2 (697)

The fuel crossfeed system: The vapor lock is :
a) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank. a) A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor bubble.
b) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing. b) The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.
c) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another. c) The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation
d) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another. d) The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the
carburettor.
21.1.11.2 (691)
On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are: 21.1.11.2 (698)
a) Centrifugal pumps. The fuel system boost pumps are used to :
b) Gear type pumps. a) avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to
c) Piston pumps. the engine at a positive pressure.
d) Diaphragm pumps. b) avoid the bubbles accumulation.
c) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
d) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.
21.1.11.2 (692)
On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are :
a) Located on the engines. 21.1.11.2 (699)
b) Installed in each tank. The cross-feed fuel system enables:
c) Installed only in the center tank. a) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.
d) not necessary at all. b) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
c) the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.
d) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.
21.1.11.2 (693)
During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply
system when: 21.1.11.2 (700)
a) the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass. Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
b) fuelling system has reached a certain pressure. a) centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
c) the surge vent tank is filled. b) low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
d) there is fire. c) centrifugal high pressure pumps.
d) high pressure variable swash plate pumps.
21.1.11.2 (694)
The cross-feed fuel system is used to : 21.1.11.3 (701)
a) feed every engine from any fuel tank. Fuel dump systems are required:
b) allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency a) on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW)
c) allow the unusable fuel elimination. is significant higher than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).
d) automatically fill every tank up to the desired level. b) on all transport category aircraft.
c) on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
d) on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
21.1.11.2 (695)
The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel ..
a) To prime the pumps. 21.1.11.3 (702)
b) Because their efficiency is greater. The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:
c) To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses. a) All up to a defined reserve quantity.
d) To cool the pumps. b) 15 tons.

58
c) All fuel. 21.2.1.1 (709)
d) All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached. When an ""open circuit"" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :
a) loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
b) fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.
21.1.11.4 (703)
c) component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
(For this question use annex 021-980A)The diagram shown in annex represents a
d) load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out :
a) after high pressure valve (item 4).
b) in the fuel control unit (item 3). 21.2.1.1 (710)
c) after high pressure pump first stage (item 2). If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field :
d) after low pressure valve (item 1). a) a force will be exerted on the conductor.
b) the current will increase.
c) there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
21.1.11.4 (704)
d) the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.
The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring
the:
a) dielectric change between fuel and air. 21.2.1.1 (711)
b) density variation of the fuel. A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to :
c) resistivity variation of the fuel. a) allow a short term overload before rupturing.
d) electrical resistance change. b) limit the current in the field circuit.
c) instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
d) limit the current in the armature.
21.1.11.4 (705)
In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge
of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise 21.2.1.1 (712)
increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel weight would : The true statement among the following in relation to the application of Ohm's law
a) remain the same. is :
b) increase by 5 %. a) Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied electromotive force.
c) decrease by 5 %. b) The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
d) increase by 10 %. c) power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
d) current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the electromotive force.
21.2.1.1 (706)
Fuses are rated to a value by : 21.2.1.1 (713)
a) the number of amperes they will carry. A condenser in parallel with breaker points will
b) the number of volts they will pass. a) intensify current in secondary winding
c) their wattage. b) permit arcing across points
d) their resistance measured in ohms. c) assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
d) assist in collapse of secondary winding.
21.2.1.1 (707)
The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker is: 21.2.1.1 (714)
a) (1)not resettable, (2)resettable. The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours batteries, will create a unit
b) (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker with the following characteristics,
c) (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high currents.fuse circuit breaker a) 12 volt / 80 amp hours
d) (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable. b) 12 volt / 40 amp hours
c) 24 volt / 80 amp hours
d) 24 volt / 40 amp hours
21.2.1.1 (708)
An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft structure as a return path to
earth, may be defined as a 21.2.1.1 (715)
a) single pole circuit. The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent
b) complete negative system. resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following formula:
c) double pole circuit. a) 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2
d) semi-negative system. b) Req = R1 + R2
c) Req = R1 x R2
d) 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
59
21.2.1.2 (716) a) 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery: b) 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
a) is unserviceable. c) 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
b) has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used. d) 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
c) has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
d) has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
21.2.1.2 (723)
The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :
21.2.1.2 (717) a) ampere-hours.
In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are NiCd because... b) volts.
a) they weigh less than lead-acid batteries. c) watts.
b) their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries. d) internal resistance.
c) their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous.
d) they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries.
21.2.1.2 (724)
A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve :
21.2.1.2 (718) a) comparing the ""on-load"" and ""off-load"" battery voltages.
On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their b) checking the level of the electrolyte.
advantages are:1. low risk of thermal runaway2. high internal resistance, hence c) checking the discharge current of the battery ""on-load"".
higher power3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating4. wider d) checking the battery voltage ""off-load"".
permissible temperature range5. good storage capability6. sturdiness owing to its
metal casing7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging.The
21.2.1.2 (725)
combination of correct statement is:
When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the :
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
a) voltage to decrease under load.
b) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
b) voltage to increase due to the current available.
c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c) current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
d) 3, 4, 6, 7
d) electrolyte to ""boil"".

21.2.1.2 (719)
21.2.1.2 (726)
The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :
Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on,
a) 2,2 volts.
an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery :
b) 1,4 volts.
a) would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
c) 1,8 volts.
b) indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
d) 1,2 volts.
c) indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
d) indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
21.2.1.2 (720)
Batteries are rated in :
21.2.1.3 (727)
a) Amperes.hours.
A relay is :
b) Amperes/volts.
a) An electromagnetically operated switch.
c) Watts.
b) An electrical security switch.
d) Ohms.
c) A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
d) An electrical energy conversion unit.
21.2.1.2 (721)
When carrying out battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter :
21.2.1.3 (728)
a) a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of
A relay is :
condition.
a) a magnetically operated switch.
b) no load should be applied to the battery because it would depress the voltage.
b) another name for a solenoid valve.
c) the battery should be isolated.
c) a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.
d) the load condition is unimportant.
d) a device which is used to increase electrical power.

21.2.1.2 (722)
21.2.1.3 (729)
Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a
When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :
total voltage and capacity respectively of :
60
a) an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor. 21.2.1.4 (736)
b) there will be no effect on the conductor. Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a constant output voltage. If the
c) the field will collapse. electrical load increases, the voltage regulator will :
d) current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule. a) increase the intensity of the excitation current.
b) change the direction of the excitation current.
c) maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
21.2.1.3 (730)
d) decrease the intensity of the excitation current.
A circuit breaker :
a) may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
b) is self resetting after the fault has been rectified. 21.2.1.4 (737)
c) can only be reset after major maintenance. The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators
d) can be reset on the ground only. (dynamos) is that the:
a) induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the
dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.
21.2.1.3 (731)
b) induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary
Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :
inductor coil.
a) used in AC and DC circuits.
c) alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
b) used only in AC circuits.
d) The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.
c) used only in DC circuits.
d) reset at any time.
21.2.1.4 (738)
A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
21.2.1.3 (732)
a) voltage coil and the series winding turn.
A ""trip-free"" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which :
b) voltage coil and the series winding.
a) will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the
c) generator and the series winding turn.
circuit.
d) shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
b) is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
c) can be reset at any time.
d) will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit. 21.2.1.4 (739)
The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit results in:1. automatic
disconnection of the generator from the aircraft AC busbar2. opening of generator
21.2.1.4 (733)
field current relay3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker4. opening
In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of poles required
of balancing circuit connecting two generators5. lighting of an indicator lampThe
in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
combination of correct statements is:
a) 4
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 24
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 12
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 8
d) 1, 3, 5

21.2.1.4 (734)
21.2.1.4 (740)
In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):1- may be disconnected from the
A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :
engine shaft.2- may be disconnected from the generator.3- is a hydro-mechanical
a) air via a ram air intake.
system.4- is an electronic system.5- may not be disconnected in flight.6- may be
b) water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning system.
disconnected in flight.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
c) a fan located before the generator.
a) 1, 3, 6
d) air tapped from the low pressure compressor.
b) 1, 2, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 4, 5 21.2.1.4 (741)
The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :
a) series with the shunt field coil.
21.2.1.4 (735)
b) series with the armature.
In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
c) parallel with the shunt field coil.
a) AC.
d) parallel with the armature.
b) Three-phase AC.
c) Only induced current.
d) DC.
61
21.2.1.4 (742) c) series shunt wound.
The output of a generator is controlled by : d) compound wound.
a) varying the field strength.
b) varying the speed of the engine.
21.2.1.5 (749)
c) varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
A bus-bar is :
d) the reverse current relay circuit breaker.
a) a distribution point for electrical power.
b) a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
21.2.1.4 (743) c) the stator of a moving coil instrument.
In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in d) a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
parallel, it is necessary to ensure that :
a) their voltages are almost equal.
21.2.1.5 (750)
b) the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is
c) equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
achieved by :
d) adequate voltage differences exists.
a) an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies
the field excitation current of the generators.
21.2.1.4 (744) b) an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC c) carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. over- d) the synchronous bus-bar.
speed5. under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of
correct statements is :
21.2.1.5 (751)
a) 1,2,4,5
In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure that :
b) 1,2,4,6
a) generator voltages are almost equal before the generators are paralleled.
c) 1,3,5,6
b) only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.
d) 2,3,4,5,6
c) generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load.
d) one generator comes ""on-line"" before the other.
21.2.1.4 (745)
The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...
21.2.1.5 (752)
a) its rotation speed
The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to isolate the battery:1 - from
b) the strength of the excitation current
the bus when the battery charge is deemed satisfactory2 - when there is a battery
c) its load
overheat condition3 - in case of an internal short circuit4 - in case of a fault on the
d) its phase balance
ground power unitThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements
is :
21.2.1.4 (746) a) 2001-02-03
The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the : b) 02-Jan
a) generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true c) 1 - 2 - 3 -4
b) battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true d) 1
c) alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
d) battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
21.2.1.6 (753)
A static inverter is a:
21.2.1.5 (747) a) transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC.
The so-called ""hot buses"" or ""direct buses"" are: b) device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
a) directly connected to the battery. c) static discharger.
b) kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure. d) filter against radio interference.
c) automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.
d) providing an alternative current.
21.2.1.6 (754)
The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..
21.2.1.5 (748) a) To change DC into AC.
The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are : b) To change the DC voltage.
a) series wound. c) To change AC into DC.
b) shunt wound. d) To avoid a short circuit.

62
21.2.1.6 (755) a result of static electricity.
In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation b) dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
may be obtained from : c) provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
a) an inverter. d) be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
b) a rectifier.
c) a contactor.
21.2.1.7 (761)
d) a TRU.
It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly bonded if :
a) static noises can be heard on the radio.
21.2.1.6 (756) b) a circuit breaker pops out.
A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : c) there is interference on the VOR receiver.
a) an inverter. d) there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
b) an AC generator.
c) a transformer rectifier unit.
21.2.1.7 (762)
d) a thermistor.
The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :
a) provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
21.2.1.7 (757) b) provide a single earth for electrical devices.
Static dischargers :1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same c) prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
electrical potential2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical d) isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
discharge3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value
approximating 0 volts4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence
21.2.2.1 (763)
with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum5. limit the risks of
The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is :
transfer of electrical charges between the aircraft and the electrified cloudsThe
a) 400 Hz.
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
b) 200 Hz.
a) 2,4,5.
c) 50 Hz.
b) 1,2,5.
d) 60 Hz.
c) 1,3,4.
d) 3,4,5.
21.2.2.1 (764)
The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are:1. simple
21.2.1.7 (758)
connection2. high starting torque3. flexibility in use4. lighter weight of
The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are:1.
equipment5. easy to convert into direct current6. easy maintenance of
Weight saving2. Easy fault detection3. Increase of short-circuit risk4. Reduction of
machinesThe combination of correct statements is:
short-circuit risk5. Circuits are not single-wired linesThe combination regrouping
a) 3, 4, 5, 6
all the correct statements is :
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
a) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 4, 6
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 3, 5
21.2.2.1 (765)
If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive circuit is increased, the current
21.2.1.7 (759)
flowing in the circuit will :
Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:1. protect the aircraft against lightning
a) increase.
effects.2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0
b) be zero.
volt3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication systems4. set the aircraft
c) decrease.
to a single potentialThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
d) remain the same.
a) 1, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 3, 4 21.2.2.2 (766)
d) 2, 4 When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced
by means of the:
a) energizing current.
21.2.1.7 (760)
b) frequency.
The purpose of static wick dischargers is to :
c) voltage.
a) dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding radio interference as
d) torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD).
63
21.2.2.2 (767) 21.2.2.2 (773)
The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to: A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :
a) maintain a constant frequency. a) may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
b) take part in the balancing of reactive loads. b) may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
c) mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling. c) automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
d) take part in the voltage regulation. d) automatically resets at engine shut-down.

21.2.2.2 (768) 21.2.2.2 (774)

The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC generator which: The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the :
a) supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC. a) rotor.
b) is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive (CSD), in the same way as the b) stator.
main AC generator. c) oscillator.
c) is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up. d) slip ring.
d) must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily
coupled with the latter.
21.2.2.2 (775)
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon the :
21.2.2.2 (769) a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc b) number of individual poles and the field strength.
the: c) field strength and the speed of the rotor.
a) pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight. d) number of individual poles only.
b) pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
c) pilot has to throttle back.
21.2.2.2 (776)
d) pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.
The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :
a) drive the generator at a constant speed.
21.2.2.2 (770) b) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC generator, it can be said c) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
that:1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage2. Modern GCUs are provided d) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
with a permanent indication to record the failure3. All the commands originating
from the control panel are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release4. The
21.2.2.2 (777)
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the excitation of the AC generator as soon as
If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the
the APU starts upThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
phase relationship of each generator:
a) 2, 3
a) is unimportant.
b) 3, 4
b) must be synchronised.
c) 2, 4
c) must be 120° out of phase.
d) 1, 3
d) must be 240° out of phase.

21.2.2.2 (771)
21.2.2.2 (778)
On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator
The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the :
is activated by:
a) generator at varying loads and speeds.
a) a set of permanent magnets.
b) batteries at varying loads.
b) the main field winding.
c) generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.
c) the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
d) output of the TRU.
d) the auxiliary winding.

21.2.2.2 (779)
21.2.2.2 (772)
A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at :
A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for
a) 120°.
disconnection are :
b) 60°.
a) low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
c) 45°.
b) excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
d) 90°.
c) illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
d) slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

64
21.2.2.2 (780) 21.2.2.2 (787)
On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally provided with means of A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
monitoring the: a) that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
a) oil over-temperature and low oil pressure. b) that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the
b) oil temperature and synchronous speed. engine.
c) output speed and oil pressure. c) that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM
d) low oil temperature and low oil quantity. d) equal AC voltage from all generators.

21.2.2.2 (781) 21.2.2.3 (788)

An AC generator driven by a CSD unit : A thermal circuit breaker:
a) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load. a) protects the system in the event of overheating, even without exceeding the
b) does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage. maximum permissible current.
c) does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load. b) is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about one hundredth of a second.
d) requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency. c) forbids any overcurrent.
d) can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.
21.2.2.2 (782)
Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected : 21.2.2.3 (789)
a) during engine operation only. In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted,
b) at flight idle engine rpm. the changover relay allows :
c) in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC generator. a) power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
d) on the ground only. b) connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
c) connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.
d) connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.
21.2.2.2 (783)
The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are :
a) kVA and kVAR. 21.2.2.3 (790)
b) volts and amperes. Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect
c) volts and kilowatts. of the AC generator it can be said that the:
d) amperes and kilowatts. a) exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
b) exciter control relay opens.
c) generator breaker opens.
21.2.2.2 (784)
d) exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
""Frequency wild"" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator :
a) output frequency varies with engine speed.
b) output frequency is too high. 21.2.2.3 (791)
c) voltage regulator is out of adjustment. As regards three-phase AC generators, the following conditions must be met for
d) output frequency is too low. paralleling AC generators:1. Equal voltage2. Equal current3. Equal frequencies4.
Same phase rotation5. Voltages of same phaseThe combination regrouping all the
correct statements is :
21.2.2.2 (785)
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) drive the generator at a constant speed.
c) 1, 3, 5
b) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
d) 1, 4, 5
c) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
d) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.
21.2.2.3 (792)
A magnetic circuit-breaker is:
21.2.2.2 (786)
a) a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the :
b) permits an overcurrent limited in time.
a) number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.
c) can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
b) number of individual poles and the field strength.
d) is a system with a slow response time.
c) field strength and the speed of the moving part.
d) number of individual poles only.
21.2.2.3 (793)
On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the
65
aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device opens: c) must be in opposition.
a) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker. d) must be 90° out of synchronisation.
b) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
c) The generator breaker and tie breaker.
21.2.2.3 (800)
d) The generator breaker.
When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must be of the same:
a) voltage and frequency.
21.2.2.3 (794) b) amperage and kVAR.
When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the c) voltage and amperage.
mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation protection device opens: d) frequency and amperage.
a) the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
b) the tie breaker.
21.2.2.3 (801)
c) the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
d) the generator breaker.
a) automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
b) controlling the generator field current.
21.2.2.3 (795) c) carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on only one AC generator, the d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
protection device opens the :
a) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
21.2.2.3 (802)
b) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
c) tie breaker.
a) adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD unit.
d) generator breaker and tie breaker.
b) carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any one time.
c) controlling the generator field current.
21.2.2.3 (796) d) monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft
AC busbar, the protection device opens the:
21.2.2.3 (803)
a) generator breaker.
Load shedding means ..
b) exciter breaker.
a) Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric users to avoid
c) exciter breaker and generator breaker.
overload of electric generators
d) exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
b) To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves outside limits
c) Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load relief value
21.2.2.3 (797) d) A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick forces
The services connected to a supply bus-bar are normally in:
a) parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-bar current
21.2.2.5 (804)
consumption.
The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
b) series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar current consumption.
a) 12000 revolutions per minute.
c) parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar voltage.
b) 6000 revolutions per minute.
d) series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar voltage.
c) 800 revolutions per minute.
d) 1600 revolutions per minute.
21.2.2.3 (798)
To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel :
21.2.2.6 (805)
a) both real an reactive loads must be matched.
In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is
b) the matching of loads is unimportant.
obtained from a :
c) only reactive loads need to be matched.
a) Transformer Rectifier Unit.
d) only real loads need to be matched.
b) static inverter.
c) 3 phase current transformer unit.
21.2.2.3 (799) d) rotary converter.
When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase relationship of each
generator:
21.2.2.6 (806)
a) is unimportant.
On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the batteries are charged
b) must be synchronous.
in flight from :

66
a) a Transformer Rectifier Unit. 21.2.4.2 (813)
b) a static inverter. The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to :
c) a DC transformer and rectifier. a) invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
d) the AC bus via current limiters. b) ensure the input signal is AC only.
c) ensure the input signal is DC only.
d) ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.
21.2.4.0 (807)
In computer technology, an output peripheral is a:
a) screen unit 21.2.4.3 (814)
b) keyboard Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as
c) hard disk drive the :
d) diskette drive a) ""any or all"" gate.
b) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate.
c) ""state indicator"" gate.
21.2.4.0 (808)
d) ""all or nothing"" gate.
In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
a) keyboard
b) screen unit 21.2.5.1 (815)
c) hard disk drive The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency 121.95 MHz is:
d) diskette drive a) 2.46 m
b) 24.60 cm
c) 2.46 cm
21.2.4.0 (809)
d) 24.60 m
In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:
a) hard disk drive
b) printer 21.2.5.1 (816)
c) key board For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is preferable to C Band
d) screen unit because:
a) It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the same
transmission power.
21.2.4.0 (810)
b) Its penetration power is higher.
In computer technology, an EPROM is:1. a read-only memory2. a write memory3.
c) It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.
erases its content when power supply is cut off4. keeps its content when power
d) It allows greater scanning rates.
supply is cut offThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,4
b) 1,3 21.2.5.1 (817)
c) 2,3 The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a frequency of 300 kHz is:
d) 2,4 a) 1000 metres.
b) 100 metres.
c) 10 metres.
21.2.4.2 (811)
d) 1 metre.
(For this question use annex 021- 6660A)The logic symbol shown represents
(assuming positive logic) :
a) an INVERT or NOT gate. 21.2.5.1 (818)
b) a NAND gate. The minimum airborne equipment required for operation of a the VHF direction
c) a NOR gate. finder is a:
d) an EXCLUSIVE gate. a) VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
b) VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
c) VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
21.2.4.2 (812)
d) cathode-ray tube.
Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as
the :
a) ""all or nothing"" gate. 21.2.5.1 (819)
b) ""any or all"" gate. The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the following wavelengths:
c) ""state indicator"" gate. a) decimetric.
d) ""inhibited"" or ""negated"" gate. b) centimetric.

67
c) hectometric. c) hectometric.
d) myriametric. d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (820) 21.2.5.1 (827)

The airborne weather radar uses the following wavelengths: The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a) centimetric. a) decimetric.
b) metric. b) metric.
c) hectometric. c) hectometric.
d) myriametric. d) myriametric.

21.2.5.1 (821) 21.2.5.1 (828)

The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following wavelengths: The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following wavelengths:
a) metric. a) centimetric.
b) hectometric. b) myriametric.
c) decimetric. c) decimetric.
d) centimetric. d) metric.

21.2.5.1 (822) 21.2.5.1 (829)

The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the following wavelengths: The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following wavelengths:
a) metric. a) hectometric or kilometric.
b) hectometric. b) metric.
c) decimetric. c) decimetric.
d) centimetric. d) centimetric.

21.2.5.1 (823) 21.2.5.1 (830)

The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the following wavelengths: In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
a) decimetric. a) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3 decibels.
b) hectometric. b) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
c) metric. c) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 20 decibels.
d) centimetric. d) The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain, increased by 10 kHz at each end.

21.2.5.1 (824) 21.2.5.3 (831)

The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths: In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers phenomenon is used in the
a) metric. following frequencies:
b) centimetric. a) HF
c) hectometric. b) VHF
d) myriametric. c) UHF
d) VLF
21.2.5.1 (825)
The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: 21.2.5.3 (832)
a) metric. Skip distance is the:
b) hectometric. a) range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
c) decimetric. b) highest critical frequency distance
d) centimetric. c) wavelength distance of a certain frequency
d) thickness of the ionosphere
21.2.5.1 (826)
The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the following wavelengths: 21.2.5.3 (833)
a) centimetric. A radio signal looses strength as range from the transmitter increases, this is
b) metric. called :
a) attenuation

68
b) refraction
c) propagation
d) ducting
21.2.5.3 (834)
The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the following change in
circumstance occurs :
a) Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
b) Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
c) Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
d) Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting ionospheric layer
a) induction, compression, power, exhaust.
b) induction, power, compression, exhaust.
c) compression induction, power, exhaust.
d) induction, compression, expansion, power.
21.3.1.1 (841)
The crank assembly consists of
a) crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
b) propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
c) Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
d) crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

21.2.5.3 (835) 21.3.1.1 (842)

In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of FADING is particularly found : The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead
a) at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves. Center)
b) by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves. a) before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
c) at night and when raining. b) before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
d) by day and when raining. c) behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
d) behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
21.3.1.1 (836)
The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke are : 21.3.1.1 (843)
a) intake valve closed and exhaust valve open. The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by :
b) both valves open. a) Torque times RPM.
c) both valves closed. b) Work times velocity.
d) exhaust valve closed and intake valve open. c) Force times distance.
d) Pressure times arm.
21.3.1.1 (837)
The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the 21.3.1.1 (844)
following gas state change lines The power of a piston engine which will be measured by using a friction brake is :
a) 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines. a) Brake horse power.
b) 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines. b) Friction horse power.
c) 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines. c) Heat loss power.
d) 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines. d) Indicated horse power.

21.3.1.1 (838) 21.3.1.1 (845)

The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder engine displacement is : The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:
a) piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders a) gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
b) piston area * piston stroke b) propeller blades.
c) cylinder volume * number of cylinders c) accessory gear box.
d) cylinder length * cylinder diameter d) camshaft.

21.3.1.1 (839) 21.3.1.1 (846)

In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke engines. This permits a : On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are
a) lighter construction. readjusted in order to increase the:
b) lower fuel consumption. a) overall efficiency
c) better piston cooling. b) compression ratio
d) cheaper construction c) piston displacement
d) engine r.p.m.
21.3.1.1 (840)
The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is :

69
21.3.1.1 (847) 21.3.1.2 (854)
In a four-stroke piston engine, the only ""driving"" stroke is : In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided
a) firing-expansion because :
b) intake a) it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls
c) compression b) it fouls the spark plugs
d) exhaust c) it drains the carburettor float chamber
d) the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil
21.3.1.1 (848)
A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the : 21.3.1.2 (855)
a) total volume to the clearance volume. The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted :
b) clearance volume to the swept volume. a) in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge
c) total volume to the swept volume. pump
d) swept volume to the clearance volume. b) between the oil tank and the pressure pump
c) after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
d) after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
21.3.1.1 (849)
The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:
a) volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the 21.3.1.2 (856)
piston at top dead centre. Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a
b) diameter of the bore to the piston stroke. a) worn oil pump
c) area of the piston to the cylinder volume. b) too large oil pump
d) weight of the air induced to its weight after compression. c) restricted oil passage
d) too small scavenger pump.
21.3.1.1 (850)
The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary 21.3.1.4 (857)
motion is termed the : The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:
a) crankshaft a) secondary current to the sparking plugs.
b) piston b) primary current to the condenser.
c) camshaft c) secondary current to the condenser.
d) reduction gear d) primary current to the sparking plugs.

21.3.1.2 (851) 21.3.1.4 (858)

The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the: The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the primary coil in a magneto
a) pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump. are accomplished by the:
b) difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure. a) contact breaker points opening.
c) pressure in the oil tank reservoir. b) distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension segments.
d) pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump. c) contact breaker points closing.
d) rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.
21.3.1.2 (852)
For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the: 21.3.1.4 (859)
a) oil temperature. If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes
b) outside pressure. disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
c) oil pressure. a) the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the ""OFF""
d) quantity of oil. position
b) a still operating engine will run down
c) the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the ""ON"" position
21.3.1.2 (853)
d) the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:
a) the circulation of lubricating oil
b) a rich fuel/air mixture 21.3.1.4 (860)
c) a properly functioning thermostat The purpose of an ignition switch is to :
d) a lean fuel/air mixture a) control the primary circuit of the magneto
b) connect the secondary coil to the distributor
70
c) connect the battery to the magneto b) will not operate at the left magneto
d) connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil c) will not operate at the right magneto
d) cannot be started with the switch in the ON position
21.3.1.4 (861)
Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current : 21.3.1.4 (868)
a) from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system. An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston engine is for
b) from the booster coil. a) providing a retarded spark for engine starting.
c) directly from the aircraft batteries. b) advancing ignition timing
d) from the aircraft batteries via an inverter. c) quick removal and installation
d) absorbing starting loads
21.3.1.4 (862)
Ignition systems of piston engines are : 21.3.1.4 (869)
a) independant from the electrical system of the aircraft. In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the spark which ignites the fuel/
b) dependant on the battery. air mixture. The operating principle of magnetos consists in :
c) dependant on the DC-Generator. a) breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp high volt current
d) dependant on the AC-Generator. which is distributed to the spark plugs.
b) obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the spark.
c) accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the battery, reconstitute it as high
21.3.1.4 (863)
voltage current at the moment the spark is generated.
Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse effect on the efficiency of the:
d) creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be sent through the distributor at
a) sparking plugs.
the appropriate time.
b) carburettor.
c) oil pump.
d) fuel filter. 21.3.1.4 (870)
When the magneto selector switch is set to ""OFF"" position, the piston engine
continues to run normally.The most probable cause of this failure is that:
21.3.1.4 (864)
a) On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
An aircraft magneto is switched off by
b) There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
a) grounding the primary circuit
c) A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
b) opening the primary circuit
d) There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder
c) opening the secondary circuit
heads).
d) grounding the secondary circuit.

21.3.1.5 (871)
21.3.1.4 (865)
On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios are obtained by the
An impulse magneto coupling
adjustment of :
a) gives a retarded spark at starting
a) fuel flow.
b) reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
b) air flow.
c) advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
c) fuel flow and air flow.
d) gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.
d) fuel flow, air flow and temperature.

21.3.1.4 (866)
21.3.1.5 (872)
If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may
A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned :
be :
a) upstream of the needle valve.
a) excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
b) between the needle valve and the metering jet.
b) switch wire grounded
c) between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.
c) defective condenser
d) downstream of th discharge nozzle.
d) fouled spark plugs

21.3.1.5 (873)
21.3.1.4 (867)
The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes
a) create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor
disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the engine
jets.
a) cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
b) prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
71
c) ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the induction system. flowing through the choke, thus preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel
d) create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system. as engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with :
a) a diffuser
b) a power jet
21.3.1.5 (874)
c) an accelerator pump
In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
d) a mixture control
a) venturi and the throttle valve
b) float chamber and fuel inlet filter
c) accelerator pump and main metering jet 21.3.1.5 (881)
d) main air bleed and main discharge nozzle Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:
a) faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
b) slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
21.3.1.5 (875)
c) faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs
The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
d) faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
a) difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
b) automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
c) increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure 21.3.1.5 (882)
d) measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system ""Vapor lock"" is the phenomenon by which:
a) heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.
b) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in
21.3.1.5 (876)
fuel tanks which have not been drained for sometime.
In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that
c) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
causes carburettor ice is normally the result of:
carburettor heat.
a) vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
d) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and
b) freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
thereby disturbing the exhaust.
c) compression of air at the carburettor venturi
d) low volatility of aviation fuel
21.3.1.6 (883)
The power of a piston engine decreases during climb with a constant power lever
21.3.1.5 (877)
setting, because of the decreasing :
Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburettor
a) air density.
heat?
b) engine temperature.
a) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus enriching the fuel/air
c) humidity.
mixture
d) temperature.
b) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
c) it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture
d) it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus enriching the fuel/air mixture 21.3.1.6 (884)
The conditions under which you obtain the highest engine power are :
a) cold and dry air at high pressure.
21.3.1.5 (878)
b) warm and humid air at low pressure.
Vapour lock is :
c) cold and humid air at high pressure.
a) vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
d) warm and dry air at high pressure.
b) the formation of water vapour in a fuel system
c) vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor
d) the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor 21.3.1.6 (885)
The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine increases with increasing
altitude at constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the :
21.3.1.5 (879)
a) lower back pressure.
With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the carburettor :
b) lower losses during the gas change.
a) may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
c) lower friction losses.
b) will only form at OAT's below +10°C.
d) leaner mixture at higher altitudes.
c) will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
d) will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
21.3.1.6 (886)
During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM indication and
21.3.1.5 (880)
constant mixture setting, the power output of a piston engine :
To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional to the volume of air
a) increases.
72
b) decreases. 21.3.1.7 (893)
c) only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed forward. The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is :
d) stays constant. a) a radial compressor.
b) an axial compressor.
c) a hybrid compressor.
21.3.1.6 (887)
d) a piston compressor.
The global output of a piston engine is of:(global output = Thermal energy
corresponding to the available shaft/power over the total thermal energy
produced). 21.3.1.7 (894)
a) 0.30 What can be the consequence during a descent with a fully open throttle if the
b) 0.50 waste gate is seized ?
c) 0.75 a) The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.
d) 0.90 b) The power of the motor will decrease.
c) The turbine shaft will break.
d) The turbine blades will separate.
21.3.1.7 (888)
A turbocharger system is normally driven by:
a) the exhaust system. 21.3.1.7 (895)
b) an electric motor. One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :
c) an hydraulic motor. a) it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost.
d) an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch. b) it has a better propulsive efficiency.
c) there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
d) there is no danger of knocking.
21.3.1.7 (889)
A turbocharger consists of a :
a) compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft. 21.3.1.8 (896)
b) compressor and turbine on individual shafts. The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :
c) compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear. a) the anti-knock capability
d) turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear. b) fuel volatility
c) quantity of heat generated by its combustion
d) fuel electrical conductivity
21.3.1.7 (890)
The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor :
a) enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery. 21.3.1.8 (897)
b) enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack. Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to
c) enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller. minimize this when an aircraft is used every day or so is to :
d) enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator. a) keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
b) drain tanks at end of each day's flight
c) use only high octane gasoline
21.3.1.7 (891)
d) keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight
In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by :
a) a manifold pressure gauge only.
b) a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm 21.3.1.8 (898)
readings. The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a piston engine have which of
c) both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge. the following relations?
d) both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge. a) the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
b) the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible compression ratio is
c) the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible compression ratio is.
21.3.1.7 (892)
d) compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :
a) maintain power at altitude
b) increase quantity of fuel at metering jet 21.3.1.8 (899)
c) provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
d) provide a richer mixture at high altitudes a) provided that the grade is higher
b) provided that the grade is lower
c) never
d) provided that it is an aeronautical petrol
73
21.3.1.9 (900) 21.3.1.9 (907)
A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb segments. This results in a When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive
a) lower cylinder head temperature. leaning will cause :
b) higher efficiency. a) high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
c) slight loss of power. b) high engine rpm
d) higher torque. c) low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature
d) high manifold pressure
21.3.1.9 (901)
Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically associated with : 21.3.1.9 (908)
a) Mass ratio of 1/15. The main purpose of the mixture control is to:
b) Cruising mixture setting. a) adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
c) Full rich setting. b) decrease the air supplied to the engine
d) Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out. c) increase the oxygen supplied to the engine
d) decrease oxygen supplied to the engine
21.3.1.9 (902)
For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the : 21.3.1.9 (909)
a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder. Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. a) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. b) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
d) mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor. c) volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
d) mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor
21.3.1.9 (903)
Specific fuel consumption is defined as the : 21.3.1.9 (910)
a) mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time. Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively :
b) designed fuel consumption for a given rpm. a) weak mixture.
c) quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating b) rich mixture.
conditions. c) low barometric pressure.
d) maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft. d) high barometric pressure.

21.3.1.9 (904) 21.3.1.9 (911)

In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to : In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is approximately 9:1, the
a) correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at mixture is said to be :
altitude. a) rich
b) prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude. b) weak
c) weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude. c) too weak to support combustion
d) enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude. d) normal

21.3.1.9 (905) 21.3.1.9 (912)

The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by: For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture corresponding to a richness of 1 is
a) varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube. obtained for a weight ratio of:
b) moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control. a) 1/15 th
c) altering the depression on the main discharge tube. b) 1/9 th
d) varying the air supply to the main discharge tube. c) 1/10th
d) 1/12th
21.3.1.9 (906)
An excessively rich mixture can be detected by : 21.3.1.9 (913)
a) black smoke from exhaust. (For this question use appendix )On the attached diagram showing the power
b) high cylinder head temperatures output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the
c) white smoke from exhaust. point marked:
d) a long purple flame from exhaust. a) 1
b) 2
74
c) 3 a fixed pitch propeller :
d) 4 a) reduces.
b) increases.
c) stays constant.
21.3.1.9 (914)
d) stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :
a) real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
b) mass of fuel relative to the volume of air. 21.3.1.10 (921)
c) volume of fuel relative to the volume of air. When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller (RPM and MAP
d) volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air. levers are not moved) :
a) increases.
b) reduces.
21.3.1.10 (915)
c) first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous value.
The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch propeller:
d) stays constant.
a) is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the propeller with pressure oil,
when the engine is inoperative.
b) is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during flight in order to obtain a 21.3.1.10 (922)
constant speed. The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch
c) controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails. propeller is a :
d) is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the propeller in case of engine a) higher efficiency in all operating ranges.
problems. b) constant efficiency in all operating ranges.
c) lower propeller blade stress.
d) higher efficiency in cruising range.
21.3.1.10 (916)
Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop.During deceleration :
a) when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power. 21.3.1.10 (923)
b) at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil. To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :
c) when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power. a) use the electric unfeathering pump.
d) with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power. b) manually release the blade latch.
c) gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
d) gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.
21.3.1.10 (917)
The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller
a) increases with increasing true air speed. 21.3.1.10 (924)
b) only varies with engine RPM. In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the constant speed propeller in
c) decreases with increasing true air speed. a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering system
d) is independent of the true air speed. a) move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
b) move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
c) move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.
21.3.1.10 (918)
d) move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical force.
A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
a) keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
b) avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena. 21.3.1.10 (925)
c) decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to the tip. For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever
d) allow a higher mechanical stress. position (2) at brake release is :
a) (1) low (2) forward.
b) (1) low (2) aft.
21.3.1.10 (919)
c) (1) high (2) aft.
A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system during :
d) (1) high (2) forward.
a) Take-off and landing.
b) Cruise.
c) Take-off. 21.3.1.10 (926)
d) Landing. On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller :
a) manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.
b) the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.
21.3.1.10 (920)
c) in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening
When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine RPM, the angle of attack of

75
the throttle. b) in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.
d) in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant. c) only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed propeller.
d) its best efficiency during climb.
21.3.1.10 (927)
An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists .. 21.3.1.10 (934)
a) If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack. What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a ""constant speed propeller""
b) If there is an unbalanced propeller. if the manifold pressure is increased ?
c) Only for counterrotating propeller a) It will increase
d) Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken. b) It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
c) It will decrease so that the engine can increase
d) It will remain the same
21.3.1.10 (928)
In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers
a) the left engine is the critical motor. 21.3.1.10 (935)
b) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa. The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent at:
c) the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of the right engine. a) low airspeeds with high power setting.
d) the right engine is the critical motor. b) high airspeeds with low power setting.
c) high airspeeds with high power setting.
d) low airspeeds with low power setting.
21.3.1.10 (929)
In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant speed propeller'
a) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. 21.3.1.10 (936)
b) the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the :
c) the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle. a) reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
d) the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle. b) propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.
c) propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the propeller.
d) propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.
21.3.1.10 (930)
In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system by :
a) pulling the RPM lever backwards. 21.3.1.10 (937)
b) pushing the RPM lever forward. When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade pitch angle is
c) pushing the power lever forward. near 90°, the propeller is said to be...
d) pulling the power levers backwards. a) feathered.
b) windmilling.
c) transparent.
21.3.1.10 (931)
d) at zero drag.
Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for maximum efficiency at :
a) cruising speed
b) idling 21.3.1.10 (938)
c) full throttle During a power change on an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, a
d) take-off wrong combination of manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one simultaneously selects a ...
a) high manifold pressure and low RPM.
21.3.1.10 (932)
b) low manifold pressure and high RPM.
Which of the following qualitative statements about a fixed propeller optimized for
c) high manifold pressure and high RPM.
cruise condition, is true for the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
d) low manifold pressure and low RPM.
a) blade is relatively high.
b) blade is relatively small.
c) airfoil section is negative. 21.3.1.10 (939)
d) blades reduces to zero. From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to
maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:
a) increase
21.3.1.10 (933)
b) decrease
The 'constant speed propeller' has
c) remain the same
a) only above and below the design point a better efficiency than the fixed
d) increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
propeller with the same design speed.

76
21.3.1.11 (940) with a fixed pitch propeller?
When applying carburettor heating : a) RPM indicator.
a) the mixture becomes richer. b) RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.
b) a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. c) RPM and MAP indicator.
c) the mixture becomes leaner. d) RPM and EGT indicator.
d) no change occurs in the mixture ratio.
21.3.1.11 (947)
21.3.1.11 (941) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to :
When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position a) assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.
the : b) control the cylinder head temperature.
a) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced. c) control the carburator inlet air flow.
b) volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced. d) control the fuel temperature.
c) amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.
d) volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.
21.3.1.11 (948)
During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being
21.3.1.11 (942) constant) the :
When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine a) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.
performance is affected because of a : b) RPM decreases.
a) decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel. c) Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
b) constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel. d) RPM increases.
c) increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel.
d) decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.
21.3.1.11 (949)
The conditions which can cause knocking are :
21.3.1.11 (943) a) High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine b) High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
overload is avoided by : c) Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
a) increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. d) Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.
b) adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
c) reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
21.3.1.11 (950)
d) increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.
Which of the following factors would be likely to increase the possibility of
detonation occurring within a piston engine ?
21.3.1.11 (944) a) using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio
To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when altitude increases, means to: b) the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane
a) decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density. rating
b) decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for the increasing air c) using an engine with a low compression ratio
density. d) slightly retarding the ignition timing
c) increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decreasing air pressure
and density.
21.3.1.11 (951)
d) increase the mixture ratio.
On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure
gauge always indicates...
21.3.1.11 (945) a) a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
The maximum horsepower output which can be obtained from an engine when it is b) a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
operated at specified rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as safe for c) zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
continuous operation is termed : d) a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.
a) rated power.
b) maximum power.
21.3.1.11 (952)
c) take-off power.
Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :
d) critical power.
a) the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
b) the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.
21.3.1.11 (946) c) power is increased too abruptly.
With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted d) the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous power for too long.
77
21.3.1.12 (953)
Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when :
a) the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the
spark occurs at the plug
b) the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.
c) a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
d) the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
21.3.3.2 (960)
In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its
shape is calculated so as to:
a) maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
b) maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
c) reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
d) reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.

21.3.1.12 (954) 21.3.3.2 (961)

With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you: The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the :
a) Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture a) Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
b) Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture b) inlet guide vanes.
c) Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture c) surge bleed valves.
d) Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture d) variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.

21.3.2.1 (955) 21.3.3.2 (962)

In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ... Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor diffuser is a device in
a) drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases which the:
b) clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust a) pressure rises and velocity falls.
c) compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber b) pressure rises at a constant velocity.
d) drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator. c) velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
d) velocity rises and pressure falls.
21.3.2.2 (956)
(Use the appendix to answer this question)The gas turbine illustrated is of the 21.3.3.2 (963)
following type: The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine produces:
a) free turbine and centrifugal compressor a) the greater part of the thrust.
b) free turbine and axial compressor b) half the thrust.
c) single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor c) the lesser part of the thrust.
d) single shaft turbine and axial compressor d) none of the thrust.

21.3.3.1 (957) 21.3.3.2 (964)

The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to: In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position
a) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds. when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is running
b) provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed. due to :
c) feed cooling air to the engine cowling. a) the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
d) serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage. b) oil pressure.
c) thermal expansion.
d) blade creep.
21.3.3.2 (958)
In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
a) rotor - stator 21.3.3.2 (965)
b) stator - rotor The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to :
c) rotor - rotor - stator a) reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
d) stator - stator - rotor b) control the acceleration time of the engine.
c) spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.
d) enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.
21.3.3.2 (959)
In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :
a) the same as turbine rpm. 21.3.3.2 (966)
b) independent of turbine rpm. The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow
c) greater than turbine rpm. compressors are :1 - expensive to manufacture2 - limited airflow3 - greater
d) less than turbine rpm. vulnerability to foreign object damage4 - limited compression ratioThe
combination of correct answers is :
78
a) 03-Jan output shaft.
b) 02-Jan b) its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.
c) 03-Fev c) the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
d) 04-Fev d) the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

21.3.3.2 (967) 21.3.3.5 (974)

A stage in an axial compressor: The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow
a) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades is to :
b) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 a) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not
c) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc exceeded.
d) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8 b) prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.
c) prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.
d) ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not
21.3.3.4 (968)
exceeded.
In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:
a) within the combustion chamber.
b) across the turbine. 21.3.3.5 (975)
c) in the cooling airflow around the flame tube. Turbine blade stages may be classed as either ""impulse"" or ""reaction"". In an
d) at the entry to the exhaust unit. impulse blade section :
a) the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across
the rotor blades .
21.3.3.5 (969)
b) the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and remains constant across the rotor
When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :
blades .
a) pressure drops.
c) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and drops across the rotor
b) pressure rises.
blades .
c) velocity decreases.
d) the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide vanes and rises constant across the
d) temperature increases.
rotor blades .

21.3.3.5 (970)
21.3.3.7 (976)
In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
a) V increases, Ps decreases.
a) external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
b) V decreases, Ps increases.
b) internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass
c) V increases, Ps increases.
c) internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
d) V decreases, Ps decreases.
d) fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass

21.3.3.5 (971)
21.3.3.8 (977)
An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion takes place:
A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck instrument panel illuminates
a) fully in the stator.
when:
b) fully in the rotor.
a) the reverser doors are unlocked.
c) in the stator and in the rotor.
b) the reverser doors are locked.
d) in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.
c) reverse has been selected but the doors have remained locked.
d) the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position.
21.3.3.5 (972)
A ""fan"" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:
21.3.3.10 (978)
a) the low pressure turbine.
At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a
b) the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.
similar system, the turbine temperature:
c) the high pressure turbine.
a) will rise.
d) airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.
b) will be unchanged.
c) may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the
21.3.3.5 (973) rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.
In a free turbine engine: d) will fall.
a) there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power

79
21.3.3.10 (979) 21.3.4.3 (985)
If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that : may be caused by:
a) EPR decreases and EGT increases. a) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
b) both EPR and EGT decrease. by the starter.
c) EPR decreases and EGT remains constant. b) compressor surging.
d) EPR remains constant and EGT increases. c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.
d) failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to
21.3.3.10 (980)
the required rpm by the starter.
Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
a) decreases aircraft performance
b) has no influence on aircraft performance 21.3.4.4 (986)
c) increases aircraft performance The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system
d) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing is within the following range:
a) 20 to 50 psi
b) 5 to 10 psi
21.3.3.11 (981)
c) 3000 to 5000 psi
The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are
d) 300 to 500 psi
the :1. tacho-generator N12. tacho-generator N23. thrust reverser pneumatic
motors4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)5. oil pumps6. hydraulic
pumps7. high pressure fuel pumpsThe combination regrouping all the correct 21.3.4.4 (987)
statements is : The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:
a) 1, 4, 5, 6, 7. a) maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases.
b) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7. b) reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
c) 2, 4, 5, 6. c) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
d) 4, 5, 6, 7. d) maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.

21.3.4.1 (982) 21.3.4.4 (988)

The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:1 - throughout the operating range (For this question use annex 021-4008A)Reference should be made to the fuel
of the engine2 - for accelerations3 - for ground starts4 - for in-flight relights5 - sypply system shown in annex.In flight, with center tank empty and APU
during turbulence in flight6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditionsThe operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank
combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : 2).Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
a) 3 - 4 - 5 - 6 a) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 1 pumps ""OFF"" and tank 2 pumps
b) 3 ""ON"".
c) 2002-03-04 b) impossible without causing the APU stop.
d) 1 c) possible with ""CROSSFEED"" open and tank 2 pumps ""OFF"".
d) impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.
21.3.4.2 (983)
For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which 21.3.4.4 (989)
the engine : In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the
a) will run without any external assistance. amount of:
b) is designed to idle after starting. a) fuel supplied.
c) operates most efficiently in the cruise.. b) air entering the compressor.
d) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage. c) air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves.
d) air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.
21.3.4.2 (984)
An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds above those encountered in 21.3.4.5 (990)
starting. Its engaging pawls are prevented from operating at higher speeds by In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows:
a) centrifugal force a) jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel flowing from tanks.
b) engine oil pressure b) fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to unprime nozzles.
c) a coil spring c) fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
d) electro-magnetic action of operating magneto. d) automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent icing in fuel filter.

80
21.3.4.5 (991) a) 1, 3.
The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type b) 2, 3, 4.
oil system is to: c) 3, 4, 5.
a) cool the oil and heat the fuel. d) 1, 5.
b) cool the oil only.
c) cool both the oil and the fuel.
21.3.4.8 (997)
d) heat the fuel only.
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:
a) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
21.3.4.5 (992) b) the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal c) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
oil pressure.This higher pressure : d) the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
a) is normal, if it decreases after startup.
b) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
21.3.4.8 (998)
c) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by:- a propeller
d) requires an oil change.
control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 - turbine temperature 3 - turbine
RPM- a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine
21.3.4.6 (993) temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in a) 2001-05-06
contact with a flame and extinguishs immediately, is the: b) 2001-03-05
a) flash point c) 2003-04-06
b) combustion point d) 2002-04-05
c) fire point
d) self ignition point
21.3.5.1 (999)
On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be substituted for the:
21.3.4.7 (994) a) ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning unit.
An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of: b) ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.
a) jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure. c) ground power unit, the starting system.
b) jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure. d) ground power unit.
c) combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
d) compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
21.3.5.1 (1000)
A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground
21.3.4.7 (995) starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air (subject to certification
The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :1 - equals the product of limitations) and on the ground :
the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas velocity2 - is obtained by pressure a) air conditioning and electrical services.
of the exhaust gas on the ambient air3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power b) air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
since the aeroplane is not moving4 - is independant of the outside air c) either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
temperatureThe combination which regroups all of the correct statements is : d) air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up
a) 03-Jan services (in the air).
b) 02-Jan
c) 03-Fev
21.3.5.1 (1001)
d) 4
In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary power units (APUs) have
automatic controls for stating, stopping and maintaining operation within safe
21.3.4.8 (996) limits. These controls provide correct sequencing of the starting cycle as well as
Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR):1. protection against :
with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the altitude increases2. with a a) high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil pressure and high oil
constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number3. At same temperature.
environmental conditions, a given EPR setting maintains the thrust irrespective of b) high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.
engine wear due to ageing.4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure c) overspeed and high oil temperature only.
difference between the turbine outlet and the compressor inlet5. on take-off, in d) high TGT only.
the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the
real EPRThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

81
21.4.1.0 (1002) 21.4.2.0 (1008)
Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices so as to help the occupants Smoke detector systems are installed in the
to get out and reach the ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground a) upper cargo compartments (class E).
greater than: b) wheel wells.
a) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended. c) engine nacelles.
b) 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse. d) fuel tanks.
c) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear collapse.
d) 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
21.4.2.0 (1009)
Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems protection. They detect :
21.4.1.0 (1003) a) smoke.
The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes b) overtemperature.
a) must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew members to leave the c) fire.
aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50 % of the available emergency exits. d) overtemperature and fire.
b) must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to leave the aeroplane within 2
minutes.
21.4.2.0 (1010)
c) depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement with the operator.
Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type :
d) must be in accordance with the number of passengers on board.
a) optical or ionization
b) chemical
21.4.1.0 (1004) c) electrical
A manual inflation handle: d) magnetic
a) serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation fails
b) serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation function fails
21.4.2.0 (1011)
c) operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
(For this question use annex 021-10164A)The smoke detection in the aircraft
d) is generally not applied on slides.
cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.They are
associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex.The repeating bell is
21.4.1.0 (1005) activated when:
The purpose of the proximity of the emergency evacuation path marking system is a) the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
to : b) the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.
a) replace the overhead emergency lighting during an emergency evacuation with c) only one sensor detects smoke.
a thick smoke. d) the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.
b) replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
c) mark only the exits at the floor level.
21.4.3.0 (1012)
d) to be used only at night.
When a continuous element of a fire detection system is heated:1. its resistance
decreases.2. its resistance increases.3. the leakage current increases.4. the
21.4.1.0 (1006) leakage current decreases.The combination regrouping all the correct statements
An exit is considered to be out of service when the following elements are is :
inoperative the:1. external door opening mechanism2. internal door opening a) 1, 3
mechanism3. door opening aid device4. open door locking system5. auxiliary b) 2, 3
means of evacuation6. emergency lightingThe combination regrouping all the c) 1, 4
correct statements is: d) 2, 4
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 5, 6
21.4.3.0 (1013)
c) 2, 3, 4, 6
A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
a) inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
b) activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
21.4.1.0 (1007) c) automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of
Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by : fire.
a) a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself. d) activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.
b) the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.
c) a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
21.4.3.0 (1014)
d) pressurized air from the air conditioning system.
In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault
82
protection), if the line is accidently grounded: 21.4.3.0 (1021)
a) the fire alarm is triggered. Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in
b) the power supply is cut off automatically. temperature produces :
c) there will be no effect on the system a) a decrease in resistance
d) the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated. b) an increase in resistance
c) a decrease in the reference current
d) a decrease in pressure
21.4.3.0 (1015)
When a wire type fire system is tested:
a) the wiring and the warning are tested. 21.4.3.0 (1022)
b) Only the warning function is tested. A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:
c) a part of the wire is totally heated. a) Fire detection system
d) the wire is totally heated. b) Smoke detection system
c) Carbon dioxide warning system
d) Fire fighting system
21.4.3.0 (1016)
A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by
a) heating up the sensor with test power connection. 21.4.3.0 (1023)
b) checking the continuity of the system with a test switch. On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire
c) checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor. detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature increase detected:
d) checking the sensor with pressurized gas. a) at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops
b) only at an isolated point of the loops
c) only in a uniform way along the loops
21.4.3.0 (1017)
d) on at least one loop
In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are installed in the:
a) landing gear bays / wheel wells.
b) cabin. 21.4.3.0 (1024)
c) fuel tanks. When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is
d) tyres. triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
a) avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
b) allow temperatures to equalise
21.4.3.0 (1018)
c) delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase their efficiency
The indication of the fire detection systems is performed by a:
d) wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
a) warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert).
b) warning bell.
c) warning light. 21.4.4.0 (1025)
d) gear warning. The most common extinguishing agent used in gas turbine engine fire protection
system is:
a) Freon.
21.4.3.0 (1019)
b) Water.
On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes :
c) CO2.
a) a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
d) Powder.
b) a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
c) a single warning light and a single alarm bell
d) both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine 21.4.4.0 (1026)
If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for example, are set on fire, the
following extinguisher types should be used for fire fighting:
21.4.3.0 (1020)
a) BCF and CO2 type extinguishers
In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as possible, the fire detectors
b) Water type extinguishers
are located in the highest risk compartments. Theses compartments are :1. the
c) Dry and water type extinguishers
main landing gear wheel wells2. the fuel tanks3. the oil tanks4. the auxiliary power
d) CO2 and water type extinguishers
unit5. around the enginesThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,4,5
b) 2,3 21.4.4.0 (1027)
c) 2,5 The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium fire on the ground is :
d) 1,2,3,4,5 a) sand.
b) water.
83
c) carbon dioxide. 21.4.4.0 (1033)
d) freon. An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 7 to 30
seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1028)
b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one manual fire-extinguisher must
c) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
be conveniently located containing :
d) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
a) halon.
b) powder.
c) water. 21.4.4.0 (1034)
d) special fluids. An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 31 to 60
seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1029)
b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
(For this question use annex 021-9377A)When fire is detected on engine n°2, the
c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
fire shutoff handle n°2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is discharged.
d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
This results in :
a) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH
(discharge) indicator lamp 21.4.4.0 (1035)
b) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 61 to
agent n°1 on both engines 200 seats must be equipped with at least:
c) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of a) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
agent n°1 on engine no. and DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1 b) 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d) the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°2 and illumination of the DISCH indicator lamp of c) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
agent n°1 on engine n°1 and agent n°2 on engine n°2 d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.

21.4.4.0 (1030) 21.4.4.0 (1036)

Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing system on an aircraft is
pulled, the effects are :1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system2. opening of
the air bleed valves and HP valves on the engine concerned3. setting of
extinguishing systems4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves5. isolation of
the associated electric current generators6. immediate discharge of extinguishing
agentThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1,3,4,5
b) 1,2,5,6
c) 2,3,4,5
d) 1,3,4
21.4.4.0 (1031)
With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher discharge:
a) is the pilot's task
b) is automatic and immediate
c) is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
d) does not need the engine to be stopped
21.4.4.0 (1032)
The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they :
a) act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
b) use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
c) are electrical conductors.
d) are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 201 to
300 seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1037)
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 301 to
400 seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b) 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d) 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1038)
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 401 to
500 seats must be equipped with at least:
a) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
b) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
d) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1039)
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is 501 to
600 seats must be equipped with at least:
84
a) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 1, 2.
b) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) 1, 2, 4.
c) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. d) 1,4.
d) 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment.
21.4.4.0 (1045)
21.4.4.0 (1040) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum requirement for the survival oxygen
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater needed to supply 100 % of the passengers during and following an emergency
than 600 seats must be equipped with at least: descend is:
a) 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. a) 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above
b) 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
c) 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. b) 30 minutes.
d) 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the passenger compartment. c) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 13000 ft.
d) the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
21.4.4.0 (1041)
An airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater 21.4.5.0 (1046)
than 60 seats must be equipped with at least: The oxygen masks have dropped down from the passengers service units. The
a) 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. oxygen flow starts :
b) 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. a) after pulling the oxygen mask downwards
c) 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. b) immediately
d) 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher. c) only above FL200
d) After the system has been switched on by a crew member
21.4.4.0 (1042)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose maximum take-off mass exceeds 21.4.5.0 (1047)
5 700 kg or whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to FL 450. The cabin includes
than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be equipped with a: 180 passenger seats, made up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle).
a) crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this aeroplane must be:
b) crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. a) 198 (110% of the seating capacity).
c) crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment. b) 270 (150% of the seating capacity).
d) crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger compartment. c) 240 (one additional mask per seat block).
d) 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
21.4.4.0 (1043)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be equipped with equipment or 21.4.5.0 (1048)
systems at each emergency exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
of an emergency when the sill height of the passenger emergency exit is higher a) able to radiotelephone.
than: b) only able to receive.
a) 1,83 m. c) only able to transmit.
b) 1,80 m. d) not able to do any radio communication.
c) 1,86 m.
d) 1,89 m.
21.4.5.0 (1049)
In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen is designed to:
21.4.4.0 (1044) a) give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an emergency descent, each b) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
occupant of the cockpit seats on duty must have access to a minimum amount of c) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
oxygen in:1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight time where the d) protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
cabin altitude pressure is greater than 13000 ft.2. order to maintain a supply
throughout the entire flight time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than
21.4.5.0 (1050)
10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.3. no case less than 30
An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the
minutes for airplanes certified to fly up to 25000 ft.4. no case less than 2 hours for
following characteristics:Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by
airplanes certified to fly at over 25000 ft.The combination regrouping all the
the certificate of airworthiness= 230Number of seats on board= 200Scheduled
correct statements is:
number of passengers on board= 180The minimum number of inhaler systems
a) 1, 2, 3 et 4.
provided in the aircraft cabin should be:
85
a) 220. b) oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
b) 230. c) passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
c) 200. d) oxygen bottles will explode.
d) 180.
21.4.5.0 (1057)
21.4.5.0 (1051) The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to :
From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen a) deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? b) deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.
a) FL 250. c) is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.
b) FL 300. d) mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
c) FL 390.
d) FL 100.
21.4.5.0 (1058)
The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :
21.4.5.0 (1052) a) switching the passenger oxygen ON.
What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask? b) switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
a) Cabin air and oxygen. c) opening the oxygen-bottle valves.
b) 100% oxygen. d) switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
c) Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
d) A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
21.4.5.0 (1059)
The passenger oxygen mask will supply :
21.4.5.0 (1053) a) a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
The safety precautions to be taken whenever using oxygen are:1. refrain from b) 100 % oxygen.
smoking, avoid sparkes.2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment.3. c) a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.
Slowly operate oxygen system valves.4. Avoid greasy matter.The combination d) a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1, 3, 4.
21.4.5.0 (1060)
b) 1, 2, 3.
The chemical oxygen generator is a system:1. which is inexpensive2. requiring no
c) 2, 3, 4.
external input3. which is lightweight4. requiring no maintenance5. with adjustable
d) 1, 2, 4.
flow rate6. which is unsafeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
21.4.5.0 (1054) a) 1, 3, 4
The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers b) 2, 3, 6
is :1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,2. electrical for the chemical c) 1, 4, 6
oxygen system,3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,4. electrical for the d) 2, 4, 5
gaseous oxygen system.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
21.4.5.0 (1061)
b) 1, 3
Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The purpose of the oxygen
c) 2, 3
regulator (as a function of demand and altitude) is to:1. decrease oxygen pressure
d) 2, 4
from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)2.
supply pure oxygen3. supply diluted oxygen4. supply oxygen at normal pressure5.
21.4.5.0 (1055) supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure6. trigger the continuous cabin
The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitudeThe combination regrouping all the
is stored is : correct statements is:
a) Gaseous. a) 2, 3, 4, 5
b) Chemical compound. b) 3, 4, 5, 6
c) Liquid. c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) Gaseous or chemical compound.. d) 1, 3, 4, 6

21.4.5.0 (1056) 21.4.5.0 (1062)

If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the: A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen
a) oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug. dispensing units and outlets in the cabin must be at least the same as the total
86
number of : 21.4.5.0 (1068)
a) seats exceeded by 10%. In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following
b) seats. state:
c) passengers. a) gaseous.
d) passengers exceeded by 10%. b) liquid.
c) chemical.
d) chemical or gaseous.
21.4.5.0 (1063)
A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL 390. It is fitted with
individual oxygen masks for the passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the 21.4.5.0 (1069)
masks must be automatically released before the cabin pressure altitude exceeds: Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized airplanes in :1. an emergency in
a) 15000 ft. the case of depressurization.2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
b) 13000 ft. passenger.3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.5. an emergency in
c) 12000 ft. the case of smoke or toxic gases.The combination regrouping all the correct
d) 14000 ft. statements is:
a) 1,4
b) 1, 2, 4
21.4.5.0 (1064)
c) 3
Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen mask at all times during
d) 2, 3
commercial flight.
a) 410.
b) 300. 21.4.5.0 (1070)
c) 250. Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped with :
d) 490. a) two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the
cabin.
b) only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.
21.4.5.0 (1065)
c) two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.
A diluter demand oxygen regulator :
d) only portable oxygen bottles.
a) delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
b) delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100.
c) is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit. 21.4.5.0 (1071)
d) mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks in the passenger cabin,
the system is activated by
a) firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has opened.
21.4.5.0 (1066)
b) activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.
A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120 passengers. 42 passenger are on
c) firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is stowed.
board and the expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The first aid
d) pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.
oxygen to be on board at departure shall provide breathing supply for at least:
a) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude of
more than 8000 ft. 21.4.5.0 (1072)
b) no first aid required. A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression
c) 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure value.
10000 and 14000 ft. What happens concerning the oxygen system ?
d) 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin depressurization at cabin altitude between a) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and
10000 and 14000 ft. passengers
b) the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
c) if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first
21.4.5.0 (1067)
3 minutes
As regards passengers oxygen in public transport aircraft, information must be
d) manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally
given to passengers through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at
speaking, not possible
Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be completed before :
a) take-off.
b) the aircraft reaches FL 100. 21.4.5.0 (1073)
c) the aircraft reaches FL 140. A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen
d) the aircraft reaches FL 250. installation is :
a) Grease

87
b) Water 21.4.5.0 (1080)
c) Halon An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :- a power lever : ON/OFF- an ""O2"" lever :
d) Nitrogen NORMAL/100%- an emergency lever : ON/OFFAmong the following statements,
the correct proposition is :
a) the power lever on ON, and, the ""O2"" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to
21.4.5.0 (1074)
enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to
The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly :
altitude.
a) a continuous flow system
b) the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
b) a pressure demand system
c) the ""O2"" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow
c) portable equipment only
rate.
d) an air recycle system
d) with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen
mask to breathe.
21.4.5.0 (1075)
The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode,
21.4.5.0 (1081)
operates when the :
The operations of an airline plan the operation of a pressurized aircraft at a 240
a) user breathes in
flight level on its whole route with 150 passengers on board.As concerns the
b) diluter control is in normal position
regulatory requirements about oxygen:1. each crew member will have available a
c) user requires 100 percent oxygen
quick fitting inhaler device.2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system
d) pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi
indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.3 . the quantity of oxygen
on board will be sufficient for the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the
21.4.5.0 (1076) whole flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual depressurization.4.
The purpose of the ""Pressure Relief Valve"" in a high pressure oxygen system is to the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for the supply of two passengers
: during the whole flight time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.The
a) relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
b) reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator a) 2,3
c) act as a manual shut-off valve b) 1,2,3,4
d) maximize the charging pressure of the system c) 2
d) 3,4
21.4.5.0 (1077)
The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: 21.4.5.0 (1082)
a) provide some passengers with additional respiratory assistance after an When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the air/oxygen mixture
emergency descent following a depressurization. supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:
b) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection. a) increases when the altitude increases.
c) supply all the passengers in case of depressurization. b) decreases when the altitude increases.
d) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurization. c) is constant whatever the altitude.
d) is 100 %.
21.4.5.0 (1078)
The survival oxygen is: 21.4.5.0 (1083)
a) the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of accidental In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger
depressurization. breathes :
b) the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for pathological reasons. a) a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
c) the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide. b) pure oxygen under pressure.
d) a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain passengers. c) pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
d) cabin air under pressure.
21.4.5.0 (1079)
Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be said that : 21.4.5.0 (1084)
a) with setting on ""NORMAL"", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen / cabin air. Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the :
b) the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers. a) cabin only.
c) the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks. b) cockpit and the cabin.
d) the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated oxygen. c) cockpit only.
d) toilets only.

88
21.4.5.0 (1085) c) these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about : d) these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.
a) 15 minutes.
b) 30 minutes.
21.4.5.0 (1091)
c) 2 hours.
A passenger emergency mask is a :
d) 5 minutes.
a) continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
b) mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
21.4.5.0 (1086) c) continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. d) mask with flow on request and can be used if there is smoke.
reduced weight and volume,2. easy storage and maintenance,3. greater
autonomy,4. no risk of explosion,5. reversible functioning,6. no maintenance.The
21.4.5.0 (1092)
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A smoke mask is a :
a) 1, 2, 4, 6
a) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
c) 2, 3, 5
c) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

21.4.5.0 (1087)
21.4.5.0 (1093)
The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the cockpit seats on duty in a
flow which cannot be modulated,2. a heavy and bulky system,3. non reversible
non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight
functioning,4. risks of explosion,5. poor autonomy.The combination regrouping all
time at pressure altitudes greater than:
the correct statements is:
a) 10000 ft.
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 12500 ft.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 13000 ft.
c) 2, 4
d) 14000 ft.
d) 1, 2, 3, 5

21.4.5.0 (1094)
21.4.5.0 (1088)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized
The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are :1. a
airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure
greater autonomy,2. no risk of explosion,3. reversible functioning,4. easy storage
altitudes greater than:
and maintenance,5. possibility to regulate flow.The combination regrouping all the
a) 13000 ft.
correct statements is :
b) 10000 ft.
a) 1, 3, 5
c) 14000 ft.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 15000 ft.
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4
21.4.5.0 (1095)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers in a non-pressurized
21.4.5.0 (1089)
airplane must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight time when the
When the door operation of a transport airplane equipped with evacuation slides is
cabin altitude pressure is greater than:
controlled from the outside, the slide:
a) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
a) is disarmed automatically.
b) 13000 ft.
b) unfolds and becomes inflated.
c) 10000 ft.
c) unfolds but does not become inflated.
d) 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.
d) becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its unfolding.

21.4.5.0 (1096)
21.4.5.0 (1090)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total
The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil
number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals must be at least greater
or grease traces as:
than the number of:
a) these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under
a) seats by 10 %.
pressure.
b) passengers by 10 %.
b) the oxygen system would be contaminated.

89
c) seats by 30 %. cabin according to JAR-OPS depends on the number of :
d) passengers by 30%. a) seats in the cabin.
b) seat rows in the cabin.
c) passengers in the cabin.
21.4.5.0 (1097)
d) emergency exits in the cabin.
In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
a) 100%
b) normal. 21.4.6.0 (1103)
c) emergency. The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted to passenger aircraft. Its
d) on demand. function is to :
a) obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general purpose tool during
evacuation.
21.4.5.0 (1098)
b) free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that:1 - the
c) activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red coloured top
smoking ban is imperative when used2 - in case of accidental drop of the
d) settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, who threaten flight safety.
""continuous flow"" passenger masks, no crew action is required3 - no trace of
grease must be found in the system assembly4 - the system's filling adaptors must
be greased with non freezable or graphite greaseThe combination which regroups 21.4.6.0 (1104)
all of the correct statements is : In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted of only one passenger
a) 03-Jan deck, equipped with 61 seats and effectively carrying passengers, must be
b) 04-Jan equipped with :
c) 03-Fev a) 1 megaphone.
d) 04-Fev b) 2 megaphones.
c) 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on board.
d) no megaphone.
21.4.6.0 (1099)
In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:
a) protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases. 21.4.6.0 (1105)
b) gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders. In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception of amphibians and
c) protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization. hydroplanes, the carriage of a life jacket per person on board is compulsory when
d) protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization. the airplane is :1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it would not be
able to return in the case of an engine failure.2. is flying over a water surface at
more than 50 NM off shore.3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water
21.4.6.0 (1100)
and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a problem.4. is flying over a
An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to JAR25, across an area in
stretch of water at more than 100 NM off shore.The combination regrouping all the
which search and rescue would be especially difficult, without survival equipment
correct statements is:
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance
a) 2, 3
greater than :
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
a) 90 minutes at cruising speed.
c) 1, 2
b) 60 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 3, 4
c) 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 120 minutes at cruising speed.
21.4.6.0 (1106)
The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the passenger cabin of an
21.4.6.0 (1101)
airplane, whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:
A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight, which takes it further
a) 2
than 340 NM away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be
b) 1
performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt.
c) 3
a) Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
d) 0
b) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular
case.
c) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants. 21.4.6.0 (1107)
d) Life rafts must be available for all occupants. The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose maximum approved
configuration of passenger seats is 201, is :
a) 2
21.4.6.0 (1102)
b) 1
The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be installed in the passenger
90
c) 3 c) 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
d) 4 d) 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.

21.4.6.0 (1108) 21.4.6.0 (1114)

A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating configuration of more than The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to indicate your position to
61 seats, must have in its passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire- the emergency teams are a flare:
extinguishers including: a) which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in the daytime.
a) 2 halon fire-extinguishers. b) and a smoke device which are only used at night.
b) 1 halon fire-extinguisher. c) which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used at night.
c) 3 halon fire-extinguishers. d) and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.
d) no halon fire-extinguisher.
21.4.6.0 (1115)
21.4.6.0 (1109) The portable emergency beacons which are used after an emergency landing or
In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be inflated : ditching have a duration of :
a) when leaving the airplane. a) 48 h
b) immediately on the opening of the exits. b) 24 h
c) immediately on ditching. c) 12 h
d) once the passengers are in the water. d) 72 h

21.4.6.0 (1110) 21.4.6.0 (1116)

An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 10 seats In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the number of liferafts to be found
must be equipped with: on board an aircraft must allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:
a) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-extinguishers in the a) in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
passenger cabin. b) plus 10 %.
b) one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire- extinguishers in the passenger cabin. c) plus 30 %.
c) three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only. d) in the case of a loss of two rafts.
d) two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
22.1.1.0 (1117)
21.4.6.0 (1111) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a turbo-prop aircraft. Its a) equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
speed is 240 kt. At a point along the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is b) independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
at 1h45 min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing. The minimum c) higher than the true airspeed (TAS).
equipment complying with regulations is : d) lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
a) 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
b) 60 life jackets
22.1.1.1 (1118)
c) One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a pitot tube is the :
d) 60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats
a) total pressure.
b) static pressure.
21.4.6.0 (1112) c) total pressure plus static pressure.
The emergency lighting system must be able to function and supply a certain level d) dynamic pressure.
of lighting after the main electric power system has been cut off for at least:
a) 10 minutes
22.1.1.1 (1119)
b) 90 seconds
A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port
c) 5 minutes
open causes the airspeed indicator to :
d) 30 minutes
a) react like an altimeter.
b) read a little high.
21.4.6.0 (1113) c) read a little low.
An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for passenger seats is 200 d) freeze at zero.
seats must be equipped with:
a) 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
b) 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
91
22.1.1.1 (1120) 22.1.1.2 (1126)
A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the following If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the instrument
instrument (s) : will:
a) airspeed indicator only. a) continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occured
b) altimeter only. b) under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument became
c) vertical speed indicator only. blocked
d) airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator. c) over-read
d) gradually return to zero
22.1.1.1 (1121)
(For this question use annex 022-9771A)The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a 22.1.1.2 (1127)
""standard + 10"" atmosphere is: The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially with the:
a) 781.85 hPa. a) time passed at a given altitude.
b) 942.13 hPa. b) mach number of the aircraft.
c) 1 013.25 hPa. c) aircraft altitude.
d) 644.41 hPa. d) static temperature.

22.1.1.1 (1122) 22.1.1.2 (1128)

In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static pressure ports are damaged, The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
there is an ultimate emergency means for restoring a practically correct static a) reduce the effect of friction in the linkages
pressure intake : b) inform the crew of a failure of the instrument
a) breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window c) allow damping of the measurement in the unit
b) slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in the cabin d) reduce the hysteresis effect
c) descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure as close to 1013.25 hPa as
possible
22.1.1.2 (1129)
d) calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the altitude and QNH and adjusting the
The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is connected
instruments
varies substantially with the:
a) Mach number of the aircraft
22.1.1.2 (1123) b) deformation of the aneroid capsule
The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation of the static pressure near c) aircraft altitude
the source is known as: d) static temperature
a) position pressure error.
b) barometric error.
22.1.1.2 (1130)
c) instrument error.
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all the
d) hysteresis effect.
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are cold is :
a) lower than the real altitude.
22.1.1.2 (1124) b) the same as the real altitude.
If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the c) higher than the real altitude.
instrument will: d) equal to the standard altitude.
a) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occured
b) gradually indicate zero
22.1.1.2 (1131)
c) under-read
The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an atmosphere where all
d) indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar subscale
atmosphere layers below the aircraft are warm is:
a) higher than the real altitude.
22.1.1.2 (1125) b) the same as the real altitude.
The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted altimeter more accurate than c) lower than the real altitude.
the simple pressure altimeter is the use of: d) equal to the standard altitude.
a) an induction pick-off device
b) more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
22.1.1.2 (1132)
c) combination of counters/pointers
On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:
d) a sub-scale logarithmic function
a) pressure altitude
b) density altitude
92
c) temperature altitude 22.1.1.2 (1139)
d) standard altitude If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position
error and another altimeter which is not , and all other factors being equal...
a) At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude
22.1.1.2 (1133)
b) At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude
The density altitude is :
c) There will be no difference between them if the air data computer (ADC) is functioning
a) the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density is equal to the
normally
actual density of the atmosphere
d) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR
b) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real temperature and the
standard temperature
c) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point 22.1.1.2 (1140)
d) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a sealed
casing.The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii) are respectively :
a) (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure
22.1.1.2 (1134)
b) (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - t
The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding :
c) (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure
a) in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point
d) (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure
b) in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
c) in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
d) in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this point 22.1.1.2 (1141)
The altimeter is fed by :
a) static pressure
22.1.1.2 (1135)
b) dynamic pressure
When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder air, the altimeter will :
c) total pressure
a) overread.
d) differential pressure
b) underread.
c) be just as correct as before.
d) show the actual height above ground. 22.1.1.2 (1142)
In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static pressure port (rain, birds),
the altimeter:
22.1.1.2 (1136)
a) overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and displays the correct
At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in feet from indicated must
information during symmetric flight.
not exceed :
b) overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and displays the correct information
a) +/-60 feet
during symmetric flight.
b) +/-75 feet
c) keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations
c) +/-30 feet
d) underreads the altitude.
d) +/-70 feet

22.1.1.3 (1143)
22.1.1.2 (1137)
When climbing at a constant Mach number below the tropopause, in ISA
The QNH is by definition the value of the:
conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) will:
a) altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate the altitude of the
a) decrease
location for which it is given.
b) increase at a linear rate
b) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.
c) remain constant
c) altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the aircraft is on ground at the
d) increase at an exponential rate
location for which it is provided.
d) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.
22.1.1.3 (1144)
For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
22.1.1.2 (1138)
temperature will result in a:
The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) for avoiding an aircraft in
a) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
flight is now general. TCAS uses for its operation :
b) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
a) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
c) higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
b) the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system
d) lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c) the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board
d) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground-based radar echoes

93
22.1.1.3 (1145) c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
When descending through an isothermal layer at a constant Calibrated Airspeed d) with flaps extended in landing position
(CAS), the True Airspeed (TAS) will:
a) decrease
22.1.1.3 (1152)
b) increase at a linear rate
VLO is the maximum :
c) remain constant
a) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
d) increase at an exponential rate
b) flight speed with landing gear down.
c) speed with flaps extended in a given position.
22.1.1.3 (1146) d) cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-pressurized aircraft to an airspeed
indicator would cause it to:
22.1.1.3 (1153)
a) under-read.
VLE is the maximum :
b) over-read.
a) flight speed with landing gear down
c) over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
b) speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
d) under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
c) speed with flaps extended in a given position
d) speed authorized in flight
22.1.1.3 (1147)
The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube directly
22.1.1.3 (1154)
supplies:
With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will
a) the total pressure
indicate in descent a :
b) the static pressure
a) decreasing speed.
c) the total pressure and the static pressure
b) constant speed.
d) the dynamic pressure
c) increasing speed.
d) fluctuating speed.
22.1.1.3 (1148)
If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
22.1.1.3 (1155)
descent the instrument will:
The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are :
a) over-read
a) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
b) read zero
b) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
c) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
c) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
d) under-read
d) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit

22.1.1.3 (1149)
22.1.1.3 (1156)
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated airspeed
The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are :
(IAS) :
a) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
a) an instrument and position/pressure error correction.
b) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
b) an antenna and compressibility correction.
c) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
c) and instrument and density correction.
d) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
d) a compressibility and density correction.

22.1.1.3 (1157)
22.1.1.3 (1150)
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are :
VNO is the maximum speed :
a) VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
a) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
b) VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
b) which must never be exceeded.
c) VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
c) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
d) VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
d) with flaps extended in landing position.

22.1.1.3 (1158)
22.1.1.3 (1151)
The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed expressed in :
VNE is the maximum speed :
a) calibrated airspeed (CAS).
a) which must never be exceeded
b) equivalent airspeed (EAS).
b) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
94
c) true airspeed (TAS). 22.1.1.3 (1165)
d) computed airspeed (COAS). The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft comprises different sectors and
color marks. The blue line corresponds to the :
a) optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy
22.1.1.3 (1159)
b) speed not to be exceeded, or VNE
After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
c) minimum control speed, or VMC
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
d) maximum speed in operations, or VMO
and finds that the indicated airspeed :
a) decreases steadily
b) increases abruptly towards VNE 22.1.1.3 (1166)
c) increases steadily Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-Venant formula), indicate, in
d) decreases abruptly towards zero the absence of static (and instrumental) error :
a) The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all cases
b) The true airspeed
22.1.1.3 (1160)
c) The airspeed, whatever the altitude
During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure
d) The equivalent airspeed, in all cases
probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed :
a) increases steadily
b) increases abruptly towards VNE 22.1.1.3 (1167)
c) decreases stadily Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
d) decreases abruptly towards zero operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
22.1.1.3 (1161)
a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield altitude, an aircraft always
b) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
takes off at the same :
c) by the MMO
a) calibrated airspeed.
d) by the VMO in still air
b) ground speed.
c) true airspeed.
d) equivalent airspeed. 22.1.1.4 (1168)
Machmeter readings are subject to:
a) position pressure error
22.1.1.3 (1162)
b) density error.
All the anemometers are calibrated according to:
c) temperature error.
a) St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air compressibility.
d) setting error.
b) Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air compressibility.
c) St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid.
d) Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an uncompressible fluid. 22.1.1.4 (1169)
If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is :
a) 596 kt.
22.1.1.3 (1163)
b) 247 kt.
VFE is the maximum speed :
c) 307 kt.
a) with the flaps extended in a given position.
d) 686 kt.
b) with the flaps extended in landing position.
c) at which the flaps can be operated.
d) with the flaps extended in take-off position. 22.1.1.4 (1170)
During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed (CAS) :
22.1.1.3 (1164)
a) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases.
The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a moving red and white
b) The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
hatched pointer. This pointer indicates the:
c) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant.
a) maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude
d) The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.
b) maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature
c) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus temperature
d) speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus altitude 22.1.1.4 (1171)
A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to :
a) a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an airspeed
95
sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure. a) decreases when the altitude increases
b) a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic pressure and an airspeed sensor b) increases when the altitude increases
subjected to a static pressure. c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
c) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to dynamic pressure. d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases
d) a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static pressure.
22.1.1.4 (1179)
22.1.1.4 (1172) The Mach number is :
The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of : a) the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
a) the outside temperature considered
b) the static pressure b) a direct function of temperature , it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute
c) the total pressure temperature
d) the differential pressure measurement c) the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude considered
d) the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
considered
22.1.1.4 (1173)
The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the ratio :
a) (Pt - Ps) to Ps 22.1.1.4 (1180)
b) Pt to Ps Indication of Mach number is obtained from:
c) (Pt - Ps) to Pt a) Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator equipped with an altimeter
d) (Pt + Ps) to Ps type aneroid
b) An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers instead of knots
c) A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with indicated speed
22.1.1.4 (1174)
d) Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS) from the air data computer
The mach number is the:
a) true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
b) corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound 22.1.1.5 (1181)
c) indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt, in a
d) equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :
a) - 500 ft/min.
b) - 300 ft/min
22.1.1.4 (1175)
c) - 150 ft/min
Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on :
d) - 250 ft/min
a) temperature.
b) temperature and the pressure.
c) pressure. 22.1.1.5 (1182)
d) density. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be increased by adding a:
a) correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
b) bimettalic strip
22.1.1.4 (1176)
c) return spring
The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:
d) second calibrated port
a) 661 kt.
b) 1059 kt.
c) 644 kt. 22.1.1.5 (1183)
d) 332 kt. The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by :
a) static pressure
b) dynamic pressure
22.1.1.4 (1177)
c) total pressure
At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach number :
d) differential pressure
a) increases when the altitude increases
b) decreases when the altitude increases
c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases 22.1.1.5 (1184)
d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
a) Static pressure
22.1.1.4 (1178)
b) Dynamic pressure
At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :

96
c) Total pressure 22.1.2.1 (1190)
d) Kinetic pressure The basis properties of a gyroscope are :1. The gyro's weight.2. The rigidity in
space.3. The inertia.4. The high RPM.5. The precessionThe combination of correct
statements is :
22.1.1.6 (1185)
a) 2,5
The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the altitude are :1.
b) 2,3,5
Position/pressure error correction2. Hysteresis error correction3. Remote data
c) 1,3,5
transmission capability4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the
d) 3,4
event of a failureThe combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,3,4 22.1.2.1 (1191)
c) 2,3,4 A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in1. An inertial attitude unit2.
d) 1,2,3 An automatic pilot3. A stabilizing servo system4. An inertial navigation system5. A
rate-of-turn indicatorThe combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,4.
22.1.1.6 (1186)
b) 1,2,3,4,5.
Given :- Ts the static temperature (SAT)- Tt the total temperature (TAT)- Kr the
c) 2,3,5.
recovery coefficient- M the Mach numberThe total temperature can be expressed
d) 2,3,4.
approximately by the formula :
a) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
b) Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²) 22.1.2.1 (1192)
c) Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²) Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro :
d) Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²) a) has a longer life cycle
b) is influenced by temperature
c) has a fairly long starting cycle
22.1.1.6 (1187)
d) consumes a lot of power
In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is calculated from:
a) Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static source on the
fuselage 22.1.2.1 (1193)
b) The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at the fuselage A laser gyro consists of :
c) Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT) a) a laser generating two light waves
d) Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and back b) 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes)
c) a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom
d) two moving cavities provided with mirrors
22.1.1.6 (1188)
An Air Data Computer (ADC) :
a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in 22.1.2.1 (1194)
instruments Among the systematic errors of the ""directional gyro"", the error due to the earth
b) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static source rotation make the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude
is blocked of 45°N, this reference turns by...
c) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide correct a) 10.5°/hour to the right.
altitude and speed information b) 15°/hour to the right.
d) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to c) 7.5°/hour to the right.
provide correct altitude reporting d) 7.5°/hour to the left.

22.1.2.1 (1189) 22.1.2.1 (1195)

The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained through the
these gyros,-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)-one is a yaw concentration of the mass :
gyro (noted 3)The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is: a) on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
a) 1B, 2C, 3A b) close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
b) 1C, 2B, 3A c) on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.
c) 1B, 2A, 3C d) close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.
d) 1A, 2B, 3C
22.1.2.2 (1196)
The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to errors,
97
due to:1- rotation of Earth.2- aeroplane motion on Earth.3- lateral and transversal short period of time. The causes of this inaccuracy are :1. The earth's rotation2.
aeroplane bank angles.4- north change.5- mechanical defects.Chose the The longitudinal acceleration3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the
combination with true statements only: earth.4. The mechanical defects of the gyro5. The gyro's weight6. The gimbal
a) 1,2,3,5. mount of the gyro ringsThe combination of correct statements is :
b) 3,4,5. a) 1,3,4,6
c) 1,2,4,5. b) 1,3,4
d) 2,3,5. c) 1,2,3,4,5,6
d) 2,5,6
22.1.2.2 (1197)
The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised compass 22.1.2.2 (1203)
system are : An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
a) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the reference horizontal spin axis is:
direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system. a) a directional gyro
b) two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is maintained b) an artificial horizon
in this direction by an erecting system. c) a turn indicator
c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an d) a fluxgate compass
automatic erecting system.
d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to the location is
22.1.2.2 (1204)
maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom and a
horizontal spin axis is :
22.1.2.2 (1198) a) a directional gyro
The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local vertical when it is b) an artificial horizon
located : c) a turn indicator
a) on the equator d) a flux gate compass
b) in the latitude 30°
c) in the latitude 45°
22.1.2.2 (1205)
d) on the North pole
For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 005°S and 005°N parallels,
the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to:
22.1.2.2 (1199) a) 0°/hour
The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour : b) +5°/hour
a) on the North pole c) -5°/hour
b) in the latitude 30° d) depends only on the aircraft's ground speed
c) in the latitude 45°
d) on the equator
22.1.2.2 (1206)
A directional gyro is: 1- a gyroscope free around two axis 2- a gyroscope free
22.1.2.2 (1200) around one axis 3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied direction 4-
The pendulum type detector system of the directional gyro feeds : incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied directionThe combination which
a) a levelling erection torque motor regroups all of the correct statements is:
b) a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring a) 04-Jan
c) a torque motor on the sensitive axis b) 04-Fev
d) 2 torque motors arranged horizontally c) 03-Fev
d) 03-Jan
22.1.2.2 (1201)
The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the effect of : 22.1.2.2 (1207)
a) a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth rotation is:
b) an apparent weight and an apparent vertical a) 15°/hour
c) too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring b) 90°/hour
d) the aircraft's track over the earth c) 180°/hour
d) 5°/hour
22.1.2.2 (1202)
The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board instrument are valid only for a
98
22.1.2.2 (1208) detector4- an azimuth control5- a synchronising controlThe combination of correct
The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors, one of which statements is :
is due to the movement of the aircraft.This error... a) 1,3,5
a) is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track and the average b) 2,3,5
latitude of the flight c) 1,4
b) is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected d) 2,5
c) is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track
d) shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope which seems to
22.1.2.3 (1215)
turn at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere
Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass flux gate is transmitted to
the :
22.1.2.3 (1209) a) error detector.
A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. The b) erecting system.
relative bearing to the station is : c) heading indicator.
a) 135°. d) amplifier.
b) Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.
c) 315°.
22.1.2.3 (1216)
d) 225°.
Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given by a gyro at :
a) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
22.1.2.3 (1210) b) 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis
A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal from : c) 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
a) the flux valve. d) l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
b) the air-data-computer.
c) a direct reading magnetic compass.
22.1.2.4 (1217)
d) the flight director.
Among the flight control instruments, the artificial horizon plays an essential part.
It uses a gyroscope with :Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro
22.1.2.3 (1211) are determined by the number of gimbal rings it comprises.
The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic compass resetting device a) two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and continously maintained to
originates from the: local vertical by an automatic erecting system.
a) error detector. b) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to a reference direction is
b) flux valve. maintained in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
c) directional gyro unit. c) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in a horizontal plane by an
d) directional gyro erection device. automatic erecting system
d) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the direction of the real vertical to
the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system
22.1.2.3 (1212)
The heading information originating from the gyromagnetic compass flux valve is
sent to the: 22.1.2.4 (1218)
a) error detector. When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
b) erector system. pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
c) heading indicator. a) too much nose-up and bank too high.
d) amplifier. b) too much nose-up and bank too low.
c) attitude and bank correct.
d) too much nose-up and bank correct.
22.1.2.3 (1213)
The gyromagnetic compass torque motor :
a) causes the directional gyro unit to precess 22.1.2.4 (1219)
b) causes the heading indicator to precess When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the
c) feeds the error detector system pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
d) is fed by the flux valve a) attitude and bank correct
b) too much nose-up and bank too low
c) too much nose-up and bank correct
22.1.2.3 (1214)
d) too much nose-up and bank too high
A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an assembly which always
consists of :1- a directional gyro2- a vertical axis gyro3- an earth's magnetic field
99
22.1.2.4 (1220) c) a turn indicator.
When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank, the d) a gyromagnetic compass.
pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :
a) too much nose-up and bank too low
22.1.2.5 (1227)
b) attitude and bank correct
Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is in a banked turn, the rate-
c) too much nose-up and bank correct
of-turn indicator is a valuable gyroscopic flight control instrument , when it is
d) too much nose-up and bank too high
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates :1. the angular velocity of the
aircraft about the yaw axis2. The bank of the aircraft3. The direction of the aircraft
22.1.2.4 (1221) turn4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real verticalThe combination of
A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on : correct statements is :
a) an artificial horizon a) 1,3.
b) a directional gyro unit b) 1,2.
c) a turn indicator c) 3,4.
d) a gyromagnetic indicator d) 2,4.

22.1.2.4 (1222) 22.1.2.5 (1228)

Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with:
horizon indicates : a) 2 degrees of freedom.
a) too high pitch-up and too low banking b) 0 degree of freedom.
b) too high pitch-up and correct banking c) 1 degree of freedom.
c) attitude and banking correct d) 3 degrees of freedom.
d) too high pitch up and too high banking
22.1.2.5 (1229)
22.1.2.4 (1223) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the right,
During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the resetting principle of the the aircraft is :
artificial horizon results in the horizon bar indicating a : a) turning right with too much bank
a) nose-up attitude b) turning right with not enough bank
b) nose-down attitude c) turning left with too much bank
c) constant attitude d) turning left with not enough bank
d) nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
22.1.2.5 (1230)
22.1.2.4 (1224) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the right and the
A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: ball on the left, the aircraft is :
a) Contains its own separate gyro a) turning right with not enough bank
b) Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails b) turning right with too much bank
c) Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation c) turning left with not enough bank
d) Only works of there is a complete electrical failure d) turning left with too much bank

22.1.2.4 (1225) 22.1.2.5 (1231)

(Use the appendix to answer this question)The diagram which shows a 40° left When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator is on the left and the ball
bank and 15° nose down attitude is n° on the right, the aircraft is:
a) 1 a) turning left with not enough bank
b) 2 b) turning left with too much bank
c) 3 c) turning right with not enough bank
d) 4 d) turning right with too much bank

22.1.2.4 (1226) 22.1.2.5 (1232)

A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on : An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1 degree of freedom and a
a) an artificial horizon. horizontal spin axis is a :
b) a directional gyro. a) turn indicator
b) gyromagnetic compass
100
c) fluxgate compass b) turning left with not enough bank
d) directional gyro c) turning right with too much bank
d) turning right with not enough bank
22.1.2.5 (1233)
In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is: 22.1.2.5 (1240)
a) inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn.Rate of turn depends
b) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed upon :1 : bank angle2 : aeroplane speed3 : aeroplane weightThe combination
c) independent to the aircraft true airspeed regrouping the correct statements is :
d) proportional to the aircraft weight a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 3.
c) 2 and 3.
22.1.2.5 (1234)
d) 1, 2, and 3.
In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn consists for :
a) low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate
b) low bank angles , in measuring the roll rate 22.1.2.5 (1241)
c) high bank angles,in measuring the yaw rate (For this question use appendix )The diagram representing a left turn with
d) high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate insufficient rudder is:
a) 4
b) 1
22.1.2.5 (1235)
c) 2
At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn actually consists in
d) 3
measuring the :
a) yaw rate of the aircraft
b) pitch rate of the aircraft 22.1.2.5 (1242)
c) roll rate of the aircraft The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:1 - with one degree of freedom.2 - with
d) angular velocity of the aircraft two degrees of freedom3 - the frame of which is supported by two return springs.4
- the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the pitch axis.5 - the spinning
wheel axis of which is parallel to the yawing axis.6 - the spinning wheel axis of
22.1.2.5 (1236)
which is horizontal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The rate-of-turn is the:
a) 03-Jan
a) change-of-heading rate of the aircraft
b) 2001-03-04
b) yaw rate in a turn
c) 05-Fev
c) aircraft speed in a turn
d) 06-Jan
d) pitch rate in a turn

22.1.2.5 (1243)
22.1.2.5 (1237)
An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in order to achieve a rate 1 turn,
On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates :
the pilot will have to bank the aircraft at an angle of:
a) needle to the right, ball to left
a) 18°.
b) needle to the right, ball to right
b) 12°.
c) needle in the middle, ball to right
c) 36°.
d) needle in the middle, ball to left
d) 30°.

22.1.2.5 (1238)
22.1.2.6 (1244)
On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator indicates :
While inertial platform system is operating on board an aircraft, it is necessary to
a) needle to the left, ball to the right
use a device with the following characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line
b) needle to the left, ball to the left
with a pendulous system:
c) needle in the middle, ball to the right
a) with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
d) needle in the middle, ball to the left
b) without damping and a period of about 84 minutes
c) without damping and a period of about 84 seconds
22.1.2.5 (1239) d) with damping and a period of 84 seconds
When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball indicator are on the left,
the aircraft is:
22.1.2.6 (1245)
a) turning left with too much bank
The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro
101
with: a) 030°
a) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis b) 355°
b) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis c) 330°
c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis d) 015°
d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
22.1.3.0 (1252)
22.1.2.6 (1246) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of
The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a gyro 40° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
with : the turn on to an approximate heading of :
a) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis a) 330°
b) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis b) 350°
c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis c) 030°
d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis d) 010°

22.1.2.7 (1247) 22.1.3.0 (1253)

In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required to insert the local The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the deviation of a magnetic
geographical coordinates. This is necessary to: compass :
a) Position the computing trihedron with reference to earth. a) on any heading
b) Check operation of laser gyros. b) on a given heading
c) Determine magnetic or true heading. c) at any latitude
d) Re-erect laser gyros. d) at a given latitude

22.1.3.0 (1248) 22.1.3.0 (1254)

The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is due to the action of : The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic heading by reference to a:
a) the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field a) compass swinging curve
b) the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the hard iron pieces b) map showing the isoclinic lines
c) the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field c) deviation correction curve
d) the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces d) map showing the isogonic lines

22.1.3.0 (1249) 22.1.3.0 (1255)

A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a :
20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop a) map showing the isogonal lines
the turn on an approximate heading of : b) map showing the isoclinic lines
a) 210° c) deviation correction curve
b) 150° d) compass swinging curve
c) 170°
d) 190°
22.1.3.0 (1256)
The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:1. magnetic masses2.
22.1.3.0 (1250) ferrous metal masses3. non ferrous metal masses4. electrical currentsThe
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a latitude of combination of correct statements is:
20° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop a) 1, 2, 4
the turn on an approximate heading of : b) 1, 2, 3
a) 160° c) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 200° d) 1, 3, 4
c) 170°
d) 190°
22.1.3.0 (1257)
In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly
22.1.3.0 (1251) direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a latitude of a) an apparent turn to the South.
50° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop b) an apparent turn to the North.
the turn on an approximate heading of :
102
c) a constant heading. 22.1.3.0 (1264)
d) a heading fluctuating about 090°. An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of 045°. The isogonic line on
the area chart indicates 0°. The compass deviation is O°.On a take-off with zero
wind, the northerly turning error:
22.1.3.0 (1258)
a) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably below 045°.
During deceleration following a landing in Northerly direction, the magnetic
b) is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably above 045°.
compass will indicate :
c) will be nul if the wings are kept level.
a) no apparent turn.
d) will be nul
b) an apparent turn to the East.
c) an apparent turn to the West.
d) a heading fluctuating about 360°. 22.1.3.0 (1265)
When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a magnetic compass tends to
""undershoot,"" when turning onto a southerly heading it tends to
22.1.3.0 (1259)
""overshoot"":1)these compass indications are less reliable in the northern
During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly direction, the magnetic
hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.2)these compass oscillations
compass will indicate :
following a lateral gust are not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.3)
a) no apparent turn.
this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction of the compass. 4) this
b) an apparent turn to the East.
behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung compass.The correct statements are :
c) an apparent turn to the West.
a) 2 and 3.
d) a heading fluctuating about 180°.
b) 1, 2, and 4.
c) 2, 3, and 4.
22.1.3.0 (1260) d) 1 and 3.
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
22.1.3.0 (1266)
a) an apparent turn to the North.
Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:
b) an apparent turn to the South.
a) in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading
c) no apparent turn.
b) due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headings
d) a heading fluctuating about 270°.
c) due to Schüler type oscillations
d) of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose
22.1.3.0 (1261)
In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a Westerly
22.1.3.0 (1267)
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to coincide the indications of:
a) an apparent turn to the South.
a) compass north and magnetic north.
b) an apparent turn to the North.
b) compass north and true north.
c) no apparent turn.
c) true north and magnetic north.
d) a heading fluctuating about 270°.
d) compass north and the lubber line.

22.1.3.0 (1262)
22.1.3.0 (1268)
In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly
In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic compass on the northern
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
hemisphere is:
a) an apparent turn to the North.
a) equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.
b) an apparent turn to the South.
b) none on a 270° heading in a left turn.
c) no apparent turn.
c) none on a 090° heading in a right turn.
d) a heading fluctuating about 090°.
d) equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn.

22.1.3.0 (1263)
22.1.3.0 (1269)
The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is corrected by using :
Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible :
a) soft iron pieces
a) deviation.
b) hard iron pieces
b) variation.
c) pairs of permanent magnets
c) regulation.
d) magnetized needles
d) acceleration.

103
22.1.3.0 (1270) transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the b) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a
earth's magnetic field.1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars2- the circular scanning screen.
primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)3- the information can be used c) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground
by a ""flux gate"" compass or a directional gyro4- the flux gate valve casing is reflection is measured.
dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis5- the accuracy on the value of the d) a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
magnetic field indication is less than 0,5%Which of the following combinations transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.
contains all of the correct statements?
a) 2002-03-05
22.1.4.0 (1276)
b) 1 - 3 - 4 - 5
Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:
c) 05-Mar
a) SHF (Super High Frequency).
d) 2001-04-05
b) VLF (Very Low Frequency).
c) HF (High Frequency).
22.1.4.0 (1271) d) UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels
are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to:
22.1.4.0 (1277)
a) account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to
The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:
the reading.
a) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
b) place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.
b) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
c) change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
c) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
d) compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables
d) 5 GHz.
length.

22.1.4.0 (1278)
22.1.4.0 (1272)
The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:
The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the :
a) descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
a) radio altimeter.
b) passes over the outer marker.
b) high altitude radio altimeter.
c) descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
c) weather radar.
d) passes over the ILS inner marker.
d) primary radar.

22.1.4.0 (1279)
22.1.4.0 (1273)
The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision approaches:1 operate in the
a) frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
1540-1660 MHz range.2 are of the pulsed type.3 are of the frequency modulation
b) amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
type.4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet
c) pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
between 0 and 500 ft.The combination of the correct statements is :
d) a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
a) 3, 5
b) 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4 22.1.4.0 (1280)
d) 1, 2, 5 A radio altimeter can be defined as a :
a) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
b) self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
22.1.4.0 (1274)
c) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
The data supplied by a radio altimeter:
d) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
a) indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
b) concerns only the decision height.
c) is used only by the radio altimeter indicator. 22.1.4.0 (1281)
d) is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode. For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the ..
a) Height indication is removed
b) DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds
22.1.4.0 (1275)
c) DH lamp flashes red
In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is
d) Audio warning signal sounds
based upon:
a) a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the

104
22.1.4.0 (1282) 22.2.1.0 (1288)
During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the pilot, while still looking
an indication of the true: outside, to have:
a) height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. a) a synthetic view of the instrument procedure.
b) height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. b) a flying and flight path control aid.
c) height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. c) a monitoring of engine data.
d) altitude of the aircraft. d) a monitoring only during Cat III precision approaches.

22.1.5.0 (1283) 22.2.1.0 (1289)

Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND) For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic heading, the flight director
displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD computer takes into account:1- track deviation2- rate of track closure3- rate of
(Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight change of track closure4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unitThe
Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
statements is : a) 1,2,3
a) 2, 3. b) 1,2,4
b) 3, 4. c) 2,3,4
c) 1, 4. d) 1,3,4
d) 1, 2.
22.2.1.0 (1290)
22.1.5.0 (1284) The essential components of a flight director are :1- a computer2- an automatic
The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: pilot3- an autothrottle4- command barsThe combination of correct statements is :
a) piloting. a) 1,4
b) weather situation. b) 1,2
c) engines and alarms. c) 2,4
d) systems. d) 2,3

22.1.6.0 (1285) 22.2.1.0 (1291)

All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management
System (FMS) is the most advanced system , it can be defined as a:
a) global 3-D Flight Management System
b) management system optimized in the vertical plane
c) management system optimized in the horizontal plane
d) global 2-D Flight Management System
The ""heading hold"" mode is selected on the flight director (FD) with a course to
steer of 180°. Your aircraft holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD:
a) is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading 180°
b) is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°
c) is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20°
d) cannot be centered

22.2.0.0 (1286) 22.2.1.0 (1292)

When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane
equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the:
a) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of
elevator.
b) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
c) true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.
d) indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.
22.2.1.0 (1287)
Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of
command bars on the following instrument:
a) ADI Attitude Display Indicator.
b) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.
c) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.
d) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.
Mode ""Localizer ARM"" active on Flight Director means:
a) System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing
center line
b) Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
c) Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline
d) Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears
22.2.1.0 (1293)
An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars),
heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the
vertical trend bar :
a) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the
bank angle calculated by the flight director.
b) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading
360°.
c) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

105
d) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected
heading.
22.2.1.0 (1294)
The position of a Flight Director command bars:
a) indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.
b) repeats the ADI and HSI information
c) enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
d) only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.
22.2.1.0 (1295)
On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:
a) upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
b) upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).
c) upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).
d) control panel of the flight director only.
22.2.1.0 (1300)
The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:
a) ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)
b) HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)
c) RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)
d) ILS (Instrument Landing System)
22.2.1.0 (1301)
(For this question use annex 022-10217A)After having programmed your flight
director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) are
as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the
command bars indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :
a) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic
airplane.
b) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the symbolic airplane.
c) increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.
d) decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre on the horizon.

22.2.1.0 (1296)
22.2.1.0 (1302)
The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:
(For this question use annex 022-11232A)After having programmed your flight
a) allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
director, you see that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director indicator) are
b) about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis.
as represented in diagram N°1 of the appended annex. On this instrument, the
c) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° intercept angle.
command bars indicate that you must :
d) allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle.
a) increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command
bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
22.2.1.0 (1297) b) increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the right until the command bars
(For this question use annex 022-9768A)An aircraft is under guidance mode recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
following a VOR radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in the c) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left until the command bars
enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the aircraft is : recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
a) experiencing a leftside wind. d) decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the right until the command bars
b) located to the leftside of the selected radial. recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
c) located to the rightside of the selected radial.
d) experiencing rightside wind.
22.2.2.0 (1303)
The synchronization of the autopilot control channel system :1- enables the
22.2.1.0 (1298) prevention of jerks during disengagement 2- enables the cancellation of rudder
The flight director indicates the : control signals3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement4- functions in
a) optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial. the heading, navigation, approach modesThe combination regrouping all the
b) optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial. correct statements is:
c) path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time. a) 3, 4
d) path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance. b) 2, 4
c) 1, 4
22.2.1.0 (1299) d) 2, 3
For this question use annex (022-10179A)Four scenarios of VOR axis interception
are represented in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the optimal 22.2.2.0 (1304)
interception path calculated by a flight director is number : (For this question use annex 022-3880A)The block diagram of an auto-pilot is
a) 2 shown in the annex.For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law
b) 1 is the relationship between the deflection of the control surface commanded by the
c) 4 computer (BETA c) and the:
d) 3 a) offset EPSILON at the computer input.
b) pilot command E.
c) aircraft response S.
d) real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback).
106
22.2.2.0 (1305) b) by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer control panel.
Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the c) automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.
autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew : d) if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the radio altimeter at a higher speed
a) during ground roll. than the one selected.
b) during the flare.
c) at the decision height.
22.2.2.0 (1312)
d) at the outer marker.
When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot
enables :
22.2.2.0 (1306) a) aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and
A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for possibly automatic trim.
cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: b) aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.
a) heading and to hold the altitude c) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
b) heading d) all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-navigation course
c) altitude lines.
d) heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function
22.2.2.0 (1313)
22.2.2.0 (1307) An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of:
An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot : a) piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes.
a) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll b) piloting only.
b) ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls c) navigation.
the power d) piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the human pilot.
c) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out
d) and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the
22.2.2.0 (1314)
human pilot controls the power
When the auto-pilot is engaged, the role of the automatic trim is to:
a) relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
22.2.2.0 (1308) b) relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect
A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a much larger c) react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode
power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as : d) synchronize the longitudinal loop
a) a servomechanism.
b) an amplifier.
22.2.2.0 (1315)
c) a feedback control circuit.
The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of :1-
d) an autopilot.
vertical speed2- altitude3- attitude4- bank5- headingThe combination which
regroups all of the correct statements is :
22.2.2.0 (1309) a) 2001-02-05
The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot takes place : b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 5
a) at a constant heading c) 05-Mar
b) at a constant magnetic course d) 2002-03-04
c) according to an interception versus radio deviation law
d) according to an interception versus range and angular
22.2.2.0 (1316)
In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures
22.2.2.0 (1310) synchronisation :
The Altitude Select System: a) can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged.
a) Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected b) intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.
altitude c) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.
b) Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained d) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
c) Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
d) Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
22.2.2.0 (1317)
The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as
22.2.2.0 (1311) the relationship between the :
On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is engaged: a) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.
a) by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles. b) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servoactuators.
107
c) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control considered:
deflection signals. a) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
d) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane). b) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect.
c) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
d) ""fail hard"" or with failure effect and disconnection.
22.2.2.0 (1318)
In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode display
devices, the following fundamental elements :1- Airflow valve2- Sensors3- 22.2.2.0 (1323)
Comparators4- Computers5- Amplifiers6- Servo-actuatorsThe combination In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two autopilots, the
regrouping all the correct statements is: system is considered:
a) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 a) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
b) 2, 3, 4, 5 b) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
c) 1, 3, 4, 6 c) ""fail hard"" or without failure effect and disconnection.
d) 1, 2, 6 d) ""fail soft"" with minimized failure effect.

22.2.2.0 (1319) 22.2.2.0 (1324)

The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:
calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more a) autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height.
significant as the :1- difference between the reference attitude and the b) glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing.
instantaneous attitude is high.2- rate of change of the difference between the c) autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height.
reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.3- temperature is low.4- d) Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until
pressure altitude is high.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: landing.
a) 1,2.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
22.2.2.0 (1325)
c) 1, 2, 3.
In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input :
d) 2, 3, 4.
a) proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current
heading but not exceeding a given value.
22.2.2.0 (1320) b) of a fixed value equal to 27°.
The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in c) of a fixed value equal to 20°.
order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the :1- d) proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value.
difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude
and the instantaneous attitude is high.2 - variation speed of the difference
22.2.2.0 (1326)
between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous
An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of
attitude is high.3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the
its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called ""FAIL...:
instantaneous altitude is high.4 - variation speed of the difference between the
a) ""OPERATIONAL""
reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high.The combination
b) ""PASSIVE""
regrouping the correct statements is:
c) ""SAFE""
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
d) ""REDUNDANT""
b) 1 and 2.
c) 3 and 4.
d) 1, 2 and 3. 22.2.2.0 (1327)
An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually
in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called ""FAIL....""
22.2.2.0 (1321)
a) ""PASSIVE""
When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is
b) ""OPERATIONAL""
considered:
c) ""SAFE""
a) ""fail soft"" or with minimized failure effect.
d) ""REDUNDANT""
b) ""fail passive"" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
c) ""fail survival"" or without failure effect with function always ensured.
d) ""fail safe"" with failure effect without disconnection. 22.2.2.0 (1328)
A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:
a) at approximately 100 ft.
22.2.2.0 (1322)
b) at the decision height.
In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are used, the system is

108
c) on ground. c) guiding the airplane path.
d) when going around. d) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.

22.2.2.0 (1329) 22.2.2.0 (1335)

A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle ensure From a flight mechanics point of view, the ""guidance"" functions of a transport
good performance from the final approach : airplane autopilot consist in:
a) during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete a) monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of
stop. space (path).
b) until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected. b) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity.
c) until the flare. c) monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space
d) until reaching decision height. (path).
d) stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre.
22.2.2.0 (1330)
When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the ""cone of 22.2.2.0 (1336)
confusion"" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot : An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:
a) temporarily switches over to the heading mode. a) for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.
b) is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system. b) on multipilot airplanes.
c) remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial. c) for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
d) is temporarily disconnected. d) on airplanes over 5.7 t.

22.2.2.0 (1331) 22.2.2.0 (1337)

The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions :1- Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
pitch attitude hold 2- pressure altitude hold3- horizontal wing hold4- heading hold stabilization are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- displayed
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : heading or inertial track holding4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding5-
a) 1, 3 yaw damping6- VOR axis holdingThe combination regrouping all the correct
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 statements is:
c) 1, 2, 3 a) 1, 2 and 5.
d) 1, 4 b) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d) 2, 4, and 5.
22.2.2.0 (1332)
During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the
: 22.2.2.0 (1338)
a) radio altimeter. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane
b) GPS (Global Positioning System). guidance are:1- pitch attitude holding2- horizontal wing holding3- indicated
c) encoding altimeter. airspeed or Mach number holding4- altitude holding5- VOR axis holding6- yaw
d) altimeter. dampingThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 3, 4 and 5.
b) 1, 2, and 6.
22.2.2.0 (1333)
c) 1, 2, 3 and 6.
A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5.
carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot
will :
a) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment. 22.2.2.0 (1339)
b) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment. When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:1-
c) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment. cancel the hinge moment of the elevator2- ease as much as possible the load of the
d) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit. servo-actuator 3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the
autopilot disengagement The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 3.
22.2.2.0 (1334)
b) 3.
The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of :
c) 1 and 3.
a) stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.
d) 1 and 2.
b) monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

109
22.2.2.0 (1340) c) 1 and 3.
A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode d) 2 and 3.
when:1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision
height is reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a
22.2.2.0 (1344)
constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:1- there is a fault in the
automatically.3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the
electrical power supply2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off3- there
flare.4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30
is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel4- there is a fault in the attitude
ft.5- the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically.The combination
reference unitThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4.
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1, 2, 4.
b) 3, 4 and 5.
c) 2, 3, 4.
c) 1 and 4.
d) 1, 3, 4.
d) 2, 3 and 5.

22.2.2.0 (1345)
22.2.2.0 (1341)
An autopilot is selected ""ON"" in mode ""altitude hold,"" the pilot alters the
A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:1- the
barometric pressure set on the sub-scale of his altimeter the:
autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is
a) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure
reached then is disengaged automatically.2- the autothrottle maintains a constant
information from the static source
speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged automatically.3- the
b) aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes its pressure information from
autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare.4- the autothrottle
the altimeter corrected to standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa
decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft.5- the flare and the
c) aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the autopilot takes its pressure
ground roll are performed automatically.The combination regrouping all the
information from the altimeter
correct statements is:
d) mode altitude hold will disengage
a) 3, 4 and 5.
b) 1 and 2.
c) 2, 3 and 5. 22.2.3.0 (1346)
d) 1 and 4. The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs
defined by attitude control laws such as :1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may
combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control data sources2-
22.2.2.0 (1342)
the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability3- the protections apply to
When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around :1- the autothrottle
pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed4- these laws do not apply to the
reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around)
whole flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
switch in order to recover the maximum thrust2- the autopilot monitors the climb
a) 1, 2, 3
and the rotation of the airplane3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and
b) 2, 3
reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag4- the pilot performs the
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
climb and the rotation of the airplane5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and
d) 1, 3, 4
reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the dragThe combination regrouping
all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 5. 22.2.4.0 (1347)
b) 1, 4 and 5. The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:
c) 1, 3 and 4. a) controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input
d) 1, 2 and 3. signal.
b) controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
c) controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
22.2.2.0 (1343)
d) controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input signal.
The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is carried out by:1- the
autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS)
or Mach number2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant calibrated 22.2.4.0 (1348)
airspeed (CAS) or Mach number3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with information regarding the:
glide path holding mode4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding a) yaw damper action on the rudder
modeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: b) rudder displacement by the rudder pedals
a) 1 and 4. c) yaw damper action only on the ground
b) 2 and 4. d) rudder position

110
22.2.5.0 (1349)
The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function is to:
a) transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.
b) reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).
c) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.
d) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.
22.2.5.0 (1350)
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation of a
Mach trim system :
a) It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.
b) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of
pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.
c) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.
d) It operates over the full aircraft speed range.
22.2.5.0 (1351)
In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is
normally effected about the :
a) pitch axis only.
b) roll and yaw axes only.
c) pitch roll and yaw axes.
d) pitch and roll axes only.
22.2.5.0 (1352)
Mach Trim is a device to compensate for :
a) backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the
elevator to nose-up
b) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal
tail
c) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach
d) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise
22.2.5.0 (1353)
The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to :
a) control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load
b) help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence
c) tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required
d) trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation
22.2.5.0 (1354)
The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge moment
of the :
a) elevator(s)
b) rudder(s)
c) elevator(s) and rudder(s)
d) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
22.2.5.0 (1355)
The purpose of the automatic trim is to:1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the
entire control surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator2- ensure
the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged3- maintain the
same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off within the whole flight envelopeThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 2.
c) 1, 3.
d) 2, 3.
22.2.6.0 (1356)
A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the following functions :1- flow
regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations monitoring)2- automatic starting
sequence 3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments4- thrust
management and protection of operation limits 5- monitoring of the thrust
reversersThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
22.2.6.0 (1357)
The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by :
a) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.
b) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
c) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
d) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.
22.2.6.0 (1358)
An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :
a) increases.
b) decreases.
c) remains constant.
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature.
22.2.6.0 (1359)
The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are the:
a) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
b) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio).
c) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.
d) fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.
22.2.6.0 (1360)
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a
constant Mach number. If the total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
a) remains constant.
b) increases.
c) decreases.
d) increases if the static temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
lower.
111
22.2.6.0 (1361) a) decreases.
An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The autothrottle maintains a b) increases.
constant Mach number. If the total temperature decreases, the calibrated c) remains constant.
airspeed: d) increases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if
a) remains constant. higher.
b) increases.
c) decreases.
22.2.7.0 (1367)
d) decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
The autothrottle :1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM2- enable to catch
higher.
and to maintain the N2 RPM3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane
indicated airspeed (IAS)4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as
22.2.6.0 (1362) the autopilotThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach a) 1 and 3
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed: b) 2 and 3
a) increases. c) 1 and 4
b) decreases. d) 1, 3 and 4
c) remains constant.
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
22.2.7.0 (1368)
above.
The purpose of Auto Throttle is:
a) to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed
22.2.6.0 (1363) b) automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a c) to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to Auto Pilot
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature increases, the Mach d) to synchronize engines to avoid ""yawing""
number :
a) remains constant.
22.2.7.0 (1369)
b) increases.
In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are engaged, the crew will check
c) decreases.
the :
d) decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, increases if
a) PFD (Primary Flight Display)
lower.
b) ND (Navigation Display).
c) TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
22.2.6.0 (1364) d) throttles position.
An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The autothrottle maintains a
constant calibrated airspeed. If the total temperature decreases, the Mach
22.2.7.0 (1370)
number :
The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a transport airplane has the
a) remains constant.
following mode(s) :1- capture and holding of speeds2- capture and holding of
b) increases.
Mach number3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack4- capture and holding
c) decreases.
of N1 or EPR (Engine Power Ratio)5- capture and holding of flight pathsThe
d) increases if the outside temperature is higher than the standard temperature, decreases if
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
lower.
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
22.2.6.0 (1365) c) 2, 4
An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle maintains a constant Mach d) 1, 4, 5
number. If the total temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed :
a) decreases.
22.3.1.0 (1371)
b) increases.
Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring action but
c) remains constant.
not immediately, are signalled by the colour:
d) decreases if the static temperature is lower than the standard temperature, increases if
a) amber
higher.
b) red
c) green
22.2.6.0 (1366) d) flashing red
An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated
airspeed. If the total temperature remains constant, the Mach number :

112
22.3.2.0 (1372) 22.3.3.0 (1377)
A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude warning device. This The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from:
system will warn the crew about :1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
during both climb and descent.2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during b) 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
climb only.3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.4 - a wrong c) 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
landing configuration.5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected d) 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
altitude.The combination regrouping the correct statements is:
a) 1,5
22.3.3.0 (1378)
b) 3,4
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound
c) 2
signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
d) 1,3,4
a) DON'T SINK repetitive only
b) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
22.3.2.0 (1373) c) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
An ""altitude warning system"" must at least warn the crew :1- when approaching d) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second
the pre-selected altitude2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast3- level
in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least by an
aural warning)4- in case of excessive vertical speed5- when approaching the
22.3.3.0 (1379)
ground with the gear retractedThe combination regrouping all the correct
A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when mandatorily installed on board
statements is :
an aircraft, must in all cases generate :
a) 1, 3
a) at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be added
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) a sound alarm or a visual alarm
c) 2, 4, 5
c) a sound and visual alarm
d) 1, 3, 4
d) a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be

22.3.2.0 (1374)
22.3.3.0 (1380)
The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural warning
The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is governed by
to the pilot when the:
laws taking the aircraft height into account as well as :1- the descent rate2- the
a) airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.
climb rate3- the aircraft configuration4- the selected engine rpmThe combination
b) airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.
of correct statements is :
c) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.
a) 1,3
d) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,4
22.3.3.0 (1375) d) 2,3
The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :1 - vertical speed2 - radio
altimeter height3 - pressure altitude4 - glidepath deviation 5 - gear and flaps
22.3.3.0 (1381)
position6 - angle of attackThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is
If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain
:
and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is
a) 1,2,4,5
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides
b) 1,3,4,5,6
the following aural warning signals :
c) 1,2,5,6
a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
d) 2,3,4,6
b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK""
c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
22.3.3.0 (1376) d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice)
The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following modes :1- excessive
descent rate 2- excessive rate of terrain closure3- excessive angle of attack4- too
22.3.3.0 (1382)
high descent attitude 5- loss of altitude after take-off6- abnormal gear/flaps
If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) activates, and alerts the pilot
configuration7- excessive glidepath deviationThe combination regrouping all the
with an aural warning ""DON'T SINK"" (twice times), it is because :
correct statements is:
a) during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft has started to loose
a) 1,2,5,6,7
altitude.
b) 1,2,4,6,7
b) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear retracted.
c) 3,4,5,6
d) 2,3,5,7
113
c) at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of descent. a) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6.
d) the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing-flap selected. b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
c) 1,2 and 4.
d) 3, 4, 5 and 6.
22.3.3.0 (1383)
A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of :1 - keeping the altitude 22.3.3.0 (1388)
at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.2 - The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:1- Air Data
dangerous ground proximity.3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed) 2- Radio Altimeter3- NAV/ILS
approach.4 - wrong landing configuration.5 - descent below glidepath, within (Glide Slope)4- NAV/VOR5- Flap (position)6- Angle of Attack7- Landing Gear
limits.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : (position)The combination of correct statement is:
a) 2,3,4,5 a) 1,2,3,5,7
b) 2 b) 2,3,4,5,7
c) 1,3,4 c) 1,2,5,6,7
d) 2,5 d) 1,2,5,6,7

22.3.3.0 (1384) 22.3.4.0 (1389)

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a proximity alarm system which
height span ranging from : detects a ""traffic"" when the conflicting traffic is equipped with a :
a) 50 ft to 2 500 ft a) serviceable SSR transponder
b) the ground to 1 000 ft b) serviceable weather radar
c) 30 ft to 5 000 ft c) SELCAL system
d) the ground to 500 ft d) DME system

22.3.3.0 (1385) 22.3.4.0 (1390)

The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) releases a warning in the following A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:
cases :1- excessive rate of descent2- excessive ground proximity rate3- loss of a) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
altitude after take-off or go-around4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration5- manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
excessive deviation under the glidepath6- abnormal airbrakes configurationThe b) a simple intruding airplane proximity warning.
combination regrouping all the correct statements is: c) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
b) 2, 4, 5, 6 d) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 within the horizontal plane only.
d) 3, 4, 5, 6
22.3.4.0 (1391)
22.3.3.0 (1386) Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) :
The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) concerns a) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
aeroplanes which are, depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity :1- transponder
turboprop-powered2- piston-powered3- jet-poweredThe combination regrouping b) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""TOO LOW TERRAIN"" is generated
all the correct statements is : c) In one of the system modes, the warning : ""PULL UP"" is generated
a) 1, 3 d) Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without obtaining clearance from ATC
b) 1
c) 1, 2, 3
22.3.4.0 (1392)
d) 3
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives avoidance resolutions :
a) only in the vertical plane
22.3.3.0 (1387) b) only in the horizontal plane
A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates automatically a distinct c) in horizontal and vertical planes
warning to the flight crew with aural and/or light warning signals in the case of:1- d) based on speed control
an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain2- a dangerous proximity to the
ground3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around4- an abnormal flight
22.3.4.0 (1393)
attitude5- an abnormal landing configuration6- an abnormal deviation below ILS
In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) will give
glide slopeThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
information such as :
114
a) climb/descent 22.3.4.0 (1399)
b) turn left/turn right When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder,
c) too low terrain the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a :
d) glide slope a) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"".
b) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".
c) ""traffic advisory"" only.
22.3.4.0 (1394)
d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".
The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use
of :
a) transponders fitted in the aircraft 22.3.4.0 (1400)
b) airborne weather radar system On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a corrective ""resolution
c) F.M.S. (Flight Management System) advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"":
d) air traffic control radar systems a) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
b) which does not require any action from the pilot but on the contrary asks him not to modify
his current vertical speed rate.
22.3.4.0 (1395)
c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information2-
d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical resolution (RA:
Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination regrouping all
the correct statements is: 22.3.4.0 (1401)
a) 1 On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the preventive ""resolution
b) 1, 2 advisory"" (RA) is a ""resolution advisory"":
c) 1, 2, 3 a) that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the current vertical rate
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 but does not require any change to be made to that rate.
b) asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
c) asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
22.3.4.0 (1396)
d) asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides :1- traffic information
(TA: Traffic Advisory)2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)3- vertical
resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)4- ground proximity warningThe combination 22.3.4.0 (1402)
regrouping all the correct statements is: An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
a) 1, 3 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :
b) 1, 2 a) a yellow full circle.
c) 1, 2, 3 b) a blue or white empty lozenge.
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) a blue or white full lozenge.
d) a red full square.
22.3.4.0 (1397)
The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives information :1- 22.3.4.0 (1403)
about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder2- from the radio- A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
altimeter3- specific to the airplane configuration4- from the inertial unitsThe (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a :
combination regrouping all the correct statements is: a) red full square.
a) 1, 2, 3 b) blue or white full lozenge.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 c) blue or white empty lozenge.
c) 1, 2, 4 d) red full circle.
d) 1, 2
22.3.4.0 (1404)
22.3.4.0 (1398) A ""close traffic advisory"" is displayed on the display device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic
When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a transponder without altitude Collision Avoidance System) by :
reporting capability, the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a : a) a blue or white empty lozenge.
a) ""traffic advisory"" only. b) an orange full circle.
b) ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"". c) a blue or white full lozenge.
c) ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"". d) a red full square.
d) ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

115
22.3.4.0 (1405) b) 2,3
The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:1- a specific dedicated c) 1,4
screen 2- a screen combined with the weather radar3- a variometer represented d) 1,2
on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and
Resolution Advisory (RA)4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System)
22.3.6.0 (1411)
screenThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of a modern transport
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
airplane receives information about the: 1- angle of attack2- engine R.P.M.3-
b) 1, 2 and 3.
configuration4- pitch and bank attitude5- sideslipThe combination regrouping all
c) 3 and 4.
the correct statements is:
d) 1 and 3.
a) 1 and 3.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
22.3.6.0 (1406) c) 1 and 5.
The stick shaker calculator receives the following informations :1- mass of the d) 1, 2, 3 and 4.
airplane2- angle of attack3- wing flap deflection4- position of the landing gear5-
total air temperature6- pressure altitudeThe combination regrouping all the
22.3.6.0 (1412)
correct statements is:
The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric signal varying with:1- the
a) 2, 3
angular position of a wind vane2- the deviation between the airplane flight
b) 2, 3, 5
attitude and the path calculated by the inertial unit3- a probe differential pressure
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
depending on the variation of the angle of attackThe combination regrouping all
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
the correct statements is:
a) 1 and 3.
22.3.6.0 (1407) b) 1, 2 and 3.
In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect the regulatory margins c) 1.
between stall and natural buffet.The warning system supplies the corresponding d) 2 and 3.
alarm. The required margin related to the stall speed is:
a) 7%
22.3.6.0 (1413)
b) 5%
The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the forward part of the
c) 10%
fuselage supply an electrical signal indicating:1- the angular position of a wind
d) 3%
vane2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the angle
of attack3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the variation of the
22.3.6.0 (1408) speedThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
The stall warning system receives information about the :1- airplane angle of a) 1, 2.
attack2- airplane speed3- airplane bank angle4- airplane configuration5- load b) 1, 2, 3.
factor on the airplaneThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: c) 2, 3.
a) 1, 4 d) 1, 3.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
22.3.6.0 (1414)
d) 1, 3, 5
The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears in the form of:
a) control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting.
22.3.6.0 (1409) b) an orange light on the warning display.
A stall warning system is based on a measure of : c) a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated buffeting.
a) aerodynamic incidence. d) a bell type warning.
b) airspeed.
c) attitude.
22.3.6.0 (1415)
d) groundspeed.
The stall warning system of a large transport airplane includes:1- an angle of
attack sensor 2- a computer3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer4- an
22.3.6.0 (1410) independent pitot probe5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating
The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator System are :1- Mach Meter systemThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
indication2- Angle of Attack3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)4- Aircraft configuration a) 1, 2, 5.
(Flaps/Slats)The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : b) 1, 2, 4.
a) 2,4

116
c) 1, 4. 22.3.8.0 (1422)
d) 1, 2, 4, 5. The flight data recorders must preserve the conversation and aural warnings of the
last :
a) 30 minutes of operation
22.3.7.0 (1416)
b) 25 hours of operation
Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, cockpit voice and sound
c) flight
warnings may respectively be recorded during at least:
d) 48 hours of operation
a) 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.
b) 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns.
c) 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns. 22.3.8.0 (1423)
d) 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and warnings horns According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat
multi-engined aircraft having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 1st
April 1998 will record:1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or
22.3.7.0 (1417)
received by the cockpit crew2- the audio environment of the cockpit3- the cabin
The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:
attendants communications in the cabin via the interphone4- the flight crew
a) before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.
members communications in the cockpit via the interphone5- the flight crew
b) when taking-off.
members communications in the cockpit via the public address system6- the audio
c) when the landing gear is retracted.
signals identifiying the navigation or approach aidsThe combination regrouping the
d) when lining up.
correct statements is:
a) 1,2,4,5,6
22.3.7.0 (1418) b) 1,2,3,4,5,6
The flight data recorder must automatically stop data recording when the: c) 1
a) airplane cannot any longer move by its own power. d) 1,3,4,5
b) main gear shock strut compresses when touching the runway.
c) landing gear is extended and locked.
22.3.8.0 (1424)
d) airplane clears the runway.
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit Voice Recorder of a 50 seat
multi-engined aircraft, having been granted an airworthiness certificate after 1st
22.3.7.0 (1419) April 1998, shall start recording :
In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data recorder is to be located a) Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power until flight
in the aircraft : completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move under its own power.
a) as far to the rear as practicable b) Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment when the wheels touch
b) as far forward as practicable the ground again.
c) as near to the landing gear as practicable c) From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio shutdown after the flight.
d) at the right or left wing tip d) When the pilot selects the ""CVR: ON"" during engine start until the pilot selects the ""CVR:
OFF"" during the engine shut down.
22.3.7.0 (1420)
Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate of which is subsequent to 22.3.8.0 (1425)
31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to store the recorded A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :1. the information exchanged by the
data for a minimum of the last : cabin crew2. the conversations between the crew members and voice
a) 25 hours. communications transmitted from or received on the flight deck by radio3. the
b) 10 hours. announcements made via the public address even if it has not been selected4. the
c) 30 minutes. conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit5. the captain conversations
d) 60 minutes. onlyThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 2, 4
22.3.8.0 (1421) b) 3, 4
The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:1. a microphone2. a recorder in c) 1, 2
compliance with the shock and fire resistance standards3. an independent d) 1, 5
battery4. a flight data recorderThe combination regrouping all the correct
statements is: 22.3.8.0 (1426)
a) 1, 2 The voice recorder records on four different channels the following information:1-
b) 1, 4 aural warnings2- radio communications3- conversations between the crew
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 members through the cockpit interphone4- announcements to the passengersThe
d) 2, 4 combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
117
a) 1, 2, 3, 4. 22.4.1.0 (1433)
b) 1, 3. The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a gas turbine engined
c) 1, 4. powerplant is:
d) 1, 2, 3. a) an aneroid capsule.
b) a differential capsule.
c) a Bourdon tube.
22.4.1.0 (1427)
d) a bellows sensor.
The ""Bourdon tube"" is used to measure :
a) pressure.
b) temperature. 22.4.1.0 (1434)
c) quantity. A ""Bourdon Tube"" is used in:
d) a flow rate. a) pressure sensors
b) vibration detectors
c) smoke detectors
22.4.1.0 (1428)
d) turbine temperature probes
If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers atmospheric pressure, the
cause is probably,
a) leak in pressure gauge line. 22.4.2.0 (1435)
b) too high float level. The yellow sector of the temperature gauge corresponds to:
c) fuel of too low volatility. a) an exceptional operating range.
d) ice in induction system. b) a normal operating range.
c) a frequent operating range.
d) a forbidden operating range.
22.4.1.0 (1429)
A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures :
a) absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve. 22.4.2.0 (1436)
b) absolute airpressure entering the carburettor. The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to:
c) fuel pressure leaving the carburettor. a) a special operating range.
d) vacuum in the carburettor. b) a normal operating range.
c) an exceptional operating range.
d) a forbidden operating range.
22.4.1.0 (1430)
Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the pressure
measured (low, medium or high)Classify the following sensors by order of 22.4.2.0 (1437)
increasing pressure for which they are suitable :1- bellows type2- Bourdon tube The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature on an aircraft equipped
type3- aneroid capsule type with turbojets are:
a) 3,1,2 a) thermocouples.
b) 1,2,3 b) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
c) 3,2,1 c) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.
d) 2,1,3 d) capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with temperature.

22.4.1.0 (1431) 22.4.2.0 (1438)

Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the EGT (Exhaust Gas
pressure diaphragm is the : Temperature) is carried out at the :
a) manifold pressure gauge. a) high pressure turbine outlet.
b) oil pressure gauge. b) combustion chamber outlet.
c) fuel pressure gauge. c) combustion chamber intake.
d) oil thermometer. d) high pressure chamber intake.

22.4.1.0 (1432) 22.4.2.0 (1439)

The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a low pressure fuel pump is: Given :M is the Mach numberTs is the static temperatureTt is the total temperature
a) an aneroid capsule. a) Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
b) a bellows sensor. b) Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)
c) a Bourdon tube. c) Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)
d) a differential capsule. d) Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)
118
22.4.2.0 (1440) b) two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.
A thermocouple type thermometer consists of: c) a three wire coil.
a) two metal conductors of different type connected at one point. d) a single wire coil.
b) two metal conductors of the same type connected at two points.
c) a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.
22.4.2.0 (1447)
d) a single-wire metal winding.
The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :
a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
22.4.2.0 (1441) static temperature.
The total air temperature (TAT) is always : b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
a) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed temperature.
(CAS). c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
b) higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed temperature.
(CAS). d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
c) higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. temperature.
d) lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.
22.4.2.0 (1448)
22.4.2.0 (1442) In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally measured with :1-
The static air temperature (SAT) is : resistance thermometers2- thermocouple thermometers3- reactance
a) an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius thermometers4- capacitance thermometers5- mercury thermometersThe
b) a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
c) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius a) 1, 2
d) a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 2, 3
22.4.2.0 (1443)
In order to measure temperature the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge
utilises a : 22.4.2.0 (1449)
a) thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals. The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature indicator is that it:
b) wheatstone bridge circuit. a) carries out an independent measurement of the supply voltage.
c) ratiometer circuit. b) is simple.
d) bourdon tube. c) can operate without an electrical power supply.
d) is very accurate.
22.4.2.0 (1444)
To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbines are equipped 22.4.2.0 (1450)
with thermometers which work on the following principle: A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the ""hot junction""
a) thermocouple and the ""cold junction"" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in
b) bi-metallic strip temperature values provided that the temperature of the:
c) liquid expansion a) cold junction is maintained constant.
d) gas pressure b) hot junction is maintained constant.
c) cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.
d) hot junction is maintained at 15 °C.
22.4.2.0 (1445)
The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head temperature) probe is the :
a) temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its position in the engine 22.4.2.0 (1451)
block. The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not modified if one or several
b) average temperature within the whole set of cylinders. intermediate metals are inserted in the circuit provided that:
c) temperature of the exhaust gases. a) contact points are maintained at equal temperature between these different
d) temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the outside air temperature is metals.
between -5°C and 10°C. b) these metals are not the same as those constituting the thermocouple.
c) these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than that of the cold source.
d) these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than that of the cold source.
22.4.2.0 (1446)
A thermocouple can be made of:
a) two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points.
119
22.4.3.0 (1452) b) a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM, the indicator is provided with a motor
A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: which drives a magnetic tachometer
a) set several engines to the same speed. c) a DC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator is a simple voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
b) reduce the vibration of each engine. d) an AC voltage varying with the RPM , the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge
c) reduce the rpm of each engine. and is provided with a voltmeter
d) achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.
22.4.3.0 (1458)
22.4.3.0 (1453) The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red arc
The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the EGT (Exhaust Gas within the arc normally used (green arc)In the RPM range corresponding to this
Temperature) indicators: small red arc the :
a) moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and remains positioned at the a) propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden
maximum value that has been reached. b) rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode
b) shows the limit value not to be exceeded. c) rating is the minimum usable in cruise
c) allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted during take-off. d) propeller efficency is minimum at this rating
d) shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.
22.4.3.0 (1459)
22.4.3.0 (1454) The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of :1- a magnetic sensor supplying an
In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer indicator :1- the transmitter is a induced AC voltage2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage3- a single-phase AC
direct current generator2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive generator supplying an AC voltage4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a
speed 3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive speed4- the speed three-phase voltageThe combination of correct statements is :
indicating element is a galvanometer5. the speed indicating element is an a) 1,2,3,4
asynchronous motor driving a magnetic tachometerThe combination regrouping all b) 2,3,4
the correct statements is: c) 1,4
a) 3, 5 d) 1,2,3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 5
22.4.3.0 (1460)
d) 1, 4
On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed propeller, the RPM indicator
enables :
22.4.3.0 (1455) a) control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller RPM.
The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : b) control of power.
a) necessity of providing a power supply source. c) selection of engine RPM.
b) generation of spurious signals at the commutator. d) on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine synchronisation.
c) influence of temperature on the indication.
d) high influence of line resistance on the indication.
22.4.3.0 (1461)
The operating principle of an ""electronic"" tachometer is to measure the:
22.4.3.0 (1456) a) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3-phase AC generator, connected magnetic field.
to RPM indicator, is : b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
a) a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator c) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic tachometer d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
b) a DC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator is a plain voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
c) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator converts the signal
22.4.3.0 (1462)
into square pulses which are then counted
The operating principle of the ""induction"" type of tachometer is to measure the:
d) an AC voltage varying with the RPM, the indicator rectifies the signal via a diode bridge and
a) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an alternator.
is provided with a voltmeter
b) electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
c) frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
22.4.3.0 (1457) d) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a magnetic sensor, connected to an
RPM indicator is :
22.4.3.0 (1463)
a) an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM, the indicator
The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer are:1- the display is not
converts the signal into square pulses which are then counted
sensitive to line resistance2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power
120
supply3- the measurement is independent of temperature variations4- the option c) volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fuel
to use without restriction several indicators connected in parallel to a single d) volume and viscosity of the fuel
transmitterThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4.
22.4.4.0 (1469)
b) 1, 3, 4.
A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas turbine engine initially
c) 1, 2, 3, 4.
measures:
d) 2, 3, 4.
a) volumetric flow by a tally of the impulses
b) mass flow by a tally of the impulses
22.4.3.0 (1464) c) volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed
The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of: d) mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the rotational speed
a) a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.
b) a circular magnet with four poles.
22.4.4.0 (1470)
c) the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.
When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the mass fuel flowmeter takes
d) the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.
into account the fuel :
a) density.
22.4.3.0 (1465) b) temperature.
The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:1- easy transmission of the c) pressure.
information.2- independence of the information relative to the airborne electrical d) dielectrical constant.
power supply.3- freedom from any spurious current due to the commutator.The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
22.4.5.0 (1471)
a) 1, 2.
The float type fuel gauges provide information on:
b) 1, 2, 3.
a) volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
c) 2, 3.
b) volume whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
d) 1, 3.
c) mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
d) mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
22.4.3.0 (1466)
The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the suppression
22.4.5.0 (1472)
of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance of line
The capacity fuel gauges provide information:
resistance on the information value3- the independence of the information in
a) on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
relation to the airborne electrical power supply4- the ease of transmission of the
b) on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
c) which is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
a) 1, 3.
d) which varies with the temperature of the fuel.
b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
c) 2, 3, 4.
d) 2, 4. 22.4.5.0 (1473)
The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:
a) capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of dielectric.
22.4.3.0 (1467)
b) current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.
The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator tachometer are:1- the
c) capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried out on the sensor.
presence of spurious signals due to a D.C. generator commutator2- the importance
d) flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.
of line resistance on the information value3- the influence of temperature on the
tachometer informationThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2. 22.4.5.0 (1474)
b) 1, 2, 3. The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by capacitor type contents gauges.
c) 1, 2. The working principle of these sensors is to measure the :
d) 1, 3. a) charge of condensors
b) di-electric resistivity of the fuel
c) height of the fuel
22.4.4.0 (1468)
d) volume of the fuel
The operating principle of Flowmeters, or ""unit flow meters,"" the most commonly
used at the present time, is to measure across their system the :
a) quantity of fuel movement 22.4.5.0 (1475)
b) pressure and temperature of the fuel The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with :1- aircraft attitude2-

121
accelerations3- atmospheric pressure4- temperatureThe combination of correct
statements is :
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 4
d) 1,2
22.4.5.0 (1476)
The principle of capacitor gauges is based on:
a) the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the dielectric
b) the current variation in a Wheastone bridge
c) the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement exercised on the sensor
d) the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line
22.4.5.0 (1477)
The advantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- easy construction2-
independence of indications with regard to airplane attitude3- independence of
indications with regard to the accelerations 4- independence of indications with
regard to temperature variations5- independence of indications with regard to
vibrationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4
22.4.5.0 (1478)
The disavantages of an ""electric"" fuel (float) gauge are :1- the design is
complex2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude variations3- the
indications are influenced by the accelerations 4- the indications are influenced by
temperature variations5- that an alternative current supply is necessaryThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1
22.4.5.0 (1479)
In an average or heavy weight transport airplane, generally, the fuel quantity is
measured by ""capacitor"" gauges because these give :1- indications partly
independent of fuel temperature variations2- indications almost independent of
the airplane's attitude and accelerations3- indications expressed in densityThe
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2
d) 1, 3
22.4.5.0 (1480)
The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel in a transport airplane
equipped with ""capacitor"" gauges is that the:
a) capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
immersed.
b) internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
immersed.
c) capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its plates.
d) electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
immersed.
22.4.5.0 (1481)
If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the capacitor gauges indicate:
a) a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.
b) the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.
c) a mass equal to zero.
d) a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.
22.4.5.0 (1482)
The advantages of an electric float gauge are:1- ease of manufacture2-
independence of the indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power
system if the measurement is made by a ratiometer3- independence of the
indication relative to the variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a galvanometer4- independence of the indication relative
to temperature variationsThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
22.4.5.0 (1483)
The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a capacity gauging system
can be graduated directly in weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is:
a) twice that of air and varies directly with density.
b) the same as that of air and varies directly with density.
c) twice that of air and varies inversely with density.
d) the same as that of air and varies inversely with density.
22.4.6.0 (1484)
Torque can be determined by measuring the :
a) oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine
gearbox.
b) phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft.
c) frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.
d) quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft.
22.4.8.0 (1485)
The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring system is based on the use of:
a) 2 accelerometers.
b) 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.
c) 2 high and low frequency filters.
d) a frequency converter.
22.4.8.0 (1486)
In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration produced by
122
the engine is : 31.1.1.1 (1492)
a) amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit indicator. The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
b) inversely proportional to engine speed. a) vertically through the centre of gravity.
c) directly proportional to engine speed. b) vertically through the centre of pressure.
d) fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or filtering. c) vertically through the datum point.
d) always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane.
22.4.8.0 (1487)
A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors (accelerometers). It 31.1.1.1 (1493)
indicates the : The centre of gravity of an aeroplane
a) vibration amplitude at a given frequency a) can be allowed to move between defined limits.
b) acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g b) may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority and endorsed in the aeroplane's
c) vibration frequency expressed in Hz certificate of airworthiness.
d) vibration period expressed in seconds c) is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
d) must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution of the load.
22.4.10.0 (1488)
In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic centralized aircraft 31.1.1.1 (1494)
monitor), when a failure occurs in a circuit, the centralized flight management The centre of gravity is the
system:1- releases an aural warning2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on a) point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be concentrated
the overhead panel3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display4- b) centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
processes the failure automaticallyThe combination regrouping all the correct c) focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
statements is: d) neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
a) 1, 2, 3.
b) 1, 3, 4.
31.1.1.2 (1495)
c) 3, 4.
What determines the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane ?
d) 1, 2.
a) The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the neutral point.
b) The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and rudder trim tab.
31.1.1.1 (1489) c) The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
The centre of gravity of a body is that point d) The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
a) through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the body is considered to
act.
31.1.1.2 (1496)
b) where the sum of the moments from the external forces acting on the body is equal to
When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be :
zero.
a) extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
c) where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
b) extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
d) which is always used as datum when computing moments.
c) extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch.
d) extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.
31.1.1.1 (1490)
The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point through which the total mass of
31.1.1.2 (1497)
the aeroplane is said to act. The weight acts in a direction
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator
a) parallel to the gravity vector.
control will :
b) always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
a) become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch
c) at right angles to the flight path.
b) become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch.
d) governed by the distribution of the mass within the aeroplane.
c) become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
d) become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.
31.1.1.1 (1491)
When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total weight will act vertically
31.1.1.2 (1498)
a) through its centre of gravity.
An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will
b) through its centre of pressure.
result in :
c) through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.
a) an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment
d) through a point defined as the datum point.
b) a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.
c) an increase in longitudinal stability.
d) a reduction in power required for a given speed.
123
31.1.1.2 (1499)
During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates
much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that :
a) the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
b) the aeroplane is overloaded.
c) the centre of gravity is too far forward.
d) the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
31.1.1.2 (1500)
If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will:
a) require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption.
b) benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack.
c) require less power for a given airspeed.
d) tend to over rotate during take-off.
31.1.1.2 (1501)
An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely to:
a) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the rearward limit.
b) be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the forward limit.
c) be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.
d) cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.
31.1.2.0 (1502)
The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when it is loaded with a:
a) high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
b) low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
c) low gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
d) high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
31.1.2.0 (1503)
With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be
expected?
a) A decrease in range.
b) A decrease in the landing speed.
c) A decrease of the stalling speed.
d) A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.
31.1.2.1 (1504)
(For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)At
the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined from the
appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a) Forward limit 7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
b) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 27.2% MAC
c) Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
d) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
31.1.2.1 (1505)
At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the leading edge of MAC is at a
position 625.6 inches aft of the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches
determine the position of the CG in relation to to the datum.
a) 645.78 inches aft of datum
b) 20.18 inches aft of datum
c) 605.43 inches aft of datum
d) 228.34 inches aft of datum
31.1.2.1 (1506)
(For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.11)The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this mass the range of
safe CG positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading
manual, is:
a) Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.5% MAC
b) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 26.2% MAC
c) Forward limit 9.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC
d) Forward limit 8.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC
31.1.2.1 (1507)
(For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)A
aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range of safe CG positions, as
determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is :
a) Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
b) Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
c) Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
d) Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
31.1.2.1 (1508)
(For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.11)The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The range of safe CG
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
a) forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC
b) forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.
c) forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.
d) forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC
31.1.2.2 (1509)
The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is 350 kg/m. The width of
the floor area is 2 metres. The floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre.
Which one of the following crates (length x width x height) can be loaded directly
on the floor?
a) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.2 m x 1.2 m x 1.2 m.
b) A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 m.
c) A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x 0.8 m.
d) A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x 0.8 m.
31.1.2.2 (1510)
(For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.9)From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane, the maximum floor
loading intensity for the aft cargo compartment is :
a) 68 kg per square foot.
b) 150 kg per square foot.
c) 68 Lbs per square foot.
d) 68 kg per square metre.
124
31.1.2.2 (1511) a) 416.0 kg
(For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure b) 1015.6 kg
4.9)From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the aft cargo c) 41.6 kg
compartment has a maximum total load of : d) 101.6 kg
a) 4187 kg
b) 9232 kg
31.1.2.2 (1517)
c) 1568 kg
(For this question use annex 031-9613 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)A
d) 3062 kg
pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 cm x 250 cm has a total mass
of 300 kg. The pallet is carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x
31.1.2.2 (1512) 200 cm. Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, calculate how much
(For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure mass may be added to, or must be off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load
4.9)From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum load that intensity to match the maximum permitted distribution load intensity for lower
can be carried in that section of the aft cargo compartment which has a balance deck forward cargo compartement.
arm centroid at : a) 285.5 kg may be added.
a) 835.5 inches is 3062 kg. b) 28.5 kg must be off loaded.
b) 835.5 inches is 6752 kg. c) 28.5 kg may be added.
c) 421.5 inches is 4541 kg. d) 158.3 kg must be off loaded.
d) 421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs.
31.1.2.2 (1518)
31.1.2.2 (1513) The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2.It is planned to load-up a
(For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure cubic container measuring 0,4 m of side.It's maximum gross mass must not
4.9)Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum exceed:(assume g=10m/s2)
running load for the aft section of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is: a) 80 kg
a) 13.12 kg per inch. b) 800 kg
b) 13.15 kg per inch. c) 32 kg
c) 14.65 kg per inch. d) 320 kg
d) 7.18 kg per inch.
31.1.2.2 (1519)
31.1.2.2 (1514) The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2.It is planned to load a
(For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure cubic container each side of which measures 0.5m.Its maximum gross mass must
4.9)Referring to the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, the maximum not exceed:(assume g=10m/s2)
load intensity for the lower forward cargo compartment is: a) 100 kg
a) 68 kg per square foot. b) 1 000 kg
b) 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft compartment. c) 500 kg
c) 150 kg per square foot. d) 5 000 kg
d) 7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft compartment.
31.1.2.3 (1520)
31.1.2.2 (1515) The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that mass to which an aeroplane
The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in an aeroplane is given as may be loaded prior to engine start. It is :
750 kg per square metre. A package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded. a) a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.
Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the floor, which of the b) a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude. Corrections are listed in the
following is the minimum size pallet that can be used ? Flight Manual.
a) 40 cm by 200 cm c) a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard corrections are listed in the Flight
b) 30 cm by 300 cm Manual.
c) 30 cm by 200 cm d) a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature. Corrections are calculated
d) 40 cm by 300 cm from data given in the Flight Manual.

31.1.2.2 (1516) 31.1.2.3 (1521)

The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is given in the Flight Manual The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded, prior to engine start, is :
as 650 kg per square metre. What is the maximum mass of a package which can be a) maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.
safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm by 80 cm? b) maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.

125
c) maximum certificated take - off mass. 31.1.2.4 (1528)
d) maximum regulated take - off mass. For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass without any fuel on
board, other than unusable quantities, is :
a) a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating Manual.
31.1.2.3 (1522)
b) a variable value which is governed by the payload carried.
The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by :
c) a variable value which may limit the payload carried.
a) structural considerations.
d) a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.
b) tyre speed and temperature limitations.
c) bearing strength of the taxiway pavement.
d) taxi distance to take - off point. 31.1.2.4 (1529)
An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic sector, is due to depart from a
high altitude airport in the tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an
31.1.2.4 (1523)
exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting
Considering only structural limitations, on very short legs with minimum take-off
factor(s) in determining the take - off mass ?
fuel, the traffic load is normally limited by:
a) altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.
a) Maximum zero fuel mass.
b) maximum zero fuel mass.
b) Maximum landing mass.
c) maximum certificated take - off mass.
c) Maximum take-off mass.
d) en route obstacle clearance requirements.
d) Actual landing mass.

31.1.2.4 (1530)
31.1.2.4 (1524)
Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the following performance take-off
Considering only structural limitations, on long distance flights (at the aeroplane's
mass limitations:Flaps : 0° 10° 15°Runway: 4100 4400 4600Climb: 4700 4500
maximum range), the traffic load is normally limited by:
4200Masses are in kgStructural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kgThe
a) The maximum take-off mass.
maximum take-off mass is :
b) The maximum zero fuel mass.
a) 4 300 kg
c) The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.
b) 4 100 kg
d) The maximum landing mass.
c) 4 200 kg
d) 4 700 kg
31.1.2.4 (1525)
The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:
31.1.2.5 (1531)
a) strength of the wing root
Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged, movement of the
b) strength of the fuselage
centre of gravity from the forward to the aft limit will cause
c) allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking
a) increased cruise range.
d) total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
b) higher stall speed.
c) lower optimum cruising speed.
31.1.2.4 (1526) d) reduced maximum cruise range.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by structural
31.1.2.5 (1532)
limitations, performance limitations and the strength of the runway.
If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will this movement affect the
b) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of gravity remains within limits after
location of the centre of gravity (cg) on the aeroplane?
the uplift of fuel.
a) It will cause the cg to move aft.
c) The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass when leaving the ramp.
b) It will not affect the cg location.
d) The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the aeroplane excluding traffic load and
c) It will cause the cg to move forward.
useable fuel but including the crew.
d) The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told the information given.

31.1.2.4 (1527)
31.1.2.5 (1533)
The maximum certificated take - off mass is :
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off.
a) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose
b) a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature.
heavy aeroplane
c) a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 .
b) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of centre of gravity it is possible
d) limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.
that the aeroplane will be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
c) If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of the centre of gravity the

126
aeroplane may be unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces for determining the mass of the aircraft:1- Dry operating mass2- Operating
d) The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of gravity is located in the middle massWhich statement is correct:
between the aft and forward limit of centre of gravity a) The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to carry out a specific
flight.
b) The operating mass is the mass of the aeroplane without take-off fuel.
31.1.2.5 (1534)
c) The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel.
Which of the following statements is correct?
d) The operating mass includes the traffic load.
a) A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower speed than a nose
heavy aeroplane
b) The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of gravity in relation to a reference 31.2.1.0 (1540)
point, normally the leading edge of the wing at MAC The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes :
c) The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated from the leading edge of the a) Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment,
wing, where MAC always = the wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage potable water and lavatory chemicals.
and the wing tip b) Unusable fuel and reserve fuel.
d) If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit the aeroplane longitudinal c) Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo.
stability increases. d) Passengers baggage and cargo.

31.1.2.5 (1535) 31.2.1.1 (1541)

Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of gravity
positions on an aeroplane?
a) Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight
conditions.
b) Location of the undercarriage.
c) The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.
d) The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.
While making mass and balance calculation for a particular aeroplane, the term
'Empty Mass' applies to the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus
a) unusable fuel and full operating fluids.
b) all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and traffic load.
c) all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or navigation equipment
installed by manufacturer.
d) all the oil and fuel.

31.1.2.5 (1536) 31.2.1.1 (1542)

In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity: Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?
a) brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and increases the stress in the a) It is a component of dry operating mass.
rotor head b) It is dry operating mass minus fuel load.
b) moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and increases the stress in the rotor head c) It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
c) brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and decreases the stress in the rotor head d) It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load.
d) moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and decreases the stresses in the head
rotors
31.2.1.1 (1543)
In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass' includes the mass of the
31.1.2.5 (1537) aeroplane structure complete with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other
In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will: items of equipment considered to be an integral part of the particular aeroplane
a) decrease longitudinal static stability configuration. Its value is
b) increase longitudinal static stability a) found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as corrected to allow for
c) does not influence longitudinal static stability modifications.
d) not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal b) inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other operating items. It is entered in
the loading manifest.
c) found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel plus fluids contained in closed
31.1.2.5 (1538)
systems.
The mass displacement caused by landing gear extension:
d) printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.
a) creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or pitch-down)
determined by the type of landing gear
b) creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment 31.2.1.1 (1544)
c) does not create a longitudinal moment An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings are made:nose wheel
d) creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment assembly scale 5330 kg left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg right main wheel
assembly scale 12480 kg If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg
with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered in the weight schedule, is
31.2.1.0 (1539)
a) 30180 kg
At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters in particular are available
127
b) 28400 kg all usable fuel and traffic load.
c) 31960 kg b) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all usable
d) 32505 kg fuel.
c) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding all traffic
load.
31.2.1.1 (1545)
d) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding crew and
The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in
crew baggage.
a) the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of changes due to
modifications of the aeroplane.
b) the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to modifications, the aeroplane must be re- 31.2.1.2 (1551)
weighed always. Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less
c) the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by the value of the 'useful load'. a) usable fuel and traffic load.
d) the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by the value of the 'traffic load'. b) usable fuel.
c) traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
d) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
31.2.1.1 (1546)
When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane, the empty mass is defined
as the sum of the: 31.2.1.2 (1552)
a) standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus trapped fluids plus The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew baggage, plus catering and
unusable fuel mass removable passenger equipment, plus potable water and lavatory chemicals but
b) empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to as:
c) basic mass plus variable equipment mass a) Dry Operating Mass.
d) basic mass plus special equipment mass b) Zero Fuel Mass.
c) Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass.
d) Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
31.2.1.1 (1547)
The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the helicopter without crew, :
a) without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, with the unusable 31.2.1.2 (1553)
fuel and standard equipment. The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The masses of the following
b) without payload, with specific equipment for the mission, without the unusable fuel. items are :- catering: 300 kg- safety and rescue material: nil- fly away kit: nil- crew
c) without specific equipment for the mission, without payload, wthout unusable fuel. (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg- unusable fuel: 120 kg-
d) without specific equipments for the mission, without payload, with fuel on board. passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kgThe Dry Operating Mass is :
a) 30 785 kg
b) 30 300 kg
31.2.1.2 (1548)
c) 38 300 kg
In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the total mass of the
d) 30 665 kg
aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation but excluding
a) usable fuel and traffic load.
b) usable fuel and crew. 31.2.1.2 (1554)
c) potable water and lavatory chemicals. The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass of a helicopter :
d) usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals. a) ready for a specific operation including the crew and traffic load, not including
the usable fuel
b) excluding the crew but including specific equipments for the mission and not including the
31.2.1.2 (1549)
usable fuel
The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which includes a traffic load of
c) including the crew,the fuel and the specific equipments for the mission but excluding
14200 kg and a usable fuel load of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is
payload
545 kg the Dry Operating Mass is
d) including the crew, the usable fuel and the specific equipments for the mission and payload
a) 42000 kg
b) 56200 kg
c) 41455 kg 31.2.1.2 (1555)
d) 42545 kg By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed necessary equipment for a
specific flight (catering, safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get:
a) Dry operating mass
31.2.1.2 (1550)
b) take-off mass
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Dry
c) zero fuel mass
Operating Mass is defined as:
d) landing mass
a) The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding
128
31.2.1.3 (1556) board. It is a limitation which is:
The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always: a) listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural limit.
a) The take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass. b) governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits and the structural limits of the
b) The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass. aeroplane.
c) The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass. c) tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield elevation and temperature.
d) The maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass. d) governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides protection from excessive 'wing
bending'.
31.2.1.3 (1557)
The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of : 31.2.1.3 (1563)
a) The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass
b) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel a) differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
load. b) are the same value.
c) The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and c) differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load mass.
operational items d) differ by the mass of usable fuel.
d) The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load
31.2.1.3 (1564)
31.2.1.3 (1558) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting mass. It is made up of the
The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the: aeroplane Dry Operational mass plus
a) Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load. a) traffic load and unuseable fuel.
b) Operating Mass plus all the traffic load. b) traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.
c) Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded. c) unuseable and crew standard mass.
d) Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel. d) traffic load and crew standard mass.

31.2.1.3 (1559) 31.2.1.3 (1565)

The maximum zero-fuel mass:1- is a regulatory limitation2- is calculated for a The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg
maximum load factor of +3.5 g3- is due to the maximum permissible bending including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is
moment at the wing root4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first5- 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first6- can be increased by a) 79000 kg
stiffening the wingThe combination of correct statements is: b) 78000 kg
a) 1, 3, 5 c) 93000 kg
b) 2, 5, 6 d) 65200 kg.
c) 4, 2, 6
d) 1, 2, 3
31.2.1.4 (1566)
Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an aeroplane) may be determined
31.2.1.3 (1560) from a verbal statement by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of
Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero fuel mass? a) passenger seats available is less than 6.
a) The mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. b) passengers carried is less than 6.
b) Operating mass plus load of passengers and cargo. c) passenger seats available is less than 20.
c) Operating mass plus passengers and cargo. d) passengers carried is less than 20.
d) Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate.
31.2.1.4 (1567)
31.2.1.3 (1561) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of passenger load establish the mass
On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum Zero Fuel Mass is related of a child as
to: a) 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
a) The bending moment at the wing root. b) 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
b) Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass. c) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
c) Wing loaded trip fuel. not occupying a seat.
d) Variable equipment for the flight. d) 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg for infants (less than 2 years)
occupying a seat.
31.2.1.3 (1562)
The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the aeroplane with no usable fuel on
129
31.2.1.4 (1568) d) must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and 0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR
On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30, it is decided to use - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E.
standard mass values for computing the total mass of passengers. If the flight is
not a holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for an adult is
31.2.1.4 (1574)
a) 84 kg
Standard masses may be used for the computation of mass values for baggage if
b) 76 kg
the aeroplane
c) 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
a) has 20 or more seats.
d) 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).
b) has 6 or more seats.
c) has 30 or more seats.
31.2.1.4 (1569) d) is carrying 30 or more passengers.
The standard mass for a child is
a) 35 kg for all flights.
31.2.1.4 (1575)
b) 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.
The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses standard masses for
c) 38 kg for all flights.
passengers and baggage. During the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of
d) 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.
passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it is apparent that even the
lightest of these exceeds the value of the declared standard mass.
31.2.1.4 (1570) a) the operator should use the individual masses of the passengers or alter the
On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an inter-continental flight, the standard masss
'standard mass' which may be used for passenger baggage is b) the operator may use the standard masses for the load and balance calculation without
a) 15 kg per passenger. correction
b) 13 kg per passenger. c) the operator may use the standard masses for the balance but must correct these for the
c) 14 kg per passenger. load calculation
d) 11 kg per passenger. d) the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each passenger

31.2.1.4 (1571) 31.2.1.4 (1576)

In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it is common practice to (For this question use annex 031-12272A)For the purpose of calculating traffic
use 'standard mass' values for crew. These values are loads, an operator's loading manual gives the following standard mass values for
a) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are inclusive of a hand passengers. (These values include an allowance for hand baggage)Male 88
baggage allowance. kgFemale 70 kgChild 35 kgInfant 6 kgThe standard mass value to be used for hold
b) flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include a hand baggage baggage is 14 kg per pieceThe loading manifest shows the following details
allowance. :Passengers loaded Males 40Females 65Children 8 Infants 5Baggage in hold
c) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These include an number 4: 120 piecesUsing the standard mass values given and the data in the
allowance for hand baggage. appendix, select from the following the correct value for the mass of freight (all
d) flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not include an loaded in hold No1) which constitutes the remainder of the traffic load
allowance for hand baggage. a) 260 kg
b) 210 kg
c) 280 kg
31.2.1.4 (1572)
d) no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1
The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aeroplane's tanks is given
as 3800 US Gallons. If the fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass
of fuel which may be loaded is 31.2.1.5 (1577)
a) 11364 kg. The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to:
b) 14383 kg. a) Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load
c) 18206 kg. b) Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load
d) 13647 kg. c) Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel
d) Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel
31.2.1.4 (1573)
Conversion of fuel volume to mass 31.2.1.5 (1578)
a) may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in the Operations Traffic load is the:
Manual, if the actual fuel density is not known. a) Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass.
b) may be done by using standard fuel density values as specified in JAR - OPS 1. b) Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load.
c) must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.

130
c) Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load. 31.2.1.5 (1584)
d) Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass. The following data applies to an aeroplane which is about to take off: Certified
maximum take-off mass 141500 kg Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg Crew
31.2.1.5 (1579)
baggage in hold 110 kgFuel on board 60700 kgFrom this data calculate the mass of
The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane includes
the useful load.
a) traffic load plus useable fuel.
a) 78900 kg
b) traffic load only.
b) 78150 kg
c) the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only.
c) 18200 kg
d) the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.
d) 17450 kg

31.2.1.5 (1580)
31.2.1.5 (1585)
An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass of 54230 kg. The Dry
The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg.The maximum take-off mass,
Operating Mass is 35000 kg and the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off
landing and zero fuel mass are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg,
mass is 64280 kg the useful load is
and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of payload is:
a) 29280 kg.
a) 1 000 kg
b) 17080 kg
b) 950 kg
c) 12200 kg.
c) 1 500 kg
d) 10080 kg.
d) 1 450 kg

31.2.1.5 (1581)
31.2.1.5 (1586)
(For this question use annex 031-9676 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph
Allowed traffic load is the difference between :
4)For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the loading manual, determine
a) allowed take off mass and operating mass
the maximum total volume of fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks.
b) allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuel
(Fuel density value 0.78)
c) allowed take off mass and basic mass
a) 11349 litres
d) operating mass and basic mass
b) 8850 litres
c) 11646 litres
d) 5674 litres 31.2.1.5 (1587)
(For this question use annex 031 11634A)Maximum allowed take-off mass limit:
37 200kgDry operating mass: 21 600 kgTake-off fuel: 8 500 kgPassengers on
31.2.1.5 (1582)
board: male 33, female 32, children 5Baggages: 880 kgThe company uses the
An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the empty mass is 57320 kg. The
standard passenger mass systems (see annex) allowed by regulations. The flight is
nominal Dry Operating Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is given
not a holiday charter.In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be loaded
as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct statement in relation to this
is
aeroplane?
a) 585 kg
a) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this
b) 901 kg
aeroplane is 11980 kg.
c) 1 098 kg
b) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum traffic load for this aeroplane
d) 1 105 kg
is 14780 kg.
c) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 11980 kg.
d) operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum useful load is 14780 kg. 31.2.1.5 (1588)
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:-
Block fuel: 40 000 kg- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum take-off
31.2.1.5 (1583)
mass: 170 000 kg- Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass:
The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the weighing schedule, is 61300 kg.
112 500 kg- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kgThe maximum traffic load for this flight
The operational items (including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the take-
is:
off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel quantity of 43800 kg) the useful
a) 32 100 kg
load is
b) 32 900 kg
a) 68400 kg
c) 18 900 kg
b) 70700 kg
d) 40 400 kg
c) 29600 kg
d) 26900 kg.

131
31.2.1.5 (1589) 31.2.2.2 (1595)
The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Dry If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane must be determined prior
operating mass: 90 000 kg- Block fuel: 30 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg- Maximum to initial entry into service and thereafter
take-off mass: 145 000 kgThe traffic load available for this flight is: a) at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
a) 25 800 kg b) at regular annual intervals.
b) 25 000 kg c) only if major modifications have taken place.
c) 55 000 kg d) at intervals of 9 years.
d) 55 800 kg
31.2.3.1 (1596)
31.2.1.5 (1590) An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Who is responsible for deriving
An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg.The maximum take-off, landing, and zero- the Dry Operational Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the
fuel mass are identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is 50 kg.The 'operational items' ?
payload available is : a) The Operator.
a) 1 600 kg b) The appropriate Aviation Authority.
b) 1 550 kg c) The aeroplane manufacturer or supplier.
c) 2 200 kg d) The commander of the aeroplane.
d) 2 150 kg
31.2.3.1 (1597)
31.2.2.0 (1591) The responsibility for determination of the mass of 'operating items' and 'crew
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg, comprising a traffic load of 18 members' included within the Dry Operating Mass lies with
000 kg and fuel of 46 000 kg. What is the dry operating mass? a) the operator.
a) 53 000 kg b) the commander.
b) 64 000 kg c) the authority of the state of registration.
c) 71 000 kg d) the person compiling the weighing schedule.
d) 99 000 kg
31.2.3.3 (1598)
31.2.2.1 (1592) (For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)A
When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on an aeroplane, which of the revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. Take-off mass is not airfield
following is not required? limited. The following data applies:Dry Operating Mass 34930 kgPerformance
a) drain all engine tank oil. limited landing mass 55000 kgFuel on board at ramp-Taxi fuel 350 kgTrip fuel
b) drain all useable fuel. 9730 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kgAlternate fuel 1600
c) drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks. kgPassengers on board 130Standard mass for each passenger 84 kgBaggage per
d) removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded. passenger 14 kgTraffic load Maximum possibleUse the loading manual provided
and the above data. Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried
without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass.
31.2.2.1 (1593)
a) 4530 kg.
An aeroplane may be weighed
b) 5400 kg
a) in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar.
c) 6350 kg.
b) in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.
d) 3185 kg.
c) in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.
d) at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.
31.2.3.3 (1599)
The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. Operational items (including
31.2.2.2 (1594)
crew standard mass of 1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is
An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. Where an operator uses
given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could be carried is:
'fleet masses' and provided that changes have been correctly documented, this
a) 18400 kg
interval is
b) 20700 kg
a) 9 years for each aeroplane.
c) 23000 kg
b) 4 years for each aeroplane.
d) 19460 kg.
c) whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.
d) whenever a major modification is carried out.
31.2.3.3 (1600)
(For this question use annex 031-9643 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure

132
4.14)The following data relates to a planned flight of an aeroplane -Dry b) 16470 kg
Operational mass 60520 kgPerformance limited take-off mass 92750 c) 18040 kg
kgPerformance limited landing mass 72250 kgMaximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 d) 12840 kg
kgFuel on board at take-off -Trip fuel 12500 kgContingency and final reserve fuel
2300 kgAlternate fuel 1700 kgUsing this data, as appropriate, calculate the
31.2.3.4 (1605)
maximum traffic load that can be carried.
(For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph
a) 7010 kg
3.1)The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate a flight carrying the
b) 7730 kg
maximum possible fuel load. Using the following data as appropriate, determine
c) 11730 kg
the mass of fuel on board at start of take off.Departure airfield performance
d) 15730 kg
limited take-off mass: 60 400 kgLanding airfield -not performance limited.Dry
Operating Mass: 34930 kgFuel required for flight - Taxi fuel: 715 kg Trip fuel: 8600
31.2.3.3 (1601) kg Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg Alternate fuel 1500 kg Additional
(For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure reserve 400 kgTraffic load for flight 11000 kg
4.14)Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kgPerformance limited take-off mass a) 14 470 kg
127000 kgPerformance limited landing mass 98500 kgMaximum zero fuel mass b) 15 815 kg
89800 kgFuel requirements for flight -Trip fuel 29300 kgContingency and final c) 13 655 kg
reserve fuel 3600 kgAlternate fuel 2800 kg.The maximum traffic load that can be d) 16 080 kg
carried on this flight is:
a) 4800 kg
31.2.3.4 (1606)
b) 7100 kg
An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on
c) 6300 kg
board at take-off (including contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg.
d) 12700 kg
The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load will be
a) 141100 kg
31.2.3.4 (1602) b) 19650 kg
For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Operating c) 121450 kg
Mass is considered to be Dry Operating Mass plus d) 39105 kg
a) Take-off Fuel Mass.
b) Ramp Fuel Mass.
31.2.3.5 (1607)
c) Trip Fuel Mass.
Given:Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kgMaximum structural landing
d) Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.
mass= 93 800 kgMaximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kgTrip fuel= 27 500 kgBlock
fuel= 35 500 kgEngine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kgThe maximum take-off
31.2.3.4 (1603) mass is equal to:
The following data applies to a planned flight.Dry Operating Mass 34900 a) 120 900 kg
kgPerformance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kgPerformance limited Landing Mass b) 121 300 kg
55200 kgMaximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kgFuel required at ramp:-Taxy fuel 400 c) 113 900 kg
kgtrip fuel 8600 kgcontingency fuel 430 kgalternate fuel 970 kgholding fuel 900 d) 120 300 kg
kgTraffic load 16600 kgFuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is
decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The total fuel which may be
31.2.3.5 (1608)
safely loaded prior to departure is :
Given:Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kgMaximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400
a) 12700 kg
kgMaximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kgMaximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kgTrip
b) 13230 kg
fuel= 4 000 kgFuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kgThe maximum traffic load
c) 15200 kg
is:
d) 10730 kg
a) 12 900 kg
b) 13 300 kg
31.2.3.4 (1604) c) 9 300 kg
Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane is loaded with maximum d) 14 600 kg
fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel density (specific gravity) of 0.78. Using the following
data - Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kgPerformance limited landing
31.2.3.5 (1609)
mass 54200 kgDry Operating Mass 34930 kgTaxi fuel 250 kgTrip fuel 9250
Given the following :- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg- Maximum
kgContingency and holding fuel 850 kgAlternate fuel 700 kgThe maximum
structural landing mass: 44 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg-Taxi fuel:
permissible traffic load is
600 kg-Contingency fuel: 900 kg-Alternate fuel: 800 kg-Final reserve fuel: 1 100
a) 13090 kg.
133
kg-Trip fuel: 9 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass: 31.2.3.5 (1614)
a) 47 800 kg Given an aeroplane with:Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kgMaximum
b) 48 000 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kgMaximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kgDry
c) 48 400 kg Operating Mass : 48000 kgScheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is
d) 53 000 kg 2800 kg,Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum
permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:
a) 75000 kg and 17200 kg
31.2.3.5 (1610)
b) 75000 kg and 20000 kg
Given that:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg- Maximum structural
c) 77200 kg and 19400 kg
landing mass: 93 900 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg- Trip fuel: 27 000
d) 77200 kg and 22200 kg
kg- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg- Final
reserve fuel: 3000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:
a) 120 300 kg. 31.2.3.5 (1615)
b) 146 000 kg. Given an aeroplane with: Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kgMaximum
c) 120 900 kg. Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kgDry
d) 121 300 kg. Operating Mass: 82000 kgScheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is
5000 kg.Assuming performance limitations are not restricting, the maximum
permitted take-off mass and maximum traffic load are respectively:
31.2.3.5 (1611)
a) 130500 kg and 26500 kg
Given are:- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg- Maximum structural
b) 130500 kg and 31500 kg
landing mass: 56 000 kg- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg- Taxi fuel: 800 kg-
c) 125500 kg and 21500 kg
Trip fuel: 18 000 kg- Contingency fuel: 900 kg- Alternate fuel: 700 kg- Final
d) 125500 kg and 26500 kg
reserve fuel: 2 000 kgDetermine the actual take-off mass:
a) 69 600 kg
b) 74 000 kg 31.2.3.5 (1616)
c) 72 000 kg For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance documentation, the Traffic
d) 70 400 kg Load is considered to be equal to the Take-off Mass
a) less the Operating Mass.
b) plus the Operating Mass.
31.2.3.5 (1612)
c) plus the Trip Fuel Mass.
(For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With
d) less the Trip Fuel Mass.
respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the total moment
(lbs.In) at landing in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One
pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. 31.2.3.5 (1617)
(total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in A jet transport has the following structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060
zone 4: 50 lbs.Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg-
(included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.Total moment at take- Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kgThe aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with
off: 432226 lbs.In the following requirements:-Taxi fuel: 400 kg-Trip fuel: 8400 kg-Contingency &
a) 401 338 final reserve fuel: 1800 kg-Alternate fuel: 1100 kgIf the Dry Operating Mass is
b) 432 221 34930 kg, determine the maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if
c) 433 906 departure and landing airfields are not performance limited.
d) 377 746 a) 16 370 kg
b) 16 430 kg
c) 17 070 kg
31.2.3.5 (1613)
d) 16 570 kg
With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, which of the following
statements is always correct ?LM = Landing MassTOM = Take-off MassMTOM =
Maximum Take-off MassZFM = Zero Fuel MassMZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel 31.2.3.5 (1618)
MassDOM = Dry Operating Mass A flight has been made from London to Valencia carrying minimum fuel and
a) LM = TOM - Trip Fuel maximum traffic load. On the return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be
b) MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel mass filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a fuel density of 0.79
c) MZFM = Traffic load + DOM kg/l.The following are the aeroplane's structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69
d) Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kgThe performance limited take off mass at
Valencia is 67 330 kg.The landing mass at London is not performance limited.Dry
Operating Mass: 34 930 kgTrip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kgTaxi fuel: 250
134
kgThe maximum traffic load that can be carried from Valencia will be:
a) 14 331 kg
b) 13 240 kg
c) 16 770 kg
d) 9 830 kg
31.2.3.5 (1619)
An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the performance limited take-off
mass is 89200 kg. Certificated maximum masses are as follows:Ramp (taxi) mass
89930 kgMaximum Take-off mass 89430 kgMaximumLanding mass 71520
kgActual Zero fuel mass 62050 kgFuel on board at ramp:Taxi fuel 600 kgTrip fuel
17830 kgContingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kgIf the Dry Operating
Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load that can be carried on this flight is
a) 21080 kg
b) 21500 kg
c) 21220 kg
d) 20870 kg
31.2.3.5 (1620)
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69
300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740
kgThe performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and the performance limited
landing mass is 55 470 kg.Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kgTrip Fuel: 6 200 kgTaxi
Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kgAlternate Fuel: 1 100 kg The
maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a) 17 840 kg
b) 18 170 kg
c) 13 950 kg
d) 25 800 kg
31.2.3.5 (1621)
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69
300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740
kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34
930 kgTrip Fuel: 11 500 kgTaxi Fuel: 250 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 450
kgAlternate Fuel: 1 350 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a) 17 810 kg
b) 21 170 kg
c) 21 070 kg
d) 20 420 kg
31.2.3.5 (1622)
A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The following are the aeroplane's
structural limits:-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69
300 kg-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740
kgTake Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.Dry Operating Mass: 34
900 kgTrip Fuel: 11 800 kgTaxi Fuel: 500 kgContingency & final reserve fuel: 1 600
kgAlternate Fuel: 1 900 kg The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
a) 17 840 kg
b) 19 100 kg
c) 19 200 kg
d) 19 500 kg
31.2.3.5 (1623)
(For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.14)The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to operate from a
departure airfield where conditions limit the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The
destination airfield has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg. The Dry
Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as follows - Taxi fuel 350 kgTrip fuel
9250 kgContingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kgAlternate fuel 1000 kgTraffic
load 18600 kgCheck the load and ensure that the flight may be operated without
exceeding any of the aeroplane limits. Choose, from those given below, the most
appropriate answer.
a) The flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 17500
kg.
b) The flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must be reduced to 14170 kg.
c) The flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and fuel load.
d) The flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg of traffic load.
31.2.3.5 (1624)
The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides the following data: Take-off
runway limitation: 185 000 kg Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg Planned fuel
consumption: 11 500 kg Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000
kgKnowing that: Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg Maximum landing
mass (MLM): 174 000 kg Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg Dry
operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kgThe maximum cargo load that the captain may
decide to load on board is:
a) 54 000 kg
b) 55 000 kg
c) 55 500 kg
d) 61 500 kg
31.2.3.5 (1625)
To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be taken into account include:
a) Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn.
b) Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take-off.
c) Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn.
d) Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn.
31.2.3.5 (1626)
Given:Dry operating mass = 38 000 kgmaximum structural take-off mass = 72 000
kgmaximum landing mass = 65 000 kgmaximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kgFuel
burn = 8 000 kgTake-off Fuel = 10 300 kgThe maximum allowed take-off mass and
payload are respectively :
a) 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg
b) 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg
c) 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg
d) 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg
31.2.3.5 (1627)
(For this question use annex 031-12273A)From the data contained in the attached
135
appendix, the maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is respectively : 31.2.4.2 (1633)
a) 61600 kg and 12150 kg A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not forecast. On arrival at
b) 68038 kg and 18588 kg destination a straight in approach and immediate landing clearance is given. The
c) 66770 kg and 17320 kg landing mass will be higher than planned and
d) 60425 kg and 10975 kg a) the landing distance required will be longer.
b) the landing distance will be unaffected.
c) the approach path will be steeper.
31.2.3.5 (1628)
d) the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed higher.
(For this question use annex 031-12274A)An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of
10320 kgComplete the necessary sections of the attached appendix and determine
which of the answers given below represents the maximum increase in the traffic 31.2.4.4 (1634)
load If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a given airspeed the angle
a) 1830 kg of attack will
b) 7000 kg a) be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
c) 8268 kg b) be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will increase.
d) 655 kg c) remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will decrease.
d) remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will increase.
31.2.4.1 (1629)
Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500 litres of fuel at a fuel density 31.2.4.4 (1635)
of 780 kg/m³. This is entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations are In order to provide an adequate ""buffet boundary"" at the commencement of the
carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the aeroplane is cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used. At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots.
a) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high If the mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the value of 1.3Vs will be
b) lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low a) increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance per kg of fuel will
c) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too high decrease.
d) heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will be too low. b) unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.
c) increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance per kg of fuel will increase.
d) increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack is used, drag and range will
31.2.4.1 (1630)
remain the same.
An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is
not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than
expected and calculated take-off safety speeds 31.2.4.6 (1636)
a) will give reduced safety margins. The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's loading manifest:Performance
b) will not be achieved. limited take-off mass 93500 kgExpected landing mass at destination 81700
c) will be greater than required. kgMaximum certificated landing mass 86300 kgFuel on board 16500 kgDuring the
d) are unaffected but V1 will be increased. flight a diversion is made to an en-route alternate which is not 'performance
limited' for landing. Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing mass
a) is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result
31.2.4.1 (1631)
b) is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing mass and could result in
Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is erroneously entered into the load
overrunning the runway
and trim sheet as 14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew but they
c) must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed approach.
will notice that
d) is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is a diversion and not a normal
a) speed at un-stick will be higher than expected
scheduled landing.
b) V1 will be reached sooner than expected
c) V1 will be increased.
d) the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected. 31.2.4.6 (1637)
At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane departs from an airfield which
is not limiting for either take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the number
31.2.4.1 (1632)
one engine suffers a contained disintegration. An emergency is declared and the
When considering the effects of increased mass on an aeroplane, which of the
aeroplane returns to departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most likely
following is true?
result of this action will be
a) Stalling speeds will be higher.
a) a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other structural failure.
b) Stalling speeds will be lower.
b) a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
c) Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
c) a landing further along the runway than normal.
d) Flight endurance will be increased.
d) a landing short resultant from the increased angle of approach due to the very high
aeroplane mass.
136
31.2.4.6 (1638) c) at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system.
During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 d) at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane.
requirements was subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight
Manual specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal category for a load
31.3.1.1 (1644)
factor of -1.9 to +3.8.Considering the certification requirements and taking into
Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific point to the body station at
account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its conception, a
which the mass is located. That point is known as
supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe,
a) the datum.
a) a permanent deformation of the structure
b) the focal point.
b) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion
c) the axis.
c) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure
d) the centre of gravity of the aeroplane.
d) rupture of one or more structural components

31.3.1.1 (1645)
31.3.1.0 (1639)
(For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 page 20)For
The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is normally computed along the:
the medium range twin jet the datum point is located
a) longitudinal axis.
a) 540 inches forward of the front spar.
b) lateral axis.
b) 540 cm forward of the front spar.
c) vertical axis.
c) on the nose of the aeroplane.
d) horizontal axis.
d) at the leading edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC).

31.3.1.1 (1640)
31.3.1.1 (1646)
In mass and balance calculations which of the following describes the datum?
The datum used for balance calculations is:
a) It is the point on the aeroplane designated by the manufacturers from which all
a) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not necessarily between
centre of gravity measurements and calculations are made.
the nose and the tail of the aircraft
b) It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity.
b) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and necessarily situated between the nose
c) It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity.
and the tail of the aircraft
d) It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point through which the weight of the
c) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and necessarily situated between the leading
component acts.
edge and trailing edge of the wing
d) chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at the fire-wall level
31.3.1.1 (1641)
A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance
31.3.1.1 (1647)
from the datum is known as:
With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an aeroplane) a datum point
a) Station.
is used. This datum point is :
b) Moment.
a) a fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It may be located
c) MAC.
anywhere on the aeroplane's longitudinal axis or on the extensions to that axis.
d) Index.
b) the point through which the sum of the mass values (of the aeroplane and its contents) is
assumed to act vertically.
31.3.1.1 (1642) c) a point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves longitudinally as masses are added
In calculations with respect to the position of the centre of gravity a reference is forward and aft of its location.
made to a datum. The datum is d) a point from which all balance arms are measured. The location of this point varies with the
a) a reference plane which is chosen by the aeroplane manufacturer. Its position is distribution of loads on the aeroplane.
given in the aeroplane Flight or Loading Manual.
b) calculated from the loading manifest.
31.3.1.2 (1648)
c) an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be located anywhere on the aeroplane.
(For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)For
d) calculated from the data derived from the weighing procedure carried out on the aeroplane
the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm (B.A.) for the forward hold
after any major modification.
centroid is:
a) 367.9 inches.
31.3.1.1 (1643) b) 257 inches.
The datum is a reference from which all moment (balance) arms are measured. Its c) 314.5 inches.
precise position is given in the control and loading manual and it is located d) 421.5 inches.
a) at a convenient point which may not physically be on the aeroplane.
b) at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.

137
31.3.1.2 (1649) cg expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is:
The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of a mass is known as a) 16%
a) the moment arm or balance arm. b) 41%
b) the lever. c) 60%
c) the moment. d) 10%
d) the index.
31.3.1.4 (1656)
31.3.1.3 (1650) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the Mean Aerodynamic
An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres from the datum line and it Chord.This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is situated at 25% of
has a mass of 49000 N. The moment about the datum is: the length of:
a) 343 000 Nm. a) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edge
b) 1.43 Nm. b) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge
c) 7000 Nm. c) the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum
d) 34 300 Nm. d) the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge

31.3.1.3 (1651) 31.3.1.4 (1657)

Which one of the following is correct? An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 134.5 inches. The leading
a) Arm = Moment / Force edge of this chord is at a distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the
b) Arm = Force / Moment location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in terms of percentage MAC if the
c) Moment = Force / Arm mass of the aeroplane is acting vertically through a balance arm located 650 inches
d) Arm = Force X Moment aft of the datum.
a) 18,14%
b) 75,60%
31.3.1.3 (1652)
c) 85,50%
In mass and balance calculations the ""index"" is:
d) 10,50%
a) the moment divided by a constant.
b) a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.
c) an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all measurements are taken. 31.3.1.4 (1658)
d) the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have without making the aeroplane The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to the mean aerodynamic
unsafe to fly. chord:
a) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length
of the mean aerodynamic chord and the leading edge
31.3.1.3 (1653)
b) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the length of the mean
A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located 10 metres behind the
aerodynamic chord and the trailing edge
present Centre of Gravity and 16 metres behind the datum. (Assume: g=10
c) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the
m/s^2)The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest is :
aerodynamic convergence point
a) 80000 Nm
d) consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in relation to the position of the
b) 50000 Nm
aerodynamic centre of pressure
c) 30000 Nm
d) 130000 Nm
31.3.2.0 (1659)
If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) to compartment A
31.3.1.4 (1654)
(forward), what is the station number of the new centre of gravity (cg).Given :
Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) with following
Gross mass 116.500 IbsPresent cg station 435.0Compartment A station
data:Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 mDistance datum - leading edge:
285.5Compartment B station 792.5
9.63 mLength of MAC: 8 m
a) 433.3
a) 36.3 % MAC
b) 463.7
b) 63.4 % MAC
c) 506.3
c) 47.0 % MAC
d) 436.7
d) 23.1 % MAC

31.3.2.0 (1660)
31.3.1.4 (1655)
Given the following information, calculate the loaded centre of gravity
The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 mm aft of datum. The
(cg).______________________________________________________________
mean aerodynamic chord lies between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The
138
_____STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor axis and the aft points are 1 m aft of
(kgcm)____________________________________________________________ the rotor axis?
_______Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350Crew 145 -160 -23200Freight a) 4.52 m
1 5455 +200 +1091000Freight 2 410 -40 -16400Fuel 6045 -8 -48360Oil 124 +40 b) 4.09 m
+4960 c) 4.21 m
a) 56.53 cm aft datum. d) 4.15 m
b) 56.35 cm aft datum.
c) 60.16 cm aft datum.
31.3.2.1 (1666)
d) 53.35 cm aft datum.
(For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet, which of the following is the
31.3.2.1 (1661) correct value for the index at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG
(For this question use annex 031-1569A) Where is the centre of gravity of the at 14% MAC ?
aeroplane in the diagram? a) 40.0
a) 26.57 cm forward of datum. b) 35.5
b) 32.29 cm forward of datum. c) 41.5
c) 26.57 cm aft of datum. d) 33..0
d) 32.29 cm aft of datum.
31.3.2.1 (1667)
31.3.2.1 (1662) The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :- front point : 220
An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main wheels rests on the kg- right rear point : 500 kg- left rear point : 480 kgThe helicopter's datum is 3.40
ground with a single nose wheel load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of m forward of the rotor axis. The front point is located 2.00 m forward of the rotor
6000 kg. The distance between the nose wheels and the main wheels is 10 axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft of the rotor axis.The longitudinal
meter.How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main wheels? CG-position in relation to the datum is:
a) 40 cm. a) 3,44 m
b) 25 cm. b) 1,18 m
c) 4 meter. c) 3,36 m
d) 41.6 cm. d) 0,04 m

31.3.2.1 (1663) 31.3.2.2 (1668)

To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it should be weighed with a Given:Total mass 2900 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0Aft cg limit
minimum of: station: 116.0The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is:
a) 3 points of support a) 207 kg.
b) 2 points of support b) 317 kg.
c) 1 point of support c) 140 kg.
d) 4 point of support d) 14 kg.

31.3.2.1 (1664) 31.3.2.2 (1669)

The following results were obtained after weighing a helicopter :- mass at front
point: 300 kg- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg- mass at left rear point : 950 kgIt
is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the longitudinal axis and the
rear points are symmetricaly located 1.20 m from this axis.The helicopter's lateral
CG-position relative to the longitudinal axis is:
a) 4 cm right
b) 4 cm left
c) 11 cm right
d) 11 cm left
31.3.2.1 (1665)
After weighing a helicopter the following values are noted:forward point: 350
kgaft right point: 995 kgaft left point: 1 205 kgWhat is the longitudinal CG-position
in relation to the datum situated 4 m in front of the rotor axis, knowing that the
Given:Total mass: 7500 kgCentre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5 Aft cg limit
station: 79.5How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo compartment at
station 150 to the forward cargo compartment at station 30 in order to move the
cg location to the aft limit?
a) 62.5 kg.
b) 65.8 kg.
c) 68.9 kg.
d) 73.5 kg.
31.3.2.2 (1670)
The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at
2.0 m from the datum line. The aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.What
mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum)
to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?

139
a) 300 kg The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 m aft. How much mass must be
b) 900 kg transferred from the front to the rear hold in order to bring the out of limit centre
c) 30.0 kg of gravity position to the foremost limit:
d) 196 kg a) 7 500 kg
b) 3 500 kg
c) 35 000 kg
31.3.2.2 (1671)
d) 62 500 kg
Given:Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kgCentre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17
mWhat is the effect on cg location if you move 20 passengers (total mass = 1 600
kg) from station 16 to station 23? 31.3.2.2 (1676)
a) It moves aft by 0.31 m. (For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-11246B)The planned take-off
b) It moves forward by 0.157 m. mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 31 % MAC
c) It moves aft by 3.22 m. (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the
d) It moves aft by 0.157 m. crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 1. After loading
this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:
a) 25%
31.3.2.2 (1672)
b) 28%
The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added to a cargo hold 1.75
c) 37%
metres from the loaded centre of gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
d) 34%
a) 33 cm.
b) 40 cm.
c) 30 cm. 31.3.2.2 (1677)
d) 34 cm. (For this question use annex 031-11247A and 031-11247B)A turbojet aeroplane is
parked with the following data:Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kgBasic
corrected index: 118.6Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg, cargo 2 = 2
31.3.2.2 (1673)
000 kg, cargo 3 = 2 000 kg,The other cargo compartments are empty.Take-off
Given are the following information at take-
mass: 200 000 kgCentre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
off_______________________________________________________________
Cord)To maximize performance, the captain decides to redistribute part of the
____STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) MOMENT
cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of
(kgcm)____________________________________________________________
gravity location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load distribution between
_______Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30 +361350Crew 145 -160 -23200Freight
cargo 1 and cargo 4 is:
1 5455 +200 +1091000 Freight 2 410 -40 -16400Fuel 6045 -8 - 48360Oil 124 +40
a) 2 500 kg in cargo 1, 1 500 kg in cargo 4
+4960Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated fuel flow will be 1050
b) 3 000 kg in cargo 1, 1 000 kg in cargo 4
litres per hour and the average oil consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The
c) 2 000 kg in cargo 1, 2 000 kg in cargo 4
specific density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is 0.96.Calculate the
d) 1 000 kg in cargo 1, 3 000 kg in cargo 4
landing centre of gravity
a) 61.28 cm aft of datum.
b) 61.26 cm aft of datum. 31.3.2.2 (1678)
c) 61.27 cm aft of datum. Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on the position of the centre of
d) 61.29 cm aft of datum. gravity on an aeroplane in flight ?
a) Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.
b) Lowering the landing gear.
31.3.2.2 (1674)
c) Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal duties.
Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg with a centre of gravity
d) Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.
position at 22.62m aft of the datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m
and 22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear hold (30 m aft of the
datum) to move the centre of gravity to the middle of the limits: 31.3.2.2 (1679)
a) 29 344 kg (For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031-11205B)A turbojet aeroplane
b) 16 529 kg is parked with the following data:Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kgBasic
c) 8 680 kg corrected index: 118.6Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg , cargo 2: 2 000
d) 43 120 kg kg , cargo 3: 2 000 kg, other cargo compartments are emptyTake-off mass: 200
000 kg, centre of gravity (C.G.) location: 32 %For perfomance reasons, the captain
decides to redistribute part of the cargo loading between cargo compartments, in
31.3.2.2 (1675)
order to take off with a new C.G. location of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:
(For this question use annex 031-2946A) The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000
a) 1 000 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 4
kg and the centre of gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft of the datum.
b) 500 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 3
140
c) 1 000 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1 c) 350 kg
d) 1 500 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1 d) 250 kg

31.3.2.2 (1680) 31.3.2.2 (1685)

(For this question use appendix 031-11589A)Without the man on the winch, the (For this question use annex 031-11219A)An aeroplane, whose specific data is
mass and the lateral CG position of the helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to the shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of
right. - the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kgWith the man on the winch, gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a
the mass and lateral CG-position of the helicopter are : C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). For performance purposes,
a) beyond the limit the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 35 %
b) 6 180 kg and 0.059m to the right MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 m and
c) 6 180 kg and 0.075m to the right 25 m from the reference point respectively, the cargo load mass which needs to be
d) 6 180 kg and 0.041m to the right transferred from the front to the rear cargo compartment is:
a) 4 600 kg
b) 5 600 kg
31.3.2.2 (1681)
c) 3 600 kg
(For this question use annex 031-11606A)Without the man on the winch, the mass
d) It is not possible to establish the required centre of gravity location.
and the lateral CG-position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the right. -
the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kgWith the man on the winch , the lateral
CG-position of the aircraft will be: 31.3.2.2 (1686)
a) 0,062m to the right (For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-11222B )The planned take-off
b) 0,016m to the left mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC
c) beyond the limits (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff informs the
d) 0,0633m to the right flight crew that an additional load of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4. After
loading this cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:
a) 33%
31.3.2.2 (1682)
b) 25%
At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a winch has a lateral CG-position
c) 27%
of 5 cm to the left. The CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a distance of
d) 31%
60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200 kg the lateral CG-position of the
helicopter will be:
a) 1.5 cm to the right 31.3.2.2 (1687)
b) 1.5 cm to the left (For this question use annex 031-11227A)An aeroplane, whose specific data is
c) 10.5 cm to the right shown in the annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with its centre of
d) 10,5 cm to the right gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward of the reference point, representing a
C.G. location at 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo load
distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg, rear cargo: 4 000 kg. For performance
31.3.2.2 (1683)
purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to
(For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031-11071B)Just prior to
33 % MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15
departure, you accept 10 passengers additional on board who will be seated in
m and 25 m from the reference point respectively. After the transfer operation, the
""compartment OC"" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo compartment 5.
new cargo load distribution is:
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located
a) front cargo: 3 740 kg, rear cargo: 6 760 kg
at:
b) front cargo: 6 760 kg, rear cargo: 3 740 kg
a) 27.8 %
c) front cargo: 4 550 kg, rear cargo: 5 950 kg
b) 30.5 %
d) front cargo: 9 260 kg, rear cargo: 1 240 kg
c) 28.5 %
d) 27.2 %
31.3.2.2 (1688)
(For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031-11257B )The planned take-off
31.3.2.2 (1684)
mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29
(For this question use annex 031-11632A )The empty mass of your helicopter is 1
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff
100 kg with a CG-position at 3.05m. The load is as follows:-total mass of pilot and
informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the
co-pilot: 150 kg-total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kgIn order not to exeed the
handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:
limitations the minimum remaining fuel on board should be:
a) 25%
a) 125 kg
b) 33%
b) 450 kg

141
c) 27%
d) 31%
31.3.2.2 (1689)
(For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-11258B)The planned take-off
mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180 000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 26
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the local staff
informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must be unloaded from cargo 4. After the
handling operation, the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:
a) 21.8 %
b) 20.0 %
c) 30.2 %
d) 23.0 %
31.3.2.2 (1690)
(For this question use annex 031-11273A and 031-11273B)A turbojet aeroplane
has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg. Following cargo loading, the crew is
informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean
Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits. The captain decides then to redistribute
part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a new centre
of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He asks for a transfer of:
a) 3 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.
b) 2 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.
c) 1 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.
d) It is not possible to obtain the required centre of gravity.
31.3.2.2 (1691)
(For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031-11275B)A turbojet aeroplane
has a planned take-off mass of 190 000 kg, the cargo load is distributed as follows:
cargo 1: 3 000 kg, cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo loading is completed, the
crew is informed that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC
(Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The captain decides then to
redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a
new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following the transfer operation, the
new load distribution is:
a) cargo 1: 6 000 kg, cargo 4: 4 000 kg
b) cargo 1: 4 000 kg, cargo 4: 6 000 kg
c) cargo 1: 5 000 kg, cargo 4: 4 000 kg
d) cargo 1: 4 000 kg, cargo 4: 5 000 kg
31.3.2.2 (1692)
The mass and balance information gives :Basic mass : 1 200 kg , Basic balance arm
: 3.00 mUnder these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at 25% of the mean
aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length of MAC is 2m.In the mass and balance
section of the flight manual the following information is given : Position Arm front
seats : 2.5 m rear seats : 3.5 m rear hold : 4.5 m fuel tanks : 3.0 mThe pilot and one
passenger embark, each weighs 80 kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres of petrol with
a density of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is negligable.The
position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as % MAC) is :
a) 22%
b) 29%
c) 34%
d) 17%
31.3.2.3 (1693)
(For this question use annex 031-1580A)A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical
characteristics shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460 000 N and
a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located at 15.40 m from the zero reference
point.At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of freight added in the
forward compartment at 10 m from the zero reference point.The final location of
the centre of gravity, calculated in percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB
(from point A), is equal to:
a) 27.5 %.
b) 16.9 %.
c) 30.4 %.
d) 35.5 %.
31.3.2.3 (1694)
(For this question use annex 031-1581A)The loading for a flight is shown in the
attached loadsheet, with the following data applying to the aeroplane:Maximum
take-off mass: 150 000 kgMaximum landing mass: 140 000 kgCentre of gravity
(cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum aft: 13.0 m aft of datumEstimated trip fuel:
55 000 kg
a) Landing cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.
b) Take-off cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.
c) Take-off cg is out of limits at 12.34 m aft of datum.
d) Landing cg is out of limits at 11.97 m aft of datum.
31.3.2.3 (1695)
(For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With
respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the ramp mass (lbs)
in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbsBasic arm: 88.5 InchesOne
pilot: 160 lbsFront seat passenger : 200 lbsCentre seat passengers: 290 lbsOne
passenger rear seat: 110 lbsBaggage in zone 1: 100 lbsBaggage in zone 4: 50
lbsBlock fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in
block fuel): 3 US Gal. Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.
a) 4 720
b) 4 120
c) 4 390
d) 4 372
31.3.2.3 (1696)
(For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With
respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the block fuel
moment (lbs.In.) in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One
pilot: 160 lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs.
(total)One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in
zone 4: 50 lbs.Block fuel: 100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi
(included in block fuel): 3 US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
a) 56 160
b) 433 906
c) 30 888
d) 9 360
142
31.3.2.3 (1697) c) 2809 lbs
(For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)With d) 2659 lbs
respect to a multi-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the CG location at
take off in the following conditions:Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.One pilot: 160
31.3.2.3 (1702)
lbs.Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)One
(For this question use appendix 031-11590A )Without the crew, the mass and
passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.Baggage in zone 4: 50
longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the
lbs.Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.InBlock fuel:
pilot is 90 kg - the mass of the copilot is 100 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is
100 US Gal.Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3
80 kgWith the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of the aircraft are :
US Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
a) 6 270 kg and 4.594 m
a) 91.92 inches aft of datum
b) 6 270 kg and 4.796 m
b) 91.69 inches aft of datum
c) 6 270 kg and 5.012 m
c) 93.60 inches aft of datum
d) 6 270 kg and 4.61 m
d) 91.84 inches aft of datum

31.3.2.3 (1703)
31.3.2.3 (1698)
(For this question use appendix 031-11605A)Without the crew, the weight and the
(For this question use annexes 031-6564A and 031-6564B or Loading Manual SEP1
CG-position of the aircraft are 7 000 kg and 4,70m. - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg -
Figure 2.4)With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine
the mass of the copilot is 75 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kgWith this
the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the following conditions:Basic Empty Mass:
crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft will be:
2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In.Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs.Baggage Zone B:
a) 4,615 m
35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total)
b) 0,217 m
a) 2548,8
c) 4,783 m
b) 6675
d) 4,455 m
c) 2496,3
d) 2311,8
31.3.2.3 (1704)
(For this question use annexes 031-11069A and 031-11069B)Contrary to the
31.3.2.3 (1699)
forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The
Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given
take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:
:Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbs Pilot + Front seat
a) 31%
passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel :
b) 32.5 %
35 Gal.Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.
c) 36%
a) 2449 lbs
d) 25%
b) 2589 lbs
c) 2659 lbs
d) 2414 lbs 31.3.2.3 (1705)
(For this question use annexes 031-11070A and 031-11070B)Contrary to the
loading sheet forecasts you have :Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in
31.3.2.3 (1700)
compartment OA: 20Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in compartment
Determine the Landing Mass for the following single engine
OB: 20Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in compartment OC: 30Cargo
aeroplane.Given:Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs Optional Equipment : 35 lbsPilot
compartment 4: 2 000 kgCargo compartment 5: 1 000 kgThe take-off centre of
+ Front seat passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60
gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at:
Gal.Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.
a) 31.5 %
a) 2589 lbs
b) 24.5 %
b) 2799 lbs
c) 32.5 %
c) 2659 lbs
d) 35.5 %
d) 2449 lbs

31.3.2.3 (1706)
31.3.2.3 (1701)
(For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-11072B)The weight and
Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single engine aeroplane.Given
balance sheet is available and contrary to the forecast, cargo compartment 1 is
:Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbsOptional Equipment : 35 lbsPilot + Front seat
empty.The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord)
passenger : 300 lbsCargo Mass : 350 lbsRamp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.Trip Fuel :
is located at:
35 Gal.Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.
a) 35.5 %
a) 2799 lbs
b) 32%
b) 2764 lbs
143
c) 31.5 % 31.3.2.3 (1711)
d) 26% (For this question use annex 031-12267A )Using the data given in the Load & Trim
sheet, determine which of the following gives the correct values for the Zero Fuel
Mass and position of the centre of gravity (% MAC) at that mass.
31.3.2.3 (1707)
a) 46130 Kg and 17,8%
(For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B and 031-11248C)Knowing
b) 41300 Kg and 17,8%
that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers:
c) 51300 Kg and 20,8%
185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14
d) 46130 Kg and 20,8%
000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and
(11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean
Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at: 31.3.2.3 (1712)
a) 31.5 % (For this question use annex 031-12268A)Using the data given in the Load & Trim
b) 30.5 % sheet, determine from the following the correct values for the take off mass and
c) 32.5 % the position of the centre of gravity at that mass if the fuel index correction to be
d) 28.0 % applied is given as - 0.9
a) 17.5 %
b) 20.1 %
31.3.2.3 (1708)
c) 20.3 %
(For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B and 031-11249C)Knowing
d) 22.6 %
that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers:
335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 9
500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 40 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and 31.3.2.3 (1713)
(11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean (For this question use annex 031-12269A)Using the data given at the appendix to
Aerodynamic Cord) at take-off is located at: this question, if the fuel index corrections (from ZFM index) are as follows9500 kg
a) 29.3 % - 0.96500 kg - 6.13500 kg - 4.73000 kg - 4.3Which of the following represent the
b) 27.4 % correct values for landing mass of the aeroplane and the position of the centre of
c) 30.5 % gravity for this condition ?
d) 28.0 % a) 49130 kg and 19 %
b) 52900kg and 19 %
c) 52900 kg and 21.6 %
31.3.2.3 (1709)
d) 49130 kg and 21.8 %
(For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B and 031-11250C)Knowing
that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers:
335 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 9 31.3.2.3 (1714)
500 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 40 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and (For this question use annex 031-12270A)Using the data given at the appendix,
(11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean determine which of the following correctly gives the values of the Zero Fuel Mass
Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at: (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at ZFM
a) 28.0 % a) 48600 kg and 57.0
b) 30.5 % b) 51300 kg and 57.0
c) 27.4 % c) 46300 kg and 20.5
d) 29.3 % d) 35100 kg and 20.5

31.3.2.3 (1710) 31.3.2.3 (1715)

(For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B and 031-11251C)Knowing (For this question use annex 031-12271A)From the data given at the appendix and
that:. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg. Basic index: 119.1. Number of passengers: assuming a fuel index shift of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine which of
185 distributed as shown in the annex (75 kg per PAX). Cargo load + luggage: 14 the following is the correct value (percentage MAC) for the position of the centre
000 kg distributed as shown in the annex.. Fuel: 42 000 kgStages (1) to (7) and of gravity at Take Off Mass.
(11) having already been calculated, the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean a) 18%
Aerodynamic Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at: b) 19%
a) 30.5 % c) 15%
b) 32.3 % d) 14%
c) 29.3 %
d) 28.3 %
31.3.2.3 (1716)
(For this question use annex 031-11619A )A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg

144
and the longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.Determine the longitudinal CG off decision speedVR= Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedThe
position in the following conditions :- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg- rear correct formula is:
passengers : 150 kg- fuel : 500 kg a) VMCG<=VEF < V1
a) 2.91 m b) 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
b) 2.85 m c) 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
c) 2.97 m d) V2min<= VEF<= VMU
d) 2.82 m
32.1.1.0 (1723)
31.3.2.4 (1717) Given:VS= Stalling speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum
Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 mMoment arm of the forward cargo: unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)V1= take-off decision speedVR=
-0,50 mMoment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 mThe aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its Rotation speedV2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speedVLOF: Lift-off speed The
centre of gravity is at 25% MACTo move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass correct formula is:
has to be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold? a) VS< VMCA< V2 min
a) 110 kg b) VR< VMCA< VLOF
b) 183 kg c) VMU<= VMCA< V1
c) 165 kg d) V2min< VMCA> VMU
d) 104 kg
32.1.1.0 (1724)
31.3.3.1 (1718) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
Loads must be adequately secured in order to: a) is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a
a) avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft damage. decision to continue or discontinue the take-off.
b) avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight. b) is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
c) prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare. c) is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to
d) allow steep turns. have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off .
d) is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.
31.3.3.2 (1719)
Assume:Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kgCentre of gravity at station: 115.8What will 32.1.1.0 (1725)
be the new position of the centre of gravity if 100 kg is moved from the station 30 The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
to station 120? a) the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
a) Station 117.69 b) the lowest point of the drag curve.
b) Station 118.33 c) at stalling speed (VS).
c) Station 120.22 d) on the ""back side"" of the drag curve.
d) Station 118.25
32.1.1.0 (1726)
32.1.1.0 (1720) Which of the following statements is correct?
Density altitude is the a) Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
a) pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature b) Induced drag increases with increasing speed.
b) altitude reference to the standard datum plane c) Induced drag is independant of the speed.
c) altitude read directly from the altimeter d) Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.
d) height above the surface
32.1.1.0 (1727)
32.1.1.0 (1721) The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches the power required curve
The Density Altitude a) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
a) is used to determine the aeroplane performance. b) is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
b) is equal to the pressure altitude. c) is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
c) is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains. d) is the maximum drag speed.
d) is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
32.1.1.0 (1728)
32.1.1.0 (1722) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack,
Given that:VEF= Critical engine failure speed VMCG= Ground minimum control configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
speedVMCA= Air minimum control speed VMU= Minimum unstick speedV1= Take- a) the airspeed and the drag will be increased.
145
b) the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased. 32.1.1.0 (1735)
c) the lift/drag ratio must be increased. The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
d) the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change. controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as
a) VSO.
b) VS1.
32.1.1.0 (1729)
c) VS.
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack,
d) VMC.
configuration and altitude at higher gross mass
a) an increase in airspeed and power is required.
b) a higher coefficient of drag is required. 32.1.1.0 (1736)
c) an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does not change. In unaccelerated climb
d) requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed. a) thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross weight in the flight
path direction.
b) lift is greater than the gross weight.
32.1.1.0 (1730)
c) lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag.
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross
d) thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross weight in the flight path direction.
mass, angle of attack and configuraton the drag
a) remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
b) remains unchanged but the the CAS increases. 32.1.1.0 (1737)
c) increases at constant TAS. Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated
d) decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower air density. percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
a) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
b) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
32.1.1.0 (1731)
c) Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing altitude at constant gross
d) Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
mass, angle of attack and configuraton the power required
a) increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
b) increases but TAS remains constant. 32.1.1.0 (1738)
c) decreases slightly because of the lower air density. The rate of climb
d) remains unchanged but the TAS increases. a) is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100.
b) is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
c) is angle of climb times true airspeed.
32.1.1.0 (1732)
d) is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.
A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires
a) a higher coefficient of lift.
b) less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. 32.1.1.0 (1739)
c) more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
d) more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag. a) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
b) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
c) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
32.1.1.0 (1733)
d) decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.
The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap extension or by
a) increasing the angle of attack.
b) increasing the TAS. 32.1.1.0 (1740)
c) decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting. Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated straight and level flight ?
d) increasing the CAS. a) the lift
b) the thrust
c) the drag
32.1.1.0 (1734)
d) the resultant from lift and drag
The speed VS is defined as
a) stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is
controllable. 32.1.1.0 (1741)
b) safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway. In which of the flight conditions listed below is the thrust required (Tr) equal to
c) design stress speed. the drag (D)?
d) speed for best specific range. a) In level flight with constant IAS
b) In accelerated level flight

146
c) In a climb with constant IAS 32.1.2.1 (1748)
d) In a descent with constant TAS How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-off run ? The thrust
a) decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
b) increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
32.1.1.0 (1742)
c) varies with mass changes only.
The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on
d) has no change during take-off and climb.
a) the bank angle only.
b) the radius of the turn and the bank angle.
c) the true airspeed and the bank angle. 32.1.2.1 (1749)
d) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane. A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
a) an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
32.1.1.0 (1743)
b) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
The induced drag of an aeroplane
c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
a) decreases with increasing airspeed.
d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
b) decreases with increasing gross weight.
c) is independent of the airspeed.
d) increases with increasing airspeed. 32.1.2.1 (1750)
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following
consequences on take-off performance:
32.1.1.0 (1744)
a) a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross weight and altitude is highest
b) an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
at
c) an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance
a) VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)
d) a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance
b) VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration)
c) VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
d) VA (design manoeuvring speed) 32.1.2.2 (1751)
(For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance Manual SEP1 1 Figure
2.4 )With regard to the graph for landing performance, what is the minimum
32.1.1.0 (1745)
headwind component required in order to land at Helgoland airport?Given:Runway
What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of the power curve'?
length: 1300 ftRunway elevation: MSLWeather: assume ISA conditionsMass: 3200
a) The speed is unstable.
lbsObstacle height: 50 ft
b) The aeroplane will not stall.
a) 10 kt.
c) The altitude cannot be maintained.
b) No wind.
d) The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.
c) 5 kt.
d) 15 kt.
32.1.2.0 (1746)
Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions, show the following
32.1.2.2 (1752)
limitations with flap 10° selected:- runway limit: 5 270 kg- obstacle limit: 4 630
(For this question use annex 032-6590A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
kgEstimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.Considering a take-off with flaps at:
2.4)Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine aeroplane, determine the
a) 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
landing distance (from a screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following
b) 5°, both limitations are increased
conditions: Given : Pressure altitude: 4000 ftO.A.T.: 5°CAeroplane mass: 3530
c) 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit decreases
lbsHeadwind component: 15 ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: tarred and
d) 20°, both limitations are increased
dryLanding gear: down
a) 1400 ft
32.1.2.1 (1747) b) 880 ft
An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following c) 1550 ft
consequences on landing performance: d) 1020 ft
a) a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance
b) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
32.1.2.2 (1753)
c) an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance
(For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 27 °CPressure Altitude: 3000
ftAeroplane Mass: 2900 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position

147
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry 32.1.2.2 (1758)
a) approximately : 1850 feet (For this question use annex 032-6574A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) approximately : 1120 feet 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
c) approximately : 1700 feet determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 30°CPressure
d) approximately : 1370 feet Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3450 lbsTailwind component: 2.5 ktFlaps: up
Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 2470 feet
32.1.2.2 (1754)
b) approximately : 1440 feet
(For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
c) approximately : 2800 feet
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
d) approximately : 2200 feet
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude:
0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsTailwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry 32.1.2.2 (1759)
a) approximately : 1300 feet (For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) approximately : 950 feet 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
c) approximately : 1400 feet determine the maximum allowable take off mass .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure
d) approximately : 750 feet Altitude: 4000 ftHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and
DryFactored runway length: 2000 ftObstacle height: 50 ft
a) 3240 lbs
32.1.2.2 (1755)
b) 3000 lbs
(For this question use annex 032-6571A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
c) 2900 lbs
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
d) > 3650 lbs
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISAPressure Altitude: 1000
ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry 32.1.2.2 (1760)
a) approximately : 1700 feet (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) approximately :1150 feet 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
c) approximately : 1500 feet determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : -7°CPressure
d) approximately : 920 feet Altitude: 7000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsHeadwind component: 5 ktFlaps:
Approach settingRunway: Tarred and Dry
a) approximately : 2050 ft
32.1.2.2 (1756)
b) approximately : 1150 ft
(For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
c) approximately : 2450 ft
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
d) approximately : 1260 ft
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : 0°CPressure Altitude: 1000
ftAeroplane Mass: 3500 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: Tarred and Dry 32.1.2.2 (1761)
a) approximately : 1650 feet (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) approximately : 1150 feet 2.1)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
c) approximately : 1480 feet determine the take off speed for (1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.Given
d) approximately : 940 feet :O.A.T : ISA+10°CPressure Altitude: 5000 ftAeroplane mass: 3400 lbsHeadwind
component: 5 ktFlaps: up Runway: Tarred and Dry
a) 71 and 82 KIAS
32.1.2.2 (1757)
b) 73 and 84 KIAS
(For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
c) 68 and 78 KIAS
2.4)With regard to the landing chart for the single engine aeroplane determine the
d) 65 and 75 KIAS
landing distance from a height of 50 ft .Given :O.A.T : ISA +15°CPressure Altitude:
0 ftAeroplane Mass: 2940 lbsHeadwind component: 10 ktFlaps: Landing position
(down) Runway: short and wet grass- firm soilCorrection factor (wet grass): 1.38 32.1.2.2 (1762)
a) approximately :1794 feet (For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) approximately : 1300 feet 2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane
c) approximately : 2000 feet determine the take off distance to a height of 50 ft.Given :O.A.T : 38°CPressure
d) approximately : 1450 feet Altitude: 4000 ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsTailwind component: 5 ktFlaps:
Approach settingRunway: Dry GrassCorrection factor: 1.2
a) approximately : 3960 ft
b) approximately : 3680 ft
148
c) approximately : 4200 ft c) improves angle and rate of climb.
d) approximately : 5040 ft d) decreases angle and rate of climb.

32.1.2.2 (1763) 32.1.3.0 (1769)

(For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure A constant headwind
2.2)With regard to the take off performance chart for the single engine aeroplane a) increases the angle of the descent flight path.
determine the take off distance over a 50 ft obstacle height.Given :O.A.T : b) increases the angle of descent.
30°CPressure Altitude: 1000 ftAeroplane Mass: 2950 lbsTailwind component: 5 c) increases the rate of descent.
ktFlaps: Approach settingRunway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoilCorrection factor: d) increases the descent distance over ground.
1.25 (for runway conditions)
a) 2375 ft
32.1.3.0 (1770)
b) 1900 ft
A constant headwind component
c) 1600 ft
a) increases the angle of flight path during climb.
d) 2000 ft
b) increases the best rate of climb.
c) decreases the angle of climb.
32.1.3.0 (1764) d) increases the maximum endurance.
Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces determine an aeroplane's angle
of climb?
32.1.3.1 (1771)
a) Weight, drag and thrust.
(For this question use annex 032-11661A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) Weight and drag only.
2.1)An extract of the flight manual of a single engine propeller aircraft is
c) Thrust and drag only.
reproduced in annex.Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runwayActual
d) Weight and thrust only.
conditions are:pressure altitude: 1 500 ftoutside tempereature: +18°Cwind
component: 4 knots tailwindFor a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance
32.1.3.0 (1765) will be:
How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb vary with increasing a) 525 m
altitude? b) 415 m
a) Both decrease. c) 440 m
b) Both increase. d) 615 m
c) Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb decreases.
d) Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb increases.
32.1.3.1 (1772)
(For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
32.1.3.0 (1766) 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions: Given :O.A.T.: ISA
a) the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. +16°CPressure altitude: 4000 ftPower: Full throttle / 25,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
b) the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. a) 865 NM
c) true airspeed to rate of climb. b) 739 NM
d) rate of climb to true airspeed. c) 851 NM
d) 911 NM
32.1.3.0 (1767)
A higher outside air temperature 32.1.3.1 (1773)
a) reduces the angle and the rate of climb. (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
b) increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. 2.4) Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
c) does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. the range, with 45 minutes reserve, in the following conditions:Given :O.A.T.: ISA
d) reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. -15°C Pressure altitude: 12000 ftPower: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
a) 902 NM
b) 875 NM
32.1.3.0 (1768)
c) 860 NM
A headwind component increasing with altitude, as compared to zero wind
d) 908 NM
condition, (assuming IAS is constant)
a) has no effect on rate of climb.
b) does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during climb. 32.1.3.1 (1774)
(For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
149
2.3)With regard to the climb performance chart for the single engine aeroplane 32.1.3.1 (1779)
determine the climb speed (ft/min).Given :O.A.T : ISA + 15°CPressure Altitude: 0 (For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2
ftAeroplane Mass: 3400 lbsFlaps: upSpeed: 100 KIAS Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
a) 1290 ft/min determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean
b) 1370 ft/min mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 ftRPM:
c) 1210 ft/min 2300
d) 1150 ft/min a) 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr
b) 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr
c) 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr
32.1.3.1 (1775)
d) 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr
(For this question use annex 032-6581A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the ground distance to reach a height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe 32.1.3.1 (1780)
following conditions:Given :O.A.T. at take-off: 25°CAirport pressure altitude: 1000 (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3
ftAeroplane mass: 3600 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 15 kts Headwind Table 2.3.1)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane,
a) 18 347 ft determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean
b) 21 505 ft mixture in the following conditions:Given :OAT: 3°CPressure altitude: 6000
c) 24 637 ft ftPower: Full throttle / 21,0 in/Hg./ 2100 RPM
d) 18 832 ft a) 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr
b) 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr
c) 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr
32.1.3.1 (1776)
d) 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr
(For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine
the ground distance to reach a height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe 32.1.3.2 (1781)
following conditions:Given : O.A.T at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 5000 With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which of the following statement
ftAeroplane mass: 3300 lbsSpeed: 100 KIASWind component: 5 kts Tailwind is correct?
a) 16 665 ft a) The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.
b) 18 909 ft b) The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.
c) 18 073 ft c) The minimum drag is is a function of the density altitude.
d) 20 109 ft d) The minimum drag is independant of the aircraft mass.

32.1.3.1 (1777) 32.1.3.2 (1782)

(For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure Which of the following statements is correct?If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal
2.3)Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine aeroplane, determine unaccelerated flight, decreases
the rate of climb and the gradient of climb in the following conditions:Given : O.A.T a) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
at Take-off: ISAAirport pressure altitude: 3000 ftAeroplane mass: 3450 lbsSpeed: b) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag decreases.
100 KIAS c) the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
a) 1120 ft/min and 9,3% d) the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag increases.
b) 1030 ft/min and 8,4%
c) 1170 ft/min and 9,9%
32.1.3.2 (1783)
d) 1310 ft/min and 11,3%
(For this question use annex 032-2211A)Which of the following diagrams correctly
shows the movement of the power required curve with increasing altitude .(H1 <
32.1.3.1 (1778) H2)
(For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 a) Figure d
Table 2.2.3)Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine aeroplane, b) Figure b
determine the manifold pressure and fuel flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise c) Figure c
lean mixture in the following conditions:Given:OAT: 13°CPressure altitude: 8000 d) Figure a
ftRPM: 2300
a) 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hr
32.1.3.2 (1784)
b) 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr
The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined aeroplane, in level flight, is
c) 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hr
reached:
d) 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr
a) at the lowest possible altitude.

150
b) at the optimum cruise altitude. 32.2.1.1 (1791)
c) at the service ceiling. The speed VLO is defined as
d) at the practical ceiling. a) landing gear operating speed.
b) design low operating speed.
c) long distance operating speed.
32.1.3.2 (1785)
d) lift off speed.
The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the climb performance. The
carriage of an additional passenger will cause the climb performance to be:
a) Degraded 32.2.1.1 (1792)
b) Improved VX is
c) Unchanged a) the speed for best angle of climb.
d) Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted b) the speed for best rate of climb.
c) the speed for best specific range.
d) the speed for best angle of flight path.
32.1.3.3 (1786)
What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance speed?
a) No affect 32.2.1.1 (1793)
b) Tailwind only effects holding speed. The speed for best rate of climb is called
c) The IAS will be increased. a) VY.
d) The IAS will be decreased. b) VX.
c) V2.
d) VO.
32.2.1.0 (1787)
At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing
configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: 32.2.2.1 (1794)
a) 130 kt Which of the following speeds can be limited by the 'maximum tyre speed'?
b) 115 kt a) Lift-off groundspeed.
c) 125 kt b) Lift-off IAS.
d) 120 kt c) Lift-off TAS.
d) Lift-off EAS.
32.2.1.1 (1788)
The critical engine inoperative 32.2.2.1 (1795)
a) increases the power required because of the greater drag caused by the Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5° will normally result in :
windmilling engine and the compensation for the yaw effect. a) a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
b) does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is independent of the power plant. b) a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
c) decreases the power required because of the lower drag caused by the windmilling engine. c) a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
d) increases the power required and decreases the total drag due to the windmilling engine. d) a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.

32.2.1.1 (1789) 32.2.2.1 (1796)

A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical miles per kg) is
parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure? a) lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
a) Straight flight b) independent from the centre of gravity position.
b) Straight flight and altitude c) lower with an aft centre of gravity position.
c) Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min d) higher with a forward centre of gravity position.
d) Altitude
32.2.2.1 (1797)
32.2.1.1 (1790) The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is
The speed V1 is defined as a) a shorter ground roll.
a) take-off decision speed. b) an increased acceleration.
b) take-off climb speed. c) a higher V1.
c) speed for best angle of climb. d) a longer take-off run.
d) engine failure speed.

151
32.2.2.2 (1798) 32.2.2.2 (1804)
Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for take-
performance ? off ?
a) High temperature and high relative humidity a) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and
b) Low temperature and high relative humidity wind components.
c) High temperature and low relative humidity b) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind
d) Low temperature and low relative humidity components.
c) Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind
components.
32.2.2.2 (1799)
d) Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind
What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds? The slope
components.
a) decreases the take-off speed V1.
b) decreases the TAS for take-off.
c) increases the IAS for take-off. 32.2.2.2 (1805)
d) has no effect on the take-off speed V1. What is the effect of increased mass on the performance of a gliding aeroplane?
a) The speed for best angle of descent increases.
b) There is no effect.
32.2.2.2 (1800)
c) The gliding angle decreases.
The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the optimum is:
d) The lift/drag ratio decreases.
a) an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a decrease of the climb
limited take-off mass.
b) a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an increase of the climb limited 32.2.2.2 (1806)
take-off mass. A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
c) a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off a) decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
mass. b) decreases the take-off distance.
d) an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off c) increases the climb limited take-off mass.
mass. d) has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

32.2.2.2 (1801) 32.2.2.2 (1807)

When the outside air temperature increases, then The take-off distance required increases
a) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass a) due to slush on the runway.
decreases. b) due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack.
b) the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases. c) due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.
c) the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass d) due to lower gross mass at take-off.
increases.
d) the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass
32.2.2.2 (1808)
decreases.
A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow. The take-off is
nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's flight manual. The take-off distance in
32.2.2.2 (1802) relation to a dry runway will be:
Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be a) increased
a) lower. b) unchanged
b) higher. c) decreased
c) unaffected. d) very significantly decreased
d) only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.
32.2.2.2 (1809)
32.2.2.2 (1803) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.The flight manual of a light
On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is increased twin nevertheless authorises a landing in these conditions. The landing distance
a) by uphill slope. will be, in relation to that for a dry runway:
b) by headwind. a) increased
c) by low outside air temperature. b) unchanged
d) by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates faster to V1. c) reduced
d) substantially decreased

152
32.2.3.0 (1810) runway length.
What is the effect of a head wind component, compared to still air, on the d) A balanced field length provides the greatest margin between ""net"" and ""gross"" take-off
maximum range speed (IAS) and the speed for maximum climb angle respectively? flight paths.
a) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed stays
constant.
32.2.3.1 (1816)
b) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0
c) Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb angle speed decreases.
ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field
d) Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle speed increases.
elevation"" ""- 5 m / kt headwind"" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind"" ""± 15 m / %
runway slope"" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature""The take-off
32.2.3.1 (1811) distance from an airport at 1 000 ft elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25
The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : hPa, 1% up-slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
a) the accelerate-stop distance available. a) 755 m
b) the take-off run available. b) 715 m
c) the take-off distance available. c) 555 m
d) the landing distance available. d) 685 m

32.2.3.1 (1812) 32.2.3.1 (1817)

For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses
aerodrome is expected to be ""wet"". The ""dry runway"" landing distance, should 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
not exceed: a) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a) 1339 m. b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
b) 1771 m. c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
c) 1540 m. d) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
d) 1147 m.
32.2.3.1 (1818)
32.2.3.1 (1813) Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a light twin climbs on a
Which of the following factors favours the selection of a low flap setting for the gradient of 5%.It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway
take-off? (horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point with an obstacle clearance
a) High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a margin of:
high ambient temperature. a) 105 m
b) Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path, long runway and a high b) 90 m
ambient temperature. c) 75 m
c) High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low ambient temperature and short d) it will not clear the obstacle
runway.
d) Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short runway and a low ambient
32.2.3.1 (1819)
temperature.
If the airworthiness documents do not specify a correction for landing on a wet
runway, the landing distance must be increased by:
32.2.3.1 (1814) a) 15%
Field length is balanced when b) 5%
a) take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance. c) 10%
b) calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG. d) 20%
c) all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
d) one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are
32.2.3.1 (1820)
equal.
Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen height, a light twin
climbs on a 10% over-the-ground climb gradient.It will clear a 900 m high
32.2.3.1 (1815) obstacle in relation to the runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50
What is the advantage of a balanced field length condition ? ft clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
a) A balanced field length gives the minimum required field length in the event of a) 115 m
an engine failure. b) 100 m
b) A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force requirement for rotation. c) 85 m
c) For a balanced field length the required take-off runway length always equals the available d) It will not clear the obstacle

153
32.2.3.1 (1821) d) At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always glide further than the heavier
An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25° and 35°.If a pilot chooses aeroplane.
25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will have:
a) an increased landing distance and better go-around performance
32.2.3.2 (1827)
b) a reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
When flying the ""Backside of Thrustcurve"" means
c) an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance
a) a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
d) a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around performance
b) the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
c) a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.
32.2.3.1 (1822) d) a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is decreased.
The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard atmosphere, no wind at 0
ft pressure-altitude.Using the following corrections : ""± 20 m / 1 000 ft field
32.2.3.2 (1828)
elevation "" ""- 5 m / kt headwind "" ""+ 10 m / kt tail wind "" ""± 15 m / %
In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA) equilibrium of forces acting
runway slope "" ""± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature ""The take-off
on the aeroplane is given by:(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
distance from an airport at 2 000 ft elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25
a) T + W sin GAMMA = D
hPa, 2% up-slope, 5 kt tail wind is :
b) T - W sin GAMMA = D
a) 970 m
c) T - D = W sin GAMMA
b) 890 m
d) T + D = - W sin GAMMA
c) 870 m
d) 810 m
32.2.3.2 (1829)
An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the
32.2.3.2 (1823)
forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? Rate of descent
During climb to the cruising level, a headwind component
/ Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
a) decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.
a) increases / increases / decreases
b) increases the amount of fuel for the climb.
b) decreases / constant / decreases
c) increases the climb time.
c) increases / increases / constant
d) decreases the climb time.
d) increases / constant / increases

32.2.3.2 (1824)
32.2.3.2 (1830)
The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that with flaps retracted, will
An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding speed. If the pilot increases
normally be:
pitch attitude the glide distance:
a) Smaller.
a) decreases.
b) Larger.
b) increases.
c) Not change.
c) remains the same.
d) Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap setting.
d) may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane.

32.2.3.2 (1825)
32.2.3.2 (1831)
Which of the following combinations basically has an effect on the angle of descent
Which of the following provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
in a glide?(Ignore compressibility effects.)
a) The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
a) Configuration and angle of attack.
b) 1.2Vs.
b) Mass and altitude.
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb.
c) Altitude and configuration.
d) The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position further UP.
d) Configuration and mass.

32.2.3.2 (1832)
32.2.3.2 (1826)
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are descending at idle thrust. Which
glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
of the following statements correctly describes their descent characteristics ?
a) Tailwind.
a) At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward speed are greater
b) Increase of aircraft mass.
for the heavier aeroplane.
c) Decrease of aircraft mass.
b) There is no difference between the descent characteristics of the two aeroplanes.
d) Headwind.
c) At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always glide further than the lighter
aeroplane.

154
32.2.3.2 (1833) 32.2.3.2 (1839)
Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide? The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no
a) Low mass. wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude.Using the following corrections: ""± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft
b) High mass. field elevation"" ""± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"" "" - 1 % with wing
c) Headwind. anti-ice"" "" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice""The climb gradient after take-off from an
d) Tailwind. airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice
operating for a functional check is :
a) 3,90%
32.2.3.2 (1834)
b) 4,30%
What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of climb (ROC) speed if all
c) 4,70%
other parameters remain constant ?
d) 4,90%
a) The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
b) The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
c) The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed. 32.2.3.3 (1840)
d) The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass. During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate of climb reduces to 100
ft/min is called:
a) Service ceiling
32.2.3.2 (1835)
b) Absolute ceiling
(For this question use annex 032-4744A)Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC
c) Thrust ceiling
versus TAS) for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the correct curves for
d) Maximum transfer ceiling
""flaps down"" compared to ""clean"" configuration?
a) a
b) b 32.2.3.3 (1841)
c) c The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
d) d a) 0 ft/min
b) 125 ft/min
c) 500 ft/min
32.2.3.2 (1836)
d) 100 ft/min
With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 000 ft/min, the climb
gradient is about :
a) 3° 32.2.3.3 (1842)
b) 3% Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum endurance, other factors
c) 5° remaining constant,
d) 8% a) both will increase with increasing altitude.
b) both will decrease with increasing altitude.
c) both will stay constant regardless of altitude.
32.2.3.2 (1837)
d) TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude while TAS for maximum
On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch propellers, for a given mass
endurance will decrease with increased altitude.
and altitude, the minimum drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum
fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a
speed: 32.2.3.3 (1843)
a) equal to 95 kt A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine inoperative has to fly
b) inferior to 95 kts over high ground. In order to maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot
c) is between 95 and 125 kt should choose:
d) equal to 125 kt a) the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift / drag ratio.
b) the long range speed.
c) the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift / drag)^3/2.
32.2.3.2 (1838)
d) the speed at the maximum lift.
A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft maintaining 100 kt true
airspeed , no wind, this climb gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of
approximately: 32.2.3.3 (1844)
a) 330 ft/min The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:
b) 3 300 ft/min a) The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
c) 3,30 m/s b) The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
d) 33,0 m/s c) The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
d) The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.

155
32.2.3.3 (1845)
With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the following statements is
correct ?
a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum altitude because
optimum altitude increases continuously during flight.
b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude, because Mach buffet might occur.
c) An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because this is economically seen as the
most attractive altitude.
d) An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum altitude because this yields the
most economic result.
32.2.3.3 (1846)
How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary with altitude?(No
compressibility effects.)
a) The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
b) The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
c) The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
d) Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
32.2.3.3 (1847)
The optimum altitude
a) increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range
reaches its maximum.
b) decreases as mass decreases.
c) is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum.
d) is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.
32.2.3.3 (1848)
To achieve the maximum range over ground with headwind the airspeed should be
a) higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
b) equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
c) lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind.
d) reduced to the gust penetration speed.
32.2.3.3 (1849)
The absolute ceiling
a) is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
b) can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed
c) is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is 5%
d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
32.2.3.3 (1850)
The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4 000 m service ceiling,
based on the forecast general conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250
kg.If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
a) higher than 4 000 m.
b) less than 4 000 m.
c) unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.
d) only a new performance analysis will determine if the service ceiling is higher or lower than
4 000 m.
32.2.3.4 (1851)
Which statement regarding the relationship between traffic load and range is
correct?
a) The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
b) The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity of fuel.
c) The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the maximum zero fuel mass.
d) The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel quantity.
32.2.3.5 (1852)
The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :
a) The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
b) The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
c) The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
d) The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven aeroplane.
32.2.3.5 (1853)
Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is achieved at:
a) The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum rate of climb speed.
b) The speed for maximum lift coefficient.
c) The speed for minimum drag.
d) The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum climb angle.
32.2.3.5 (1854)
(For this question use annex 032-2929A)Consider the graphic representation of
the power required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston engined aeroplane
with a given mass. When drawing the tangent from the origin, the point of contact
(A) determines the speed of:
a) maximum specific range.
b) maximum endurance.
c) maximum thrust.
d) critical angle of attack.
32.2.3.5 (1855)
For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum range is :
a) that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio.
b) that which givesthe minimum value of drag.
c) that which givesthe maximun value of lift
d) 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration.
32.2.3.5 (1856)
The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends two cruise power settings, 65
and 75 %. The 75% power setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
a) an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-burn/distance.
b) same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and fuel-burn/distance.
c) an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
d) same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the fuel-burn per hour.
32.2.4.1 (1857)
(For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance Manual MEP1 Figure
3.2)With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will the accelerate and
stop distance be achieved in a take-off where the brakes are released before take-
156
off power is set? 32.3.1.1 (1863)
a) No, the performance will be worse than in the chart. The take-off performance requirements for transport category aeroplanes are
b) Performance will be better than in the chart. based upon:
c) Yes, the chart has been made for this situation. a) failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever gives the largest
d) It does not matter which take-off technique is being used. take off distance.
b) all engines operating.
c) only one engine operating.
32.3.1.0 (1858)
d) failure of critical engine.
Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of the following alternatives
will decrease the take-off ground run?
a) Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap setting. 32.3.1.1 (1864)
b) Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air temperature, increased take-off mass. Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?
c) Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure altitude, decreased flap setting. a) Accelerate Stop Distance
d) Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, increased temperature. b) Take-off distance
c) All Engine Take-off distance
d) Take-off run
32.3.1.1 (1859)
An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000 metres clearway at each
end of that runway. For the calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the 32.3.1.1 (1865)
take-off distance available cannot be greater than: The length of a clearway may be included in:
a) 4500 metres. a) the take-off distance available.
b) 6000 metres. b) the accelerate-stop distance available.
c) 4000 metres. c) the take-off run available.
d) 5000 metres. d) the distance to reach V1.

32.3.1.1 (1860) 32.3.1.1 (1866)

During the certification flight testing of a twin engine turbojet aeroplane, the real The one engine out take-off run is the distance between the brake release point
take-off distances are equal to:- 1547 m with all engines running- 1720 m with and:
failure of critical engine at V1, with all other things remaining unchanged.The a) the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft point.
take-off distance adopted for the certification file is: b) the lift-off point.
a) 1779 m. c) the point where V2 is reached.
b) 1978 m. d) the point half way between V1 and V2.
c) 1547 m.
d) 1720 m.
32.3.1.1 (1867)
What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-
32.3.1.1 (1861) off?
The take-off decision speed V1 is: a) The safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
a) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off b) The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
must be aborted. c) The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
b) not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed. d) The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.
c) a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be
aborted.
32.3.1.1 (1868)
d) sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
Which statement is correct?
a) The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure altitude and outer air
32.3.1.1 (1862) temperature
Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being b) The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of:field length limited take-off
maintained by: massclimb limited take-off massobstacle limited take-off mass.
a) primary aerodynamic control only. c) The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind component increases.
b) primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel. d) The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger take-off flap setting is used.
c) primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking.
d) nosewheel steering only.
32.3.1.1 (1869)
Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by :
a) VR and VMCG
157
b) V2 and VMCA c) V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
c) VR and VMCA d) It may lead to over-rotation.
d) V2 and VMCG
32.3.1.1 (1876)
32.3.1.1 (1870) Which of the following statements is correct?
Take-off run is defined as the a) The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
a) horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a b) The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the wind component.
point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at c) The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the runway condition.
which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. d) The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of the wind component.
b) distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1.
c) distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet.
32.3.1.1 (1877)
d) Distance from brake release to V2.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
32.3.1.1 (1871) b) VR should not be higher than V1.
The minimum value of V2 must exceed ""air minimum control speed"" by: c) VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
a) 10% d) VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
b) 15%
c) 20%
32.3.1.1 (1878)
d) 30%
Complete the following statement regarding the take-off performance of an
aeroplane in performance class A. Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and
32.3.1.1 (1872) allowing for a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft must be
Which of the following statements is correct ? capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii) .........
a) A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the a) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
aeroplane during an aborted take-off. b) (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
b) An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off. c) (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
c) A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off. d) (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
d) If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of
the permanent runway surface.
32.3.1.1 (1879)
With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is
32.3.1.1 (1873) correct?
The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed: a) The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties.
a) below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized, above b) When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the
which take-off must be continued. runway length.
b) at which the take-off must be rejected. c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used.
c) below which the take-off must be continued. d) Screen height cannot be reduced.
d) at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.
32.3.1.1 (1880)
32.3.1.1 (1874) The take-off run is
Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by a) the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a
VMCA? point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at
a) Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
b) Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation. b) 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the
c) High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft
d) High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation. above the runway with all engines operative.
c) 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is
reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
32.3.1.1 (1875)
d) the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which
During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the
than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed
runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.
immediatly above the correct value of V1?
a) The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available.
b) The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available.
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32.3.1.1 (1881) 32.3.1.1 (1888)
Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway length to determine the take- The speed VR
off distance available ? a) is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
a) No. b) must be higher than V2.
b) No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the runway. c) must be higher than VLOF.
c) Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the aeroplane. d) must be equal to or lower than V1.
d) Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the runway.
32.3.1.1 (1889)
32.3.1.1 (1882) The speed V2 is
Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off? a) the take-off safety speed.
a) VMCG, V1, VR, V2. b) that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an
b) V1, VMCG, VR, V2. engine failure.
c) V1, VR, VMCG, V2. c) the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems.
d) V1, VR, V2, VMCA. d) the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic
surfaces in the case of an engine failure.
32.3.1.1 (1883)
Which statement regarding V1 is correct? 32.3.1.1 (1890)
a) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR. Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or absence of stopway and/or
b) V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG. clearway ?
c) When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to be taken into account on the a) V1
remaining symmetric engines. b) V2
d) The V1 correction for up-slope is negative. c) VMCG
d) VMCA
32.3.1.1 (1884)
When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the TODA: 32.3.1.1 (1891)
a) the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take-off mass. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as
b) the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the distance from V1 to the 35 feet a) take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
point. b) lift off speed.
c) the ""balanced take-off distance"" equals 115% of the ""all engine take-off distance"". c) take-off decision speed.
d) the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an engine failure at V1. d) critical engine failure speed.

32.3.1.1 (1885) 32.3.1.1 (1892)

VR cannot be lower than: The take-off mass could be limited by
a) V1 and 105% of VMCA. a) the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake energy and the
b) 105% of V1 and VMCA. climb gradient with one engine inoperative.
c) 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane. b) the maximum brake energy only.
d) 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines. c) the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only.
d) the take-off distance available (TODA) only.
32.3.1.1 (1886)
V2 has to be equal to or higher than 32.3.1.1 (1893)
a) 1.1 VMCA. Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?
b) 1.15 VMCG. a) Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has
c) 1.1 VSO. failed.
d) 1.15 VR. b) The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA
c) The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient
d) VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
32.3.1.1 (1887)
V1 has to be
a) equal to or higher than VMCG. 32.3.1.1 (1894)
b) equal to or higher than VMCA. Which of the following will decrease V1?
c) higher than than VR. a) Inoperative anti-skid.
d) equal to or higher than V2. b) Increased take-off mass.
159
c) Inoperative flight management system. remain constant and not limiting?
d) Increased outside air temperature. a) A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.
b) An uphill slope increases take-off mass.
c) Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
32.3.1.1 (1895)
d) A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
In case of an engine failure recognized below V1
a) the take-off must be rejected.
b) the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available. 32.3.1.2 (1902)
c) the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available. Uphill slope
d) the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1. a) increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance.
b) decreases the accelerate stop distance only.
c) decreases the take-off distance only.
32.3.1.1 (1896)
d) increases the allowed take-off mass.
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1
a) the take-off must be continued.
b) the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF. 32.3.1.2 (1903)
c) a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off distance. If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy limited a higher uphill slope
d) the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR. would
a) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
32.3.1.1 (1897)
c) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
The take-off distance available is
d) decrease the required take-off distance.
a) the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available.
b) the runway length minus stopway.
c) the runway length plus half of the clearway. 32.3.1.2 (1904)
d) the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists. Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?
a) A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties
b) The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry
32.3.1.1 (1898)
runway
The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller powered aeroplanes with
c) In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used
more than three engines may not be less than:
d) Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.
a) 1.15 Vs
b) 1.3 Vs
c) 1.2 Vs 32.3.1.2 (1905)
d) 1.2 Vs1 Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a
balanced take-off? Down-slope...
a) reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
32.3.1.1 (1899)
b) increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-engined turbo propeller
c) reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR).
powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
d) increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).
a) 1.2 Vs
b) 1.3 Vs
c) 1.15 Vs 32.3.1.3 (1906)
d) 1.15 Vs1 The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field length limited Take-off Mass
(TOM) are different for the zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is
the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to zero flap position?
32.3.1.1 (1900)
a) Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?
b) Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
a) VR may not be lower than V1
c) Increased TOD required and increased field length limited TOM.
b) V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
d) Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited TOM.
c) When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on the remaining symmetric
engines
d) The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative 32.3.1.3 (1907)
The determination of the maximum mass on brake release, of a certified turbojet
aeroplane with 5°, 15° and 25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following
32.3.1.2 (1901)
values, with wind:Flap angle: 5° 15° 25°Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71
How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors
5002nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800Wind correction: Head
160
wind:+120kg / kt Tail wind: -360kg / ktGiven that the tail wind component is c) increase the maximum mass for take-off.
equal to 5 kt, the maximum mass on brake release and corresponding flap angle d) increase the required take-off distance.
will be:
a) 67 700 kg / 15 deg
32.3.1.3 (1914)
b) 69 000 kg / 15 deg
Reduced take-off thrust
c) 72 200 kg / 5 deg
a) has the benefit of improving engine life.
d) 69 700 kg / 25 deg
b) can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off
mass.
32.3.1.3 (1908) c) is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: d) can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.
a) windshear is reported on the take-off path.
b) it is dark.
32.3.1.4 (1915)
c) the runway is dry.
What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure
d) the runway is wet.
altitude is decreased?
a) It will decrease the take-off distance required.
32.3.1.3 (1909) b) It will increase the take-off distance required.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: c) It will increase the take-off ground run.
a) anti skid is not usable. d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
b) it is dark.
c) the runway is wet.
32.3.1.4 (1916)
d) the OAT is ISA +10°C
What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure
altitude is increased?
32.3.1.3 (1910) a) It will increase the take-off distance.
Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: b) It will decrease the take-off distance.
a) the runway is contaminated. c) It will increase the take-off distance available.
b) it is dark. d) It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.
c) the runway is wet.
d) obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
32.3.1.4 (1917)
How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
32.3.1.3 (1911) a) VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if: b) VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
a) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field length limited TOM. c) VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b) The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off distance required one engine out d) VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
at V1.
c) The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is greater than the performance limited
32.3.1.4 (1918)
TOM.
Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
d) The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb limited TOM.
a) the climb limited take-off mass.
b) the field limited take-off mass.
32.3.1.3 (1912) c) the obstacle limited take-off mass.
Which statement about reduced thrust is correct? d) the take-off run.
a) Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass is less than the field
length limited take-off mass.
32.3.1.4 (1919)
b) Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how does increasing pressure
c) Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
altitude affect allowable take-off mass?
d) In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
a) Allowable take-off mass decreases.
b) Allowable take-off mass increases.
32.3.1.3 (1913) c) There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, downhill slope would d) Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft PA.
a) have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
b) decrease the maximum mass for take-off.

161
32.3.1.4 (1920) b) VLOF
For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the following statements is c) VMU
correct? d) VR
a) The performance data for take-off must be determined in general by means of
calculation, only a few values are verified by flight tests.
32.3.1.5 (1927)
b) The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off mass, the more V1 has to be
Which of the following represents the maximum value for V1 assuming max tyre
decreased to compensate for decreasing friction.
speed and max brake energy speed are not limiting?
c) Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off performance.
a) VR
d) A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off, even if the performance data for
b) VMCA
contaminated runway is available.
c) V2
d) VREF
32.3.1.4 (1921)
How is wind considered in the take-off performance data of the Aeroplane
32.3.1.5 (1928)
Operations Manuals ?
How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of T/O flaps 10°?
a) Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150% of the tailwind.
a) V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
b) Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
b) V2 has the same value in both cases.
c) Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125% tailwind.
c) V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are set.
d) Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only headwinds are considered.
d) V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a function of runway length only.

32.3.1.5 (1922)
32.3.1.5 (1929)
The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:
a) 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs for two or three-
a) 1.2Vs.
engine turboprop aeroplanes.
b) 1.2VMCG.
b) 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
c) 1.05VLOF.
c) 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
d) 1.3V1.
d) 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.

32.3.1.5 (1930)
32.3.1.5 (1923)
If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the
Which of the following answers is true?
following is correct ?
a) V1 <= VR
a) The take-off is not permitted.
b) V1 > Vlof
b) The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR.
c) V1 > VR
c) The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
d) V1 < VMCG
d) The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance.

32.3.1.5 (1924)
Which statement is correct?
a) VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
b) VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
c) In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted.
d) VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure.
32.3.1.5 (1925)
Which statement is correct?
a) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
b) VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
c) VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
d) VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1 V1.
32.3.1.5 (1926)
Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
a) VMCG
32.3.1.6 (1931)
During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane, the actual measured take-
off runs from brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF
is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet above the take-off
surface are:- 1747 m, all engines operating- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure
recognized at V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.Considering both
possibilities to determine the take-off run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
a) 2009 m.
b) 2243 m.
c) 2096 m.
d) 1950 m.
32.3.1.6 (1932)
During certification flight testing on a four engine turbojet aeroplane the actual
take-off distances measured are:- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine
recognised at V1- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things being
equalThe take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
162
a) 3050 m 32.3.2.1 (1939)
b) 3513 m A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
c) 2555 m a) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available.
d) 2938 m b) The clearway does not equal the stopway.
c) The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
d) The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.
32.3.1.6 (1933)
During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be
much greater than the field length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the 32.3.2.1 (1940)
performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting obstacles. If the field length limited take off mass has been calculated using a Balanced Field
a) By selecting a higher flap setting. Length technique, the use of any additional clearway in take off performance
b) By selecting a higher V2. calculations may allow
c) By selecting a lower V2. a) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower V1
d) By selecting a lower flap setting. b) a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher V1
c) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on V1
d) the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher V1
32.3.2.0 (1934)
In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in
order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: 32.3.2.2 (1941)
a) reduce the engine thrust. Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what
b) reverse engine thrust. reason?
c) apply wheel brakes. a) Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a
d) deploy airbrakes or spoilers. rejected take-off.
b) To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.
c) To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
32.3.2.0 (1935)
d) To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?
a) The accelerate stop distance increases.
b) The accelerate stop distance decreases. 32.3.2.2 (1942)
c) It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. Concerning the landing gear, which of the following factors would limit the take-
d) Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted. off mass?
a) Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy.
b) Tyre pressure and brake temperature.
32.3.2.0 (1936)
c) Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.
In which of the following distances can the length of a stopway be included?
d) Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature.
a) In the accelerate stop distance available.
b) In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
c) In the all-engine take-off distance. 32.3.2.2 (1943)
d) In the take-off run available. Which combination of circumstances or conditions would most likely lead to a tyre
speed limited take-off?
a) A high runway elevation and tail wind.
32.3.2.1 (1937)
b) A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway in take-off calculation is
c) A high runway elevation and a head wind.
correct?
d) A low runway elevation and a head wind.
a) The field length limited take-off mass will increase.
b) The usable length of the clearway is not limited.
c) V1 is increased. 32.3.2.2 (1944)
d) V1 remains constant. The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
a) VLOF in terms of ground speed.
b) V1 in kt TAS.
32.3.2.1 (1938)
c) VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
Balanced V1 is selected
d) V1 in kt ground speed.
a) if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance.
b) for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass.
c) for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. 32.3.2.2 (1945)
d) if it is equal to V2. May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off and landing data ?
a) Yes.
163
b) No. a) 1, 4, 6, 9
c) Only for take-off. b) 2, 3, 6, 9
d) Only for landing. c) 1, 4, 5, 10
d) 1, 5, 8, 10
32.3.2.2 (1946)
A higher outside air temperature (OAT) 32.3.3.1 (1952)
a) decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and the climb segments are
b) increases the field length limited take-off mass. only specified for:
c) increases the climb limited take-off mass. a) the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
d) decreases the take-off distance. b) the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
c) 2 engined aeroplane.
d) the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.
32.3.3.0 (1947)
If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:
a) not be affected. 32.3.3.1 (1953)
b) increase. At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?
c) decrease. a) 400 ft above field elevation.
d) increase in the flaps extended case. b) 35 ft above ground.
c) When gear retraction is completed.
d) 1500 ft above field elevation.
32.3.3.0 (1948)
Which of the following sets of factors will increase the climb-limited TOM?
a) Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT. 32.3.3.1 (1954)
b) High flap setting, low PA, low OAT. A head wind will:
c) Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT. a) increase the climb flight path angle.
d) Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT. b) increase the angle of climb.
c) increase the rate of climb.
d) shorten the time of climb.
32.3.3.1 (1949)
(For this question use annex 032-1562A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.4 )For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap settings (5° and 15°) 32.3.3.1 (1955)
are certified.Given:Field length avalaible= 2400 mOutside air temperature= The second segment begins
-10°CAirport pressure altitude= 7000 ftThe maximum allowed take-off mass is: a) when landing gear is fully retracted.
a) 56 000 kg b) when flap retraction begins.
b) 55 000 kg c) when flaps are selected up.
c) 70 000 kg d) when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
d) 52 000 kg
32.3.3.1 (1956)
32.3.3.1 (1950) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be
In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to avoided
clear all obstacles is a) by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway
a) the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all elevation.
obstacles within the obstacle corridor. b) by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
b) based on pressure altitudes. c) only by using standard turns.
c) the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed. d) by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
d) the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.
32.3.3.1 (1957)
32.3.3.1 (1951) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane,
The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the is correct?
take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear a) The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT.
down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the b) The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb.
take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to c) 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off
V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to mass.
V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are:
164
d) On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb c) 121310 kg
limited. d) 106425 kg

32.3.3.1 (1958) 32.3.3.2 (1964)

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is established on climb with all
a) at completion of gear retraction. engines operating. The lift-to-drag ratio is 14.Each engine has a thrust of 75 000
b) at completion of flap retraction. Newtons. The gradient of climb is:(given: g= 10 m/s²)
c) at reaching V2. a) 12.86%.
d) at 35 ft above the runway. b) 1.286%.
c) 27%.
d) 7.86%.
32.3.3.1 (1959)
The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
a) a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2. 32.3.3.2 (1965)
b) selecting a lower V1. Which of the following statements is applicable to the acceleration height at the
c) selecting a lower V2. beginning of the 3rd climb segment ?
d) selecting a lower VR. a) The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum time take-off
thrust may be applied.
b) The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500 ft.
32.3.3.1 (1960)
c) There is no requirement for minimum climb performance when flying at the acceleration
During take-off the third segment begins:
height.
a) when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
d) The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be maintained in case of all engines
b) when landing gear is fully retracted.
operating.
c) when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
d) when flap retraction is completed.
32.3.3.3 (1966)
Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet aeroplane are as
32.3.3.1 (1961)
follows:Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engineg = 10 m/s²Drag = 72 569 NMinimum
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the climb limit. What would be
gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) /
the effect on this limit of an increase in the headwind component?
WeightThe maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment conditions is:
a) None.
a) 101 596 kg
b) The effect would vary depending upon the height of any obstacle within the net take-off
b) 286 781 kg
flight path.
c) 74 064 kg
c) The climb limited take-off mass would increase.
d) 209 064 kg
d) The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.

32.3.3.4 (1967)
32.3.3.1 (1962)
The net flight path climb gradient after take-off compared to the gross climb
Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at
gradient is:
the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?
a) smaller.
a) The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft.
b) larger.
b) A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
c) equal.
c) The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft.
d) depends on type of aircraft.
d) There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during
the calculation of the net flight path.
32.3.3.4 (1968)
An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path clears all obstacles. The
32.3.3.1 (1963)
half-width of the obstacle-corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at
On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle requires a minimum gradient
least:
of climb of 2.6% in order to provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a
a) 90m + 0.125D
mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the same power and
b) 0.125D
assuming that the sine of the angle of climb varies inversely with mass, at what
c) -90m + 1.125D
maximum mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum gradient?
d) 90m + D/0.125
a) 118455 kg
b) 102150 kg

165
32.3.3.4 (1969) 32.3.4.1 (1975)
When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a given altitude?
clearance / climb performance: a) The time to climb does not change.
a) decreases / remains constant. b) The time to climb increases.
b) increases / increases. c) The time to climb decreases.
c) remains constant / remains constant. d) The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type.
d) decreases / decreases.
32.3.4.1 (1976)
32.3.3.4 (1970) You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do you expect in the
Which of the following statements, concerning the obstacle limited take-off mass crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT = ISA) ?
for performance class A aeroplane, is correct? a) The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is replaced by the
a) It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle clearance with the constant Mach-climb.
respect to the ""net take-off flight path"". b) The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a constant Mach number is grossly
b) It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off path. reduced as compared to constant IAS.
c) It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin of 50 ft with respect to the c) During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of climb is approximately zero.
""net take off flight path"". d) No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS and .78 Mach are the same (at
d) It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-off mass. ISA temperature TAS=460 kt)

32.3.3.4 (1971) 32.3.4.1 (1977)

Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of the following statements is If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover
correct? altitude is
a) A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in tail wind condition. a) lower.
b) Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular mass. b) higher.
c) The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb limited take-off mass. c) unchanged.
d) The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°. d) only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

32.3.3.4 (1972) 32.3.4.1 (1978)

In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited and the take-off flight path (For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
includes a turn, the bank angle should not exceed 4.5)With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet aeroplane, why does the
a) 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft. take-off performance climb limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0?
b) 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. a) At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the climb limit mass.
c) 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. b) At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit mass.
d) 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. c) At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing into account.
d) The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at higher temperatures they are
temperature limited.
32.3.3.4 (1973)
Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?
a) The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is 32.3.4.1 (1979)
maximum. (For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
b) V2 + 10 kt. 4.5)Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet aeroplane climb limit chart.
c) The speed for maximum rate of climb. Why has the wind been omitted from the chart?
d) V2. a) The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.
b) The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
c) There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to the ground.
32.3.4.0 (1974)
d) There is a built-in safety measure.
(For this question use annex 032-915A)What is the maximum vertical speed of a
three engine turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and a mass of
75 000 kg?Using the following: g = 10 m/s² 1 kt = 100 ft/min SIN( Angle of climb) 32.3.4.2 (1980)
= (Thrust- Drag)/ Weight Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:
a) +1267 ft / min. a) lower than that for clean configuration.
b) -1267 ft / min. b) higher than that for clean configuration.
c) 0 ft / min. c) same as that for clean configuration.
d) +3293 ft / min. d) changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.

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32.3.4.2 (1981) c) IAS decreases and TAS increases.
Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing altitude affect Vx and Vy: d) IAS increases and TAS decreases.
a) Both will increase.
b) Both will remain the same.
32.3.4.2 (1988)
c) Both will decrease.
Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane are basically identical?The
d) Vx will decrease and Vy will increase.
speeds for:
a) holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle.
32.3.4.2 (1982) b) maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb angle.
How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere? c) maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.
a) TAS decreases. d) maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum range.
b) TAS increases.
c) TAS is constant.
32.3.4.2 (1989)
d) TAS is not related to Mach Number.
What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?
a) The lift coefficient increases.
32.3.4.2 (1983) b) The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems.
A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will c) IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.
the climb angle / the pitch angle change? d) The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.
a) Reduce / decrease.
b) Reduce / remain constant.
32.3.4.2 (1990)
c) Remain constant / decrease.
A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is
d) Remain constant / become larger.
most likely to be reached?
a) The Maximum operating Mach number.
32.3.4.2 (1984) b) The Stalling speed.
With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be flown at approximately: c) The Minimum control speed air.
a) The highest CL/CD ratio. d) The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
b) The highest CL/CD² ratio.
c) 1.2 Vs
32.3.4.2 (1991)
d) 1.1 Vs
Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the gradient and the rate of
climb whereas
32.3.4.2 (1985) a) VY and VX are increased.
What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take b) VX is increased and VY is decreased.
off, constant IAS is maintained?(Assume a constant mass.) c) VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
a) The drag remains almost constant. d) VY and VX are decreased.
b) The drag increases considerably.
c) The drag decreases.
32.3.4.2 (1992)
d) The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
a) VX is always below VY.
32.3.4.2 (1986) b) VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet aeroplane is correct ? (from c) VX is always above VY.
low to high speeds) d) VY is always above VMO.
a) Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed.
b) Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.
32.3.4.2 (1993)
c) Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed, maximum angle of climb speed.
The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass
d) Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum range speed.
a) decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available decreases due to
the lower air density.
32.3.4.2 (1987) b) increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases due to the lower air density.
A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which c) increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true airspeed.
of the following statements is correct? d) is independent of altitude.
a) IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
b) IAS increases and TAS increases.

167
32.3.4.2 (1994) 32.3.5.1 (2000)
Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in the performance diagram The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane with a pressurised cabin
is correct? a) is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.
a) Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed b) is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
b) Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum range speed c) is dependent on the OAT.
c) Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx d) is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
d) Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
32.3.5.1 (2001)
32.3.5.0 (1995) Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?
The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet aeroplane: a) To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces.
a) increases when the aeroplane mass decreases. b) Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be
b) is always equal to the powerplant ceiling. expected.
c) is independent of the aeroplane mass. c) Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston
d) is only dependent on the outside air temperature. engine aeroplanes only.
d) To respect ATC flight level constraints.
32.3.5.1 (1996)
Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct? 32.3.5.1 (2002)
a) Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited by buffet onset at Which statement with respect to the step climb is correct ?
g-loads larger than 1. a) Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited by the 1.3-g altitude.
b) A step climb must be executed immediately after the aeroplane has exceeded the optimum b) In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the aircraft has exceeded the
altitude. optimum altitude.
c) A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher altitude. c) A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in the filed flight plan.
d) A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling off, the 1.3g altitude is d) A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb.
reached.
32.3.5.2 (2003)
32.3.5.1 (1997) With all other things remaining unchanged and with T the outside static air
Which of the following factors determines the maximum flight altitude in the temperature expressed in degrees K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet
""Buffet Onset Boundary"" graph? powered aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach Number and zero
a) Aerodynamics. headwind,is as follows:
b) Theoretical ceiling. a) proportional to T
c) Service ceiling. b) proportional to 1/T²
d) Economy. c) proportional to 1/T
d) independent from T
32.3.5.1 (1998)
Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart? 32.3.5.2 (2004)
a) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to
various masses and altitudes. be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one
b) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass
settings. of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
c) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes. a) 3259 kg/h
d) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various weights b) 3602 kg/h
and altitudes. c) 3787 kg/h
d) 3426 kg/h
32.3.5.1 (1999)
The aerodynamic ceiling 32.3.5.2 (2005)
a) is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and for high speed A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific fuel consumption of 0.06
buffet are the same. kg per Newton of thrust and per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel
b) depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing thrust. mileage of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions, the same
c) is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is zero. aeroplane equipped with modern engines with a specific fuel consumption of 0.035
d) is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min. kg per Newton of thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
a) 8.17 kg/NM.

168
b) 14 kg/NM. a) 3804 kg/h.
c) 11.7 kg/NM. b) 4044 kg/h.
d) 10.7 kg/NM. c) 3365 kg/h.
d) 3578 kg/h.
32.3.5.2 (2006)
At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is increased by 5% - assuming 32.3.5.2 (2012)
the engines specific consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly consumption is A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow
approximately increased by: change?
a) 5% a) Increase / decrease.
b) 7.5% b) Increase / increase.
c) 10% c) Decrease / increase.
d) 2.5% d) Decrease / decrease.

32.3.5.2 (2007) 32.3.5.2 (2013)

For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of increased altitude on specific During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight level and at the
range? maximum range speed, the IAS / the drag will:
a) Increases. a) decrease / decrease.
b) Decreases. b) increase / decrease.
c) Does not change. c) increase / increase.
d) Increases only if there is no wind. d) decrease / increase.

32.3.5.2 (2008) 32.3.5.2 (2014)

(For this question use annex 032-1014A)Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of a jet aeroplane,
diagrams provided correctly shows the movement of the ""Thrust Required Curve . respectively, is the point for
(M1>M2). a) minimum drag.
a) c b) maximum specific range.
b) a c) maximum endurance.
c) b d) minimum specific range.
d) d
32.3.5.2 (2015)
32.3.5.2 (2009) For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is the reason for the use of
Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives: 'maximum range speed' ?
a) a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific range and higher a) Minimum specific fuel consumption.
cruise speed. b) Minimum fuel flow.
b) a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range. c) Longest flight duration.
c) an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum specific range. d) Minimum drag.
d) a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range and a lower cruise speed.
32.3.5.2 (2016)
32.3.5.2 (2010) Consider the graphic representation of the power required versus true air speed
With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range for an aeroplane with (TAS), for a jet aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the
turbojet engines is: origin, the point of contact determines the speed of:
a) equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio. a) maximum endurance.
b) equal to that maximum endurance. b) minimum power.
c) equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag. c) maximum specific range.
d) lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio. d) critical angle of attack.

32.3.5.2 (2011) 32.3.5.2 (2017)

Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel consumptions are considered A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight.The speed corresponds to:
to be equal) are at holding speed at the same altitude.The mass of the first aircraft a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag versus TAS curve.
is 130 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the b) the minimum drag.
second aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is: c) the minimum required power.
169
d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the power required (Pr) versus TAS b) the speed for best economy.
curve. c) the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
d) specific range with tailwind.
32.3.5.2 (2018)
In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the speed for maximum range 32.3.5.2 (2025)
corresponds with: The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required is a minimum
a) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag curve. a) is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
b) the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the induced drag curve. b) is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
c) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the parasite drag curve. c) is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and higher than the minimum drag
d) the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the induced drag curve. speed in the descent.
d) is the same as the minimum drag speed.
32.3.5.2 (2019)
The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two 32.3.5.2 (2026)
airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly? Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude
a) Maximum range. and airspeed remain unchanged)
b) Maximum endurance. a) decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
c) Holding. b) increases the power required.
d) Long range. c) affects neither drag nor power required.
d) increases the induced drag.
32.3.5.2 (2020)
Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'? 32.3.5.2 (2027)
a) It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed. The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
b) In order to achieve speed stability. a) improves the maximum range.
c) The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed. b) increases the stalling speed.
d) In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under. c) improves the longitudinal stabiity.
d) decreases the maximum range.
32.3.5.2 (2021)
""Maximum endurance"" 32.3.5.2 (2028)
a) is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption. The speed range between low speed buffet and high speed buffet
b) is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction. a) narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
c) can be flown in a steady climb only. b) decreases with increasing mass and is independent of altitude.
d) can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight. c) is only limiting at low altitudes.
d) increases with increasing mass.
32.3.5.2 (2022)
The speed for maximum endurance 32.3.5.2 (2029)
a) is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range. The danger associated with low speed and/or high speed buffet
b) is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range. a) limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
c) can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum specific range. b) can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
d) is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range. c) exists only above MMO.
d) has to be considered at take-off and landing.
32.3.5.2 (2023)
Which of the equations below defines specific range (SR)? 32.3.5.2 (2030)
a) SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified rating?
b) SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow a) Maximum Cruise Thrust
c) SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow b) Maximum Continuous Thrust
d) SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow c) Go-Around Thrust
d) Maximum Take-off Thrust
32.3.5.2 (2024)
Long range cruise is selected as 32.3.5.2 (2031)
a) the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range in zero wind. At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of a jet engine

170
a) increases slightly with increasing airspeed. a) the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be achieved.
b) is independent of the airspeed. b) the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.
c) decreases slightly with increasing airspeed. c) the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft can be maintained.
d) increases with decreasing OAT. d) the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed buffet as TAS is a maximum.

32.3.5.2 (2032) 32.3.5.2 (2039)

At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow of a jet engine The optimum cruise altitude increases
a) decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature. a) if the aeroplane mass is decreased.
b) increase with increasing altitude. b) if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
c) are independent of outside air temperature (OAT). c) if the tailwind component is decreased.
d) increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant temperature. d) if the aeroplane mass is increased.

32.3.5.2 (2033) 32.3.5.2 (2040)

The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM Below the optimum cruise altitude
a) increases in proportion to the airspeed. a) the Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing
b) does not change with changing altitude. altitude.
c) is independent of the airspeed. b) the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) is inversely proportional to the airspeed. c) the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
d) the Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude.
32.3.5.2 (2034)
The intersections of the thrust available and the drag curve are the operating 32.3.5.2 (2041)
points of the aeroplane Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than
a) in unaccelerated level flight. the optimum altitude ?
b) in descent with constant IAS. a) If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more
c) in accelerated level flight. tailwind can be expected.
d) in unaccelerated climb. b) If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.
c) If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion).
d) If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.
32.3.5.2 (2035)
At speeds below minimum drag
a) a lower speed requires a higher thrust. 32.3.5.2 (2042)
b) a higher speed requires a higher thrust. On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence
c) the aeroplane can not be controlled manually. of the fuel consumption. The result is:
d) the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight. a) The specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
b) The speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
c) The specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
32.3.5.2 (2036)
d) The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number requires
a) a higher angle of attack.
b) a lower coefficient of lift. 32.3.5.2 (2043)
c) a lower coefficient of drag. If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for level flight
d) a lower angle of attack. a) the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
b) the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
c) the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed command.
32.3.5.2 (2037)
d) the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed for maximum range cruise.
a) Higher
b) Lower 32.3.5.2 (2044)
c) Depending on the OAT and net mass. In a given configuration the endurance of a piston engined aeroplane only depends
d) Depending on density altitude and mass. on:
a) altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.
b) altitude, speed and mass.
32.3.5.2 (2038)
c) speed and mass.
The optimum cruise altitude is
d) speed, mass and fuel on board.
171
32.3.5.2 (2045) 32.3.5.3 (2050)
Which of the following statements with regard to the optimum cruise altitude (best The drift down requirements are based on:
fuel mileage) is correct? a) the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine
a) An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise altitude, because ATC has failed.
normally does not allow to fly continuously at the optimum cruise altitude. b) the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure.
b) An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude, as otherwise Mach buffet can c) the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
occur. d) the landing mass limit at the alternate.
c) An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude, because this is most attractive
from an economy point of view.
32.3.5.3 (2051)
d) An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude, as this provides the largest
Which of the following statements is correct?
specific range.
a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down, fuel dumping may
be taken into account.
32.3.5.3 (2046) b) The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to : cruising altitude.
a) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine c) The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
inoperative. d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift down, because it is not
b) 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with permitted to fly the same altitude as with all engines operating.
one engine inoperative.
c) 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed
32.3.5.3 (2052)
d) 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the
With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly
second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.
the speed corresponding to:
a) the minimum drag.
32.3.5.3 (2047) b) the critical Mach number.
ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no c) the minimum angle of descent.
suitable airport is within an area of d) the maximum lift.
a) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
b) 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
32.3.5.3 (2053)
c) 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What
d) 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.
is the procedure which should be applied?
a) Drift Down Procedure.
32.3.5.3 (2048) b) Emergency Descent Procedure.
(For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure c) ETOPS.
4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, why d) Long Range Cruise Descent.
does the curve representing 35 000 kg gross mass in the chart for drift down net
profiles start at approximately 3 minutes at FL370?
32.3.5.3 (2054)
a) Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate to the optimum
'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied
speed for drift down at the original cruising level.
a) after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum
b) Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower rate after failure, there is still some
altitude.
thrust left during four minutes.
b) after cabin depressurization.
c) Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to develop the optimal rate of descent,
c) to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
because of the inertia involved.
d) to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.
d) All the curves start at the same point, which is situated outside the chart.

32.3.5.3 (2055)
32.3.5.3 (2049)
If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance altitude during a drift down
A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine inoperative, and has to overfly a
procedure
high terrain area. In order to allow the greatest clearance height, the appropriate
a) fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift down.
airspeed must be the airspeed
b) the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded and it should be flown at the
a) of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.
stall speed plus 10 kt.
b) giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
c) fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle clearance altitude is reached.
c) giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
d) the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach configuration.
d) for long-range cruise.

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32.3.5.3 (2056)
With one or two engines inoperative the best specific range at high altitudes is
a) reduced.
b) improved.
c) not affected.
d) first improved and later reduced.
32.3.5.3 (2057)
(For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.24)With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet aeroplane, what is
meant by ""equivalent gross weight at engine failure"" ?
a) The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual gross weight
corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C.
b) The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.
c) This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at higher temperatures.
d) The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher temperatures.
32.3.5.4 (2058)
The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the:
a) obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
b) engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
c) climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
d) weight during landing at the alternate
32.3.5.4 (2059)
Which one of the following statements concerning drift-down is correct?
a) When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may
be taken into account.
b) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at
cruising altitude.
c) The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
d) An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not
permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.
32.3.6.1 (2060)
During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin to low speed buffet will:
a) increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.
b) remain constant, because the Mach number remains constant.
c) increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
d) decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.
32.3.6.1 (2061)
During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will:
a) decrease.
b) increase.
c) increase at first and decrease later on.
d) remain constant.
32.3.6.1 (2062)
An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number,
and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of
descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle
thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects.
a) Increases in the first part, is constant in the second.
b) Increases in the first part, decreases in the second.
c) Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second.
d) Decreases in the first part, increases in the second.
32.3.6.1 (2063)
The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with constant Mach number, mainly
because the :
a) IAS increases.
b) aircraft mass decreases.
c) TAS decreases.
d) glide angle increases.
32.3.6.1 (2064)
A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following
speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?
a) Maximum Operating Speed
b) Never Exceed Speed
c) High Speed Buffet Limit
d) Maximum Operational Mach Number
32.3.6.1 (2065)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to
drag ratio speed?
a) The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for descent.
b) The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for descent.
c) The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the speed for descent.
d) The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the speed for descent.
32.3.6.1 (2066)
Which statement is correct for a descent without engine thrust at maximum lift to
drag ratio speed?
a) A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
b) A headwind component increases the ground distance.
c) A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent.
d) A tailwind component decreases the ground distance.
32.3.6.1 (2067)
Is there any difference between the vertical speed versus forward speed curves for
two identical aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero thrust and wind)
a) Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both the vertical and
forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will be larger.
b) No difference.
c) Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
d) Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always glide a greater distance.
32.3.6.3 (2068)
A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing
distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing
173
distance for a dry runway? reference speed (VREF):
a) 1 440 m. a) Increasing VREF
b) 1 250 m. b) Lowering VREF
c) 1 090 m. c) Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
d) 1 655 m. d) Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

32.3.6.3 (2069) 32.3.6.3 (2075)

For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing distance for wet runways What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed
when the landing distance available at an aerodrome is 3000 m? VREF?
a) 1565 m. a) 1,30 VSO
b) 1800 m. b) 1,05 VSO
c) 2609 m. c) 1,10 VSO
d) 2 070 m. d) VMCA x 1,2

32.3.6.3 (2070) 32.3.6.3 (2076)

The approach climb requirement has been established so that the aeroplane will Required runway length at destination airport for turboprop aeroplanes
achieve: a) is the same as at an alternate airport.
a) minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one engine b) is less then at an alternate airport.
inoperative. c) is more than at an alternate airport.
b) obstacle clearance in the approach area. d) is 60% longer than at an alternate airport.
c) manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine inoperative.
d) manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.
32.3.6.3 (2077)
The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance with international
32.3.6.3 (2071) requirements, the following margins above stall speed in landing configuration:
For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is correct? a) 30%
a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of b) 15%
the available distance is taken into account, if the runway is expected to be dry. c) 20%
b) In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into account when determining the d) 10%
required landing field length.
c) An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the required landing field length.
32.3.6.3 (2078)
d) The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to the full stop point.
The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
a) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the approach
32.3.6.3 (2072) configuration.
Which of the following is true according to JAA regulations for turbopropeller b) the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the landing configuration.
powered aeroplanes not performing a steep approach? c) the climb requirements with all engines in the approach configuration.
a) Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome and at any alternate d) the climb requirements with all engines in the landing configuration but with gear up.
aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
b) Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA (Landing Distance Available).
32.3.6.3 (2079)
c) Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes at the destination (wet
d) Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
condition) is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 92%
32.3.6.3 (2073) b) 67%
To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: c) 70%
a) make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as d) 43%
quickly as possible.
b) use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed.
32.3.6.3 (2080)
c) use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at the alternate (wet condition)
d) postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.
is the demonstrated landing distance plus
a) 92%
32.3.6.3 (2074) b) 43%
Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing
174
c) 70% 33.1.1.1 (2086)
d) 67% An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static air temperature is -48°C and
the headwind component 52 Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to
cross the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to go is 570 NM, the
32.3.6.3 (2081)
reduced MACH No. should be:
(For this question use annex 032-4733A or Performance Manual MRJT 1 Figure
a) 0.80
4.28)What is the minimum field length required for the worst wind situation,
b) 0.78
landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-skid inoperative?Elevation: 2000 ftQNH:
c) 0.76
1013 hPaLanding mass: 50 000 kgFlaps: as required for minimum landing
d) 0.72
distanceRunway condition: dryWind: Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 ktMaximum
allowable headwind: 50 kt
a) 3100 m. 33.1.1.1 (2087)
b) 2600 m. According to the chart the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500
c) 2700 m. ft. The meteorological data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. The
d) 2900 m. QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of 4000ft, is 1003 hPa.What is the
minimum pressure altitude which should be flown according to the given MOCA?
a) 8800 ft.
32.3.6.3 (2082)
b) 8500 ft.
The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure:
c) 12800 ft.
a) minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative.
d) 8200 ft.
b) obstacle clearance in the approach area.
c) manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative.
d) manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating. 33.1.1.1 (2088)
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less
than
32.3.6.3 (2083)
a) 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
By what factor must the landing distance available (dry runway) for a turbojet
b) 2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.
powered aeroplane be multiplied to find the landing distance required? (planning
c) 500 ft above the heighest obstacle.
phase for destination).
d) the heighest obstacle.
a) 0.60
b) 115/100
c) 1.67 33.1.1.1 (2089)
d) 60/115 How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?Given: FL 75, departure
aerodrome elevation 1500 ft, QNH = 1023 hPa, temperature = ISA, 1 hPa = 30 ft
a) 6300 ft.
32.3.6.3 (2084)
b) 6000 ft.
According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following statements concerning the
c) 6600 ft.
landing distance for a turbojet aeroplane is correct?
d) 7800 ft.
a) When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at destination, 60% of
the available landing runway length should be taken into account.
b) Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into account when determining the 33.1.1.1 (2090)
landing distance required. (For this question use annex 033-9719A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
c) Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the required runway length. STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)An aeroplane is
d) The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the surface of the runway to the full flying VFR and approaching position TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055
stop. and magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO 20 NM.Name the
frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.
a) 112.50 MHz
32.3.7.2 (2085)
b) 118.60 MHz
If a flight is performed with a higher ""Cost Index"" at a given mass which of the
c) 422 kHz
following will occur?
d) 118.80 MHz
a) A higher cruise mach number.
b) A lower cruise mach number.
c) A better maximum range. 33.1.1.1 (2091)
d) A better long range. (For this question use annex 033-9736A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from
VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N,

175
008°24.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from
right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)
a) 3900 ft determine the magnetic course.
b) 2900 ft a) 243°
c) 4200 ft b) 063°
d) 1500 ft c) 257°
d) 077°
33.1.1.1 (2092)
(For this question use annex 033-9739A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 33.1.1.2 (2097)
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from (For this question use annex 033-9738A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from
010°13.0'E).Determine the minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E)
right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of obstacles. determine the distance.
a) 6900 ft a) 32 NM
b) 5500 ft b) 46 NM
c) 6600 ft c) 58 NM
d) 5300 ft d) 36 NM

33.1.1.1 (2093) 33.1.1.2 (2098)

(For this question use annex 033-11717A)The planned flight is over a distance of (For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average
440 NMBased on the wind charts at altitude the following components are magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
found,FL50: -30kt, FL100: -50kt, FL180: -70ktThe Operations Manual in appendix a) 119°
details the aircraft's performancesWhich of the following flight levels (FL) gives b) 109°
the best range performance: c) 099°
a) FL 180 d) 118°
b) FL 100
c) FL 050
33.1.1.2 (2099)
d) Either FL 050 or FL 100
(For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average
true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
33.1.1.2 (2094) a) 109°
(For this question use annex 033-9734A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 b) 119°
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from c) 099°
VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) d) 120°
determine the magnetic course.
a) 356°
33.1.1.2 (2100)
b) 176°
(For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial
c) 004°
magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
d) 185°
a) 116°
b) 080°
33.1.1.2 (2095) c) 098°
(For this question use annex 033-9735A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 d) 113°
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying VFR from
VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E)
33.1.1.2 (2101)
determine the distance.
(For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial
a) 24 NM
true course from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
b) 46 NM
a) 098°
c) 28 NM
b) 116°
d) 24 km
c) 080°
d) 278°
33.1.1.2 (2096)
(For this question use annex 033-9737A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000

176
33.1.1.2 (2102) air temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are given below: FL 370 -
(For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route Manual chart NAP)The distance M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt FL
(NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0The
a) 720 flight level allowing the highest ground speed is:
b) 690 a) FL270
c) 1590 b) FL290
d) 1440 c) FL330
d) FL370
33.1.1.2 (2103)
(For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average 33.1.1.4 (2109)
magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON-PARIS flight. When it reaches
a) 271° point K (35°N - 048°W) a non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider
b) 259° rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight conditions are: - from K to
c) 247° BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind component=18 kt) - from K to SANTA
d) 279° MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind component=120 kt)- from K to GANDER
(distance 883 NM, wind component=0).With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt,
the field selected will be that more rapidly reached:
33.1.1.2 (2104)
a) BERMUDAS or GANDER, or SANTA MARIA
(For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route Manual chart NAP)The average
b) SANTA MARIA
true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
c) BERMUDAS
a) 259°
d) Either GANDER or BERMUDAS
b) 247°
c) 271°
d) 079° 33.1.1.4 (2110)
An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A to B and back to A.
Distance AB = 480 NM. When going from A to B, it experiences a headwind
33.1.1.2 (2105)
component = 60 kt. The wind remains constant.The duration of the flight will be:
(For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial
a) 2h 35min
magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
b) 3h 00min
a) 275°
c) 2h 10min
b) 267°
d) 2h 32min
c) 271°
d) 262°
33.1.1.4 (2111)
You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. Variation is 22°E, deviation is
33.1.1.2 (2106)
3°W and your INS is showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ?
(For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route Manual chart NAP)The initial
a) 280°
true course from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W) is
b) 224°
a) 271°
c) 242°
b) 275°
d) 262°
c) 267°
d) 246°
33.1.1.4 (2112)
Given : true track 017, W/V 340/30, TAS 420 ktFind : wind correction angle (WCA)
33.1.1.2 (2107)
and ground speed (GS)
(For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route Manual chart NAP)The distance
a) WCA -2° , GS 396 kt
(NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E) is
b) WCA +2° , GS 396 kt
a) 760
c) WCA -2° , GS 426 kt
b) 725
d) WCA +2° , GS 416 kt
c) 700
d) 775
33.1.1.4 (2113)
Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the time to reach the cruising
33.1.1.4 (2108)
level at a given gross mass is 36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM
On a given path, it is possible to chose between four flight levels (FL), each
(zero-wind). What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind
associated with a mandatory flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static
177
component of 60kt ? 33.1.2.1 (2119)
a) 193 NM (For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure
b) 128 NM 3.6)A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude 3000 ft, in a multi engine
c) 157 NM piston aireroplane (MEP1). The forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising
d) 228 NM level will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C.Calculate the still air descent distance
for:145 KIASRate of descent 1000 ft/minGears and flaps up
a) 20 NM
33.1.1.4 (2114)
b) 29 NM
(For this question use annex 033 11702 A)The measured course 042° T.The
c) 36 NM
variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm.The deviation card is reproduced
d) 25 NM
in the annex.In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
a) 052°
b) 058° 33.1.2.1 (2120)
c) 040° (For this question use annex 033-4736A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Table
d) 044° 2.2.3)Given:FL 75OAT +10°CLean mixture2300 RPMFind:Fuel flow in gallons per
hour (GPH) and TAS.
a) 11.6 GPHTAS: 160 kt
33.1.1.4 (2115)
b) 11.6 GPHTAS: 143 kt
Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air speed (TAS) 420 ktFind:
c) 71.1 GPHTAS: 143 kt
Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed (GS)
d) 68.5 GPHTAS: 160 kt
a) WCA -2°, GS 396 kt
b) WCA +2°, GS 396 kt
c) WCA -2°, GS 426 kt 33.1.2.1 (2121)
d) WCA +2°, GS 416 kt (For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)Given:FL 75OAT: +5°CDuring climb: average head wind component 20 ktTake-
off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.Find:Time and fuel to climb.
33.1.2.0 (2116)
a) 9 min.3,3 USG
You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can be carried in the following
b) 10 min.3,6 USG
conditions :- dry operating mass : 2800 kg- trip fuel : 300 kg- payload : 400 kg-
c) 7 min.2,6 USG
maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
d) 9 min.2,7 USG
a) 800 kg
b) 1000 kg
c) 700 kg 33.1.2.1 (2122)
d) 500 kg (For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
2.1)Given:FL 75OAT: +5°CDuring climb: average head wind component 20 ktTake-
off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.Find:Still air distance (NAM) and
33.1.2.0 (2117)
ground distance (NM) using the graph ""time, fuel, distance to climb"".
The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density of 0,8. If the relative
a) 18 NAM.15 NM.
density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be:
b) 16 NAM.18 NM.
a) 200 kg/h
c) 18 NAM.13 NM.
b) 213 kg/h
d) 14 NAM.18 NM.
c) 188 kg/h
d) 267 kg/h
33.1.2.1 (2123)
(For this question use annex 033-11704A)True Air speed: 170 ktWind in the area:
33.1.2.1 (2118)
270°/40 ktAccording to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft performs a
(For this question use annex 033-3301A or Flight Planning Manual MEP1 Figure
turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via TGJ.The given wind conditions
3.1)A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) to another in a multi
remaining constant.The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres.The total fuel
engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The cruising level will be FL 110. The
consumption at position overhead ARD will be:
temperature at FL 110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure aerodrome
a) 1 545 litres
is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with mixture rich.
b) 1 182 litres
a) 6 US gallon
c) 1 326 litres
b) 9 US gallon
d) 1 600 litres
c) 12 US gallon
d) 3 US gallon

178
33.1.2.1 (2124) 33.1.2.1 (2129)
In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 500 feet/min descent in (For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033-12303B or Flight Planning
order to fly overhead MAN VOR at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1))Given : Distance C - D : 680NM Long
during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is standard.The pilot must start the Range Cruise at FL340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0° C Headwind
descent at a distance from MAN of: component : 60 kt Gross mass at C : 44 700 kgThe fuel required from C - D is :
a) 120 NM a) 3700 kg
b) 140 NM b) 3400 kg
c) 110 NM c) 3100 kg
d) 130 NM d) 4000 kg

33.1.2.1 (2125) 33.1.2.1 (2130)

An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The pilot intends to descend at (For this question use annex 033-12304A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
500 ft/min to arrive overhead the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS 4.5.1)Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15The fuel
remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable, temperature standard. At required to climb from an aerodrome at elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is :
which distance from MAN should the pilot commence the descent? a) 1250 kg
a) 48 NM b) 1400 kg
b) 42 NM c) 1450 kg
c) 40 NM d) 1350 kg
d) 45 NM
33.1.2.1 (2131)
33.1.2.1 (2126) (For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
(For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind
2.1)Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome pressure altitude 2500 ft, component 15 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CCruise altitude 35000 ftLanding mass
OAT +10°C, First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°CFind the time, fuel and still air 50000 kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
distance to climb. a) (a) 17600 kg (b) 6 hr 50 min
a) 22 min, 6.7 GAL, 45 NAM b) (a) 16200 kg (b) 6 hr 20 min
b) 24 min, 7.7 GAL, 47 NAM c) (a) 17000 kg (b) 6 hr 10 min
c) 16.5 min, 4.9 GAL, 34.5 NAM d) (a) 20000 kg (b) 7hr 00 min
d) 23 min, 7.7 GAL, 50 NAM
33.1.2.1 (2132)
33.1.2.1 (2127) (For this question use annex 033-12340A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
(For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 4.3.5)For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind
2.4)Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation gasoline (density 6 component 20 ktTemperature ISA + 15°CBrake release mass 64700 kgThe (a) trip
lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are :
altitude 8000 ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak a) (a) 17000 kg(b) 6hr 45 min
EGTCalculate the range. b) (a) 15800 kg(b) 6hr 15 min
a) 633 NM c) (a) 16200 kg(b) 6hr 20 min
b) 844 NM d) (a) 18400 kg(b) 7hr 00 min
c) 730 NM
d) 547.5 NM
33.1.2.1 (2133)
(For this question use annex 033-12341A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.1.2.1 (2128) 4.3.1C)For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following apply :Head wind
(For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033-12302B or Flight Planning component 10 ktTemperature ISA -5°CTrip fuel available 15000 kgLanding mass
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.1)Given : Distance C - D : 3200 NM Long 50000kgWhat is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude) which may be
Range Cruise at FL 340 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +12°C Tailwind planned ?
component : 50 kt Gross mass at C : 55 000 kgThe fuel required from C - D is : a) 17000 ft
a) 14 500 kg b) 22000 ft
b) 14 200 kg c) 14000 ft
c) 17 800 kg d) 10000 ft
d) 17 500 kg

179
33.1.2.1 (2134) KIAS at FL 210 Temperature Deviation from ISA : +20°C Headwind component : 50
(For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure kt Gross mass at C : 60 000 kgThe fuel required from C to D is :
4.3.5) Given the following :Head wind component 50 ktTemperature ISA + a) 4620 kg
10°CBrake release mass 65000kgTrip fuel available 18000kgWhat is the maximum b) 4200 kg
possible trip distance ? c) 3350 kg
a) 2740 NM d) 3680 kg
b) 3100 NM
c) 3480 NM
33.1.2.1 (2140)
d) 2540 NM
(For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-12309B or Flight Planning
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM Cruise 300
33.1.2.1 (2135) KIAS at FL 210 Temperature : - 40°C Tailwind component : 70 kt Gross mass at B :
(For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 53 200 kgThe fuel required from B - C is :
4.3.1C)Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature increase of 30°C a) 1810 kg
will affect the trip time by approximately : b) 1940 kg
a) -5% c) 2800 kg
b) 5% d) 2670 kg
c) 8%
d) -7%
33.1.2.1 (2141)
(For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.1.2.1 (2136) 4.3.1C) For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at 30000 ft, within the
(For this question use annex 033-12305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure limits of the data given, a headwind component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by
4.5.1)Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg Temperature : ISA + 15°CThe fuel approximately :
required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is : a) +7.6%
a) 1700 kg b) +5.3%
b) 1650 kg c) +2.3%
c) 1750 kg d) -3.6%
d) 1800 kg
33.1.2.1 (2142)
33.1.2.1 (2137) (For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
(For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033-12306B or Flight Planning 4.3.5)Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of the data given, a
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)Given : Distance B - C : Cruise Mach 0.78 temperature decrease of 30°C will affect the trip time by approximately :
at FL300 Temperature : - 52°C Headwind component : 50 kt Gross mass at B : 64 a) 7%
500 kgThe fuel required from B - C is : b) 3%
a) 20 500 kg c) -4%
b) 20 800 kg d) -10%
c) 17 100 kg
d) 16 800 kg
33.1.2.1 (2143)
(For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.1.2.1 (2138) 4.3.1C)For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind
(For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033-12307B or Flight Planning component 45ktTemperature ISA - 10°CCruise altitude 29000ftLanding mass
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.3)Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM Cruise 55000kgThe (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are :
Mach 0.78 at FL300 Temperature Deviation from ISA : -14°C Tailwind component : a) (a) 17100kg(b) 6hr 07 min
40 kt Gross mass at B : 50 200 kgThe fuel required from B - C is : b) (a) 18000kg(b)5hr 50 min
a) 6150 kg c) (a) 20000kg(b) 6hr 40 min
b) 5850 kg d) (a) 16000kg(b) 6hr 25 min
c) 7300 kg
d) 7050 kg
33.1.2.1 (2144)
(For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.1.2.1 (2139) 4.3.5)For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following apply :Tail wind
(For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033-12308B or Flight Planning component 50 ktTemperature ISA +10°CBrake release mass 65000kgThe (a) trip
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2 and 4.5.3.4)Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM Cruise 300 fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :

180
a) (a) 18100 kg(b) 7hr 20 min c) (a) 13600kg(b) 6 hr 30 min
b) (a) 15800 kg(b) 6hr 00 min d) (a) 12000kg(b) 5 hr 15 min
c) (a) 21800 kg(b) 9hr 25 min
d) (a) 19000 kg(b) 7hr 45min
33.1.2.2 (2150)
Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983
33.1.2.1 (2145) kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at
(For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure alternate should be :
4.3.5) The following apply:Temperature ISA +15°CBrake release mass a) 42195 kg.
62000kgTrip time 5hr 20 minWhat is the trip fuel ? b) 42093 kg.
a) 13500kg c) 42210 kg.
b) 13000kg d) 42312 kg.
c) 13200kg
d) 13800kg
33.1.2.2 (2151)
Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kgLoad= 8110 kgFinal reserve fuel= 983
33.1.2.1 (2146) kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel 102 kgThe estimated landing mass at
(For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure alternate should be :
4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Temperature a) 42195 kg.
ISA -10°CCruise altitude 29000ftLanding mass 45000kgTrip fuel available b) 41110 kg.
16000kgWhat is the maximum headwind component which may be accepted ? c) 42210 kg.
a) 35 kt d) 42312 kg.
b) 15kt
c) 70kt
33.1.2.2 (2152)
d) 0
Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kgLoad= 7600 kgTrip fuel (TF)= 2040
kgFinal reserve fuel= 983 kgAlternate fuel= 1100 kgContingency fuel= 5% of trip
33.1.2.1 (2147) fuelWhich of the listed estimated masses is correct?
(For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure a) Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg.
4.3.5) The following apply :Tail wind component 10ktTemperature ISA b) Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.
+10°CBrake release mass 63000kgTrip fuel available 20000kgWhat is the c) Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.
maximum possible trip distance ? d) Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.
a) 3740 NM
b) 3640 NM
33.1.2.2 (2153)
c) 3500 NM
(For this question use annex 033-12310A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) 3250 NM
4.4)- HOLDING PLANNING The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack
pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is :
33.1.2.1 (2148) a) 1090 kg
(For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure b) 1010 kg
4.3.5) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind c) 1310 kg
25ktTemperature ISA - 10°CBrake release mass 66000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) d) 2180 kg
trip time respectively are :
a) (a) 14000kg(b) 5hr 35 min
33.1.2.2 (2154)
b) (a) 15800kg(b)6hr 20 min
(For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
c) (a) 14600kg(b) 5hr 45 min
4.4)- HOLDING PLANNING)The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack
d) (a) 15000kg(b) 6hr 00 min
pattern,at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is :
a) 1635 kg
33.1.2.1 (2149) b) 1090 kg
(For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure c) 1690 kg
4.3.1C) For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following apply :Tail wind d) 1125 kg
component 25 ktTemperature ISA -10°CCruise altitude 31000ftLanding mass
52000kgThe (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
33.1.2.2 (2155)
a) (a) 14200kg(b) 5 hr 30 min
(For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
b) (a) 16200kg(b) 5 hr 45 min
4.3.6)Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg
181
Tailwind component : 50 ktThe Alternate fuel required is : 33.1.2.4 (2161)
a) 2500 kg For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given:Taxi fuel 600 kgFuel flow for cruise 10
b) 2750 kg 000 kg/hFuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/hAlternate fuel 10 200 kgPlanned flight
c) 3050 kg time to destination 6 hForecast visibility at destination 2000 mThe minimum ramp
d) 2900 kg fuel required is:
a) 77 800 kg
b) 76 100 kg
33.1.2.2 (2156)
c) 80 500 kg
(For this question use annex 033-12313A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) 79 200 kg
4.3.6)Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM Landing mass at Alternate : 50 000kg
Headwind component : 25 ktThe alternate fuel required is :
a) 2800 kg 33.1.2.4 (2162)
b) 2550 kg (For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure
c) 2900 kg 3.3)A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the
d) 2650 kg fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time from overhead
to overhead is 1h47min. Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel
33.1.2.3 (2157)
is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find the minimum block fuel.
A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating engines,is flying from PARlS to
a) 47 US gallons.
LYON. The final reserve corresponds to:
b) 37 US gallons.
a) 45 minutes at holding speed
c) 60 US gallons.
b) 2 hours at cruise consumption
d) 470 US gallons.
c) 1 hour at holding speed
d) 30 minutes at holding speed
33.1.2.4 (2163)
(For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure
33.1.2.3 (2158)
3.3)A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP 1). For the
In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome
fuel calculations take 5 US gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:
cruise condition to account for climb and descent. Calculated time overhead to
a) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
overhead is 2h37min. Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel is
b) 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B
30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find the minimum block fuel.
c) 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A
a) 91 US gallons.
d) 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A
b) 86 US gallons.
c) 76 US gallons.
33.1.2.3 (2159) d) 118 US gallons.
Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered aeroplane is forced to
divert to an en-route alternate airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast,
33.1.2.4 (2164)
the minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the airfield will be:
(For this question use annex 033-11272A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane
a) at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time
prepares a flight using the following data:. Take-off mass: 168 500 kg. Flight leg
b) at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another aerodrome in the event that
ground distance: 2 000 NM. Flight level FL 370, ""Long Range"" flight regime .
weather conditions so require
Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt. Total anti-ice set on ""ON"". Fixed taxi
c) laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in the operating manual
fuel: 500 kg, final reserve: 2 000 kg. Ignore alternate fuel.The effects of climb and
d) at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time
descent are not corrected for consumption.The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for
the flight leg is:
33.1.2.4 (2160) a) 20 500 kg
The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the departure aerodrome to the b) 23 000 kg
destination aerodrome is 5 350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/ c) 22 500 kg
h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out one go-around and land on the d) 23 300 kg
alternate airfield is 4 380 kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway.What
is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be on board at take-off?
33.1.2.5 (2165)
a) 13 000 kg
Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg maximum landing mass 56 200
b) 13 050 kg
kg maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg dry operating mass 35 500 kg estimated
c) 12 700 kg
load 14 500 kg estimated trip fuel 4 900kg minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kgFind the
d) 10 000 kg
maximum allowable take-off fuel:
182
a) 11 100 kg b) 33.0 US gallons/hour
b) 11 400 kg c) 37.9 US gallons/hour
c) 14 400 kg d) 21.3 US gallons/hour
d) 8 600 kg
33.1.3.2 (2171)
33.1.3.0 (2166) A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The fuel plan gives a trip fuel of
The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with a fuel density of 0,80. If 65 US gallons. The alternate fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons.
the density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at departure is 93 US
a) 235 l/h gallons. At a certain moment the fuel consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40
b) 206 l/h US gallons and the distance flown is half of the total distance. Assume that fuel
c) 220 l/h consumption doesn't change. Which statement is right ?
d) 176 l/h a) The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination with reserves intact
b) At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks
c) At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
33.1.3.1 (2167)
d) At destination the required reserves remain intact.
During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel indicators show that the
remaining amount of fuel is 100 lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at
departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is necessary. The planned fuel 33.1.3.4 (2172)
for taxi is 13 lbs. Final reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow remains Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total reserve fuel is included).
the same, how many minutes can be flown to the destination with the remaining Assume the groundspeed on this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done
fuel? half the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a nearby alternate
a) 12 minutes. necessary?
b) 63 minutes. a) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the remaining fuel is not
c) 44 minutes. sufficient.
d) 4 minutes. b) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because the reserve fuel has not been
used completely.
c) Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it is allowed to calculate without
33.1.3.1 (2168)
reserve fuel.
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 3h06minThe
d) Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the captain decides to continue on his
reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip
own responsability.
fuel.Taxi fuel: 8 kgBlock fuel: 118 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours
flight time?
a) 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel. 33.1.3.4 (2173)
b) 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel. After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind component, you have to
c) 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel. return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:
d) 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel. a) 24 min
b) 20 min
c) 10 min 40 sec
33.1.3.1 (2169)
d) 16 min
For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:Flight time: 2h42minThe
reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 30% of the remaining trip
fuel.Taxi fuel: 9 kgBlock fuel: 136 kgHow much fuel should remain after 2 hours 33.1.4.1 (2174)
flight time? During a flight at night a position has to be reported to ATC. The aeroplane is at a
a) 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel. distance of 750 NM from the groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency
b) 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel. to be used is:
c) 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel. a) 5649 kHz.
d) 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel. b) 11336 kHz.
c) 17286 kHz.
d) 123.9 MHz.
33.1.3.2 (2170)
A VFR flight planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a navigational checkpoint the
remaining usable fuel in tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US gallons. 33.1.4.1 (2175)
According to the flight plan the remaining flight time is 1h35min. Calculate the (For this question use annex 033-9721A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
highest rate of consumption possible for the rest of the trip. STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the name and
a) 30.3 US gallons/hour frequency of the Flight Information Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N,

183
010°14'E). 33.2.1.1 (2181)
a) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHz A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled flight: Paris-Orly to
b) MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHz Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate. Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport
c) FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHz will be closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline decides before departure
d) MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz to plan a re-routing of thatflight to Limoges.
a) The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight plan has to be filed.
b) The airline's ""Operations "" Department has to tansmit a change in the RPL at the ATC
33.1.4.1 (2176)
office, at least half an hour before the planned time of departure.
(For this question use annex 033-9726A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
c) It is not possible to plan another destination and the fIight has to be simply cancelled that
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the frequency
day (scheduled flight and not chartered).
of STUTTGART ATIS.
d) The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to divert to Limoges at least 15
a) 126.125 MHz
minutes before the planned time of arrival.
b) 135.775 MHz
c) 112.250 MHZ
d) 126.125 kHz 33.2.1.1 (2182)
A ""current flight plan"" is a :
a) filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included.
33.1.4.1 (2177)
b) filed flight plan.
((For this question use annex 033-9727A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
c) flight plan with the correct time of departure.
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Give the frequency
d) flight plan in the course of which radio communication should be practised between
of ZÜRICH VOLMET.
aeroplane and ATC.
a) 127.20 MHz
b) 127.20 kHz
c) 128.525 MHz 33.2.1.1 (2183)
d) 118.10 MHz Which of the following statements regarding filing a flight plan is correct?
a) In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least three hours in
advance of the time of departure.
33.1.4.2 (2178)
b) Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before departure.
(For this question use annex 033-9728A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
c) A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary will be crossed.
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid
d) A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.
is located in position 48°55'N, 009°20'E ?
a) VOR/DME
b) NDB 33.2.1.1 (2184)
c) TACAN In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure altitude of 32000 feet
d) VOR would be entered as :
a) F320
b) FL320
33.1.4.2 (2179)
c) S3200
(For this question use annex 033-9729A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
d) 32000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid
is located in position 48°23'N, 008°39'E?
a) VOR 33.2.1.1 (2185)
b) NDB When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside designated ATS routes,
c) VOR/DME points included in Item 15 (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than
d) VORTAC :
a) 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
b) 20 minutes flying time or 150 km
33.1.4.2 (2180)
c) 15 minutes flying time or 100 km
(For this question use annex 033-9730A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
d) 1 hour flying time or 500 km
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Which navigation aid
is located in position 48°30'N, 007°34'E?
a) VOR/DME 33.2.1.1 (2186)
b) NDB In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470 knots will be entered as :
c) VOR a) N0470
d) TACAN b) KN470

184
c) 0470K c) take-off until landing.
d) N470 d) taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome.

33.2.1.1 (2187) 33.2.1.1 (2193)

In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted before departure, the (For this question use annex 033-12275A)In the ATS flight plan Item 10,
departure time entered is the : ""standard equipment"" is considered to be :
a) estimated off-block time a) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS
b) estimated time over the first point en route b) VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder
c) estimated take-off time c) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
d) allocated slot time d) VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder

33.2.1.1 (2188) 33.2.1.1 (2194)

In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not expressed as a Mach (For this question use annex 033-12276A)In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a
number, cruising speed is expressed as : flight along a designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not on or
a) TAS connected to that route :
b) IAS a) the letters ""DCT"" should be entered, followed by the point of joining the ATS
c) CAS route
d) Groundspeed b) it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that route
c) the words ""as cleared"" should be entered
d) it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route as it will be obvious to the ATS
33.2.1.1 (2189)
unit.
For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must take place on a regular
basis on at least :
a) 10 occasions 33.2.1.1 (2195)
b) 20 occasions (For this question use annex 033-12277A)In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed
c) 30 occasions by an appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight plan will the SELCAL
d) 50 occasions code be entered ?
a) OTHER INFORMATION
b) EQUIPMENT
33.2.1.1 (2190)
c) ROUTE
In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to indicate the carriage of a
d) AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
serviceable transponder - mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is :
a) C
b) B 33.2.1.1 (2196)
c) A An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of 137000 kg but is operating
d) P at take-off mass 135000 kg. In Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence
category is :
a) heavy ""H""
33.2.1.1 (2191)
b) heavy/medium ""H/M""
(For this question use annex 033-11261A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the
c) medium ""M""
ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 13: ""Time""
d) medium plus ""M+""
is:
a) estimated off-block time.
b) planned take-off time. 33.2.1.1 (2197)
c) planned engine start time. For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) of the ATS flight plan, an
d) the time of flight plan filing. aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
a) medium ""M""
b) heavy ""H""
33.2.1.1 (2192)
c) light ""L""
(For this question use annex 033-11262A)Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the
d) unclassified ""U""
ICAO flight plan, the time information which should be entered in box 16: ""Total
estimated time"" is the time elapsed from:
a) take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination 33.2.1.1 (2198)
aerodrome. (For this question use annex 033-12280A)When completing Item 9 of the ATS
b) taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing. flight plan, if there is no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should be
185
entered : c) 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more
a) ""ZZZZ"" followed by an entry in Item 18 d) 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more
b) ""XXXX"" followed by an entry in Item 18
c) the most descriptive abbreviation
33.2.1.1 (2205)
d) ""NONE""
In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for which standard departure
(SID) and standard arrival (STAR) procedures exist :
33.2.1.1 (2199) a) both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
(For this question use annex 033-12281A)Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes b) SIDs should be entered but not STARs
""NUMBER AND TYPE OF AIRCRAFT"". In this case ""NUMBER"" means : c) STARS should be entered but not SIDs
a) the number of aircraft flying in a group d) neither SID nor STAR should be entered
b) the registration number of the aircraft
c) the number of aircraft which will separately be using a repetitive flight plan (RPL)
33.2.1.1 (2206)
d) the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc 8643
(For this question use annex 033-12289A)In the ATS flight plan Item 19,
emergency and survival equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by :
33.2.1.1 (2200) a) crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried
When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 16) of 1 hour 55 b) circling the relevant box
minutes should be entered as : c) placing a tick in the relevant box
a) 155 d) listing the items carried on the ""REMARKS"" line
b) 1H55
c) 115M
33.2.1.1 (2207)
d) 115
When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
33.2.1.1 (2201) a) Y
When completing an ATS flight plan for a European destination, clock times are to b) N/S
be expressed in : c) G
a) UTC d) X
b) Local mean time
c) local standard time
33.2.1.1 (2208)
d) Central European Time
In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of passengers to be carried is not
known when the plan is ready for filing :
33.2.1.1 (2202) a) ""TBN"" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box
In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which of the following letters b) the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank
schould be entered in Item 8 (Type of Flight) : c) an estimate may be entered but that number may not subsequently be exceeded
a) N d) the plan may not be filed until the information is available
b) N/S
c) G
33.2.1.1 (2209)
d) X
In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a position as a bearing and
distance from a VOR, the group of figures should consist of :
33.2.1.1 (2203) a) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
(For this question use annex 033-12285A)In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio b) VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres
equipped aircraft, the identifier must always : c) VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres
a) be the RTF callsign to be used d) full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres
b) include the aircraft registration marking
c) include the operating agency designator
33.2.1.1 (2210)
d) include an indication of the aircraft type
An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and arrive at Munich (EDDM) at
1215 UTC. In the ATS flight plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with
33.2.1.1 (2204) :
In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter any point at which a change a) EDDM 0215
of cruising speed takes place. For this purpose a ""change of speed"" is defined as : b) EDDM 1415
a) 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more c) EDDM 1215
b) 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more d) EDDM 2H15
186
33.2.1.1 (2211) 33.2.2.0 (2217)
In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude and longitude, a If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the appropriate box of your
significant point at 41°35' north 4°15' east should be entered as : flight plan, you write:
a) 4135N00415E a) ZZZZ
b) 41°35' N 04° 15'E b) AAAA
c) N04135E0415 c) XXXX
d) N4135 E00415 d) ////

33.2.2.0 (2212) 33.2.2.0 (2218)

An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another.In cruise, the calibrated airspeed The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a flight plan is:
is I50 kt, true airspeed 180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on the a) true air speed
filed flight plan shall be filled as follows: b) indicated air speed
a) N0180 c) ground speed
b) K0210 d) calibrated air speed
c) K0180
d) K0150
33.2.2.0 (2219)
In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance, one must indicate the time
33.2.2.0 (2213) corresponding to:
On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box marked ""speed"" the a) the total usable fuel on board
planned speed for the first part of the cruise or for the entire cruise.This speed is: b) the required fuel for the flight
a) The true airspeed c) the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45 minutes
b) The equivalent airspeed d) the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
c) The indicated airspeed
d) The estimated ground speed
33.2.2.0 (2220)
The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft for the L wake turbulence
33.2.2.0 (2214) category on a flight plan is:
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning equipment, the letter to be a) 7 000 kg
used to indicate that the aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes b) 2 700 kg
transponder with altitude reporting capability is : c) 5 700 kg
a) C d) 10 000 kg
b) P
c) S
33.2.2.1 (2221)
d) A
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg, maximum landing mass
56200 kg, maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg, dry operating mass 35 500 kg,
33.2.2.0 (2215) estimated load 14 500 kg, estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg, minimum take-off fuel 7
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to the estimated time of 400 kg.Find: maximum additional load
departure, the time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to : a) 3 000 kg
a) go off blocks b) 4 000 kg
b) take-off c) 7 000 kg
c) start-up d) 5 600 kg
d) pass the departure beacon
33.2.2.1 (2222)
33.2.2.0 (2216) The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 100 kgFlight time: 1h35minTaxi fuel: 3
When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the wake turbulence category. kgBlock fuel: 181 kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
This category is a function of which mass? a) 2h 49min
a) maximum certified take-off mass b) 1h 35min
b) estimated take-off mass c) 2h 04min
c) maximum certified landing mass d) 2h 52min
d) actual take-off mass
33.2.2.1 (2223)
The navigation plan reads:Trip fuel: 136 kgFlight time: 2h45minCalculated reserve
187
fuel: 30% of trip fuelFuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)Taxi fuel: 3 notification:I - Any Public Transport flight.2 - Any IFR flight3 - Any flight which is
kgThe endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read: to be carried out in regions which are designated to ease the provision of the
a) 3h34min Alerting Service or the operations of Search and Rescue.4 - Any cross-border
b) 2h45min flights5 - Any flight which involves overflying water
c) 2h49min a) 2+4
d) 3h38min b) 1+5
c) 1+2+3
d) 3+4+5
33.2.3.1 (2224)
How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the
case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? 33.2.4.0 (2230)
a) 3:00 hours. If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in
b) 1:00 hour. the flight plan, he must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination aerodrome is
c) 0:30 hours. informed within a certain number of minutes of his planned ETA at destination.
d) 0:10 hours. This number of minutes is:
a) 30
b) 15
33.2.3.1 (2225)
c) 10
You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London. In the flight plan it is noted
d) 45
that you will deviate from the ATS route passing the FIR boundary
Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads: Cleared to London via flight
planned route.Which of the following statements is correct? 33.2.5.1 (2231)
a) The route according to the flight plan is accepted. When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan
b) The filed deviation is not accepted. should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by
c) You will get a separate clearance for the deviation. :
d) It is not allowed to file such a flight plan. a) 30 minutes or more
b) 45 minutes or more
c) 60 minutes or more
33.2.3.1 (2226)
d) 90 minutes or more
The planned departure time from the parking area is 1815 UTCThe estimated take-
off time is 1825 UTCThe IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
a) 1715 UTC 33.2.5.2 (2232)
b) 1725 UTC During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from the data in the flight
c) 1745 UTC plan. The minimum deviations, that should be reported to ATC in order to conform
d) 1755 UTC to PANS-RAC, are:
a) TAS 5% and time 3 minutes.
b) TAS 3% and time 3 minutes.
33.2.3.1 (2227)
c) TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes.
It is possible, in flight, to:1 - file an IFR flight plan2 - modify an active IFR or VFR
d) TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.
flight plan3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan4 - close an active VFR flight
planWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 33.2.5.2 (2233)
b) 2001-02-04 An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be changed from IFR to VFR. Is it
c) 1 - 2 - 3 possible?
d) 2 - 3 - 4 a) Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the phrase ""cancelling my
IFR flight"".
b) No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight plan.
33.2.3.1 (2228)
c) No, only ATC can order you to do this.
For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time of departure is:
d) Yes, but only with permission from ATC.
a) the estimated off-block time
b) the time at which the flight plan is filed.
c) the time of take-off. 33.3.0.0 (2234)
d) the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off. An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French aerodrome, spend the night
there and return the next day. Where will he find the information concerning
parking and landing fees ?
33.2.3.3 (2229)
a) in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
From the options given below select those flights which require flight plan
188
b) in the AGA chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) 33.3.1.1 (2240)
c) in the GEN chapter of the French Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) (For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))The
d) by telephoning the aerodrome's local chamber of commerce, this type of information not initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N
being published 006°02'E) measures 084°. On a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with
the 000° meridian the initial grid course will be :
a) 106°
33.3.1.1 (2235)
b) 080°
(For this question use annex 033-9722A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
c) 096°
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from
d) 066°
SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E).
Find magnetic course and the distance.
a) Magnetic course 102°, distance 56 NM 33.3.1.1 (2241)
b) Magnetic course 282°, distance 56 NM (For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))The
c) Magnetic course 102°, distance 82 NM initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N 170°00'E) to position B
d) Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The final grid course at position B will be :
a) 177° (G)
b) 194° (G)
33.3.1.1 (2236)
c) 172° (G)
(For this question use annex 033-9723A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
d) 353° (G)
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from ERBACH
airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find
magnetic course and the distance. 33.3.2.1 (2242)
a) Magnetic course 287°, distance 41 NM A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at 1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a
b) Magnetic course 252°, distance 41 NM VORTAC.With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min. The distance
c) Magnetic course 108°, distance 60 NM from the VORTAC when descent is started is :
d) Magnetic course 287°, distance 60 NM a) 27,1 NM
b) 15,0 NM
c) 11,7 NM
33.3.1.1 (2237)
d) 30,2 NM
(For this question use annex 033-9724A, AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000
STUTTGART (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)Flying from Position
SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E) to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). 33.3.2.1 (2243)
Find magnetic course and the distance. A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt. The wind component is 50 kt
a) Magnetic course 086°, distance 22 NM tailwind. What is the still air distance?
b) Magnetic course 093°, distance 41 NM a) 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
c) Magnetic course 267°, distance 22 NM b) 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
d) Magnetic course 086°, distance 32 NM c) 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
d) 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
33.3.1.1 (2238)
(For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route Manual chart 5 AT(HI))On 33.3.2.1 (2244)
airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the initial great circle grid course is : The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) and time 30
a) 344 minutes. What ground distance would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
b) 353 a) 174 NM
c) 347 b) 203 NM
d) 350 c) 188 NM
d) 193 NM
33.3.1.1 (2239)
(For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route Manual chart NAP)On a direct 33.3.3.1 (2245)
great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N 008°53'W) to Gander (For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure
(48°54'N054°32'W), the (a) average true course, and(b) distance, are : 3.2)A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane (MEP1). The cruising
a) (a) 262°(b) 1720 NM level will be 11000ft. The outside air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is
b) a) 281°(b) 2730 NM 123 US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find the range in NM with 45
c) a) 244°(b) 1520 NM min reserve fuel at 45 % power.
d) a) 281°(b) 1877 NM a) 752 NM

189
b) 852 NM 33.3.6.1 (2250)
c) 610 NM (For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) 602 NM 4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True
Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the time from the
33.3.3.1 (2246)
top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).
(For this question use annex 033-4735A or Flight Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure
a) 19 min
2.5)Given:FL 75Lean mixtureFull throttle2300 RPMTake-off fuel: 444 lbsTake-off
b) 10 min
from MSLFind:Endurance in hours.
c) 17 min
a) 5:12
d) 8 min
b) 5:20
c) 4:42
d) 5:23 33.3.6.1 (2251)
(For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
33.3.3.1 (2247)
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True
(For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2
Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the fuel
Table 2.2.2)A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For
consumption from the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).
the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of
a) 273 kg
additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the
b) 263 kg
descent.Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours and 12
c) 210 kg
minutes.Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full
d) 320 kg
throttle), 2100 RPM, 20°C lean.Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C.The minimum
block fuel is:
a) 283 lbs 33.4.1.1 (2252)
b) 268 lbs (For this question use annex 033-12320A )Which best describes the significant
c) 252 lbs cloud forecast for the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ?
d) 215 lbs a) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180
b) 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180
c) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL180
33.3.3.1 (2248)
d) 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL160
(For this question use annex 033-9733A or Flight Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2
Table 2.2.3)A flight has to be made with the single engine sample aeroplane. For
the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of 33.4.1.1 (2253)
additional fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel correction for the (For this question use annex.033-12321A )Which best describes the maximum
descent.Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours and 37 intensity of icing, if any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ?
minutes.Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full a) moderate
throttle), 2300 RPM, 20°C lean.Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C.The minimum b) severe
block fuel is: c) light
a) 265 lbs d) nil
b) 208 lbs
c) 270 lbs
33.4.1.1 (2254)
d) 250 lbs
(For this question use annex 033-12322A )Which describes the intensity of icing, if
any, at FL 150 in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ?
33.3.6.1 (2249) a) moderate or severe
(For this question use annex 033-9704A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure b) moderate
4.5.4 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane. c) light
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, Average True d) nil
Course 320°, Procedure for descent .74 M/250 KIAS Determine the distance from
the top of descent to London (elevation 80 ft).
33.4.1.1 (2255)
a) 76 NM
(For this question use annex 033-12323A )The surface system over VIENNA
b) 87 NM
(48°N016°E) is a
c) 97 NM
a) cold front moving east
d) 65 NM
b) warm front moving north

190
c) stationary occlued front 33.4.1.1 (2262)
d) cold front moving west (For this question use annex 033-11202A)Which of the following flight levels, if
any, is forecast to be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the marked
route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN (53°N 13°E) ?
33.4.1.1 (2256)
a) FL250
(For this question use annex 033-12324A )In the vicinity of SHANNON (52°
b) FL 210
N009°W) the tropopause is at about FL
c) FL290
a) 360
d) None
b) 350
c) 300
d) 270 33.4.1.1 (2263)
(For this question use annex 033-11181A)Which describes the worst hazard, if
any, that could be associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ?
33.4.1.1 (2257)
a) Engine flame out and windscreen damage
(For this question use annex 033-12325A )Which best describes the significant
b) Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band
cloud forecast over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?
c) Reduced visibility
a) broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded isolated CB base below
d) There is no hazard
FL100 tops FL270
b) well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270
c) isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270 33.4.1.1 (2264)
d) 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270 (For this question use annex 033-11182A)The surface weather system over
England (53°N 002°W) is
a) an occluded front moving east
33.4.1.1 (2258)
b) a depression moving north
(For this question use annex 033-12326A )Which describes the maximum intensity
c) a warm front moving southeast
of turbulence, if any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?
d) a cold front moving east
a) severe
b) moderate
c) light 33.4.1.1 (2265)
d) nil (For this question use annex 033-11183A)In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E)
the tropopause is at about
a) FL400
33.4.1.1 (2259)
b) FL340
(For this question use annex 033-12327A )The maximum wind velocity (°/kt)
c) FL350
immediately north of TUNIS (36°N010°E) is
d) FL380
a) 190/95
b) 280/110
c) 250/85 33.4.1.1 (2266)
d) 180/105 (For this question use annex 033-11184A)Which describes the maximum intensity
of icing, if any, at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N 008°W) ?
a) Severe
33.4.1.1 (2260)
b) Moderate
(For this question use annex 033-12328A )Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the
c) Light
lowest FL listed which is unaffected by CAT is:
d) Nil
a) 230
b) 270
c) 310 33.4.1.1 (2267)
d) 360 (For this question use annex 033-11185A)Which best describes the significant
cloud, if any, forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E)
a) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180
33.4.1.1 (2261)
b) 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180
(For this question use annex 033-11193A)What is the mean temperature deviation
c) 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180
(°C) from the ISA over 50°N 010°W ?
d) Nil
a) -2
b) 2
c) 9 33.4.1.1 (2268)
d) 13 (For this question use annex 033-11186A)Which best describes be maximum
191
intensity of icing, if any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E) ? 33.4.1.2 (2275)
a) Moderate (For this question use annex 033-12319A)The approximate mean wind component
b) Light (kt) along true course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W is
c) Severe a) tail wind 55 kt
d) Nil b) tail wind 40 kt
c) tail wind 70 kt
d) headwind 55 kt
33.4.1.1 (2269)
(For this question use annex 033-11187A)Which best describes the maximum
intensity of CAT, if any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ? 33.4.1.2 (2276)
a) Nil (For this question use annex 033-11191A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at
b) Light 60°N 015°W is
c) Moderate a) 290/155
d) Severe b) 320/155
c) 110/155
d) 290/185
33.4.1.2 (2270)
(For this question use annex 033-12314A )The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is:
a) 290/75 33.4.1.2 (2277)
b) 310/85 (For this question use annex 033-11192A)The approximate mean wind component
c) 310/75 (kt) at Mach 0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to 010°W is
d) 100/75 a) 40 kt headwind component
b) 55 kt headwind component
c) 35 kt tailwind component
33.4.1.2 (2271)
d) 25 kt tailwind component
(For this question use annex 033-12315A)What mean temperature (°C) is likely on
a true course of 270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ?
a) -50 33.4.1.2 (2278)
b) -48 (For this question use annex 033-11194A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at
c) -52 40°N 040°E is
d) -54 a) 330/75
b) 330/85
c) 150/75
33.4.1.2 (2272)
d) 300/75
(For this question use annex 033-12316A )The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W is
a) 310/40
b) 334/40 33.4.1.2 (2279)
c) 135/40 (For this question use annex 033-11201A)What mean temperature (°C) is likely on
d) 155/40 a course of 360° (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?
a) -47
b) -46
33.4.1.2 (2273)
c) -49
(For this question use annex 033-12317A )What is the temperature deviation (°C)
d) -50
from ISA over 50° N 010°E ?
a) -10
b) -55 33.4.1.2 (2280)
c) 2 (For this question use annex 033-11188A)The maximum wind velocity (°/kt)
d) 10 shown in the vicinity of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is :
a) 300/140
b) 300/100
33.4.1.2 (2274)
c) 300/160
(For this question use annex 033-12318A)The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is
d) 290/110
a) 300/60
b) 300/70
c) 320/60 33.4.1.2 (2281)
d) 115/60 (For this question use annex 033-11189A)The wind velocity over ITALY is
a) a maximum of 110 kt at FL380
192
b) 130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart 33.4.1.3 (2288)
c) a maximum of 160 kt at FL 380 (For this question use annex 033-11195A)What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft)
d) 110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart are forecast for 1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ?
a) 5 to 7 at 500
b) 3 to 4 at 500
33.4.1.2 (2282)
c) 5 to 7 at 1200
(For this question use annex 033-11190A)The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at
d) 5 to 7 at 2000
50°N 040°E is:
a) 020/70
b) 350/70 33.4.1.3 (2289)
c) 200/70 (For this question use annex 033-11196A)What minimum visibility (m) is forecast
d) 020/80 for 0600 UTC at LONDON LHR (EGLL) ?
a) 1500
b) 2200
33.4.1.3 (2283)
c) 5000
(For this question use annex 033-12329A )What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft)
d) 10
are forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC?
a) 5 to 7 at 400
b) 3 to 4 at 800 33.4.1.3 (2290)
c) 5 to 7 at 800 (For this question use annex 033-11197A)Which affects the visibility forecast for
d) 3 to 4 at 400 0000 UTC at LAHORE (OPLA) ?
a) Smoke
b) Dust
33.4.1.3 (2284)
c) Haze
(For this question use annex 033-12330A )The forecast period covered by the
d) Mist
PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE TAFs totals (hours)
a) 27
b) 9 33.4.1.3 (2291)
c) 18 (For this question use annex 033-11198A)What is the earliest time (UTC), if any,
d) 20 that thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ?
a) 1000
b) 800
33.4.1.3 (2285)
c) 600
(For this question use annex 033-12331A )The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft)
d) Nil forecast
at BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were
a) 1 to 2 at 3000
b) 1 to 4 at 3000 33.4.1.3 (2292)
c) 3 to 4 at 2000 A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following
d) 3 to 4 at 800 information is contained in this METAR ?
a) temperature/dewpoint
b) runway in use
33.4.1.3 (2286)
c) day/month
(For this question use annex 033-12332A)The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at
d) period of validity
PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 1330 UTC was
a) 270/04
b) 300/05 33.4.1.3 (2293)
c) 270/08 (For this question use annex 033-12334A )What is the earliest time (UTC), if any,
d) 180/12 that thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ?
a) 1800
b) 1300
33.4.1.3 (2287)
c) 800
(For this question use annex 033-12333A )Which best describes the weather, if
d) nil
any, at LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ?
a) light rain associated with thunderstorms
b) frequent rain showers 33.4.1.3 (2294)
c) fog (For this question use annex 033-12335A )Which is the heaviest type of
d) nil precipitation, if any, forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ?
193
a) light rain 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245
b) rain showers is :
c) heavy rain associated with thunderstorms a) UB282 DGN UB46
d) nil b) UB284 VILAR UB28
c) UB28
d) UA6 LSA UG52
33.4.1.3 (2295)
(For this question use annex 033-12336A )What maximum surface windspeed (kt)
is forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ? 33.4.2.1 (2301)
a) 30 (For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-
b) 25 Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from AMBOISE AMB 113.7
c) 10 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is:
d) 5 a) UA34
b) UB19 POI UB195
c) UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34
33.4.1.3 (2296)
d) UB19 CGC UA25
(For this question use annex 033-12337A )What minimum visibility is forecast for
PARIS/CHARLES-DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ?
a) 6000m 33.4.2.1 (2302)
b) 10km (For this question use annex 033- 10992A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
c) 8000m Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from CLACTON CLN 114.55
d) 2000m (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD DIN 114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is:
a) UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14
b) UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111
33.4.1.3 (2297)
c) UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115
(For this question use annex 033-12338A )Which best describes the weather, if
d) UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9
any, forecast for JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC?
a) patches of fog
b) rain associated with thunderstorms 33.4.2.2 (2303)
c) CAVOK (For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
d) mist and/or fog Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin
(51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the distance of this leg ?
a) 100 NM
33.4.2.1 (2298)
b) 38 NM
(For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
c) 64NM
Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to
d) 62NM
Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ?
a) The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt and Salzburg.
b) The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to the north. 33.4.2.2 (2304)
c) The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL 200. (For this question use annex 033-3314A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
d) The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the weekends. Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin
(51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you can find : 141°. This is :
a) The magnetic great circle course from Biggin to Abbeville.
33.4.2.1 (2299)
b) The magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin.
(For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
c) The average true course of the great circle from Biggin to Abbeville.
Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from FRANKFURT FFM
d) The radial, referenced to true north, of Biggin to fly inbound.
114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY (51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a
Wednesday is :
a) UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS 33.4.2.2 (2305)
b) UG1 (For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS
c) UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS Carles-de-Gaulle)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London. Determine the
d) UG108 SPI UG1 distance of the departure route ABB 8A.
a) 74.5 NM
b) 72.5 NM
33.4.2.1 (2300)
c) 56 NM
(For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-
d) 83 NM
Edition)Of the following, the preferred airways routing from MARTIGUES MTG
194
33.4.2.2 (2306) 33.4.2.2 (2311)
(For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual SID chart 20-3 for PARIS (For this question use annexes 033-9710A, 033-9710B and 033-9710C or Route
Charles-de-Gaulle) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) RWY 27 to Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4
London. Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of climb 50 ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to
NMDetermine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to ABB 116.6. London (Heathrow).Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS 430 kts,
a) 24.5 NM W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM. Determine the magnetic course, ground
b) 33 NM speed and wind correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to top of
c) 36.5 NM descent.
d) 31 NM a) MC 321°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°
b) MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA +3°
c) MC 319°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°
33.4.2.2 (2307)
d) MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3°
(For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition)Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to
London Heathrow(N51 29.2 W000 27.9).Find the average true course from Paris to 33.4.2.2 (2312)
London. (For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
a) 322°. Edition)The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8
b) 142°. (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is,
c) 330°. a) 050°/47 NM
d) 343°. b) 230°/97NM
c) 133°/85 NM
d) 052°/97 NM
33.4.2.2 (2308)
(For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition)Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to 33.4.2.2 (2313)
London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9).Determine the preplanning distance by (For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6 )The
calculating the direct distance plus 10%.The preplanning distance is: magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to
a) 207 NM. LINNA (49°41'N 006°15'E) on airway R7 is:
b) 188 NM. a) 337°/46 NM
c) 308 NM. b) 157°/58 NM
d) 218 NM. c) 337°/31 NM
d) 337°/58 NM
33.4.2.2 (2309)
(For this question use annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B or Route Manual chart 33.4.2.2 (2314)
E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R)Planning an (For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The
IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow) via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1 (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD
VOR . Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is 76 NMDetermine (54°50'N 009°19'E) on airway H12 is:
the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD. a) 352°/72 NM
a) 49 NM b) 352°/96 NM
b) 60 NM c) 339°/80 NM
c) 100 NM d) 339°/125 NM
d) 55 NM
33.4.2.2 (2315)
33.4.2.2 (2310) (For this question use annex 033- 10996A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The initial
(For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart Paris Charles de Gaulle magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL 112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO
20-3 )Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London. SID is ABB (54°18'N 007°25'E) on airway A7 is:
8A. Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and distance to top of climb a) 024°/ 73 NM
50NMDetermine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind correction angle b) 023°/ 73 NM
from top of climb to ABB 116.6. c) 024°/ 20 NM
a) MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA -5° d) 024°/ 47 NM
b) MC 169°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5°
c) MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5°
33.4.2.2 (2316)
d) MC 169°, GS 450 kt, WCA +4°
(For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)The

195
magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN 33.4.2.2 (2322)
(49°33'N 003°25'E) on airway B3 is: (For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-
a) 169°/42 NM Edition)The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7 (42°44'N 010°24'E) to
b) 349°/26 NM SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway UA35 is:
c) 169°/68 NM a) 332°/76 NM
d) 349°/42 NM b) 152°/42 NM
c) 322°/60 NM
d) 332°/118 NM
33.4.2.2 (2317)
(For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The
magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to 33.4.2.2 (2323)
LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on airway B1 is: (For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-
a) 279°/85 NM Edition)The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG 114.5 (45°49'N
b) 279°/114 NM 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF 117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22
c) 311°/114 NM is:
d) 311°/85 NM a) 094°/ 90 NM
b) 067°/ 122 NM
c) 113°/ 142 NM
33.4.2.2 (2318)
d) 046°/ 70 NM
(For this question use annex 033- 10999A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition)The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7 (53°03'N 001°40'W)
to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08W) on airway VR3 is: 33.4.2.3 (2324)
a) 297°/57 NM (For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
b) 117°/57 NM Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to
c) 297°/70 NM Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At Salzburg there is stated on the chart D
d) 117°/71 NM 113.8 SBG. That means :
a) VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz can be used.
b) Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for which frequency 113.8 MHz should
33.4.2.2 (2319)
be tuned, VOR is not available.
(For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
c) VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be used for navigation.
Edition)The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5 (48°37'N 009°16'E)
d) ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for navigation.
to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N 010°14E) on airway UR11 is:
a) 052°/50 NM
b) 007°/60 NM 33.4.2.3 (2325)
c) 105°/105 NM (For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1 )The radio
d) 132°/43 NM navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N 001°22'W) is a:
a) TACAN only, channel 84, (frequency 113.7 MHz)
b) TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only
33.4.2.2 (2320)
c) TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only
(For this question use annex 033- 11001A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
d) VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz
Edition)The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 (46°28'N
006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N 007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:
a) 061°/37 NM 33.4.2.3 (2326)
b) 048°/46 NM (For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The VOR
c) 061°/28 NM and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK (52°12'N 008°17'E) are:
d) 041°/78 NM a) NOT frequency paired, and have different identifiers
b) frequency paired, and have different identifiers
c) NOT frequency paired, and have the same identifier
33.4.2.2 (2321)
d) frequency paired, and have the same identifier
(For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition)The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG 113.8 (48°00'N
012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on airway UB5 is: 33.4.2.3 (2327)
a) 346°/45 NM (For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The NDB
b) 346°/64 NM at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified on:
c) 166°/64 NM a) Frequency 440 kHz, BFO on
d) 346°/43 NM b) Channel 440, BFO on

196
c) Channel 440, BFO off 33.4.2.3 (2334)
d) Frequency 440 kHz, BFO off (For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition)The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL (47°41'N 006°18'E) is
a:
33.4.2.3 (2328)
a) VOR only, identifier LUL
(For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The
b) VOR, identifier LUL, frequency paired with TACAN identifier LXI
airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) is marked by:
c) VOR/DME and NDB, identifier LXI
a) an NDB callisign N
d) VOR/DME only, identifier LUL
b) a TACAN callsign RON
c) a fan marker callsign LP
d) an NDB callsign LF 33.4.2.3 (2335)
(For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The radio
navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N 005°53'W) is :
33.4.2.3 (2329)
a) an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, NOT continuous operation
(For this question use annex 033- 11006A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
b) a TACAN, channel 420
Edition)The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48°30'N 007°34'E) is a:
c) a fan marker, frequency 420 kHz
a) VOR/TACAN, frequency 115.6 MHz
d) an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, continuous operation
b) VOR only, frequency 115.6 MHz
c) DME only, channel 115.6
d) TACAN only, frequency 115.6 MHz 33.4.2.3 (2336)
(For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The radio
navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N 008°53'W) is :
33.4.2.3 (2330)
a) a VOR/DME, frequency 113.3 MHz
(For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
b) an NDB, frequency 352 kHz
Edition)The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 004°53'E) is a:
c) a TACAN, frequency 113.3 kHz
a) TACAN, channel 87, frequency 114.0 MHz
d) a VOR only, frequency 113.3 MHz
b) VOR, frequency 114.0 MHz, and TACAN channel 87
c) TACAN, channel 114.0
d) TACAN, channel 87, and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz 33.4.2.4 (2337)
(For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N 012°53.6'E) to
33.4.2.3 (2331)
Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which statement is correct ?
(For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
a) The minimum grid safe altitude on this route is 13400 ft above MSL.
Edition)The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) is :
b) The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft.
a) a VOR only, frequency 115.0 MHz
c) The minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft.
b) a VOR/DME, frequency 115.0MHz
d) The minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this route is 10800 ft above MSL.
c) an NDB only, frequency 115.0 kHz
d) a TACAN, frequency 115.0 MHz
33.4.2.4 (2338)
(For this question use annex 033- 11021A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
33.4.2.3 (2332)
Edition)Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross GIBSO intersection
(For this question use annex 033- 11009A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
(50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above:
Edition)The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is:
a) FL250
a) an NDB, frequency 386 kHz
b) FL140
b) a VOR, frequency 386 MHz
c) FL160
c) a VOR/DME, on channel 386
d) FL200
d) a TACAN, on channel 386

33.4.2.4 (2339)
33.4.2.3 (2333)
An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that:
(For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
a) the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 ft
Edition)The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N 012°17'E) is a:
b) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft
a) VOR/DME, frequency 114.1 MHz, and NDB frequency 408 kHz
c) the airway base is 3500 ft MSL
b) VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN channel 408
d) the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL
c) VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN frequency 408 MHz
d) VOR/DME only, frequency 114.1 MHz

197
33.4.2.4 (2340) 33.4.2.4 (2346)
(For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA- (For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)The
Edition)The minimum enroute altitude available on airway UR160 from NICE NIZ minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway B65/H65
112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is: from DOXON (55°27'N 018°10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is :
a) FL250 a) FL100
b) FL200 b) FL60
c) FL210 c) 1000ft
d) FL260 d) 2500 ft

33.4.2.4 (2341) 33.4.2.5 (2347)

((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA- Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard instrument departure the routes
Edition)The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on are given with:
airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID a) magnetic course
114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is : b) magnetic headings
a) FL290 c) true course
b) FL245 d) true headings
c) FL250
d) FL330
33.4.2.5 (2348)
(For this question use annex 033-3906A or Route Manual chart SID PARIS Charles-
33.4.2.4 (2342) De-Gaulle (20-3))Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London
(For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(LO)1)The (Heathrow).Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.
minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained continuously on airway G1 from a) 387 ft.
STRUMBLE STU 113.1 (52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N b) 268 ft.
003°16'W) is : c) 217 ft.
a) FL110 d) 2 ft.
b) FL80
c) 4100ft MSL
33.4.2.5 (2349)
d) 2900 ft MSL
(For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route Manual chart STAR LONDON
Heathrow (10-2))Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London
33.4.2.4 (2343) (Heathrow).Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome.
An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: a) 80 ft.
a) the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80. b) 77 ft.
b) the airway base is 1500 ft MSL. c) 177 ft.
c) the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80. d) 100 ft.
d) 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA).
33.4.2.5 (2350)
33.4.2.4 (2344) (For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B or Route Manual STAR
(For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)The 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London
minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be maintained continuously on airway (Heathrow))Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).Name the
G4 from JERSEY JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N 004°20'W) is : identifier and frequency of the initial approach fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.
a) FL140 a) BIG 115.1 MHz
b) FL60 b) EPM 316 kHz
c) 2800 ft MSL c) OCK 115.3 MHz
d) 1000 ft MSL d) BIG 115.1 kHz

33.4.2.4 (2345) 33.4.2.5 (2351)

An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is the : (For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route Manual STAR charts for
a) minimum enroute altitude (MEA) ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10-2B))Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should
b) maximum authorised altitude (MAA) follow the following route to EKRON int:
c) minimum holding altitude (MHA) a) BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to EKRON int
d) base of the airway (AGL) b) TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int

198
c) WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int a) ALBIX 7S
d) HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int b) ALBIX 7A
c) ALBIX 6H
d) ALBIX 6E
33.4.2.5 (2352)
(For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route Manual SID chart for
MUNICH(10-3C,10-3D))Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from runway 33.4.2.5 (2358)
26L ? (For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route Manual SID chart for
a) KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3B))The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:
b) KEMPTEN THREE ECHO a) 67 NM
c) KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC b) 35 NM
d) KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER c) 59 NM
d) 52 NM
33.4.2.5 (2353)
(For this question use annex 033- 11042A or Route Manual STAR chart for 33.4.2.5 (2359)
LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D))The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum (For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route Manual SID chart for
holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are: AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3))Which of the following statements is correct for
a) 7000 ft and 220kt ANDIK departures from runway 19L?
b) 9000ft and 220kt a) Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft and report altitude
c) 7000ft and 250kt b) Cross ANDIK below FL60
d) 9000ft and 250kt c) The distance to ANDIK is 25 NM
d) Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME
33.4.2.5 (2354)
(For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route Manual STAR charts for PARIS 33.4.2.5 (2360)
CHARLES DE GAULLE (20-2))The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to (For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route Manual STAR charts for
BOURSONNE (BSN) is : MUNICH (10-2A,B))The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF) for an
a) 96 NM arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08 L/R is:
b) 83 NM a) AALEN 1T, IAF ROKIL
c) 88 NM b) AALEN 1T, IAF MBG
d) 73 NM c) NDG 1T, IAF ROKIL
d) DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL
33.4.2.5 (2355)
(For this question use annex 033- 11044A or Route Manual SID chart for LONDON 33.4.3.1 (2361)
HEATHROW (10-3))Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe Altitude From which of the following would you expect to find information regarding known
(MSA) for the Airport? short unserviceability of VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?
a) West sector 2100 ft within 25 NM a) NOTAM
b) West sector 2300 ft within 25 NM b) AIP (Air Information Publication)
c) East sector 2100 ft within 50 NM c) SIGMET
d) East sector 2300 ft within 50 NM d) ATCC broadcasts

33.4.2.5 (2356) 33.4.3.1 (2362)

(For this question use annex 033- 11045A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID From which of the following would you expect to find the dates and times when
BARAJAS (10-2A,B))For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the Initial temporary danger areas are active
Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is : a) NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication)
a) VTB b) Only AIP (Air Information Publication)
b) CJN c) SIGMET
c) CENTA d) RAD/NAV charts
d) MOTIL
33.4.3.1 (2363)
33.4.2.5 (2357) From which of the following would you expect to find details of the Search and
(For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route Manual SID charts for ZURICH Rescue organisation and procedures (SAR) ?
(10-3))Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for runway 16? a) AIP (Air Information Publication)
199
b) ATCC broadcasts 33.4.3.2 (2369)
c) NOTAM (For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-9554B or Flight Planning
d) SIGMET Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1 and Figure 4.2.1)Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY
for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL . Given: Long
range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310
33.4.3.1 (2364)
a) 4%
From which of the following would you expect to find facilitation information (FAL)
b) 1%
regarding customs and health formalities ?
c) 10%
a) AIP (Air Information Publication)
d) 0%
b) NAV/RAD charts
c) ATCC
d) NOTAM 33.4.3.2 (2370)
(For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.2.1)Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise
33.4.3.2 (2365)
mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74 MACH
(For this question use annex 033-3312A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
a) 34500 ft
Edition)An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N 001°51.3'E) to Biggin
b) 33800 ft
(51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an
c) 35300 ft
IFR flightplan ?
d) maximum operating altitude
a) FL 310
b) FL 330
c) FL 320 33.4.3.2 (2371)
d) FL 300 On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude and latitude, appears the
following information ""80"". This means that within this quadrant:
a) the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
33.4.3.2 (2366)
b) the minimum flight level is FL 80
You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic with a MSA at 7 800 ft.
c) the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft
Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum
d) the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft
flight level you must fly at is:
a) 90
b) 80 33.4.3.2 (2372)
c) 75 (For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
d) 70 Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from ORTAC (50°00'N
002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0 (51°03'N 000°37'W) is:
a) FL250
33.4.3.2 (2367)
b) FL260
An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10 600 ft obstacle with a
c) FL240
minimum obstacle clearance of 1 500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport
d) FL230
close by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the temperature is ISA -15°C,
the minimum flight level will be:
a) 140 33.4.3.2 (2373)
b) 120 (For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
c) 130 Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from ERLANGEN ERL
d) 150 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is :
a) FL310
b) FL290
33.4.3.2 (2368)
c) FL300
(For this question use annex 033-9553A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) FL320
4.2.1)Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Cruise
mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH
a) 35500 ft 33.4.3.2 (2374)
b) 36200 ft (For this question use annex 033- 11032A or Route Manual chart E(LO)5)An
c) 36700 ft appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N
d) maximum operating altitude 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE 114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is:
a) FL70
b) FL50

200
c) FL60 rules on a course of 180° (M) is:
d) FL80 a) FL100
b) FL90
c) FL95
33.4.3.2 (2375)
d) FL105
(For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-
Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from MENDE-
NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 33.4.3.2 (2381)
001°50'E) is : An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height
a) FL290 rules on a magnetic course of 200° is:
b) FL280 a) FL310
c) FL300 b) FL320
d) FL310 c) FL290
d) FL300
33.4.3.2 (2376)
(For this question use annex 033- 11034A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA- 33.4.3.2 (2382)
Edition)An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from NANTES NTS On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in
117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN 115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is: relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on
a) FL310 distance, this altitude is valid to:
b) FL290 a) 25 NM
c) FL300 b) 20 NM
d) FL270 c) 15 NM
d) 10 NM
33.4.3.2 (2377)
(For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route Manual chart E(LO)2)An 33.4.3.2 (2383)
appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from CHATILLON CTL 117.6 An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of 235° magnetic. The
(49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is : minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight
a) FL170 level you must fly is:
b) FL80 a) 100
c) FL60 b) 90
d) FL50 c) 85
d) 80
33.4.3.2 (2378)
(For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)An 33.4.3.5 (2384)
appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N An aeroplane has the following masses:ESTLWT= 50 000 kgTrip fuel= 4 300
012°24'E) to RODING RDG 114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is : kgContingency fuel= 215 kgAlternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kgTaxi=
a) FL80 500 kgBlock fuel= 7 115 kgBefore departure the captain orders to make the block
b) FL40 fuel 9 000 kg.The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read:
c) FL50 a) 4 300 kg.
d) FL70 b) 6 185 kg.
c) 9 000 kg.
d) 6 400 kg.
33.4.3.2 (2379)
(For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route Manual chart E(LO)6)An
appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 33.4.3.6 (2385)
(49°24'N 005°08'E) to CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is : (For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route Manual chart LONDON
a) FL60 HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L (11-2))The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-
b) FL70 in landing is :
c) FL50 a) 280 ft
d) FL40 b) 200 ft
c) 400 ft
d) 480 ft
33.4.3.2 (2380)
An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance with semi-circular height
201
33.4.3.6 (2386) c) 108.3 IMNW
(For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM d) 108.3 IMSW
SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy 22 (11-6))The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to
an alitude of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ----------
33.4.3.6 (2392)
a) (i) 2000 ft (ii) 160°
(For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES
b) (i) 200 ft (ii) 223°
DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 (21-8))The ILS localizer course is :
c) (i) 3000 ft (ii) 160°
a) 088°
d) (i) 3000 ft (ii) 223°
b) 100°
c) 118°
33.4.3.6 (2387) d) 268°
(For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route Manual chart MADRID
BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1))The minimum glide slope interception altitude
33.4.3.6 (2393)
for a full ILS is:
(For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy
a) 4000 ft
16 (11-2))The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS approach glide slope
b) 3500 ft
out, all other aids serviceable, aeroplane category A is:
c) 2067 ft
a) 720m
d) 1567 ft
b) 600m
c) 800m
33.4.3.6 (2388) d) 1500m
(For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA
MINIMUMS (10-9X)The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS DME
33.4.3.6 (2394)
approach to Rwy 01L is :
(For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route Manual chart MUNICH NDB
a) 100 ft
DME Rwy 26L approach (16-3))The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the
b) 88 ft
published approachs are:
c) 300 ft
a) 400 MSW
d) 188 ft
b) 338 MNW
c) 108.6 DMS
33.4.3.6 (2389) d) 112.3 MUN
(For this question use annex 033- 11062A or Route Manual chart LONDON
HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R (11-1))The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an
33.5.1.1 (2395)
ILS glide slope out, is:
The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is:
a) 480 ft
a) 30 min.
b) 405 ft
b) 45 min.
c) 275 ft
c) 60 min.
d) 200 ft
d) Variable with wind velocity.

33.4.3.6 (2390)
33.5.1.1 (2396)
(For this question use annex 033- 11063A or Route Manual chart PARIS CHARLES
The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?
DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27 (21-2))The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a
a) To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able to increase the
propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are :
traffic load.
a) Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft
b) To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural stress on the aircraft.
b) Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft
c) To increase the safety of the flight.
c) Cross at FL80 descend to FL70
d) To increase the amount of extra fuel.
d) Cross at FL60 and maintain

33.5.1.1 (2397)
33.4.3.6 (2391)
When using decision point procedure, you reduce the
(For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy
a) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between decision
26R (11-4))The ILS frequency and identifier are:
point and destination.
a) 108.7 IMNW
b) contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the burnoff between the decision airport
b) 108.7 IMSW
and destination.

202
c) reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%. a) 8120 kg.
d) holding fuel by 30%. b) 7380 kg.
c) 1845 kg.
d) 3500 kg.
33.5.1.1 (2398)
The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary for a jet aeroplane to fly
IFR from departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel 33.5.1.1 (2403)
consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow
should be 5% of trip fuel.What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which for :
should be on board at take-off? a) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no
a) 13000 kg. alternate is required.
b) 14500 kg. b) 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.
c) 13370 kg. c) 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.
d) 13220 kg. d) 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

33.5.1.1 (2399) 33.5.1.1 (2404)

Mark the correct statement:If a decision point procedure is applied for flight (For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
planning, 4.3.1.B)Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t, estimated landing mass at alternate
a) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the decision 52 t, final reserve fuel 2 t, alternate fuel 1 t, flight to destination, distance 720 NM,
point. true course (TC) 030, W/V 340/30, cruise: long range FL 330, outside air
b) the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated via the suitable enroute temperature -30 ° C.Find : estimated trip fuel and time
alternate. a) 4 800 kg, 01 : 45
c) a destination alternate is not required. b) 4 400 kg, 02 : 05
d) the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from departure aerodrome to the c) 4 750 kg, 02 : 00
decision point. d) 4 600 kg, 02 : 05

33.5.1.1 (2400) 33.5.1.1 (2405)

An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that calculation up of usable fuel for a
flight for which no destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip fuel,
contingency fuel and fuel to fly for:
a) 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions
b) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
c) 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent at cruising level or two hours
whichever is less
d) 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in standard conditions
33.5.1.1 (2401)
The following fuel consumption figures are given for a jet aeroplane:-standard taxi
fuel: 600 kg.-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.-holding fuel consumption
at 1500 ft above alternate airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.-flight time from departure
to destination: 6 hours -fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg.The minimum
ramp fuel load is:
a) 77 800 kg
b) 74 800 kg
c) 79 800 kg
d) 77 200 kg
33.5.1.1 (2402)
A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060 kg/h, and 3690 kg/h
during holding. If the destination is an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry,
in addition to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :
(For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.6)Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 14 500 kg,
final reserve fuel 1200 kg, distance to alternate 95 NM, average true track 219°,
head wind component 10 ktFind : fuel and time to alternate.
a) 1 100 kg, 25 min
b) 1 100 kg, 44 min
c) 800 kg, 24 min
d) 800 kg, 40 min
33.5.1.1 (2406)
(For this question use annex 033-3323A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.3.3C)Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600 NM, headwind
component 50 kt, FL 330, cruise 0.78 Mach, ISA + 20 ° C, estimated landing weight
55000 kg .Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated trip fuel and trip
time.
a) 12 400 kg. 03h 55 min
b) 11 400 kg. 04h 12 min
c) 12 400 kg. 04h 12 min
d) 11 400 kg. 03h 55 min
33.5.1.1 (2407)
(For this question use annex 033-3324A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.4)Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg, estimated load 12 000 kg, contingency
approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg, elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft,
elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft.Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane

203
(holding) and give the elevation which is relevant. data. Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass 50000 kg, ISA
a) 1 180 kg, alternate elevation conditions
b) 2 360 kg, alternate elevation a) 2300 kg/h
c) 1 180 kg,destination elevation b) 1150 kg/h
d) 2 360 kg,destination elevation c) 2994 kg/h
d) 1497 kg/h
33.5.1.1 (2408)
Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow) for a twin - 33.5.1.1 (2413)
jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kgMaximum Zero Fuel (For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
Mass: 51 250 kgMaximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kgMaximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 4.5.3.1)Find: Final fuel consumption for this legGiven: Long range cruise,
kgAssume the following preplanning results:Trip fuel: 1 800 kgAlternate fuel: 1 Temperature -63°C, FL 330, Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29
400 kgHolding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kgDry Operating Mass: 34 000 kgTraffic min
Load: 13 000 kgCatering: 750 kgBaggage: 3 500 kgFind the Take-off Mass (TOM): a) 1093 kg
a) 51 515 kg. b) 1107 kg
b) 55 765 kg. c) 1100 kg
c) 51 425 kg. d) 1000 kg
d) 52 265 kg.
33.5.1.1 (2414)
33.5.1.1 (2409) (For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
(For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B, 033-11073C and 4.5.3.1)Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg and fuel
033-11073D)Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is consumptionGiven: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the enroute point is
160 000 kg, the ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt, ISA 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The
conditions.Fuel consumption will be: take-off mass is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
a) 26 950 kg a) 345 NAM, 1994 kg
b) 22 860 kg b) 349 NAM, 2000 kg
c) 24 900 kg c) 345 NAM, 2000 kg
d) 30 117 kg d) 345 NAM, 2006 kg

33.5.1.1 (2410) 33.5.1.1 (2415)

(For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 033-11074C and (For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
033-11074D)Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated landing mass is 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280, average temperature
160 000 kg.The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is equal to zero. during climb ISA -10°C, average head wind component 18 ktFind: Climb time for
ISA conditions.Fuel consumption will be: enroute climb 280/.74
a) 32 657 kg a) 13 min
b) 30 117 kg b) 11 min
c) 27 577 kg c) 15 min
d) 30 371 kg d) 14 min

33.5.1.1 (2411) 33.5.1.1 (2416)

(For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure (For this question use annex 033-9574A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.14)Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane flying below the 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Headwind
optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and using the following data. Given: MACH .74 component 16 kt, Initial FL 280Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance
CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions (NM) for the enroute climb 280/.74
a) 176 NAM/1000 kg a) 62 NAM, 59 NM
b) 187 NAM/1000 kg b) 59 NAM, 62 NM
c) 2994 NAM/1000 kg c) 62 NAM, 71 NM
d) 2807 NAM/1000 kg d) 71 NAM, 67 NM

33.5.1.1 (2412) 33.5.1.1 (2417)

(For this question use annex 033-9557A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure (For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.2)Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with regard to the following 4.5.1)Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -10°C, Average

204
headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 33.5.1.1 (2422)
280/.74 (For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
a) 1138 kg 4.4)The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING PLANNING table for the twin
b) 1238 kg jet aeroplane is based on the following parameters:
c) 1387 kg a) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with minimum drag airspeed
d) 1040 kg b) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with maximum range speed
c) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with maximum range speed
d) pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with minimum drag airspeed
33.5.1.1 (2418)
(For this question use annex 033-9578A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross mass at the 33.5.1.1 (2423)
beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass at the end of the leg 39000 kgFind: True (For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM) for a twin jet aeroplane 4.3.6)In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE
a) TAS 433 kt, 227 NAM OPERATING MANUAL shall be entered with:
b) TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM a) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate
c) TAS 433 kt, 1163 NAM b) distance in nautical air miles (NAM), wind component, landing mass at alternate
d) TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM c) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass
d) distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, dry operating mass plus holding fuel
33.5.1.1 (2419)
(For this question use annex 033-11238A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane 33.5.1.1 (2424)
prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight level FL 370 at ""Long Range"" The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is
(LR) cruise regime- (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg- Flight leg a) fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome
ground distance: 2 000 NM- Temperatures: ISA- Headwind component: 70 kt- elevation in standard conditions.
""Total anti-ice"" set on ""ON"" for the entire flight- no requested climb and b) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
descent correction of the fuel consumptionThe fuel required from take-off to standard conditions.
landing is: c) fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in
a) 29 440 kg standard conditions.
b) 27 770 kg d) fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
c) 20 900 kg standard conditions.
d) 22 160 kg
33.5.1.1 (2425)
33.5.1.1 (2420) Which of the following statements is relevant for forming route portions in
(For this question use annex 033-11241A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane integrated range flight planning?
prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight level FL 370 at ""Long Range"" a) The distance from take-off up to the top of climb has to be known.
(LR) cruise regime- Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg- Flight leg ground distance: b) No segment shall be more than 30 minutes of flight time.
2 500 NM- Temperatures: ISA- CG: 37%- Headwind component: 30 kt- ""Total c) Each reporting point requires a new segment.
anti-ice"" set on ""ON"" for the entire flight- No requested climb and descent d) A small change of temperature (2 °C) can divide a segment.
correction of the fuel consumptionThe fuel consumption (from take-off to landing)
is:
33.5.1.1 (2426)
a) 34 430 kg
(For this question use annex 033-9691A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
b) 32 480 kg
4.5.3.1)Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise, Outside air
c) 28 720 kg
temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500 kgFind: True air speed (TAS)
d) 30 440 kg
a) 420 kt
b) 433 kt
33.5.1.1 (2421) c) 431 kt
(For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 d) 418 kt
Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2)Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground
distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74 MachFind: Cruise altitude
33.5.1.1 (2427)
and expected true air speed
(For this question use annex 033-11208A)A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000
a) 25000 ft, 435 kt
kg, initiates its cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%, Total Anti Ice
b) 24000 ft, 445 kt
ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe
c) 33500 ft, 430 kt
icing is encountered and this requires an immediate descent. The aeroplane mass
d) 33900 ft, 420 kt
205
at start of descent is: c) 21 700 kg
a) 192 500 kg d) 19 900 kg
b) 193 000 kg
c) 193 400 kg
33.5.1.1 (2432)
d) 193 800 kg
(For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033-11213B)Assuming the following
data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 350.
33.5.1.1 (2428) Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Tailwind component: 40 kt.
(For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033-11209B)Assuming a departure/ Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg. Temperature: ISA . CG: 37%. Total
destination fuel price ratio of 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel anti-ice: OFF. Air conditioning: normalFuel consumption for such a flight is:
tankering by using the following data:. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Air distance to a) 27 800 kg
be covered: 2 500 NM. Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum b) 27 000 kg
prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 29 000 kg). c) 28 300 kg
Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg. d) 29 200 kg
Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kgThe additional fuel quantity will be:
a) 0 kg
33.5.1.1 (2433)
b) 3 000 kg
(For this question use annex 033-11214A)Assuming the following data:. Ground
c) 2 000 kg
distance to be covered: 2 600 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 370. Cruising speed: Mach
d) 4 000 kg
0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Wind: zero wind during flight. Planned destination
landing mass: 140 000 kg. Temperature: ISA + 15° C. CG: 37 %. Total anti-ice: ON.
33.5.1.1 (2429) Air conditioning: normalFuel consumption for such a flight is:
(For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033-11210B)Assuming a departure/ a) 31 500 kg
destination fuel price ratio of 0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel b) 29 100 kg
tankering by using the following data:. Cruise flight level: FL 350. Air distance to c) 29 400kg
be covered: 1 830 NM. Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum d) 27 400 kg
prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip fuel of 22 000 kg).
Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg.
33.5.1.1 (2434)
Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kgThe additional fuel quantity will be:
(For this question use annex 033-11215A)A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the
a) 10 000 kg
following data: . optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg .
b) 20 000 kg
temperature: ISA . tailwind component: 100 ktThe fuel mileage and the fuel
c) 12 000 kg
consumption per hour are:
d) 15 000 kg
a) 105 NM/1000 kg, 5330 kg/h
b) 105 NM/1000 kg, 6515 kg/h
33.5.1.1 (2430) c) 86 NM/1000 kg, 6515 kg/h
(For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033-11211B )Assuming the d) 71 NM/1000 kg, 5330 kg/h
following data:. Ground distance to be covered: 2 000 NM. Cruise flight level: FL
330. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Head wind component: 30
33.5.1.1 (2435)
kt. Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%.
(For this question use annex 033-11216A)A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the
Total anti-ice: ON. Pack flow: HITime needed to carry out such a flight is:
following data: . flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of 150 000 kg .
a) 4 h 43 min
temperature: ISA . head wind component: 100 kt . remaining flight time: 1 h 40
b) 4 h 26 min
minThe ground distance that can be covered during the cruise flight is:
c) 5 h 02 min
a) 445 NM
d) 4 h 10 min
b) 612 NM
c) 841 NM
33.5.1.1 (2431) d) 2031 NM
(For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033-11212B)Assuming the following
data:. Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM. Cruise flight level: FL 310.
33.5.1.1 (2436)
Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt). Head wind component: 40 kt.
(For this question use annexes 033-11223A, 033-11223B and 033-11223C)Given:.
Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg. Temperature: ISA + 15° C. CG: 37
Take-off mass: 150 000 kg. Planned cruise at FL 350. Long range MACH. Standard
%. Total anti-ice: ON. Pack flow: HIFuel consumption for such a flight is:
Atmosphere (ISA). CG: 37 %Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel
a) 23 500 kg
from take-off to landing will be:
b) 21 500 kg
a) 22 360 kg

206
b) 19 660 kg 33.5.1.1 (2441)
c) 21 760 kg (For this question use annex 033-12360A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) 20 260 kg 4.7.3)Given:Diversion distance 650 NMDiversion pressure altitude 16 000 ftMass at
point of diversion 57 000 kgHead wind component 20 ktTemperature ISA +
15°CThe diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are approximately :
33.5.1.1 (2437)
a) (a) 4800kg(b) 2h 03min
(For this question use annex 033-11228A)For a long distance flight at FL 390,
b) (a) 3900kg(b) 1h 45min
""Long Range"" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
c) (a) 6200kg(b) 2h 10min
characteristics:- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind component:
d) (a) 4400kg(b) 1h 35min
50 kt - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 30 kt -
segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind component: 100 kt - segment DE
- Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind component: 70 kt The air distance of the 33.5.1.1 (2442)
entire flight is approximately: (For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
a) 4 900 NM 4.7.3) Given:Distance to alternate 950 NMHead wind component 20 ktMass at
b) 5 120 NM point of diversion 50000kgDiversion fuel available 5800kgThe minimum pressure
c) 4 630 NM altitude at which the above conditions may be met is :
d) 5 040 NM a) 22000ft
b) 20000ft
c) 26000ft
33.5.1.1 (2438)
d) 18000ft
(For this question use annex 031-11231A)For a long distance flight at FL 370,
""Long Range"" regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
specifications:- segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind component: 33.5.1.1 (2443)
50 kt- segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 30 kt- (For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind component: 70 kt- segment DE - 4.7.2)For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it is required that with
Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind component: 20 ktThe total air distance is a start of diversion mass of 55000kg a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be
approximately: achieved in 90 minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise technique to
a) 4 800 NM meet that requirement is :
b) 4 940 NM a) M/KIAS .74/330
c) 4 580 NM b) M/KIAS .74/290
d) 4 820 NM c) M/KIAS .70/280
d) LRC
33.5.1.1 (2439)
(For this question use annex 033-12358A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 33.5.1.1 (2444)
4.7.3)Given:Diversion fuel available 8500kgDiversion cruise altitude 10000ftMass (For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
at point of diversion 62500kgHead wind component 50ktTemperature ISA -5°CThe 4.7.2)Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed of M.70/280KIAS, in
(a) maximum diversion distance, and (b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately an elapsed time of 90 minutes an aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg
: could divert a distance of :
a) (a) 860 NM (b) 3h 20 min a) 584 NM
b) (a) 1000 NM (b) 3h 40 min b) 563 NM
c) (a) 760 NM (b) 4h 30 min c) 603 NM
d) (a) 1130 NM (b) 3h 30 min d) 608 NM

33.5.1.1 (2440) 33.5.1.1 (2445)

(For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure (For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.7.3)Given:Diversion distance 720NMTail wind component 25ktMass at point of 4.7.2)An aircraft on an extended range operation is required never to be more than
diversion 55000kgTemperature ISADiversion fuel available 4250kgWhat is the 120 minutes from an alternate, based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in
minimum pressure altitude at which the above conditions may be met ? ISA. Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at the most critical point,
a) 20000ft the maximum air distance to the relevant alternate is :
b) 26000ft a) 735 NM
c) 16000ft b) 794 NM
d) 14500ft c) 810 NM
d) 875 NM

207
33.5.1.1 (2446) a) D x HX = _____ O + H
(For this question use annex 033-12367A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure b) D x OX = _____ O + H
4.5.4)A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to 5000ft. How much fuel c) E x O x HX = ________ O + H
will be consumed during this descent? d) D x O x HX = ________ O + H
a) 150kg
b) 290kg
33.5.1.2 (2452)
c) 278kg
Given :Course A to B 088° (T)distance 1250 NMMean TAS 330 ktMean W/V
d) 140kg
340°/60 ktThe time from A to the PET between A and B is :
a) 1 hour 42 minutes
33.5.1.2 (2447) b) 1 hour 54 minutes
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V c) 1 hour 39 minutes
320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and d) 2 hours 02 minutes
actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time (PET) is reached at :
a) 1213 UTC
33.5.1.2 (2453)
b) 1221 UTC
Given :Distance X to Y 2700 NMMach Number 0.75Temperature -45°CMean wind
c) 1233 UTC
component 'on' 10 kt tailwindMean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwindThe
d) 1203 UTC
distance from X to the point of equal time (PET) between X and Y is :
a) 1386 NM
33.5.1.2 (2448) b) 1350 NM
If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True Course (TC) 350°, W/V c) 1313 NM
320/40, distance from departure to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and d) 1425 NM
actual time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from departure to Point of
Equal Time (PET) is :
33.5.1.2 (2454)
a) 203 NM
Given :Distance A to B 2050 NMMean groundspeed 'on' 440 ktMean groundspeed
b) 147 NM
'back' 540 ktThe distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A and B is :
c) 183 NM
a) 1130 NM
d) 167 NM
b) 1025 NM
c) 920 NM
33.5.1.2 (2449) d) 1153 NM
Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical point. Given: distance from
WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component
33.5.1.2 (2455)
out 30 kt, head wind component return 40 kt
Given :Distance A to B 3060 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 440 ktMean groundspeed
a) 342 NM
'back' 540 ktSafe Endurance 10 hoursThe time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
b) 375 NM
a) 5 hours 30 minutes
c) 408 NM
b) 5 hours 45 minutes
d) 403 NM
c) 3 hours 55 minutes
d) 5 hours 20 minutes
33.5.1.2 (2450)
Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR). Given: Maximum useable fuel
33.5.1.2 (2456)
15000 kg, Minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind component
Given the following:D = flight distance X = distance to Point of Equal TimeGSo =
out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow
groundspeed outGSr = groundspeed return The correct formula to find distance to
2150 kg/h
Point of Equal Time is :
a) 2 h 51 min
a) X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)
b) 3 h 43 min
b) X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
c) 2 h 59 min
c) X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
d) 2 h 43 min
d) X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr)

33.5.1.2 (2451)
33.5.2.1 (2457)
Given :X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A and BE =
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the advantages of
EnduranceD = Distance A to BO = Groundspeed 'on'H = Groundspeed 'back'The
computer flight plans ?1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.2. Wind data
formula for calculating the distance X to point of equal time (PET) is:
used by the computer is always more up-to-date than that available to the pilot.
208
a) Statement 1 only d) to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost as well as the time related cost
b) Statement 2 only of the aeroplane.
c) Both statements
d) Neither statement
33.6.1.3 (2463)
(For this question use annex 033-4616A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.5.2.1 (2458) 4.3.6)In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet aeroplane operations
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to the operation of manual graph shall be entered with:
flight planning computers ?1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.2. In the a) Distance (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate.
event of inflight re-routing the computer produces a new plan. b) Still air distance, wind component, zero fuel mass.
a) Statement 1 only c) Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.
b) Statement 2 only d) Distance (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass.
c) Both statements
d) Neither statement
33.6.1.3 (2464)
(For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.5.2.1 (2459) 4.4)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg,
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight Estimated mass on arrival at the destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL,
plans 1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra Destination elevation 1500 ftFind: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time
fuel.2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, a) 1180 kg, 30 min
climb, cruise, descent and approach and landing at the destination alternate. b) 2360 kg, 30 min
a) Statement 2 only c) 2360 kg, 01 h 00 min
b) Both statements d) 1180 kg, 45 min
c) Statement 1 only
d) Neither statement
33.6.1.3 (2465)
(For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.6.1.0 (2460) 4.4)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at the alternate 50000 kg,
When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given flight, one must take into Elevation at destination aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30
account :1 - the wind2 - foreseeable airborne delays3 - other weather forecasts4 - ftFind: Final reserve fuel
any foreseeable conditions which may delay landingThe combination which a) 1180 kg
provides the correct statement is : b) 2360 kg
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 c) 1150 kg
b) 03-Jan d) 2300 kg
c) 2 - 4
d) 1 - 2 - 3
33.6.1.3 (2466)
(For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
33.6.1.1 (2461) 4.2.2)Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet
(For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA- aeroplane.Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip
Edition)Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 E005 05.9).Find: distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
Route designator and total distance a) 10000 ft
a) Direct route, 69 NM b) 7500 ft
b) D, 44 NM c) 12500 ft
c) UG 21, 69 NM d) 11000 ft
d) UG 21, 26 NM
33.6.1.3 (2467)
33.6.1.3 (2462) (For this question use annex 033-9551A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
""Integrated range"" curves or tables are presented in the Aeroplane Operations 4.2.2)Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the twin jet
Manuals. Their purpose is aeroplane.Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA + 20°C, Trip
a) to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air distance considering the distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
decreasing fuel flow with decreasing mass. a) 30000 ft
b) to determine the flight time for a certain leg under consideration of temperature deviations. b) 25000 ft
c) to determine the still air distance for a wind components varying with altitude. c) 21000 ft
d) 27500 ft

209
33.6.1.3 (2468) 33.6.1.5 (2473)
(For this question use annexes 033-9494A and 033-9694B or Flight Planning Given:Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kgLoad= 7600 kgMaximum allowable
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1 and Figure 4.3.1B)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero take-off mass= 66200 kgStandard taxi fuel= 200 kgTank capacity= 16 100 kgThe
fuel mass 50000 kg, Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel 2000 maximum possible take-off fuel is:
kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination: Distance 720 NM, True course a) 15 900 kg
030°, W/V 340°/30 kt, Long range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature b) 17 100 kg
-30°CFind: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight planning c) 16 300 kg
a) 4800 kg, 01 h 51 min d) 17 300 kg
b) 4400 kg, 02 h 05 min
c) 4750 kg, 02 h 00 min
33.6.1.5 (2474)
d) 4600 kg, 02 h 05 min
(For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1)Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL 330 initial gross mass enroute
33.6.1.3 (2469) 54 100 kg, leg flight time 29 minFind: fuel consumption for this leg
(For this question use annex 033-9695A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure a) 1 020 kg
4.3.3C)Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to destination aerodrome is b) 1 200 kg
1600 NM, Headwind component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation c) 1 100 kg
+20°C and Landing mass 55000 kgFind: Fuel required and trip time with simplified d) 1 680 kg
flight planning
a) 12400 kg, 04 h 00 min
33.6.1.5 (2475)
b) 11400 kg, 04 h 12 min
(For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
c) 11600 kg, 04 h 15 min
4.5.3.1)Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point in FL280 is 48 min.
d) 12000 kg, 03 h 51 min
Cruise procedure is long range cruise (LRC). Temp. ISA -5° C Take-off mass 56 000
kg Climb fuel 1 100 kgFind: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and
33.6.1.3 (2470) fuel consumption:
(For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure a) 345 NAM, 2000 kg
4.3.6)Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load 14500 b) 350 NAM, 2000 kg
kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg, Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component c) 345 NAM, 2100 kg
10 ktFind: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with simplified flight planning d) 437 NAM, 2100 kg
(ALTERNATE PLANNING)
a) 1000 kg, 24 min
33.6.1.5 (2476)
b) 1000 kg, 40 min
(For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
c) 800 kg, 24 min
4.5.1)Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg,initial cruise FL 280,average
d) 800 kg, 0.4 hr
temperature during climb ISA -10°C,average head wind component 18 ktFind:
climb time
33.6.1.3 (2471) a) 13 min
(For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033-11226B)In standard b) 11 min
atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 kg, in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at c) 15 min
the optimum altitude, your Mach number should be: d) 14 min
a) 0.82
b) 0.84
33.6.1.5 (2477)
c) 0.80
(For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
d) the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise)
4.5.1)Given : brake release mass 57 500 kgtemperature ISA -10°C, head wind
component 16 ktinitial FL 280Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance
33.6.1.3 (2472) (NM) for the climb
(For this question use annex 031-11229A )For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a a) 62 NAM, 59 NM
mass of 190 000 kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at flight level b) 59 NAM,62 NM
FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude calculated using the annex is: c) 67 NAM, 71 NM
a) 37400 ft d) 71 NAM,67 NM
b) 37800 ft
c) 34600 ft
33.6.1.5 (2478)
d) 38600 ft
(For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure

210
4.5.1)Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg,temperature ISA -10°C, average 000 kgThe holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate elevation. The alternate
head wind component 16 ktinitial cruise FL 280Find: climb fuel elevation is 256 ft. The holding is planned for 30 minutes with no
a) 1138 kg reductions.Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate Manchester.
b) 1238 kg a) 48 125 kg.
c) 1387 kg b) 49 250 kg.
d) 1040 kg c) 2 250 kg.
d) 48 675 kg.
33.6.1.5 (2479)
(For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 33.6.1.5 (2484)
4.5.3.1)Given :FL 330, long range cruise, OAT -63°C, gross mass 50 500 kg.Find: (For this question use annexes 033-3911A and 033-3911B) or (Route Manual chart
true airspeed (TAS) E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6)Planning a flight from
a) 420 kt Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000
b) 433 kt 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is Manchester (N53 21.4
c) 431 kt W002 15.7) Preplanning:The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 ktThe
d) 418 kt distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM.Assume the Estimated Landing
Mass at alternate is about 50 000 kg.Find the alternate fuel and the according
time.
33.6.1.5 (2480)
a) 1 450 kg and 32 minutes.
(For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
b) 1 300 kg and 28 minutes.
4.5.3.1)Given: long range cruise, outside air temperature (OAT) -45 ° C in FL 350,
c) 1 600 kg and 36 minutes.
mass at the beginning of the leg 40 000 kg, mass at the end of the leg 39 000
d) 1 200 kg and 26 minutes.
kg.Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the distance (NAM).
a) TAS 431 kt, 227 NAM
b) TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM 33.6.1.5 (2485)
c) TAS 431 kt, 1163 NAM (For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033-3912B or Route Manual chart
d) TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A)Planning a flight
from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2
W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Powersetting: Mach=
33.6.1.5 (2481)
0.74Planned flight level FL 280The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kgThe
(For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B and 033-3320C or Flight
trip distance used for calculation is 200 NMThe wind from Paris to London is 280°/
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2)Given: estimated take-off
40 ktFind the estimated trip fuel.
mass 57 000 kg, still air distance 150 NAM, outside air temperature (OAT) ISA
a) 1 740 kg.
-10K, cruise at 0.74 Mach.Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeed
b) 1 550 kg.
a) 25 000 ft, 435 kt
c) 1 900 kg.
b) 25 000 ft, 445 kt
d) 1 450 kg.
c) 22 000 ft, 441 kt
d) 22 000 ft, 451 kt
33.6.1.5 (2486)
(For this question use annex 033-9558A)Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL
33.6.1.5 (2482)
CALCULATION and determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane, with the
(For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of the planned trip fuel and fuel flow
4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
for extra fuel is 2400 kg/h.
Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280,
a) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:07
W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average True Course 340° Find: Fuel to the
b) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:52
top of climb (TOC)
c) ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37
a) 1000 kg
d) ATC ENDURANCE: 04:12
b) 1000 lbs
c) 1100 kg
d) 1500 lbs 33.6.1.5 (2487)
(For this question use annex 033-9562A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
4.5.3.1) The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. The distance to be
33.6.1.5 (2483)
flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT -54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt
(For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
tailwind.Using long range cruise procedure what fuel is required?
4.4)Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London Heathrow for a twin -
a) 2150 kg
jet aeroplane.Preplanning:Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kgTraffic Load: 13
b) 2250 kg
211
c) 2350 kg level: 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000
d) 2050 kg kg- Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destinationThe commander may carry on board 8 000 kg
more fuel than that which is necessary.For this fuel transport operation to be cost
effective, the maximum fuel price at departure must be:
33.6.1.5 (2488)
a) 0.30 $/l
(For this question use annex 033-9564A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
b) 0.24 $/l
4.5.1)Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an enroute climb 280/.74 to FL
c) 0.28 $/l
350. Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport elevation 3000 ft
d) 0.29 $/l
a) 26 min, 1975 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt
b) 26 min, 2050 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt
c) 20 min, 1750 kg, 117 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 288 kt 33.6.1.5 (2493)
d) 25 min, 1875 kg, 148 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 391 kt (For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033-11243B)The flight crew of a
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance:
3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this
33.6.1.5 (2489)
level: - 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180
(For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033-9699B or Flight Planning Manual
000 kg- Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure, 0.27 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize
MRJT 1 Paragraph 5.1 and Figure 4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London
savings, the commander decides to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is
for a twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should
elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-Deviation -10°C, Average True
be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
Course 340° Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC)
a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.
a) 50 NM
b) 22 000 kg
b) 56 NM
c) 15 000 kg
c) 53 NM
d) 8 000 kg
d) 47 NM

33.6.1.5 (2494)
33.6.1.5 (2490)
(For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033-11244B)The flight crew of a
(For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance:
4.5.1)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to London (Heathrow)
4 000 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this
for the twin jet aeroplane. Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg,
level: 50 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 170 000
Airport elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -10°C, Average
kg- Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure, 0.30 Euro/l at destinationTo maximize
True Course 340° Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is
a) 11 min
necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should
b) 3 min
be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
c) 12 min
a) 8 000 kg
d) 15 min
b) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.
c) 18 000 kg
33.6.1.5 (2491) d) 32 000 kg
(For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031-11239B)The flight crew of a
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance:
33.6.1.5 (2495)
3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this
(For this question use annex 033-11245A and 033-11245B)The flight crew of a
level: 55 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance:
kg- Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departureThe commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8
3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this
000 kg in addition to that which is necessary.For this fuel transport operation to be
level: 5 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): 180 000
cost effective, the maximum fuel price at arrival must be:
kg- Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure, 0.315 $/l at destinationTo maximize savings,
a) 0.27 $/l
the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that which is
b) 0.26 $/l
necessary.Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel which should
c) 0.28 $/l
be carried in addition to the prescribed quantity is:
d) 0.33 $/l
a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case.
b) 22 000 kg
33.6.1.5 (2492) c) 15 000 kg
(For this question use annex 033-11240A and 033-11240B)The flight crew of a d) 8 000 kg
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg distance:
3 500 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt- Headwind component at this

212
33.6.1.5 (2496) prepared for a 1300 NM flight at FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head
For flight planning purposes the landing mass at alternate is taken as: wind of 160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the planned
a) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel. departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the
b) Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel. arrival fuel price (fuel price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimize its
c) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel. savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded on board is:
d) Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency Fuel. a) 14 000 kg
b) 30 000 kg
c) 42 000 kg
33.6.1.5 (2497)
d) 12 000 kg
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200
kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load
14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum 33.6.1.5 (2502)
allowable take-off fuel (For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B and 033-11224C)Given:.
a) 11100 kg Take-off mass: 150 000 kg. Planned cruise at FL 350. Long range MACH. Standard
b) 11400 kg Atmosphere (ISA). CG: 37 %You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM.Your
c) 14400 kg flight time will be:
d) 8600 kg a) 304 minutes
b) 288 minutes
c) 298 minutes
33.6.1.5 (2498)
d) 359 minutes
Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Maximum landing mass 56200
kg, Maximum zero fuel mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic load
14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kgFind: Maximum additional load 33.6.1.5 (2503)
a) 3000 kg (For this question use annex 033-11252A,033-11252B and 033-11252C)Knowing
b) 4000 kg that:. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Air
c) 7000 kg distance: 3 000 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-icing:
d) 5600 kg OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from
take-off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:
a) 400 minutes
33.6.1.5 (2499)
b) 383 minutes
(For this question use annex 033-9708A or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure
c) 394 minutes
4.5.3.2)Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin jet aeroplane.
d) 389 minutes
Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -10°C, Cruise procedure Mach
0.74Determine the TAS
a) 430 kt 33.6.1.5 (2504)
b) 440 kt (For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, 033-11253C and
c) 427 kt 033-11253D)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg. Selected cruise
d) 417 kt speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air
conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero
wind, the planned flight time from take-off to landing needed to complete this
33.6.1.5 (2500)
flight will be:
(For this question use annexes 033-11204A, 033-11204B and 033-11204C)The
a) 209 minutes
flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:Flight
b) 192 minutes
leg ground distance: 4 000 NMFlight level FL 370, ""Long range"" flight
c) 198 minutes
regimeEffective wind at this level: head wind of 50 ktTemperature: ISACentre of
d) 203 minutes
gravity (CG): 37 %Pack flow : LOW (LO)Anti ice: OFFReference landing mass: 140
000 kgTaxi fuel: 500 kgFinal reserve fuel: 2 400 kgThe fuel quantity which must be
loaded on board the aircraft is: 33.6.1.5 (2505)
a) 51 860 kg (For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B, 033-11254C and
b) 52 060 kg 033-11254D)Knowing that:. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg. Selected cruise
c) 46 340 kg speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air
d) 41 950 kg conditioning: standard. Anti-icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37%Assuming zero
wind, the planned landing mass at destination will be:
a) 171 200 kg
33.6.1.5 (2501)
b) 169 200 kg
(For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033-11207B)A turbojet aeroplane is

213
c) 170 200 kg 33.6.1.5 (2510)
d) 174 800 kg (For this question use annex 033-11271A)The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane
prepares a flight using the following data:. Take-off mass: 210 500 kg. Flight leg
ground distance: 2 500 NM. Flight level FL 330, ""Long Range"" flight regime .
33.6.1.5 (2506)
Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt. Total anti-ice set on ""ON"". Fixed taxi
(For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, and 033-11253C)Knowing
fuel: 500 kg, final reserve: 2 400 kg. Ignore alternate fuel.The effects of climb and
that:. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach. Flight
descent are not corrected for consumption.The quantity of fuel that must be loaded
leg distance: 3 000 NM. Cruise level: optimum. Air conditioning: standard. Anti-
at the parking area is:
icing: OFF. Temperature: ISA. CG: 37Assuming zero wind, the planned landing
a) 31 840 kg
mass at destination will be:
b) 31 340 kg
a) 172 300 kg
c) 30 200 kg
b) 170 400 kg
d) 39 750 kg
c) 171 300 kg
d) 176 100 kg
33.6.1.6 (2511)
Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). Given: maximum useable
33.6.1.5 (2507)
fuel 15000 kg, minimum reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind
(For this question use annex 033-11259A and 033-11259B)The flight crew of a
component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 kt, tailwind component 20
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg air
kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h
distance: 2 700 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt- Tailwind component
a) 1125 NM
at this level: 35 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board):
b) 1143 NM
180 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure, 0.26 Euro/l at destinationTo
c) 1463 NM
maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that
d) 1491 NM
which is necessary.The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in
addition to the prescribed quantity is:
a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case 33.6.1.7 (2512)
b) 4 000 kg On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as ""H"" for ""Heavy""
c) 6 000 kg a) is of the highest wake turbulence category
d) 10 000 kg b) has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136 000 kg
c) has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140 000 kg
d) requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum certified take-off mass
33.6.1.5 (2508)
(For this question use annex 033-11260A and 033-11260B)The flight crew of a
turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight using the following data:- Flight leg air 33.6.1.7 (2513)
distance: 2 700 NM- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt- Tailwind component On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is:
at this level: 35 kt- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on board): a) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport
195 000 kg- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure, 0.26 Euro/l at destinationTo b) the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination airport, plus 15 minutes
maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry extra fuel in addition to that c) the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate airport
which is necessary.The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in d) the estimated time from engine start to landing at the destination airport
addition to the prescribed quantity is:
a) The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case
33.6.1.7 (2514)
b) 5 000 kg
On an ATC flight plan, the letter ""Y"" is used to indicate that the flight is carried
c) 8 000 kg
out under the following flight rules.
d) 10 000 kg
a) IFR followed by VFR
b) VFR followed by IFR
33.6.1.5 (2509) c) IFR
(For this question use annex 033-11270A)A turbojet aeroplane flies using the d) VFR
following data:. flight level: FL 330, flight regime: ""Long Range"" (LR), mass: 156
500 kg. tailwind component at this level: 40 ktWith a remaining flight time of 1 h
33.6.1.7 (2515)
10 min the ground distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at cruising speed
On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point TANGO at 350
is:
kts at flight level 280, you write:
a) 539 NM
a) TANGO / N0350 F280
b) 493 NM
b) TANGO / K0350 FL280
c) 471 NM
d) 518 NM
214
c) TANGO / FL280 N0350 d) A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled
d) TANGO / KT350 F280 to fly.

33.6.1.7 (2516) 40.1.1.1 (2521)

On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point ROMEO at 120 Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following
kt at flight level 085, you will write : circumstances does it occur?1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his
a) ROMEO / N0120 F085 plan of action and does not immediately have a solution2. Stress occurs with
b) ROMEO / K0120 FL085 unexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual
c) ROMEO / FL085 N0120 capabilities3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a
d) ROMEO / F085 N0120 solution for the problem he just is confronted with
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) Only 1 is false
33.7.1.1 (2517)
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on
d) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
board is:
a) identical to that defined for VFR flights over land
b) at least equal to that defined for IFR flights 40.1.1.1 (2522)
c) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 % Divided attention is the ability :1. to execute several mental activities at almost the
d) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 % same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed
indicator on the instrument panel)2. to monitor the progress of a motor
programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level,
33.7.1.1 (2518)
while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level)3 .to
For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate aerodrome is compulsory, except
select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time
if :1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours2 - during the period from two
no other operation can be performed.4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while
hours before to two hours after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions
concentrating on the procedures
of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half times the applicable
a) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
minima3 - the platform is available and no other flight either from or to the
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
platform is expected between the estimated time of departure and one half hour
c) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
after the estimated landing timeThe combination which regroups all of the correct
d) Only 3 is false
statements is :
a) 2001-02-03
b) 02-Jan 40.1.1.1 (2523)
c) 1 - 3 The physiology of stress is now well known:
d) 2 - 3 a) stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental
oerformance
b) the only stress hormone is adrenaline
33.7.1.2 (2519)
c) stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and then acceleration of heart rate
A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt
and increase in vision
tailwind, its endurance is 3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is
d) stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism and thereby slows down the
asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress, on a track which gives a 15
heart rate
kt tailwind. Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly
outbound for distance of:
a) 160.3 NM 40.1.1.1 (2524)
b) 224.5 NM An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:1. mental blocks,
c) 158.6 NM confusion and channelized attention2. resignation, frustration, rage3. deterioration
d) 222.1 NM in motor coordination4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
40.1.1.1 (2520)
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following
d) 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
statement(s) is (are) correct?
a) A moderate level of stress may improve performance.
b) A student will learn faster and better under severe stress. 40.1.1.2 (2525)
c) Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and
of stress on the ground. expertise can be described as:

215
a) the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither 40.1.3.0 (2531)
have a great deal of confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system Thinking on human reliability is changing.
b) the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot do a) Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of
c) during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the human and are generally inescapable
machine b) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledge
d) the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily use of his skills c) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
d) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future
40.1.1.2 (2526)
A pilot is skilled when he :-1 : trains or practises regularly-2 : knows how to 40.1.3.0 (2532)
manage himself/herself-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of
aircraft-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected interpretation by using an old three-point altimeter?
a) 1,2,4 a) Liveware - Hardware
b) 1,2,3,4 b) Liveware - Software
c) 1,2 c) Liveware - Environment
d) 2, 3,4 d) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.2.0 (2527) 40.1.3.0 (2533)

The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies
terrorism) : in conceptual aspects of warning systems?
a) is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movements a) Liveware - Software
b) has improved considerably over the last fifteen years b) Liveware - Hardware
c) is a long way short of the safety level of road transport c) Liveware - Environment
d) represents about fifty accidents around the world every year d) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.2.0 (2528) 40.1.3.0 (2534)

As a cause of accidents, the human factor Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the
a) is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents biological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human peformance?
b) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has a) Liveware - Environment
been involved has more than tripled since this date b) Liveware - Hardware
c) which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only c) Liveware - Software
d) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in d) Liveware - Liveware
general aviation
40.1.3.0 (2535)
40.1.2.0 (2529) The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual
What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease in hull loss rates in the are related to an interface mismatch between
eighties? a) Liveware - Software
a) GPWS b) Liveware - Hardware
b) DME c) Liveware - Environment
c) SSR d) Liveware - Liveware
d) TCAS
40.2.1.0 (2536)
40.1.2.0 (2530) Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of
In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):- 1 : do not exist- 2 : have slight variations brought about by external stimulations.This internal equilibrium is
physiological consequences- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of called :
consciousness- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis a) Homeostasis
a) 2,4 b) Heterostasis
b) 1 c) Isothermy
c) 3,4 d) Metastasis
d) 3
40.2.1.1 (2537)
The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentration. Match
216
the following:1 nitrogen A 0,03%2 oxygen B 0,92%3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%4 c) constant
rare gas D 78,10% d) first larger, then smaller
a) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
b) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
40.2.1.1 (2544)
c) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
You can survive at any altitude, provided that
d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A
a) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
b) 21% oxygen is available in the air you breath in
40.2.1.1 (2538) c) pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude
Gases of physiological importance to man are: d) the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10"" C
a) oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
40.2.1.1 (2545)
c) oxygen and carbon monoxide
Fatigue and permanent concentration
d) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor
a) lower the tolerance to hypoxia
b) increase the tolerance to hypoxia
40.2.1.1 (2539) c) do not affect hypoxia at all
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which d) will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet
a) is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach
b) decreases with increasing altitude
40.2.1.1 (2546)
c) increases with increasing altitude
The atmosphere contains the following gases:
d) is dependent on the present air pressure
a) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
b) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
40.2.1.1 (2540) c) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
The following applies for the physical properties of gases: d) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
a) at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ft
b) at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would be at sea-level
40.2.1.1 (2547)
c) a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its volume as it would have at sea-
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
level
a) shortness of breath
d) at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of 65°C
b) a decrease of acidity in the blood
c) a reduction of red blood cells
40.2.1.1 (2541) d) an improving resistance to hypoxia
The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is :
a) 21%
40.2.1.1 (2548)
b) 5%
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures
c) 10,50%
of the gases which compose the mixture corresponds to:
d) 42%
a) Dalton´s law
b) Graham´s law
40.2.1.1 (2542) c) Henry`s law
The atmospheric gas pressure d) Boyle Mariotte´s law
a) drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same altitude changes at
higher altitudes
40.2.1.1 (2549)
b) rises with altitude
The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard
c) decreases linear with altitude
atmosphere) is
d) decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher levels and equivalent altitude
a) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
changes
b) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
c) 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
40.2.1.1 (2543) d) 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported
from sea-level up to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this
40.2.1.1 (2550)
gas is :
According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the
a) larger
troposphere is approximately
b) smaller
217
a) - 2 °C every 1000 feet 40.2.1.1 (2557)
b) 10 °C every 100 feet Henry's Law explains the occurence of:
c) 2 °C every 1000 metres a) decompression sickness
d) constant in the troposphere b) diffusion
c) hyperventilation
d) hypoxia
40.2.1.1 (2551)
The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at
a) 18 000 feet 40.2.1.1 (2558)
b) 10 000 feet Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by
c) 25 000 feet a) red blood cells
d) 30 000 feet b) platelets
c) blood plasma
d) white blood cells
40.2.1.1 (2552)
The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure
at sea level.In accordance with this statement, 40.2.1.2 (2559)
a) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure The respiratory process consists mainly of
of oxygen at sea level a) the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood,
b) the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by 50 % too transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon
c) the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by one half also dioxide from the body
d) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled b) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of carbon monoxide
c) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of nitrogen
d) the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and elimination of oxygen
40.2.1.1 (2553)
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21
%, but the partial pressure of oxygen : 40.2.1.2 (2560)
a) decreases with decreasing barometric pressure Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the
b) remains constant, independent from altitude following statement(s) is/are correct?
c) increases by expansion a) Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled.
d) decreases significantly with lower temperatures b) Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood.
c) With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning will be
compensated.
40.2.1.1 (2554)
d) Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3.
Temperature4. Humidity
a) 1,2 ,3 40.2.1.2 (2561)
b) 1, 2 ,4 Carbon monoxide poisoning
c) 2,3 ,4 a) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied
d) 3 , 4 by coating the exhaust
b) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency
c) only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes
40.2.1.1 (2555)
d) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT
Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:
a) the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude
b) the occurance of decompression sickness at high altitude 40.2.1.2 (2562)
c) the occurance of hypoxia with increasing altitude In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon
d) hyperventilation with increasing altitude monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.
a) Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness.
b) High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy.
40.2.1.1 (2556)
c) Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
Dalton's law explains the occurance of :
d) Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.
a) altitude hypoxia
b) bends
c) decompression sickness 40.2.1.2 (2563)
d) creeps A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental
oxygen will pass the ""critical threshold"" at approximately:
218
a) 22 000 ft 40.2.1.2 (2570)
b) 16 000 ft To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe
c) 18 000 ft 100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression ?
d) 38 000 ft a) Approximately 38 000 ft.
b) Approximately 14 000 ft.
c) Approximately 20 000 ft.
40.2.1.2 (2564)
d) Approximately 45 000 ft.
Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately:
a) 38 000 ft
b) 10 000 40.2.1.2 (2571)
c) 22 000 ft When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating):
d) 45 000 ft a) his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious
b) his oxygen need will not be affected
c) his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes
40.2.1.2 (2565)
d) his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be increased
The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
a) euphoria and impairment of judgement
b) hyperventilation 40.2.1.2 (2572)
c) sensation of heat and blurred vision ""Tunnel vision"" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected
d) breathlessness and reduced night vision to more than:
a) + 3.5 Gz
b) - 3.5 Gz
40.2.1.2 (2566)
c) + 3.5 Gx
When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or
d) - 3.5 Gy
overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
a) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
b) a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood 40.2.1.2 (2573)
c) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes ""Grey out"" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:
d) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia a) + 3 Gz
b) - 3 Gz
c) + 3 Gx
40.2.1.2 (2567)
d) + 3 Gy
With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:
a) an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and
even unconsciousness 40.2.1.2 (2574)
b) finger nails and lips will turn blue (""cyanosis"") The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with
c) more oxygen will reach the brain inertia along :
d) peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved a) the vertical body axis upwards
b) the vertical body axis downwards
c) the transverse body axis to the right
40.2.1.2 (2568)
d) the transverse body axis to the left
Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at :
a) 10 000 ft
b) 8 000 ft 40.2.1.2 (2575)
c) 14 000 ft How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ?
d) 18 000 ft a) Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure
breathing.
b) Tighten shoulder harness.
40.2.1.2 (2569)
c) Take an upright seat position.
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of
d) Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward.
hypoxia be expected?
a) Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
b) Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft. 40.2.1.2 (2576)
c) 22 000 ft Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
d) Approximately 35 000 ft. a) the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
b) the blood plasma

219
c) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma b) Nausea and barotitis.
d) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells c) Dull headache and bends.
d) Dizziness, hypothermia.
40.2.1.2 (2577)
Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when 40.2.1.2 (2583)
hyperventilating. This causes the blood Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?
a) to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the a) Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
hemoglobin at lung area b) Pain in the joints
b) to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the hemoglobin c) Low blood pressure
c) to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain d) Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area
d) not to change at all
40.2.1.2 (2584)
40.2.1.2 (2578) A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:
Hypoxia is caused by a) cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia
a) reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung b) there are great differences between the two
b) reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung c) altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
c) an increased number of red blood cells d) symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given
d) a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen
40.2.1.2 (2585)
40.2.1.2 (2579) Which statement applies to hypoxia?
Hypoxia can be caused by:1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere a) sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person
when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen2. a b) carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency
decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide attached to c) you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia
the hemoglobin3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz)4. d) it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in
malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after a hangover)
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
40.2.1.2 (2586)
b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
Hypoxia can also be caused by
c) 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
a) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to
d) 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false
transport oxygen
b) a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
40.2.1.2 (2580) c) too much carbon dioxide in the blood
A pilot will get hypoxia d) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases
a) after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in time
b) after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 % oxygen via an oxygen mask
40.2.1.2 (2587)
c) if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min
Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ?
d) if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing 100 %
a) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
oxygen
b) Dizziness.
c) Lack of adaptation.
40.2.1.2 (2581) d) Lack of accomodation.
Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?
a) Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the
40.2.1.2 (2588)
brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
oxygen system)
a) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.
b) Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane.
b) A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.
c) Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of danger.
c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
d) The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask.
d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

40.2.1.2 (2582)
40.2.1.2 (2589)
In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide
The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is
poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
a) dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during
a) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
220
respiration 40.2.1.2 (2596)
b) the excess pressure caused by inhaling A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
c) independent from the partial pressures of the participating gases a) talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and
d) depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the alveoli reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously
b) don an oxygen mask
c) excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
40.2.1.2 (2590)
d) close the eyes and relax
Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?
a) Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
b) White blood cells. 40.2.1.2 (2597)
c) Plasma. What could cause hyperventilation ?
d) Blood fat. a) Fear, anxiety and distress
b) Abuse of alcohol
c) Extreme low rate of breathing
40.2.1.2 (2591)
d) Fatigue
Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:
a) carbon monoxide
b) nitrogen 40.2.1.2 (2598)
c) oxygen A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get
d) carbon dioxide unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
a) the pilot is emotionally aroused
b) there is a low CO-pressure in the blood
40.2.1.2 (2592)
c) he is flying a tight turn
Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?
d) there is an increased blood flow to the brain
a) It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's ""physiological
altitude"".
b) It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen. 40.2.1.2 (2599)
c) It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen. Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:
d) It is always present in the lungs. a) blood circulation to the brain is slowed down
b) oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased
c) not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
40.2.1.2 (2593)
d) oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will be supplied with more blood
The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:
than normal
a) the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood
c) the amount of nitrogen in the blood 40.2.1.2 (2600)
d) the total atmospheric pressure At what altitude (""threshold for compensatory reactions"") does the human
organism start with remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when
climbing?At about:
40.2.1.2 (2594)
a) 6000-7000 FT
In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will
b) 8000-9000 FT
diffuse from the blood into the lungs?
c) 9000-10000 FT
a) Carbon dioxide.
d) 10000-12000 FT
b) Ambient air.
c) Oxygen.
d) Carbon monoxide. 40.2.1.2 (2601)
Where is the ""critical threshold"" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the
critical or lethal zone?It starts at:
40.2.1.2 (2595)
a) 22000 FT.
Which statement is correct ?
b) 18000 FT
a) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen
c) It25000 FT
pressure gradient.
d) It38000 FT
b) The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen.
c) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level.
d) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure. 40.2.1.2 (2602)
Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:
a) 8000 FT
221
b) 12000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2609)
c) 15000 FT Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear
d) 20000 FT etc.) are called:
a) barotrauma
b) ebulism
40.2.1.2 (2603)
c) hypoxia
Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:
d) hyperventilation
a) 38000 FT
b) 45000 FT
c) 60000 FT 40.2.1.2 (2610)
d) 80000 FT Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead
to:
a) pressure pain or flatulence
40.2.1.2 (2604)
b) barotitis
After a decompression at high altitude
c) decompresion sickness
a) nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism,
d) barosinusitis
bends and chokes
b) automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
c) temperature in the cockpit will increase 40.2.1.2 (2611)
d) pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear
(aerotitis)?
a) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the
40.2.1.2 (2605)
pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower
In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms
jaw (Valsalva)
a) may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to
b) Increase rate of descent
30000 FT flight altitude
c) Stop climbing, start descent
b) may develop when being decompressed from MSL to 15 000 FT
d) Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the middle
c) appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving activities
ear
d) may affect people with defect tympanic membrane

40.2.1.2 (2612)
40.2.1.2 (2606)
How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of
Symptoms of decompression sickness
the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis) ?
a) are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory
a) Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
shock
b) Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
b) are only relevant when diving
c) Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearing
c) can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
d) There is no difference
d) are flatulence and pain in the middle ear

40.2.1.2 (2613)
40.2.1.2 (2607)
Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the
Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to
middle ear (aerotitis).
a) cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)
a) Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate
b) sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FT
b) Increase the rate of descent
c) emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss
c) Stop chewing and swallowing movements (""Valsalva"")
d) fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an
d) Use drugs against a cold
unpressurized aeroplane

40.2.1.2 (2614)
40.2.1.2 (2608)
Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur
The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between
a) when descending rapidly
a) middle ear and external atmosphere
b) during a long high altitude flight
b) sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere
c) when climbing
c) nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere
d) in sudden steep turns
d) frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses

222
40.2.1.2 (2615) c) 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by d) 1and 5 are both false
a) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
b) dizziness
40.2.1.2 (2622)
c) noises in the ear
Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?1.
d) pain in the joints
Dizziness2. Muscular spasms3. Visual disturbances4. Cyanosis
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
40.2.1.2 (2616) b) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
The effect of hypoxia to vision c) 1 is false, all others are correct
a) is stronger with the rods d) 2 and 4 are false
b) is usual stronger with the cones
c) can only be detected when smoking tobacco
40.2.1.2 (2623)
d) does not depend on the level of illumination
TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is:
a) the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and
40.2.1.2 (2617) physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he is
When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon exposed to hypoxia
dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called: b) the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure loss
a) internal respiration c) the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets in
b) external respiration d) the time between the start of hypoxia and death
c) ventilation
d) hyperventilation
40.2.1.2 (2624)
The ""Effective Performance Time"" or ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" after a
40.2.1.2 (2618) decompression at 35 000 ft is:
Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when a) between 30 and 60 seconds
altitude is changed? b) approximately 3 minutes
a) Eustachian tube c) approximately 5 minutes
b) Cochlea d) less than 20 seconds
c) Tympanic membrane
d) External auditory canal
40.2.1.2 (2625)
The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC
40.2.1.2 (2619) (Time of Useful Consciousness). It
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation? a) varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
a) Dizzy feeling b) is the same amount of time for every person
b) Slow heart beat c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
c) Slow rate of breathing d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude
d) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
40.2.1.2 (2626)
40.2.1.2 (2620) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be
Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most approximately:
effective measure against hyperventilation tetany is: a) 5-15 seconds
a) breathe into a plastic or paper bag b) 30-45 seconds
b) hold breath c) 45-60 seconds
c) avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres d) 60-90 seconds
d) speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly
40.2.1.2 (2627)
40.2.1.2 (2621) Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10
What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?1. m depth)
Pressure breathing.2. Anxiety or fear.3. Overstress.4. Strong pain.5. Jogging. a) are forbidden
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false b) can be performed without any danger
b) Only 2 and 3 are correct c) are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded
d) should be avoided because hypoxia may develop
223
40.2.1.2 (2628) flatulence due to trapped gases. The correct counter-measure is:
Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are a) descend to lower altitude
symptoms of b) climb to a higher altitude
a) decompression sickness c) perform ""valsalva maneouvre""
b) barotrauma d) use supplemental oxygen
c) air-sickness
d) hypoxia
40.2.1.2 (2635)
A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)
40.2.1.2 (2629) a) is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during
After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful descent
Consciousness) will be approximately: b) is only caused by large pressure changes during climb
a) 30 -90 seconds c) causes severe pain in the sinuses
b) 10-15 seconds d) is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately
c) 3-4 minutes following the decompression will eliminate the problem
d) 5 minutes or more
40.2.1.2 (2636)
40.2.1.2 (2630) Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case?
You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression a) More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft.
sickness symptoms.How long should you wait until your next flight? b) At lower altitudes.
a) 12 hours c) Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels.
b) 24 hours d) During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000
c) 36 hours FT
d) 48 hours
40.2.1.2 (2637)
40.2.1.2 (2631) The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur
Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth) a) with colds and rapid descents
a) can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes b) with colds and fast climbs
below 18 000 FT c) with colds and slow ascents
b) prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to d) after a decompression
altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT
c) has no influence on altitude flights
40.2.1.2 (2638)
d) is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia
Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:
a) the eustachian tube is blocked
40.2.1.2 (2632) b) the nose is pinched
Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) c) you breath through the mouth
a) is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the d) barotrauma exists in the sinuses
ambient air
b) is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport
40.2.1.2 (2639)
c) is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays
A barotrauma of the middle ear is
d) is only caused by colds and their effects
a) an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure
on either side of the eardrum
40.2.1.2 (2633) b) a bacterial infection of the middle ear
Barodontalgia c) a dilatation of the eustachian tube
a) arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a d) an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression
tooth
b) arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression
40.2.1.2 (2640)
c) even arises with healthy teeth
The eustachian tube is the passage way between the
d) arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of descent
a) nasopharynx and the middle ear
b) nose, pharynx and inner ear
40.2.1.2 (2634) c) nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal
At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe d) sinuses and the pharynx
224
40.2.1.2 (2641) 40.2.1.2 (2647)
Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb The cabin pressure in airline operation is
and/or descent? a) normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
a) The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum) b) normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
b) The semicircular canals c) normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
c) The cochlea d) always equivalent to sea level
d) The sacculus and utriculus
40.2.1.2 (2648)
40.2.1.2 (2642) The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a explained by:
Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may: a) Dalton´s law
a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision b) Boyle Mariotte´s law
b) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL c) Henry´s law
c) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL d) Graham´s law
d) get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
40.2.1.2 (2649)
40.2.1.2 (2643) Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:1. diffusion gradients between
Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to the participating gases2. permeable membranes3. partial pressure of oxygen in the
hypoxia?1. Fatigue.2. Euphoria.3. Lack of concentration.4. Pain in the joints.5. alveolus air4. acid-base balance in the blood
Sensation of suffocation. a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
b) 4 and 5 are correct c) 2 and 3 are false
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) only 1 is correct
d) Only 5 is false
40.2.1.2 (2650)
40.2.1.2 (2644) Hyperventilation causes
In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct? a) a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
a) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the b) an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired c) acidosis
thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions d) hypochondria
b) This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to
compensate by decreasing the heart rate.
40.2.1.2 (2651)
c) Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction
Anxiety and fear can cause
opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
a) hyperventilation
d) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while
b) hypoxia
hyperventilating.
c) spatial disorientation
d) hypoglycemia
40.2.1.2 (2645)
Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the
40.2.1.2 (2652)
following symptoms:
Symptoms of decompression sickness
a) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision
a) sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the ground
b) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
b) always begin immediately after the decompression during the flight
c) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
c) normally take 2 or 3 days to appear after exposure to a hypobaric atmosphere
d) blue finger-nails and lips
d) disappear on landing and never appear again

40.2.1.2 (2646)
40.2.1.2 (2653)
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights
The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial
should be delayed
accelerations is
a) 24 hours
a) grey-out
b) 3 hours after non decompression diving
b) loss of consciousness
c) 36 hours after any scuba diving
c) black-out
d) 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made
d) red-vision
225
40.2.1.2 (2654) 40.2.1.2 (2661)
Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced 1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is
atmospheric pressure.The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution more prone to error.
in body tissues can be derived from: a) 1 and 2 are both correct
a) Henry´s law b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
b) Boyle Mariotte´s law c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
c) Dalton´s law d) 1 and 2 are both not correct
d) Gay Lussac´s law
40.2.1.2 (2662)
40.2.1.2 (2655) Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression
The normal rate of breathing is at high altitude may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:1 the
a) 20 to 30 cycles a minute digestive tract2 the ears3 the eyes4 the sinuses
b) 12 to 16 cycles a minute a) 1
c) 32 to 40 cycles a minute b) 1,2,3
d) 60 to 100 cycles a minute c) 2,3,4
d) 2,4
40.2.1.2 (2656)
The main function of the red blood cells is 40.2.1.2 (2663)
a) to transport oxygen Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive
b) to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood acceleration (+ Gz)?- 1: Decrease in heart rate- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts
c) the cellular defense of the organism of the body- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level- 4: Downward
d) to contribute to the immune response of the organism displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
40.2.1.2 (2657)
c) 1
Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)
d) 1,3,4
a) below 3 000 m
b) up to 5 000 m
c) between 3 000 m and 5 000 m 40.2.1.2 (2664)
d) between 5 000 m and 7 000 m What is hypoxia ?
a) Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal
limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some
40.2.1.2 (2658)
pathological condition
""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:
b) The total absence of oxygen in the air
a) pain in the joints
c) The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
b) pain in the thorax and a backing cough
d) A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment
c) CNS-disturbances
of the mask
d) loss of peripheral vision

40.2.1.2 (2665)
40.2.1.2 (2659)
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a
ft?
decompression in airline operation
a) Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
a) are the bends
b) Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
b) are the chokes
c) Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
c) is a shock
d) Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing
d) are neurological damages to the CNS

40.2.1.2 (2666)
40.2.1.2 (2660)
You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000
Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?
ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between :
a) Tingling sensations in arms or legs.
a) 0 and 5.000 feet
b) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails).
b) 5.000 and 10.000 feet
c) Severe headache.
d) Euphoria.
226
c) 10.000 and 15.000 feet 40.2.1.2 (2673)
d) 45.000 and 50.000 feet Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness
occur?
a) Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible
40.2.1.2 (2667)
b) Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before
Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by :
climbing again
a) decreased atmospherical pressure
c) Only medical treatment is of use
b) disorientation
d) Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary
c) accelerations
d) increased atmospherical pressure
40.2.1.2 (2674)
What is decompression sickness ?
40.2.1.2 (2668)
a) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues
Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :
and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude
a) 21% oxygen
b) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
b) 5% oxygen
aircraft
c) 15% oxygen
c) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
d) 10% oxygen
d) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's
capabilities
40.2.1.2 (2669)
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
40.2.1.2 (2675)
a) 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
Which of the following statements are correct:-1: Scuba diving may be practiced
b) 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
without restriction-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with
c) 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
flight safety-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying-4: Diet
d) 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases
has no repercussion on health
a) 2 and 3 are correct
40.2.1.2 (2670) b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
explained by the principle that: d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
a) the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that
gas above the fluid (Henry's Law)
40.2.1.2 (2676)
b) a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of this gas at constant
A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:1. decompression sickness2 .the problem of
temperature (Boyle's law)
expansion of gases in the intestines3. hypoxia4. coronary desease
c) the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
separate gases (Dalton's Law)
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
d) the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher concentration or partial pressure to
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
an area of lower concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion)
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

40.2.1.2 (2671)
40.2.1.2 (2677)
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:
Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to
a) bends
a) 10.000 - 12.000feet
b) chokes
b) 15.000 feet
c) creeps
c) 20.000 feet
d) leans
d) 25.000 feet

40.2.1.2 (2672)
40.2.1.2 (2678)
What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression ?
When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:
a) Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement,
a) the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level.
memory disorders
b) the composition of the blood changes
b) Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitations
c) the composition of the air is different from sea level
c) Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature impairment of judgement
d) the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level
d) Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory rate, memory disorders

227
40.2.1.2 (2679) c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
with:1. decreasing air pressure2. carbon monoxide poisoning3. increasing
altitude4. increasing air pressure
40.2.1.2 (2686)
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
a) Night vision.
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
b) Motor coordination.
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
c) Hearing.
d) Speech.
40.2.1.2 (2680)
Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
40.2.1.2 (2687)
a) have a shortage of oxygen
You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet.
b) are saturated with nitrogen
You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
c) are saturated with oxygen
a) your judgement could be impaired
d) have a shortage of carbon dioxide
b) the blood-pressure can get too high
c) the blood-pressure can get too low
40.2.1.2 (2681) d) you will get the bends
The severity of hypoxia depends on the:1. rate of decompression2. physical
fitness3. flight level4. individual tolerance
40.2.1.2 (2688)
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by:
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
a) breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask.
d) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
b) closing one eye
c) scanning sectors of the field of vision
40.2.1.2 (2682) d) dim the instrument lights
Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?
a) It is a potential threat to safety.
40.2.1.2 (2689)
b) It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft.
During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms: 1.
c) It activates the senses and makes them function better.
blue lips 2. mental disturbances 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs 4.
d) It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate for it.
reduction of peripheral visionWhich is the possible cause?
a) Hypoxia.
40.2.1.2 (2683) b) Glaucoma.
Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of c) Hypothermia.
breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbances d) Hypoglycaemia.
a) 1,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
40.2.1.2 (2690)
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?1. Descend below 10 000 FT.2.
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct
Breathe 100 % oxygen.3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.4. Reduce physical
activities.
40.2.1.2 (2684) a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is: b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
a) impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms c) only 1 is correct
b) reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin d) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
c) cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
d) hyperventilation, causing emotional stress
40.2.1.2 (2691)
Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot
40.2.1.2 (2685) a) is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue b) is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxia
lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness.. c) is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct. d) will not exceed 20 000 FT cabin pressure altitude
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
228
40.2.1.2 (2692)
Hypoxia can occur because:
a) you are hyperventilating
b) you are getting toomuch solar radiation
c) you inhale too much nitrogen
d) the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude
40.2.1.2 (2693)
You should not despense blood without prior information from your flight surgeon.
The most important reason for this advise is:
a) you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood-donation.
b) the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation
c) your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation
d) your heart frequency is too low after blood-donation
b) The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
c) The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia
d) The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes
aware of it
40.2.1.2 (2699)
Which of the folllowing statements concerning barotrauma are correct? They are:
a) due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and
the ambient pressure
b) caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease in
altitude
c) more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descent
d) mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its
internal pressures

40.2.1.2 (2694) 40.2.1.2 (2700)

Hyperventilation is: Decompression sickness may occur as from :- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft-
a) an increased lung ventilation 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min
b) a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood exceeding 18,000 ft- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C
c) a decreased lung ventilation a) 1,3
d) a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood. b) 2,3
c) 1,3,4
d) 2,4
40.2.1.2 (2695)
Hyperventilation is:
a) a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen 40.2.1.2 (2701)
pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain) With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that :
b) an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure a) age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors
c) an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure b) scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent flight
d) a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain c) sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to it
d) physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness
symptoms to appear
40.2.1.2 (2696)
What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive
decompression? 40.2.1.2 (2702)
a) Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above
b) First inform ATC 10,000 ft must :
c) Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency a) allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming
d) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight hypoxic
b) allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent
disorders due to hypoxia
40.2.1.2 (2697)
c) make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygen
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at
d) make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes
40,000 ft ?
a) About 12 seconds
b) Between 20 seconds and 1 minute 40.2.1.2 (2703)
c) About 40 secods What is the ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" for a rapid decompression at 25,000
d) More than 1 minute ft ?
a) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected
pilot
40.2.1.2 (2698)
b) About 18 seconds
What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?
c) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
a) The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and
d) About 30 seconds
physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his
available oxygen supply
229
40.2.1.2 (2704) 40.2.1.2 (2710)
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations?
to:1. unbuckle and massage the belly2. stand up and let go the gases out of the a) A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood
intestines3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before available
flight in the future4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight b) An improvement of peripheral vision
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level)
b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders
c) 1 and 3 not advisable
d) only 4 is correct
40.2.1.2 (2711)
What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the
40.2.1.2 (2705) pilot?
On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will a) Radial acceleration (+ Gz)
a) expand b) Linear acceleration (+ Gx)
b) stay the same c) Transverse acceleration (+ Gy)
c) shrink d) Combined linear and transverse acceleration
d) be absorbed by tissues and blood
40.2.1.2 (2712)
40.2.1.2 (2706) Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:
Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by: a) carbon dioxide
a) leveling off and possibly climbing b) carbon monoxide
b) blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand c) nitrogen
c) increasing the rate of descent d) oxygen
d) using an oxygen mask
40.2.1.2 (2713)
40.2.1.2 (2707) In the pulmonary artery there is :
The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to :1 : physical activity of a) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood
the subjected crew2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in b) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
question3 : the strength and time of decompression4 : the cabin temperature c) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blond
a) 1,3 d) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
40.2.1.2 (2714)
d) 4
The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for :
a) gases
40.2.1.2 (2708) b) platelets
During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen c) protein
pressure : d) red blood cells
a) an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure
b) a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in atmospheric pressure
40.2.1.2 (2715)
c) an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure drop above that altitude
The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :1. transportation of oxygen
d) an increase which is inversely proportional to the decrease in atmospheric pressure
and carbon dioxide2. transportation of information by chemical substances
a) 1 and 2 are correct
40.2.1.2 (2709) b) 1 is correct and 2 is false
The following may occur during gradual depressurisation between 12,000 and c) 1 is false and 2 is correct
18,000 ft : d) both are false
a) a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache
b) a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to headache and also to a loss of
40.2.1.2 (2716)
coordination
The part of blood without cell is called :
c) sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headache
a) plasm
d) a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable somnolence
b) lymph
c) serum
d) water
230
40.2.1.2 (2717) 40.2.1.2 (2724)
Haemoglobin is: The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):
a) in the red blood cells a) 120/80 mm Hg
b) in the platelets b) 80/20 mm Hg
c) dissolved in the plasma c) 180/120 mm Hg
d) in the white blood cells d) 220/180 mm Hg

40.2.1.2 (2718) 40.2.1.2 (2725)

Someone who has anaemia has: Which of the following statements is correct?The blood-pressure which is
a) not enough functional hemoglobin measured during flight medical checks is the pressure
b) not enough platelets a) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
c) not enough plasma b) in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body)
d) not enough white blood cells c) in the mussles of the upper arm
d) in the veins of the upper arm
40.2.1.2 (2719)
The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about: 40.2.1.2 (2726)
a) 60 to 80 beats/min Blood-pressure depends on: 1. the cardiac output 2. the resistance of the
b) 30 to 50 beats/min capillaries (peripheral resistance)
c) 90 to 100 beats/min a) 1 and 2 are correct
d) 110 to 150 beats/min b) 1 is correct 2 is false
c) 1 is false 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false
40.2.1.2 (2720)
Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:1. Adrenalin2. Cortisol3. Physical
exercise.4. Glucose concentration in the blood 40.2.1.2 (2727)
a) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false The blood-pressure depends on: 1. the work of the heart 2. the peripheral
b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct resistance 3. the elasticity of the arterial walls 4. the bloode volume and viscosity
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
d) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
40.2.1.2 (2721)
With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardial
output is about: 40.2.1.2 (2728)
a) 5 liters/min Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:
b) 6 liters/min a) pressoreceptors
c) 7 liters/min b) arteriols
d) 8 liters/min c) adrenal glands
d) pacemakers
40.2.1.2 (2722)
At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of 40.2.1.2 (2729)
an adult is approximately: The pressoreceptors are located in
a) 5 liters/min a) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels
b) 450 ml/min b) the intestines
c) 45 liters/min c) the heart
d) 75 liters/min d) the lungs

40.2.1.2 (2723) 40.2.1.2 (2730)

The heart muscle is supplied with blood from: When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are
a) the coronary arteries adaptation mechanisms which result in:1. an increase of respiratory activity2. the
b) the auricles arteriols to constrict3. an increase of cardiac output4. the heart rate to rise
c) ventricles a) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
d) the pulmonary veins b) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
231
c) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false 40.2.1.2 (2737)
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false When exhaling, the expired air contains:
a) more carbon dioxide than the inspired air
b) more nitrogen than the inhaled air
40.2.1.2 (2731)
c) less water vapour than the inhaled air
The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:1. the
d) more oxygen than the inhaled air
duration of the G-forces 2. the onset rate of the G-forces3. the magnitude of the G-
forces 4. the direction of the G-forces.
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct 40.2.1.2 (2738)
b) 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false a) pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false b) partial pressure of nitrogen
c) partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
d) total air pressure in the blood
40.2.1.2 (2732)
Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-pressure in the brain to:
a) decrease 40.2.1.2 (2739)
b) remain constant The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be discribed by:
c) increase a) the law of diffusion
d) first increase, then decrease b) Boyle's Law
c) Dalton's Law
d) Henry's Law
40.2.1.2 (2733)
During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:
a) grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness. 40.2.1.2 (2740)
b) unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out. The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:
c) black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness. a) the law of diffusion
d) grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision b) Boyles Law
c) Dalton's Law
d) Henry's Law
40.2.1.2 (2734)
Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during
positive G-manoeuvres? 40.2.1.2 (2741)
a) A tilt back seat. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
b) Breathing oxygen. a) lower than in the blood
c) Sit in upright position and keep relaxed. b) almost the same as in the atmospheric air
d) Hyperventilation. c) higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air.
40.2.1.2 (2735)
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about: 40.2.1.2 (2742)
a) 16 cycles per minute The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
b) 4 cycles per minute a) surplus of CO2 in the blood
c) 32 cycles per minute b) surplus of O2 in the blood
d) 72 cycles per minute c) shortage of CO in the blood
d) shortage of CO2 in the blood
40.2.1.2 (2736)
The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume) 40.2.1.2 (2743)
is about: If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need
a) 500 ml of air a) the blood turns less more alkaline
b) 350 ml of air b) the blood turns more acid
c) 150 ml of air c) the acid-base balance of the blood will not change
d) 75 ml of air d) the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly

232
40.2.1.2 (2744) b) bends
During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the c) chokes
blood. The consequence is: d) leans
a) hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)
b) cyanosis
40.2.1.2 (2751)
c) hypoxia
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are
d) vertigo
called:
a) chokes
40.2.1.2 (2745) b) bends
During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling c) creeps
sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate: d) leans
a) hyperventilation
b) disorientation
40.2.1.2 (2752)
c) hypoxia
Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the
d) carbon monoxide poisoning
joints. Which of following answers is correct?
a) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of
40.2.1.2 (2746) decompression sickness.
During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy, feel b) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some
dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating you should exercise.
a) control your rate and depth of breathing c) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.
b) descend d) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.
c) apply the Valsalva method
d) use the oxygen mask
40.2.1.2 (2753)
Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:1. SCUBA-Diving2. Obesity3.
40.2.1.2 (2747) Age4. Body height
A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by: a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
a) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking b) 2 and 4 are correct
with a loud voice c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
b) depending on instruments d) only 4 is correct
c) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide
d) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure
40.2.1.2 (2754)
Decompression symptoms are caused by:
40.2.1.2 (2748) a) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The b) low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air
intention is: c) low oxygen pressure of inhaled air
a) to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible d) release of locked gases from joints
b) to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
c) to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
40.2.1.2 (2755)
d) to reduce blood pressure
In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:
a) don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
40.2.1.2 (2749) b) descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA
Which symptom does not belong to the following list: c) transmit mayday call
a) leans d) carry out check for structural damage
b) bends
c) chokes
40.2.1.2 (2756)
d) creeps
After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot
shall be:
40.2.1.2 (2750) a) maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask)
The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression b) informing ATC
are called: c) informing the cabin crew
a) creeps d) preventing panic of the passengers
233
40.2.1.2 (2757) 40.2.1.2 (2763)
The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
decompression sickness:1. climb to higher level2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft a) decompression sickness without having a decompression
or MSA and land as soon as possible3. breathe 100 % oxygen4. get medical advice b) hyperventilation
about recompression after landing c) hypoxia
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) stress
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
40.2.1.2 (2764)
d) 1 and 3 are correct
If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get:
a) more alkaline
40.2.1.2 (2758) b) less satured with oxygen
Decompression sickness can be prevented by:1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 c) more satured with carbon dioxide
000 FT2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes3. d) more acid
performing physical exercises before and during the flight4. breathing 100 %
oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight
40.2.1.3 (2765)
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
The ozone-layer is situated in the
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
a) stratosphere
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
b) troposphere
d) only 3 is correct
c) thermosphere
d) ionosphere
40.2.1.2 (2759)
What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?
40.2.1.3 (2766)
a) about 30 minutes
Which of the following statements are correct ?-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 -
b) 1 to 2 minutes
60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is
c) 1to 2 hours
satisfactory for the body-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration-3:
d) 5 to 10 minutes
Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue-4:
Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods
40.2.1.2 (2760) of low hydration will otherwise be lost
Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness a) 2,3
would be about: b) 2,3,4
a) 1 to 2 minutes c) 1,2,4
b) 3 to 5 minutes d) 1,4
c) 5 to 10 minutes
d) 10 to 12 minutes
40.2.1.3 (2767)
With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it
40.2.1.2 (2761) :-1 : varies between 40 and 60%-2 : varies between 5 and 15%-3 : may cause
After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is dehydration effecting the performance of the crew-4 : has no special effects on
about: crew members
a) 30 to 60 seconds a) 2,3
b) 15 seconds or less b) 1,3
c) 5 minutes. c) 2,3,4
d) 10 minutes. d) 1,4

40.2.1.2 (2762) 40.2.2.0 (2768)

After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time Which of the following statements is correct ?
before flying again. This period is at least: a) 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
a) 24 hours b) Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man
b) 6 hours c) 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
c) 12 hours d) The kinesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying
d) 48 hours

234
40.2.2.1 (2769) c) cristalline lens
Once we have constructed a mental model we tend d) photosensitive cells
a) to give undue weight to information that confirms the model
b) to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
40.2.2.2 (2776)
c) to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved through
d) to alter that model unnecessarily frequently
a) seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)
b) good visibility only
40.2.2.1 (2770) c) visual memory only
The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of: d) the ""blind spot"" at the retina
a) carbon dioxide in the blood
b) nitrogen in the air
40.2.2.2 (2777)
c) water vapour in the alveoli
Adaptation is
d) oxygen in the cells
a) the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination
b) the change of the diameter of the pupil
40.2.2.1 (2771) c) the reflection of the light at the cornea
Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means: d) the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina
a) a lesser sensitivity
b) a greater sensitivity
40.2.2.2 (2778)
c) a greater selectivity
The time required for complete adaptation is
d) a lesser selectivity
a) for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min
b) for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutes
40.2.2.1 (2772) c) for day and night: 30 min
Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by: d) for night 10 sec and for day 30 min
a) the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or
lying down
40.2.2.2 (2779)
b) a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical
The requirement of good sunglasses is to
c) environmental stressors
a) absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity,
d) the condition of the body itself
absorb UV and IR radiation and absorb all colors equally
b) fit to the pilots individual taste
40.2.2.1 (2773) c) eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields
The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but d) increase the time for dark adaptation
informs him of
a) the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
40.2.2.2 (2780)
b) a touch on the skin
Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?
c) our surroundings
a) Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
d) the condition in the body itself
b) Accomodation is destroyed
c) Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive cells
40.2.2.1 (2774) d) The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on vitamin A
A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors
is called:
40.2.2.2 (2781)
a) reflex
Scanning at night should be performed by:
b) data processing
a) slight eye movements to the side of the object
c) control system
b) scanning with one eye open
d) change of stimulation level
c) concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea centralis)
d) avoiding food containing Vitamin A
40.2.2.2 (2775)
Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of
40.2.2.2 (2782)
the:
Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades
a) eyeballs
a) can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer
b) optic nerve
period of time

235
b) can be neglected c) Only 4 is false
c) can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on d) 1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct
d) should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve
40.2.2.2 (2789)
40.2.2.2 (2783) What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?
What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog, a) Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness
darkness, snow and vapor)? b) Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
a) It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects c) Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
b) Objects seem to be closer than in reality d) Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
c) Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
d) There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny day
40.2.2.2 (2790)
Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on a
40.2.2.2 (2784) snowed up, foggy or cloudy winterday? Because
Hypoxia will effect night vision a) perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast
a) at 5000 FT b) his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions
b) less than day vision c) the danger of a ""greying out"" will make it impossible to determine the height above the
c) and causes the autokinetic phenomena terrain
d) and causes hyperventilation d) pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information

40.2.2.2 (2785) 40.2.2.2 (2791)

What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells? Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC
a) Fast speed a) can cause disorientation
b) Oxygen deficiency b) can cause colour-illusions
c) Acceleration c) will improve the pilots depth perception
d) Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication) d) will effect the pilots binocular vision

40.2.2.2 (2786) 40.2.2.2 (2792)

The fovea centralis is
a) the area of best day vision and no night vision at all
b) the area of the blind spot (optic disc)
c) where the optic nerves come together with the pupil
d) the area of best day vision and best night vision
40.2.2.2 (2787)
The retina of the eye
a) is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors
essential for vision
b) filters the UV-light
c) is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens
d) only regulates the light that falls into the eye
40.2.2.2 (2788)
Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good
night vision:1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance2. An
excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly3.
Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced diet containing sufficient
vitamin A4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but
not in scotopic vision
a) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of
sensation could the pilot get?
a) The source of light moves away from him
b) The source of light stands still
c) The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
d) The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing
40.2.2.2 (2793)
To prevent the ""autokinetic phenomena"", the following can be done:
a) look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using
peripheral vision also
b) fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the other
c) look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
d) turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously
40.2.2.2 (2794)
Autokinesis is
a) the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively
long period of time in the dark
b) the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol
c) the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark
d) the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at different distances

236
40.2.2.2 (2795) 40.2.2.2 (2802)
The time for dark adaptation is The fovea
a) 30 min a) is an area in which cones predominate
b) 10 sec b) is sensitive to very low intensities of light
c) 1/10 sec c) is an area in which rods predominate
d) 10 min d) is the area responsible for night vision

40.2.2.2 (2796) 40.2.2.2 (2803)

Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) When the optical image forms in front of the retina, we are talking about
a) can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on a) myopia
ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass b) hypermetropia
b) are generally forbidden for pilots c) presbyopia
c) are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects d) astigmatism
d) are advantageous for pilots
40.2.2.2 (2804)
40.2.2.2 (2797) The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying into fog, snow or haze? a) 25 - 30 minutes
a) Objects seem to be farther away than in reality b) 5 minutes
b) Objects will appear closer than they really are c) 10 minutes
c) Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality d) 10 seconds
d) Objects seem to move slower than in reality
40.2.2.2 (2805)
40.2.2.2 (2798) The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night vision are called:
The peripheral vision is important for: a) the rods
a) detecting moving objects b) the fovea
b) visual acuity c) the cones
c) binocular vision d) the cones and the rods
d) colour vision
40.2.2.2 (2806)
40.2.2.2 (2799) When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from
Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to flashblindness by:a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lightsb) looking inside the
use the scan ning technique, because cockpitc) wearing sunglassesd) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
a) only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly a) a), b), c) and d) are correct
b) it is tiring to look continually in the same direction b) a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false
c) only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearly c) a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false
d) the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A d) c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false

40.2.2.2 (2800) 40.2.2.2 (2807)

When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?
the a) Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object.
a) vision b) Look directly at the object.
b) cochlea c) Blink your eyes.
c) sense of balance d) Look with one eye.
d) proprioceptive sensitivity
40.2.2.2 (2808)
40.2.2.2 (2801) Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for :
The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision a) good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
a) are the rods b) good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)
b) are the cones c) precise vision of contours and colours
c) are rods and cones d) red vision, both during the day and at night
d) is the cornea
237
40.2.2.2 (2809) c) 2,4
To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary :- 1 : to spend some d) 3
time getting adapted to low levels of illumination- 2 : to increase the instrument
panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting- 3 : not to focus on the point to be
40.2.2.2 (2815)
observed- 4 : to avoid blinding
The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the:
a) 1,3,4
a) cones located in its central part
b) 1,2,4
b) rods located in its central part
c) 2,3,4
c) crystalline lens
d) 2
d) rods located in its peripheral zone

40.2.2.2 (2810)
40.2.2.2 (2816)
Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to
The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained,
a) binocular vision
is accomplished by which of the following ?
b) interactions between cones and rods
a) The crystalline lens
c) peripheral vision
b) The rods
d) the high sensitivity of the retina
c) The cones
d) The retina
40.2.2.2 (2811)
With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct ?-1: It
40.2.2.2 (2817)
is due to the functioning of rods-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be
We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for :
seen-3: Its very active both during the day and at night-4: It represents a zone
a) the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data
where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity
b) the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation process
a) 2,4
c) binocular vision
b) 1,2,4
d) the analysis of visual signals
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,3
40.2.2.2 (2818)
We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)- 1 : are above all active in turns and
40.2.2.2 (2812)
pull-outs- 2 : are present during take-off and landing- 3 : are rare during routine
The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):
flights- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
a) is limited to the foveal area of the retina
a) 3
b) is limited to daytime using the rod cells
b) 1,4
c) is almost equally shared by the entire retina
c) 2,3
d) is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle
d) 1,2,3

40.2.2.2 (2813)
40.2.2.2 (2819)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?- 1: The retina has rods on its
Empty field myopia is caused by:
peripheral zone and cones on its central zone- 2: The retina has cones and the
a) lack of distant focal points
crystalline lens has rods- 3: The rods allow for night-vision- 4: The cones are
b) atmospheric perspective
located on the peripheral zone of the retina
c) ozone at altitude
a) 1,3
d) flying over mountainous terrain
b) 1
c) 2,3
d) 4 40.2.2.2 (2820)
The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
a) the pupil
40.2.2.2 (2814)
b) the ciliary body
In order to get colour vision, it is necessary :-1 : for there to be considerable
c) the cornea
amount of light (ambient luminosity)-2 : at night to look at the point to be
d) the lens
observed at an angle of 15°-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the
light-4 : to avoid white light
a) 1 40.2.2.2 (2821)
b) 1,2,3 When focussing on near objects:

238
a) the shape of lens gets more spherical 40.2.2.3 (2828)
b) the shape of lens gets flatter Which is the audible range to human hearing?
c) the cornea gets smaller a) Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
d) the pupil gets larger b) Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHz
c) Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz
d) Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz
40.2.2.2 (2822)
The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:
a) accomodation 40.2.2.3 (2829)
b) binocular vision Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?
c) depth perception a) Ossicles
d) adaptation b) Otoliths
c) Endolymph
d) Semicircular canals
40.2.2.2 (2823)
The mechanism of accomodation is caused by:
a) the functioning of the ciliary muscle aroud the lens 40.2.2.3 (2830)
b) the elasticity of the optic nerves Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of noise?
c) the functioning of the muscles of the eye a) The cochlea
d) the diameter of the pupil b) The semicircular canals
c) The sacculus and utriculus
d) The eustachian tube
40.2.2.2 (2824)
Presbyopia is:
a) far sightedness linked with age 40.2.2.3 (2831)
b) short sightedness The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in
c) myopia a) the middle ear
d) high intraocular pressure b) the inner ear
c) the outer ear
d) the maxillary sinus
40.2.2.2 (2825)
Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the
visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage 40.2.2.3 (2832)
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in
b) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false a) noise induced hearing loss
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false b) conductive hearing loss
d) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false c) presbycusis (eefects of aging)
d) a ruptured ear drum
40.2.2.2 (2826)
Glaucoma is: 40.2.2.3 (2833)
a) high intra-ocular pressure All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of
b) disturbed colour vision growing old.The effects of aging
c) disturbed adaptation a) are to cut out the high tones first
d) disturbed night vision b) are to cut out the low tones first
c) are to cut out all tones equally
d) will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all the time
40.2.2.2 (2827)
Glaucoma is characterised by: 1. disturbed light adaptation 2. progressive
narrowing of the visual field 3. insidious onset and concealed progression 4. an 40.2.2.3 (2834)
increase in intra-ocular pressure The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false a) 16 - 20,000 Hz
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct b) 0 - 16 Hz
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false c) 20,000 - 40,000 Hz
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false d) 30 - 15000 dB

239
40.2.2.3 (2835) 40.2.2.4 (2842)
The intensity of a sound is measured in What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?1. Avoid
a) decibels turbulences.2. Avoid flying through rough weather.3. Seat passenger close to the
b) hertz center of gravity.4. Give pertinent information.
c) cycles per second a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) curies b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are false
d) Only 4 is correct
40.2.2.3 (2836)
The Eustachian tube connects:
a) the middle ear and the pharynx 40.2.2.4 (2843)
b) the auditory duct and the inner ear The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, when
c) the semi circular canals a) the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
d) the middle ear and the inner ear b) the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies prior flight
c) the student ist motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli of flying
d) the student has good outside visual reference
40.2.2.3 (2837)
Excessive exposure to noise damages:
a) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea 40.2.2.4 (2844)
b) the semi circular canals Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
c) the ossicles a) Gravity and linear acceleration
d) the eardrum b) Gravity alone
c) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
d) Angular acceleration
40.2.2.4 (2838)
Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor contributing to
air-sickness, because they 40.2.2.4 (2845)
a) upset the vestibular apparatus The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor
b) interfere with those of the own blood thus causing circulation problems a) angular accelerations
c) interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous system b) movements with constant speeds
d) make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same frequency c) relative speed and linear accelerations
d) gravity
40.2.2.4 (2839)
What is understood by air-sickness? 40.2.2.4 (2846)
a) A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea, Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear
vomiting and fear acceleration?
b) An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood a) The sacculus and utriculus
c) An illness caused by reduced air pressure b) The semicircular canals
d) An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear c) The cochlea
d) The eustachian tube
40.2.2.4 (2840)
When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be 40.2.2.4 (2847)
a) angular acceleration Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular
b) radial acceleration acceleration?
c) linear acceleration a) The semicircular canals
d) vertical acceleration b) The cochlea
c) The sacculus and utriculus
d) The eustachian tube
40.2.2.4 (2841)
Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused by
a) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz 40.2.2.4 (2848)
b) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz The vestibular organ
c) acceleration along the longitudonal body axis a) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
d) angular velocity b) gives the impression of hearing

240
c) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear 40.2.2.4 (2855)
d) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea Angular accelerations are perceived by:
a) the semi circular canals
b) the cochlea
40.2.2.4 (2849)
c) the otholits
The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is
d) the receptors in the skin and the joints
because
a) the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated
canal walls 40.2.2.4 (2856)
b) the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
c) the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal walls a) linear acceleration and gravity
d) the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds b) angular acceleration
c) angular speed
d) constant speed only
40.2.2.4 (2850)
The semicircular canals monitor
a) angular accelerations 40.2.2.4 (2857)
b) relative speed Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion
c) horizontal and vertical accelerations sickness ?-1 : Hearing-2 : The vestibular system-3 : Vision-4 The proprioceptive
d) gravity senses ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"")-5 : The gastrointestinal system
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
40.2.2.4 (2851)
c) 2,3,4,5
Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important
d) 1,2,5
physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into
consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body
a) change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the body 40.2.2.4 (2858)
b) will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative force acts across the Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are :1 - classic and
body at right angles to the body axis resistant when flying in IMC2 - sensed via impressions of rotation3 - sensed via
c) will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft4 - considerable during
d) are of no interest when performing aerobatics prolonged shallow turns under IMC
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
40.2.2.4 (2852)
c) 1,3
The semicircular canals form part of the
d) 3,4
a) inner ear
b) middle ear
c) ear drum 40.2.2.4 (2859)
d) external ear The vestibular system is composed of-1: two ventricles-2 : a saccule-3 : an
utricle-4 : three semicircular channels
a) 2,3,4
40.2.2.4 (2853)
b) 1,4
Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by
c) 2,3
a) the semicircular canals
d) 1,3,4
b) the tympanum
c) the saccule and the utricle
d) the cochlea 40.2.2.4 (2860)
The inner ear is able to perceive: 1. angular acceleration 2. linear acceleration 3.
noise
40.2.2.4 (2854)
a) 1 and 2 and 3 are correct
The semicircular canals detect
b) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
a) angular accelerations
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
b) sound waves
d) 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false
c) linear accelerations
d) changes in arterial pressure
40.2.2.5 (2861)
Flying a coordinated level turn will
241
a) make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s
vertical axis
b) first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descent
c) make the blood being pooled in the head
d) make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body`s vertical axis
40.2.2.5 (2862)
Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot
lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensation
a) corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing
a level turn
b) corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying straight and level or starting a
descent
c) makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flight
d) will not stimulate the ""seat-of-the-pants"" sense
40.2.2.5 (2863)
Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a coordinated level
turn?
a) Descending and turning into the opposite direction
b) Flying straight and level
c) Climbing
d) Turning into the original direction
40.2.2.5 (2864)
How can a pilot prevent ""pilots-vertigo""?
a) Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and maintain an effective
instrument cross check.
b) Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off-center vision.
c) Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments.
d) Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and rely upon the
senses of balance..
40.2.2.5 (2865)
How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated
instrument flight?1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2.
Always believe the instruments, never trust your sense of feeling.3. Ignore arising
illusions.4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to ""shake-off"" illusions.
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
c) Only 4 is correct
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
40.2.2.5 (2866)
The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor
coordination. They
a) are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
b) indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces
c) allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition
d) are important senses for flight training in IMC
40.2.2.5 (2867)
The so-called ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is
a) not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost
b) only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC
c) useful for instrument and contact flight
d) the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC
40.2.2.5 (2868)
Sensory input to the ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is given by
a) subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensors
b) blood rushing into legs
c) acceleration of the stomach (nausea)
d) pressure of the heart on the diaphragm
40.2.2.5 (2869)
Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids
(e.g. VASIS) can make the pilot believe of beeing
a) higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (""ducking under"")
b) higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
c) lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
d) lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
40.2.2.5 (2870)
A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/or
narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a
a) greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
b) lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot
c) greater height and the impression of landing short
d) lower height and the impression of landing slow
40.2.2.5 (2871)
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a
greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a
a) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
b) compensatory glide path and land long
c) compensatory glide path and stall out
d) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
40.2.2.5 (2872)
The proprioceptive senses (""Seat of-the-Pants-Sense"")
a) give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
b) is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude
c) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
d) can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC
40.2.2.5 (2873)
The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is
a) a poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth
between instruments and visual references
b) the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator
242
c) to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds c) ""oculogyral illusion""
d) to believe the attitude indicator d) ""oculografic illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2874) 40.2.2.5 (2880)

What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast (fog,
runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should snow, darkness, haze)?Under these conditions it is:
a) make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be a) difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
induced b) impossible to detect objects
b) be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will make him believe that he is higher c) no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
than actual d) improbable to get visual illusions
c) make a visual approach and call the tower for assistance
d) be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot feel that he is lower than
40.2.2.5 (2881)
actual height
A pilot approaching an upslope runway
a) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short.
40.2.2.5 (2875) b) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long
Orientation in flight is accomplished by1. eyes2. utriculus and sacculus3. c) establishes a higher than normal approach speed
semicircular canals4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense d) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) only 1 and 4 are correct
40.2.2.5 (2882)
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:
d) 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct
a) approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
b) to drop far below the glide path
40.2.2.5 (2876) c) approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
The ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"" d) to misjudge the length of the runway
a) can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost
b) is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in space
40.2.2.5 (2883)
c) can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space
Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn,
d) can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and
are symptoms of
instrument meteorological conditions
a) ""Pilot`s vertigo""
b) ""Nystagmus""
40.2.2.5 (2877) c) ""Flicker-vertigo""
The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the d) ""Oculogravic illusion""
a) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body
parts
40.2.2.5 (2884)
b) semicircular canals
""Pilot's vertigo""
c) utriculus and sacculus
a) is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory
d) skin of the breech only
impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)
b) is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
40.2.2.5 (2878) c) is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and d) announces the beginning of airsickness
wider runway can lead to :
a) an early or high ""round out""
40.2.2.5 (2885)
b) a steeper than normal approach dropping low
What can a pilot do to avoid ""Flicker vertigo"" when flying in the clouds?
c) a flatter than normal approach with the risk of ""ducking under""
a) Switch strobe-lights off
d) the risk to land short of the overrun
b) Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections
c) Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds
40.2.2.5 (2879) d) Fly straight and level and avoid head movements
The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively
long period of time in the dark is called
40.2.2.5 (2886)
a) ""autokinesis""
What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establish and
b) ""white out""
243
maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore c) a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to multiple irritation of the utriculus and
illusions.4. Minimize head movements. sacculus at the same time
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) the impression of climbing when banking
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
40.2.2.5 (2893)
d) Only 4 is false
What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring during flight and which is
caused by multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time?
40.2.2.5 (2887) a) ""Pilot's"" Vertigo.
A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is b) Sudden incapacitation.
the correct action to prevent vertigo? c) ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" illusions.
a) Depend on the instruments d) Graveyard spin.
b) Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe normal again
c) Concentrate on the vertical speedometer
40.2.2.5 (2894)
d) Depend on information from the semicircular canals of the inner ear, because those are the
Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the
only ones giving correct information
rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of
a) spinning into the opposite direction
40.2.2.5 (2888) b) spinning into the same direction
The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when c) straight and level flight
a) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular d) climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin
organs
b) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the
40.2.2.5 (2895)
aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to
c) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions
a) climb
d) informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored
b) descent
c) turn into the opposite direction
40.2.2.5 (2889) d) increase the rate of turn into the same direction
Vertigo is the result of
a) ""Coriolis-effect""
40.2.2.5 (2896)
b) ""Oculogyral illusion""
When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will
c) ""Autokinetic-illusion""
a) give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)
d) ""Elevator illusion""
b) give the illusion of banking
c) give the illusion of straight and level flight
40.2.2.5 (2890) d) give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the airplane
Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while going down)
a) banking
b) climbing
40.2.2.5 (2897)
c) descending
A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get:
d) flying straight and level
a) the illusion of climbing or descending
b) the feeling of rotation
40.2.2.5 (2891) c) the illusion to turn
With ""vertigo"" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due to d) the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left
a) the coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
b) tuned resonance caused by vibration
40.2.2.5 (2898)
c) conflicting information between the semicircular canals and the tympanic membrane
To prevent vertigo in flight we should
d) oxygen deficiency
a) not move the head suddenly while we are turning
b) look towards the sides when we make a turn
40.2.2.5 (2892) c) breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency
""Pilot's vertigo"": d) keep breathing normally
a) is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritation of several
semicircular canals at the same time
b) the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft is spinning
244
40.2.2.5 (2899) a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
a) that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) of turning in the same direction d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
d) of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft
40.2.2.5 (2906)
Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:1. flying in IMC2. frequently
40.2.2.5 (2900) changing between inside and outside references3. flying from IMC into VMC4.
When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a having a cold
a) climb a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) descent b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) turn c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) spin d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2901) 40.2.2.5 (2907)

During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:
illusions is the: a) pitching up
a) visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator b) pitching down
b) ""Seat-of-the-pants-Sense"" c) apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
c) vestibular sense d) vertigo
d) visual sense by looking outside
40.2.2.5 (2908)
40.2.2.5 (2902) Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:
Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight: a) climbing
a) if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot does not believe the b) descending
instruments c) yawing
b) when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check d) spinning
c) when flying in light rain below the ceiling
d) when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer
40.2.2.5 (2909)
Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:
40.2.2.5 (2903) a) simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
Autokinetic illusion is: b) undergoing positive G
a) an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in c) gazing in the direction of a flashing light
the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to move d) normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age
b) the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the
opposite direction of the acceleration
40.2.2.5 (2910)
c) a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations
When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible.
d) poor interpretation of the surrounding world
This is a prevention against:
a) coriolis illusion
40.2.2.5 (2904) b) autokinesis
With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they: c) oculogyral illusion
a) are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and d) pressure vertigo
the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system
b) originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual perceptions
40.2.2.5 (2911)
c) are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual
d) are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception between the
system and the vestibular system ?-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the
various members of a crew
aircraft-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)-3: Illusions when
estimating the size and distance of objects-4 : Illusions of rotation
40.2.2.5 (2905) a) 1,4
Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3. b) 2,3,4
hypertension4. fatigue
245
c) 2 40.2.2.5 (2918)
d) 3,4 You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway
width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
a) low approach with undershoot
40.2.2.5 (2912)
b) high approach with overshoot
A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn,
c) high approach with undershoot
experiences:
d) low approach with overshoot
a) coriolis illusion
b) autokinetic illusion
c) barotrauma 40.2.2.5 (2919)
d) pressure vertigo 1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-Pants-
Sense.2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the
instruments you must believe the instruments.
40.2.2.5 (2913)
a) 1 is false, 2 is correct
When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the
b) 1 and 2 are correct
dark he might get the illusion that:
c) 1 is correct, 2 is false
a) the light is moving
d) 1 and 2 are false
b) the size of the lightis varying
c) the intensity of the light is varying
d) the colour of the light is varying 40.2.2.5 (2920)
How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By
a) maintaining a good instrument cross check.
40.2.2.5 (2914)
b) believing your body senses only.
When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an isolated star) you will find
c) moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called:
d) looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.
a) autokinetic phenomenon
b) black hole illusion
c) coriolis illusion 40.2.2.5 (2921)
d) leans Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
a) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
b) Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the semicircular canals.
40.2.2.5 (2915)
c) Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.
How is haze effecting your perception?
d) Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the time.
a) Objects seem to be further away than in reality.
b) Objects will give better contrast.
c) Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity 40.2.2.5 (2922)
d) Objects seem to be closer than in reality. How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?
a) Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check.
b) Always try to catch outside visual cues.
40.2.2.5 (2916)
c) Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses.
The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water,
d) Rely on the kinaesthetic sense.
jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the
aerodrome there is an illusion of
a) being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short 40.2.2.5 (2923)
b) being too close, landing long If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
c) climbing a) continue on instruments
d) being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal b) dim the cockpit lighting
c) scan the surroundings
d) use your oxygen mask
40.2.2.5 (2917)
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport
(runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: 40.2.2.5 (2924)
a) high approach with overshoot If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
b) high approach with undershoot a) relay on instruments
c) low approach with overshoot b) look outside
d) low approach with undershoot c) descend
d) check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast
246
40.2.3.0 (2925) 40.2.3.0 (2931)
Which of the following statements are correct ?1 Hypothermia affects physical and One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is :
mental abilities.2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold.3 a) water
Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot b) protein
of energy4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature c) sugar
of less than 35°C d) fat
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,3
40.2.3.0 (2932)
c) 2,4
The body loses water via:1. the skin and the lungs2. the kidneys
d) 2,3,4
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1 is correct and 2 is not correct
40.2.3.0 (2926) c) 1 is not correct and 2 is correct
Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4: d) both are false
vitamines
a) 2,3
40.2.3.2 (2933)
b) 1,2,3,4
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
c) 1,4
a) pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents
d) 1,3
b) gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum
c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic
40.2.3.0 (2927) membrane
Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when expored to d) swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss
extreme high environmental temperatures?-1 : Shivering-2 : Vasoconstriction of
peripheral blood vessels-3 : Sweating-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
40.2.3.2 (2934)
a) 3,4
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
b) 1,3,4
a) the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen
c) 2,3
thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the
d) 1
nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during
fast descents
40.2.3.0 (2928) b) although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it
The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen,
35°C : gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to the ear drum
a) shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in
b) the appearance of intense shivering hyperventilation
c) mental disorders, and even coma d) because it will seriously affect peripheral vision
d) profuse sweating
40.2.3.2 (2935)
40.2.3.0 (2929) Exchange of gasses between the body and the environment takes place at the:
We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia : a) lungs
a) reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37°C b) heart
b) a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral temperature at the c) muscles
skin is stable d) central nervous system
c) a rapid fall in ambient temperature
d) greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere
40.2.3.2 (2936)
The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38°C :
40.2.3.0 (2930) a) impairment of physical and mental performance
What is meant by metabolism ? b) apathy
a) The transformation by which energy is made available for the uses of the c) considerable dehydration
organism d) nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at
b) Information exchange 39°C
c) Transfer of chemical messages
d) Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood

247
40.2.3.2 (2937) c) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight
Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2. d) Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose
pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses weight
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
40.2.3.3 (2944)
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct
ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an
obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
40.2.3.2 (2938) a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect: b) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
a) pain in the sinuses c) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
b) bends d) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
c) chokes
d) hypoxia
40.2.3.3 (2945)
Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:
40.2.3.3 (2939) a) damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise
Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification? b) a blocked Eustachian tube
a) High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory c) pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum
system. d) reduced mobility of the ossicles
b) High blood pressure only.
c) Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by in-
40.2.3.3 (2946)
flight medication.
Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ?
d) Low blood pressure only.
a) Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight.
b) Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature.
40.2.3.3 (2940) c) Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.
When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the d) Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40°C or more.
following factors may contribute:1.obesity2.distress3.smoking4.family history
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
40.2.3.3 (2947)
b) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by: 1. anaemia 2.
c) Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
smoking in the cockpit 3. carbon monoxide poisoning 4. hypoxia
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
40.2.3.3 (2941) c) 2,3 and 4 are correct
Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by d) 1,3 and 4 are correct
a) the duration and intensity of a noise
b) the duration of a noise but not its intensity
40.2.3.4 (2948)
c) the suddenness of onset of a noise
Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities
d) the intensity of the noise but not its duration
a) can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
b) will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia
40.2.3.3 (2942) c) will have no effect at all
To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be d) may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be
a) double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week identified
b) avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
c) double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week
40.2.3.4 (2949)
d) triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct:
a) no flying under the influence of alcohol
40.2.3.3 (2943) b) flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcohol
Which of the following is most true? c) flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohol
a) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to d) flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is safe up to this limit
lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
b) Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate
248
40.2.3.4 (2950) 40.2.3.4 (2956)
The metabolisation of alcohol Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker,
a) is a question of time has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude
b) is quicker when used to it a) above 10 000 FT
c) can be accelerated even more by coffee b) of 10 000 FT
d) can be influenced by easy to get medication c) lower than 10 000 FT
d) of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen
40.2.3.4 (2951)
Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance 40.2.3.4 (2957)
a) the primary and the side effects have to be considered Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
b) the side effects only have to be considered a) Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary
c) medication has no influence on pilot´s performance attitudes may be lost
d) only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable b) Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcohol
c) Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance
d) Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken
40.2.3.4 (2952)
Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the
following undesirable effects:1. Drowsiness, dizziness2. Dry mouth3. Headaches4. 40.2.3.4 (2958)
Impaired depth perception5. Nausea Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct a) intensify the effects of the drugs
b) only 3, 4 and 5 are correct b) compensate for side effects of drugs
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct c) show undesired effects only during night flights
d) only 1 is correct d) increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood

40.2.3.4 (2953) 40.2.3.4 (2959)

The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on
qualification to fly for the following reasons:1. The desease requiring a treatment
may be cause for disqualification.2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of
the body to a treatment.3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight
safety.4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when
the treatment is stopped.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
d) Only 2 is false.
40.2.3.4 (2954)
Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-
term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:
a) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia
b) a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxia
c) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia
d) a suppressed desire to eat and drink
40.2.3.4 (2955)
A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined
with hemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity
would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day?
a) 5 - 8%
b) 0.5 - 2%
c) 12 - 18%
d) 20 - 25%
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)
a) is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
b) is approx. 0.3% per hour
c) depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks
d) definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten
40.2.3.4 (2960)
When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the
pilot intends to fly, attention has to be payed to
a) the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness
b) the effect they have on hearing
c) the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under the influence of
those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleep
d) schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications
40.2.3.4 (2961)
The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of
metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
a) 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
b) 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
c) 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
d) 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour
40.2.3.4 (2962)
A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and
precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding
a) 0.05 % blood alcohol
249
b) 0.1 % blood alcohol c) it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys
c) 0.15 % blood alcohol d) it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane
d) 0.2 % blood alcohol
40.2.3.4 (2969)
40.2.3.4 (2963) Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is
The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is a) A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can
a) tar seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an aircraft.
b) nicotine b) Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste.
c) carbon monoxide c) Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to them for a long period of
d) lead time.
d) When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and
no adverse physical effects are experienced
40.2.3.4 (2964)
One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly
more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence 40.2.3.4 (2970)
contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to? Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
a) Carbon monoxide a) altitude increases
b) Carbonic anhydride b) altitude decreases
c) Tar c) air pressure increases
d) Carbon dioxide d) relative humidity decreases

40.2.3.4 (2965) 40.2.3.4 (2971)

The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in
spatial disorientation occurs:
a) on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously
b) on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear
c) on stimulating the cochlea intensely
d) when no semicircular canal is stimulated
Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?
a) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of
alcohol.
b) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
c) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
d) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.

40.2.3.4 (2966) 40.2.3.4 (2972)

The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is
a) nicotine
b) carbon monoxide
c) tar
d) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
40.2.3.4 (2967)
A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor´s
prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is
correct:
a) A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a
flight surgeon if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time
b) They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flight
c) The side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by
pilots
d) They will cause a condition of over-arousal
40.2.3.4 (2968)
Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because
a) it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin
b) it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract
Which statement is correct? 1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from
coronary heart disease 2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals pysiological
altitude during flight3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung cancer
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
c) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
d) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
40.2.3.4 (2973)
Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is
because:
a) hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen
b) carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli
c) carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
d) the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract
40.2.3.4 (2974)
CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction
of time of usefull consciousness 2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is false
250
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct machine
d) 1 and 2 are both false d) daily planning of probable dangerous situations

40.2.3.4 (2975) 40.3.1.1 (2981)

Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1. loss of muscular power2. The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( Anderson model):
headache 3. impaired judgement 4. pain in the joints 5. loss of consciousness a) cognitive, associative and autonomous
a) 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct b) cognitive, associative and knowledge
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct c) associative, autonomous and expert
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false d) automatic, cognitive and knowledge
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
40.3.1.1 (2982)
40.2.3.6 (2976) A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she:
Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is : a) has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in
a) insinuating order to free his/her cognitive resources
b) obvious b) is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight
c) sudden c) knows how to invest the maximum resources in the automation of tasks in real time
d) intense d) is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight

40.3.1.0 (2977) 40.3.1.1 (2983)

The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively
computers because of its monitored input channel is known as
a) flexibility a) attention
b) speed b) perception
c) working memory capacity c) sensation
d) independancy from attention d) appreciation

40.3.1.0 (2978) 40.3.1.1 (2984)

In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the
problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
a) increasing
b) the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mind
c) not applicable with old and experienced pilots
d) decreasing
According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:
a) different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the
information-gathering, information-processing or action phase
b) unlimited information-processing resources
c) cognitive resources which are centered on action
d) processing capabilities which function at peak level when different tasks call for the same
resources

40.3.1.0 (2979) 40.3.1.1 (2985)

Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up
every time what they have to do.
a) this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
b) this is dangerous for every situation is different
c) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to
comply with
d) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be
solved by improvisation.
40.3.1.1 (2980)
Mental schemes correspond to:
a) memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can
be reactivated by the pilot at will
b) the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular situation
c) memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-over to a new
The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same
time
b) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time
c) are virtually unlimited
d) allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness
40.3.1.1 (2986)
Concentration is essential for pilots.
a) However, capacity of concentration is limited
b) It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of concentration without limits
c) Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
d) All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on resources and
therefore on one's concentration
251
40.3.1.1 (2987)
The 'cocktail party effect' is
a) the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
b) the ability to drink too much at social gathering
c) the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world
d) the tendency not to perceive relevant information
40.3.1.1 (2993)
What is ""divided attention""?
a) Alternative management of several matters of interest
b) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective
c) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective
d) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed

40.3.1.1 (2988) 40.3.1.1 (2994)

Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct ?
interference? Hypovigilance :
a) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem. a) may occur at any moment of the flight
b) Listen attentively and solve a problem. b) essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase
c) Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory. c) tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators'
d) Read and listen attentively. attention
d) only affects certain personality types
40.3.1.1 (2989)
A selective attentional mechanism is required 40.3.1.1 (2995)
a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance
memory (hypovigilance) ?1. The monotony of the task2. Tiredness,the need for sleep3. A
b) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited lack of stimulation4. Excessive stress
c) because of the limitations of the sense organs a) 1,2,3
d) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes b) 2,4
c) 1,3
d) 3,4
40.3.1.1 (2990)
If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources :
a) the sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced 40.3.1.1 (2996)
b) a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance will then tail off With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism,
c) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-based mode for we know that :
the two tasks a) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and
d) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rules-based mode for the two thus the more it frees mental resources
tasks b) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees
resources
c) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees
40.3.1.1 (2991)
resources
Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of
d) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees
reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?1. Healthy living2. Use of
resources
amphetamines3. Reducing the intensity of the light4. Organising periods of rest
during the flight
a) 1,4 40.3.1.1 (2997)
b) 1,2 What are the various factors which guide attention ?1. The level of automation of
c) 1,3 behaviour2. Response time3. The salience of the information4. Expectations
d) 3,4 a) 1,3,4
b) 1,4
c) 1,2
40.3.1.1 (2992)
d) 2,3,4
What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ?1. Decrease in sensory
perception2. Increase in selective attention3. Sensation of muscular heaviness4.
Decrease in complacency 40.3.1.1 (2998)
a) 1,3 Check the following statements:1. The first information received determines how
b) 1,4 subsequent information will be evaluated.2. If one has made up one's mind,
c) 2,3 contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs.3. With
d) 2,4 increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the
central decision maker (CNS).

252
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 40.3.1.2 (3005)
b) 1and 3 are correct Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
c) 1 and 2 are correct a) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
d) 2 and 3 are correct b) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
c) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
d) solely induced in the absence of external reference points
40.3.1.2 (2999)
Conscious perception
a) is a mental process involving experience and expectations 40.3.1.2 (3006)
b) relies upon the development of intuition In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which
c) involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the brain only you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is
d) relates to the correct recognition of colours moving is called :
a) illusion of relative movement
b) autokinetic illusion
40.3.1.2 (3000)
c) cognitive illusion
The first stage in the information process is
d) somato-gravic illusion
a) sensory stimulation
b) perception
c) selective attention 40.3.1.3 (3007)
d) the recognition of information The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
a) about 7 items
b) very limited - only 3 items
40.3.1.2 (3001)
c) about 30 items
Our mental model of the world is based
d) unlimited
a) on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive
b) entirely on the sensory information we receive
c) entirely on past experiences 40.3.1.3 (3008)
d) on both our past experiences and our motor programmes The capacity of the short-term memory is
a) about 7 items
b) very limited - only one item
40.3.1.2 (3002)
c) about 30 items
What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism ?
d) unlimited
a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect,
while possible alternates are neglected
b) They always lead to routine errors 40.3.1.3 (3009)
c) The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information Information stays in the short-term memory
d) The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary a) about 20 seconds
decisions b) less than 1 second
c) from 5 to 10 minutes
d) around 24 hours
40.3.1.2 (3003)
Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?
a) The intensity of the stimuli. 40.3.1.3 (3010)
b) The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory. Working memory :
c) The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory. a) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content
d) The seperation of figure and background. b) is unlimited in size
c) is unlimited in duration
d) varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot
40.3.1.2 (3004)
The ""gestalt laws ""formulates :
a) basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived 40.3.1.3 (3011)
b) basic principles governing the relationship between stress and performance Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and
c) basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience expertise.
d) basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and performance a) It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it
available when required
b) The capacity of long-term memory is limited

253
c) Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis 40.3.1.3 (3018)
d) The recovery of information from long-term memory is immediate and easy With regard to short-term memory, we can say that :
a) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its
capacity for storing and retaining data
40.3.1.3 (3012)
b) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the time
Motor programmes are:
for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity
a) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without
c) it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbance
continuous conscious control
d) it mainly contains procedural knowledge
b) rules that enable us to deal with novel situations
c) rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations
d) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous 40.3.1.3 (3019)
conscious control Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?-1:
Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic
knowledge.-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the
40.3.1.3 (3013)
frequency with which this same information is used.-3: It processes information
Working memory enables us, for example,
quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.-4: Pre-activation of
a) to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time.
b) to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds
a) 1 and 4 are correct
c) to ignore messages for other aircraft
b) 1 and 2 are correct
d) to remember our own name
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct
40.3.1.3 (3014)
In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately
40.3.1.3 (3020)
a) 20 seconds
To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory,
b) 5 minutes
it is helpful to:
c) 1 hour
a) mentally rehearse information before it is needed
d) a couple of days
b) learn and store data in a logical and structured way
c) structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it to memory
40.3.1.3 (3015) d) avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon
The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):
a) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
40.3.1.3 (3021)
b) the quantity of data which may be stored
Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory
c) the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which
a) its storage capacity is unlimited
comes to saturate it
b) it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but unlimted in terms of storage time
d) the data storage time
c) it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in terms of capacity
d) its mode of storing information is passive, making memory searches effective
40.3.1.3 (3016)
What are the main limits of short-term memory ?It is :-1 : very sensitive to
40.3.1.4 (3022)
interruptions and interference-2 : difficult to access-3 : limited in size-4 : subject
Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes differ from experienced
to a biochemical burn-in of information
pilots in the following way :
a) 1,3 ,4
a) unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out
b) 1,2 ,3
the same task
c) 2 ,3
b) experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that
d) 2,4
routine causes mistakes
c) task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's one
40.3.1.3 (3017) d) flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this
Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory ?- 1 : It is deficiency
limited in time and size- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size- 3 : It is
stable and insensitive to disturbances- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
40.3.1.4 (3023)
a) 1
In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable to
b) 1,3
a) establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real
c) 3,4
time)
d) 2,3
254
b) plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actions 40.3.1.4 (3029)
c) avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner,
d) plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in advance ideomotor simulation of actions.
a) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
b) It is most important for selfcontrol
40.3.1.4 (3024)
c) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination
The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible
d) It is more effective than training by doing
to:-1 : create a precise reference framework.-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive
system.-3 : automate planned actions.-4 : activate knowledge which is considered
necessary for the period to come.The correct statement(s) is (are): 40.3.1.4 (3030)
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct How can the process of learning be facilitated?
b) 1 and 2 are correct a) By reinforcing successful trials
c) 2 and 4 are correct b) By increasing the psychological pressure on the student
d) 3 and 4 are correct c) By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials
d) By reinforcing errors
40.3.1.4 (3025)
Pre-thought action plans may be said to:-1 : ease access to information which may 40.3.1.4 (3031)
be necessary.-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come.-3 : be Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to
readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the a) practice and experience
flight.-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered b) innate mechanisms
situation.The combination of correct statements is: c) maturation
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct d) drug influence
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 4 are correct
40.3.1.4 (3032)
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills
a) at all levels of flying proficiency
40.3.1.4 (3026) b) only for student pilots
The workload may be said to:-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of c) only for instructor pilots
the crew resources.-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew d) only at a certain level of flying experience
resources.-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.-4 : correspond to the amount of
resources availableThe combination of correct statements is:
40.3.1.4 (3033)
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day
b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
professional life ?1. Beeing in control of one's own situation2. Fear of
c) 1 and 3 are correct
punishment3. Success (achievement of goals)4. Social promotion, money
d) 2 and 4 are correct
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
40.3.1.4 (3027) c) 3,4
Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in the pilot's work to maintain d) 2,4
safety.
a) However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly affects
40.3.1.4 (3034)
performance
Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may
b) Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions
have on attention ?
c) A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in
a) It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of
complete safety
alertness and attention
d) A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance
b) It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
c) Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness
40.3.1.4 (3028) d) It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal
The quality of learning :
a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
40.3.1.4 (3035)
b) depends on long-term memory capacity
The effect of experience and habit on performance
c) is independent of the level of motivation
a) can both be beneficial and negative
d) is independent of age
b) is always negative
255
c) is never negative 40.3.1.4 (3042)
d) is always beneficial 1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental
picture than boring information.2.The sequence in which information is offered is
also important for the use the pilot makes of it.
40.3.1.4 (3036)
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
Murphy's law states :
b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
a) If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then
c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
sooner or later, it will be
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct
b) Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one person to another
c) Expectation has an influence on perception
d) Performance is dependent on motivation 40.3.1.4 (3043)
The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in
their actions. This is called:
40.3.1.4 (3037)
a) procedural consistency
The needs of an individual lead to :
b) mental model
a) a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the
c) knowledge-based behaviour
behaviour
d) procedural confusion
b) preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing satisfied
c) no change in his motivation and conrequently to the persistence of the individuals
behaviour in regard to the desired outcome 40.3.2.0 (3044)
d) prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high self-actualization What means can be used to combat human error?-1 : Reducing error-prone
mechanisms.-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in
training.-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.-4 : Improving recovery from
40.3.1.4 (3038)
errors and its consequences.The combination of correct statements is:
Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is
a) 1, 2 and 4
a) skill based behaviour
b) 3 and 4
b) coping behaviour
c) 1 and 2
c) knowledge based behaviour
d) 2, 3 and 4
d) rule based behaviour

40.3.2.0 (3045)
40.3.1.4 (3039)
It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating
If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the
procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly because
approach procedure, and you encounter no inexpected or new problems you show:
a) such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances
a) skill based behaviour
b) this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection
b) knowledge based behaviour
c) this reduces the amount of training required
c) rule based behaviour
d) it makes the flight deck easier to design
d) rule and skill based behaviour

40.3.2.0 (3046)
40.3.1.4 (3040)
Human errors are frequent and may take several forms :
The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions
a) an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the
of the landing is:
result of his/her actions
a) skill based behaviour
b) an error of intention is an error of routine
b) knowledge based behaviour
c) an violation is an error which is always involuntary
c) pressure based behaviour
d) representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar
d) rule based behaviour
with the procedure

40.3.1.4 (3041)
40.3.2.0 (3047)
The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of a
What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
critical situation
a) Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
b) To question possible solutions
b) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
c) An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management
c) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway
d) Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying
d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world

256
40.3.2.0 (3048) b) in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operators
What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the c) the elimination of latent errors before they can effect performance
creation of their application procedures for combatting problems associated with d) the analysis of modes of human failures
human error ?
a) To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing
40.3.2.1 (3053)
serious consequences
An excessive need for safety
b) To eliminate the risk of latent errors occuring
a) hampers severly the way of pilot decision making
c) To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse their nature and
b) is absolute necessary for a safe flight operation
modify ergonomic parameters
c) is the most important attribute of a line pilot
d) To put in place redundant alarm systems
d) guarantees the right decision making in critical situations

40.3.2.1 (3049)
40.3.2.1 (3054)
How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?
Studies of human error rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have
a) By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross
shown, that errors can normally be expected to occur about
monitoring)
a) 1 in 10 times
b) By increasing error detection in all circumstances
b) 1 in 50 times
c) By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection, warning and monitoring
c) 1 in 100 times
systems
d) 1 in 250 times
d) By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is low

40.3.2.1 (3055)
40.3.2.1 (3050)
Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and
What are the various means which allow for better error detection?-1 :
pretty good, after methodical training
Improvement of the man-machine interface.-2 : Development of systems for
a) 1 in 100 times
checking the consistency of situations.-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant
b) 1 in 1000 times
procedures by the crew.-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.The correct
c) 1 in 10000 times
statement(s) is (are):
d) 1 in 100000 times
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 40.3.2.1 (3056)
d) 3 and 4 Situations particularly vulnerable to ""reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern""
are :1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed2. when situations are
characterised by medium workload3. when situations are characterised by stress
40.3.2.1 (3051)
a) 1. and 3.
Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism? -1 : It
b) 1. and 2.
is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what
c) 3.
error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator
d) 2. and 3.
is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error.-2 : If we have a
better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt
procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc. -3 : It is error management procedure which 40.3.2.2 (3057)
enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental model is, that it
underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and a) is frequently extremely resistant to correction
adapting future errors.-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been b) will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation
identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal c) will only occur under conditions of stress
with it automatically in the future.The correct statement(s) is (are): d) can easily be changed
a) 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 40.3.2.3 (3058)
c) 2 and 4 Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?Active
d) 1 and 4 error is:
a) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and
40.3.2.1 (3052) consequences which it induces on the overall action
Improvement of human reliability should entail: b) produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or
a) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors latent consequence at a specific moment of the action
committed c) essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good rule
257
by airplane designers c) handling errors
d) rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a d) creative errors
complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations
40.3.2.3 (3064)
40.3.2.3 (3059) When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?When:
What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:-1 : remain undetected in a) the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety
the system for a certain lenght of time.-2 : may only manifest themselves under b) its safety system is too permeable to error
certainl conditions.-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose c) its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors
mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors.-4 : lull the d) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety
pilots into security.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1,2 and 4
40.3.2.3 (3065)
b) 1 and 2
Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:
c) 1 and 3
a) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
d) 2, 3 and 4
b) destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error
c) are prompted by inductive factors
40.3.2.3 (3060) d) have virtually no interaction with behaviour
Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?Latent
errors:
40.3.2.3 (3066)
a) have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time and are difficult to
Human behaviour is determined by:
understand as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurence
a) biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences
of the error
b) biological characteristics
b) are rarely made by front-line operators, and are consequently readily identified and
c) the social environment
detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links
d) cultural influences
c) are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected after
advanced problem-solving
d) rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress 40.3.2.3 (3067)
The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates the saving of resources
and therefore of attention. On the other hand, it may result in :
40.3.2.3 (3061)
a) routine errors (slips)
A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is the
b) mistakes
result of:-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.-2 : the sum of the
c) decision-making errors
automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities.-3 : the reliability of the
d) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
Man-Man and Man-Machine links.-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine
interface.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2 and 4 40.3.2.3 (3068)
b) 1, 2 and 4 In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a
c) 1 and 3 knowledge-based activity ?
d) 3 and 4 a) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
b) Attentional capture
c) Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
40.3.2.3 (3062)
d) The unsuitability of the automated actions
According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the
following type(s) :
a) errors of technical knowledge 40.3.2.3 (3069)
b) routine errors Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level ?1.Omission2.The
c) handling errors application of a poor rule3. Attentional capture4. The poor application of a good
d) creative errors rule
a) 2,4
b) 1,2
40.3.2.3 (3063)
c) 3,4
According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based
d) 1,3
control mode:
a) routine errors
b) knowledge errors

258
40.3.2.3 (3070) 40.3.2.4 (3076)
The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based
directly observable types of erroneous actions which are :1. Repetition and level ?
omission2. The forward leap and the backward leap3. Intrusion and anticipation4. a) When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the
Intrusion intended outcome
a) 1,2,4 b) Failure of all the known rules
b) 1,3 c) The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and completely new
c) 2,4 d) An automated cognitive check procedure
d) 1,2,3
40.3.2.4 (3077)
40.3.2.3 (3071) Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from :1. the
What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the capture of a poor action subprogram2. a mistake in the decision making process3.
situation to be resolved ? the application of a poor rule4. an action mode error
a) Actions return to an automatic mode a) 1,4
b) A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the results b) 1,2
c) A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to continue monitoring of the problem c) 3,4
d) A second monitoring rule must be applied d) 2,3,4

40.3.2.4 (3072) 40.3.2.4 (3078)

To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to What are the main characteristics of active errors ?They :1. are detectable only
a) report its malfunction with difficulty by first-line operators2. have rapid and direct consequences on the
b) report the deviation action in progress3. are down to first-line operators4. have an impact on the
c) correct the deviation overall action whose timing may be affected significantly
d) tolerate the deviation a) 2,3
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
40.3.2.4 (3073)
d) 1,4
Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that :
a) there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
b) only front-line operators are involved 40.3.2.4 (3079)
c) only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety :
d) failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns a) is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational
context created by the system
b) is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the main factor
40.3.2.4 (3074)
c) is independent of the operational context, with the latter being identical for any flight
What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean?
operation
a) The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flight
d) has been evolving for 40 years and has now become independent of the social and
b) The result of a poor preflight planning
technical system
c) The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds
d) The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal tensions between captain and co-
pilot 40.3.2.4 (3080)
The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:1. increase with altitude2.
decrease with altitude3. increase with higher workload4. decrease with higher
40.3.2.4 (3075)
workload
'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following
a) 1 and 3 are correct
statements?1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
is frequently exercised, even if it is inappropriate to do so2.The tendency for a skill
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
inappropriate to do so3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways in
different social situations4. The gaining of environmental skills
a) 1 and 2 are correct 40.3.2.4 (3081)
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct What may be the origins of representation errors ?1. Perception errors2. The
c) 2 and 3 are correct catering for all available information 3. Incorrect information from the observed
d) 4 is correct world4. The receipt of a bad piece of information

259
a) 1,3,4 c) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 d) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 3,4
d) 2,3
40.3.3.1 (3088)
Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:
40.3.3.0 (3082) a) good judgement
When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should b) physical skills
a) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind c) interpersonal relations
b) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible d) good maintenance of aircraft
c) avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
d) make up his mind before consulting other crew members
40.3.3.1 (3089)
Judgement is based upon:
40.3.3.0 (3083) a) a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing
The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly: the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience
a) distribution of tasks and crew coordination b) a decision making process involving physical sensations and their transfer to manually
b) speed of reaction operate the aircraft controls
c) informing ATC thoroughly about the situation c) the development of skills from constant practice of flight manoeuvres
d) the whole crew to focus on the problem d) the ability to interpret the flight instruments

40.3.3.0 (3084) 40.3.3.1 (3090)

Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the
cockpit?
a) Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view.
b) Communicational skills and social competence.
c) Ability to search for and examine all available information regarding a situation.
d) Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of action.
40.3.3.0 (3085)
The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on
a) subjective perception and evalutation of situational factors
b) external factors only
c) the emergency checklist only
d) situational factors only
Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?
a) Deciding means choosing between alternatives.
b) Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions.
c) Deciding means imposing one's point of view.
d) Deciding means applying an automatic procedure.
40.3.3.1 (3091)
Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?
a) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order
to apply the decision prepared beforehand
b) Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment
c) Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities
d) The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status

40.3.3.0 (3086) 40.3.3.1 (3092)

Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will
probably
a) find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different
interpretation of the data
b) find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
c) find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
d) find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens
In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to
be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to :
a) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
b) an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead
c) the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities
d) the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone can contribute what he/she
knows

40.3.3.0 (3087) 40.3.3.1 (3093)

To maintain good situational awareness you should:(1) believe only in your own What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time
interpretation of the data(2) gather as much datas as possible from every possible pressure ?
source before making inferences(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the a) A strategy of preparing decisions
situation as events progress and try to make time to review the situation(4) b) A non-sequential strategy
consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct c) A Laissez-faire strategy
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct d) A strategy of no commitment
b) all answers are correct
260
40.3.3.1 (3094) a) A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
Which biases relate to human decision making?1. Personal experience tends to b) A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring2. There is a natural tendency c) A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not come up to expectations
to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it3. The d) A group decision must always be established prior to action
group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision4.
There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes
40.3.3.1 (3100)
a) 1,2,3
In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends :1. on objective and
b) 1,2
subjective criteria2. on the objective to be achieved3. on the risks associated with
c) 3,4
each solution4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
d) 1,2,4
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4
40.3.3.1 (3095) c) 1,3
Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that: d) 4
a) a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to
the detriment of achieving the best possible result
40.3.3.1 (3101)
b) one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisions
Decision-making results in:
c) professional pilots will never question established procedures
a) a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal
d) one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices
b) a choice always based on the experience of the PIC
c) an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given end
40.3.3.1 (3096) d) a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions
Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:1. people tend to
conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to2.
40.3.3.1 (3102)
people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors
The confirmation bias of decision making is
have made in the past3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the
a) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor,
expectations4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but
b) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
rather on rational information
c) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision
a) 1,3
d) a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before implementing one's decision
b) 2,3
c) 1,4
d) 2,4 40.3.4.1 (3103)
The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important
when:
40.3.3.1 (3097)
a) flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure
The DECIDE model is based on :
b) flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
a) a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most
c) conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform
likely to come up with the solution
d) flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before
b) a prescriptive generic model which is subject to mathematical logic
c) a normative generic model based on mathematical logic
d) a statistical model based on observation of human decision-making 40.3.4.1 (3104)
Which of the following responses is an example of ""habit reversion"" (negative
habit transfer):
40.3.3.1 (3098)
a) A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points
Decision-making is a concept which represents :
forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false
a) a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions,
position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be
for a given problem
in the ON position
b) an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures
b) Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right
c) an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem
c) Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions
d) a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced
d) habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item when two items are
with a defined problem
on the same line

40.3.3.1 (3099)
40.3.4.1 (3105)
Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight
Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire,
deck ?
it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select
261
the response below which could lead to such a hazard:
a) mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-
standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated
b) anticipating that the weather may deteriorate
c) anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
d) anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.
40.3.4.1 (3106)
The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or
cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off :-1 : take the standard
medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight-2 : assess your own
ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor-3 : if in doubt about fitness to
fly - do not fly!-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty
so as to avoid dehydration
a) 2,3
b) 1,3
c) 1,4
d) 1,2,4
40.3.4.1 (3107)
You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a
meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than
expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you
manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will
a) decide to divert if you think it is necessary.
b) continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
c) divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard
d) see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision
40.3.4.2 (3108)
Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the captain should emphasize
a) particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific
circumstances
b) complete delegation of all duties
c) to depart on schedule
d) to avoid inadequate handling of flight controls
40.3.4.2 (3109)
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check
list?-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts.-2
: The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list.-3 : Check lists
must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other
tasks.-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied-5 : Critical
points should have redundancies.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1, 4 and 5 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 5 are correct
d) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
40.3.4.2 (3110)
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that:
a) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
b) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions
c) their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
d) it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification
40.3.4.2 (3111)
The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:
a) initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or
difficult during the flight
b) define general planning of the flight plan
c) allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation
d) activate a collective mental schema with respect to non-procedural actions to be carried out
40.3.4.2 (3112)
In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 :
know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the
crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and
instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks
and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct
40.3.4.2 (3113)
Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?
a) The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since
attention is usually focused here
b) The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept
near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check
c) The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to
be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane
d) All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance
40.3.4.2 (3114)
Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation?-1 : It allows
for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot.-2 : It represents the
simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew.-3 :
Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and
distributing responsibilities.-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on
temporal and cognitive synchronisation.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1 and 3
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4
40.3.4.2 (3115)
What are the advantages of coordination?
a) Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.
b) Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.
262
c) Interaction, cognition, redundancy. comments
d) Redundancy, exploration, risky shift. b) The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to
keep him informed about his decisions
c) The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do
40.3.4.2 (3116)
d) The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that
Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
needed
a) working parallel to achieve one common objective
b) working parallel to achieve individual objectives
c) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight 40.3.4.3 (3122)
situations Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative
d) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader
a) tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
b) mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice
40.3.4.2 (3117)
and friendly atmosphere within the team
The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the-1 Pilot in Command-2 Co-
c) keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
pilot-3 Navigator-4 Air traffic controllerThe correct statement(s) is (are):
d) decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through
a) 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 40.3.4.3 (3123)
d) 4 Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?
a) The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of
individual team members
40.3.4.2 (3118)
b) To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with
Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
task demands
a) be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in
c) Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual
order to maintain maximum synergy
d) The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team
b) be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the
members
aircraft
c) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
d) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit 40.3.4.3 (3124)
philosophies Informal roles within a crew
a) evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members
b) are explicitely set out by the crew
40.3.4.2 (3119)
c) do not impair the captain's influence
The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related
d) characterize inefficient crews
to :
a) the crew
b) the manufacturer 40.3.4.3 (3125)
c) the number of engines Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient, if all
d) the year of manufacture crew members concerned
a) adapt their management style to meet the situational demands
b) are always task oriented
40.3.4.3 (3120)
c) are always relationship oriented
Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1)
d) always ask the captain what to do
dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication
skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour
a) 2 and 3 40.3.4.3 (3126)
b) 1 and 4 Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal
c) 1 and 3 conflicts?
d) 2 and 4 a) Active listening.
b) Responding with counter-arguments.
c) Staying to the own point of view.
40.3.4.3 (3121)
d) Giving up the own point of view.
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on
the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly
motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate? 40.3.4.3 (3127)
a) The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on
263
a) both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
b) both pilots wearing the same uniform
c) both pilots flying together very often for a long period
d) both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude
40.3.4.3 (3128)
During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a
cigarette in the cockpit. The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a
non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your problem', and continues smoking.
What should the copilot do?
a) He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict
during the debriefing
b) He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in the cockpit
c) He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit and should argue with the
captain about this problem until the conflict is solved
d) He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the captain
40.3.4.3 (3129)
How would you call the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in
a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and
encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the
capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew freedom for own
decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult?
a) Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation
b) High task-orientation and low relationship-orientation
c) High task-orientation and high relationship-orientation
d) Low task-orientation and low relationship-orientation
40.3.4.3 (3130)
If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the captain in an unjustified
way, then he should
a) duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and clear the matter in a
more appropriate occasion
b) freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontation
c) speak up and point at consequencies if unfair behaviour persists
d) internally retire and think positive
40.3.4.3 (3131)
The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,
a) ""person"" and ""goal"" oriented
b) rather ""person"" than ""goal"" oriented
c) neither ""person"" nor ""goal"" oriented
d) rather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented
40.3.4.3 (3132)
Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
a) they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are beeing observed
and admired (e.g. air shows)
b) making decisions independently of others
c) they are not constrained by time
d) making a flight over unfamiliar territory
40.3.4.3 (3133)
What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?-1 The quality
of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of
communications-2 A decrease in the quality of communications-3 In the case of a
crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in a deterioration in relations
between the individuals-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the
flight deckThe correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
40.3.4.3 (3134)
What elements establish synergy within the crew ?
a) Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
b) Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to
debriefing
c) Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members
(communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
d) It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew
40.3.4.3 (3135)
Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?1.
Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew2. There is little
delegating of tasks3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared
purely to the flight4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-
style, which fluctuate between authority and laissez-faire
a) 1,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 2,3
d) 2,4
40.3.4.3 (3136)
Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centered cockpit ?
a) Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his
own thing while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is
being done or what is going on
b) The egocentric personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic cockpit
c) The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes
charge of a situation
d) While decreasing communication, the independence of each member bolsters the crew's
synergy
40.3.4.3 (3137)
What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?
a) Inversion of authority
b) Lack of communication
c) Appearance of agressiveness
d) Disengagement of the co-pilot
264
40.3.4.3 (3138) individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its
What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ? recognition by the group
a) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other b) While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group,
crew members status defines - via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals
b) Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other c) Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the
members about them interactions of a new crew
c) The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation d) Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the
d) The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to interactions of a new crew
tension between the various crew members
40.3.4.3 (3144)
40.3.4.3 (3139) What characterises the notion of role ?
What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co- a) The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
pilot when faced with a highly authoritarian captain ?1. Self-assertion2. A b) Only the functions associated with role
scapegoat feeling3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies4. Disengagement c) The characteristic behaviour associated with the description of the various roles of a
a) 2,3,4 particular status
b) 1,2 d) The hierarchical position of the function and the associated behaviour
c) 3,4
d) 1,3,4
40.3.4.3 (3145)
What is synergy in a crew ?
40.3.4.3 (3140) a) The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which
What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck ? collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual
a) In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, performances
showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect b) A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
b) High group performance despite the strained relations c) The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard
c) A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is inassertive task
d) Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation and d) The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective
efficiency
40.3.4.3 (3146)
40.3.4.3 (3141) Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:
An autocratic cockpit is described by : a) expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt can not
a) The captain's excessive authority cosiderably reduces communications and be rejected on the base of evidence
consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew b) unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions
b) Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to c) abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely
his natural leadership d) the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's synergy
c) Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief
that everyone is aware of what he is doing
40.3.4.3 (3147)
d) The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the various
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
members of the crew
a) decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other
crew members
40.3.4.3 (3142) b) the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
What optimises crew co-operation ?1. Sharing and common task2. Confidence in c) the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
each others capability3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew d) decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
members role members
a) 1,2,3
b) 1
40.3.4.3 (3148)
c) 1,2
An non-synergetic cockpit :
d) 2,3
a) is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication
b) is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately with the outside
40.3.4.3 (3143) c) always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere
What distinguishes status from role ? d) is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally
a) While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by

265
40.3.4.3 (3149) c) is always used intentionally
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is: d) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
a) intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes
towards flight safety and human relationship management
40.3.4.4 (3156)
b) not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'?
c) intended solely to alter an individual's personality,
a) Beeing silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express
d) is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes
a meaning.
b) Each situation requires communication.
40.3.4.4 (3150) c) You cannot influence your own communication.
What does not apply to a constructive and helpful feedback? d) The statement above is a missprint.
a) Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of the receiver
b) It should be individually tailored to the receiver's background
40.3.4.4 (3157)
c) It should be formulated subjectively and personally ('I' instead of 'one')
With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is
d) It should be actual and specify in regard to the concerned situation
correct?
a) All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common
40.3.4.4 (3151) language.
Which statement is correct? b) Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective
a) Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper management of any flight's communication.
their communication process. c) It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the
b) There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents. ICAO.
c) Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety. d) The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official aeronautical
d) Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their language of the destination country.
communication process.
40.3.4.4 (3158)
40.3.4.4 (3152) Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?
What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate implicitly ('between the a) Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language,
lines')? tailored to minimize misunderstandings.
a) Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been misunderstood. b) Professional communication means to exchange information as little as possible.
b) There is no need to make up one's mind before starting to communicate. c) The syntax of communication is of little importance to its success. Only the words uttered
c) The receiver grasps quickly what the sender means. are important.
d) He/she has not to adjust to the communication style of the communication partner. d) Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all circumstances

40.3.4.4 (3153) 40.3.4.4 (3159)

Metacommunication is defined as Which combination of elements guarantee the understanding of a message
a) communicating about the communication without adding new information to it?
b) balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the interlocutor a) Feedback.
c) having an assessment conversation b) Coding.
d) active listening c) Synchronization.
d) Encoding.
40.3.4.4 (3154)
An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following 40.3.4.4 (3160)
rules should a feedback comply with? The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is
a) The feedback should always relate to a specific situation. called
b) The feedback should only be given if requested by the captain. a) feedback
c) The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his behaviour. b) redundancy
d) The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation. c) synchronization
d) transference
40.3.4.4 (3155)
Nonverbal communication 40.3.4.4 (3161)
a) supports verbal communication Which elements of communication are prone to malfunctioning?
b) is of no meaning in the cockpit a) The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding
266
b) Coding and decoding 40.3.4.4 (3167)
c) The sender In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:
d) The receiver a) does not loose its importance
b) will increase as a result of the increase of technical dissemination of information
c) will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about by technical improvements
40.3.4.4 (3162)
d) are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the increased availability wich
Discussing private matters in the cockpit
results from technical lightening of the workload
a) can improve team spirit
b) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
c) is appropriate in any phase of flight 40.3.4.4 (3168)
d) decreases the captains role of leadership What are the communication qualities of a good briefing?A good briefing must:-1 :
contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible.-2 : be of a
standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type.-3 : be
40.3.4.4 (3163)
short and precise.-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).The correct
With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:
statement(s) is (are):
a) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct
in progress
b) 1 and 2 are correct
b) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload
c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
element to be carried out at the same time
d) 1 and 4 are correct
c) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit
their number
d) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are 40.3.4.4 (3169)
stable and are not much affected by changes in workload Of the following statements, select those which apply to ""information"".-1 : It is
said to be random when it is not intended for receivers.-2 : It is intended to reduce
uncertainty for the receiver.-3 : It is measured in bits.-4 : Each bit of information
40.3.4.4 (3164)
reduces uncertainty by a quarter.The correct statement(s) is (are):
The intended recipient of a message must:-1 : give priority and adapt to the
a) 2 and 3 are correct
sender's situation.-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt.-3 : be able to
b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
reject or postpone a communication attempt if the pilot is too busy.-4 : stabilize or
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct
finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion.The combination of
d) only 1 is correct
correct statements is:
a) 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 4 are correct 40.3.4.4 (3170)
c) 1 and 2 are correct Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:
d) 2 and 3 are correct a) the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
b) differences in contexts for the sender and the receiver
c) a form of the message, which should not match the expectation of the receiver
40.3.4.4 (3165)
d) different codes between form and meaning
Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural
backgrounds might be seen in connection with:-1 : the variations of technical
training and skills.-2 : communication problems.-3 : conflicting ways of 40.3.4.4 (3171)
management.-4 : interpersonal problems.The combination of correct statements is: In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to: -1 : avoid the
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels.-2 : send information in line
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct with the receiver's decoding abilities.-3 : always concentrate on the informational
c) only 1 is correct aspects of the message only.-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication
d) 2 and 3 are correct channels, in order to simplify communication.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) only 2 is correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
40.3.4.4 (3166)
c) 3 and 4 are correct
The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:
d) 2 and 4 are correct
a) facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication
on the flight deck
b) considerably improved all the communication facilities of the crew 40.3.4.4 (3172)
c) reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in interpersonal relations Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are
d) improved man-machine communication as a result of flight sensations correct?-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she tends to reduce
verbal redundancy content of his sentences-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native

267
tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more complicated b) Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional
words so as to optimize understanding-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he party if it is to be effective
tends to simplify the content of sentences-4 Simplification of check list in a crew c) Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of involved
who know each other essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal parties
conflictThe correct statement(s) is (are): d) The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities of
a) 1 and 3 are correct one of the involved parties
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
40.3.5.0 (3178)
d) 3 and 4 are correct
With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said
that age:
40.3.4.4 (3173) a) has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight
Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example: -1 : They use a experience
limited vocabulary .-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes b) sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive capabilities
lead to ambiguities.-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.-4 : c) has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory
Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk of ambiguities.The correct d) increases in impact as speed of thought and memory deteriorate
statement(s) is (are):
a) 1 and 4 are correct
40.3.5.1 (3179)
b) 1 and 3 are correct
Attitudes are defined as:
c) 2 and 3 are correct
a) tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or
d) only 4 is correct
negatively
b) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
40.3.4.4 (3174) c) the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting
A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with d) a synonym for behaviour
ground-to-crew communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason
for disturbances in the correct reception of a message?
40.3.5.1 (3180)
a) Listening errors.
Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high
b) Errors in understanding clearance values.
workload conditions in the cockpit?
c) Radio failure.
a) Mentally absent.
d) Mother tongue differing from working language.
b) Sensitive.
c) Disciplined.
40.3.4.4 (3175) d) Jovial.
An increase in workload usually leads to:
a) a shorter and less frequent exchange of information
40.3.5.1 (3181)
b) a longer and less frequent exchange of information
Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
c) a shorter and more frequent exchange of information
a) Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an
d) a longer and more frequent exchange of information
object or a situation
b) form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an adult
40.3.4.4 (3176) c) are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated
Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to conflicts ?1. Seeking with them
arbitration2. Actively listening to other people3. Abandoning facts so as to move d) are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
the conversation to a more emotional level4. Becoming aware of cultural
influences
40.3.5.1 (3182)
a) 1,2,4
Which of the following elements make up the personality of an individual ?1.
b) 1,2,3
Heredity2. Childhood environment3. Upbringing4. Past experience
c) 2,3,4
a) 1,2,3,4
d) 2,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3
40.3.4.4 (3177) d) 2,3,4
Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct ?
a) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding
40.3.5.1 (3183)
an acceptable collective solution
The effectiveness of the individual depends on:
268
a) the ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs and the demands of c) approximately exponential
reality d) approximately sinusoidal
b) the ability to repress the dictates of needs
c) the ability to go beyond one's own capabilities
40.3.6.1 (3190)
d) the total independence with respect to the environment
In a complex task high levels of arousal
a) narrow the span of attention
40.3.5.2 (3184) b) improve performance
Very high ambition and need for achievement c) lead to better decision-making
a) disturbe the climate of cooperation d) reduce failures
b) fulfil the requirements of stress resistance
c) always promote teamwork
40.3.6.1 (3191)
d) improves the coping process with personal failures
A high level of motivation is related
a) to high levels of arousal
40.3.5.2 (3185) b) to high levels of intelligence
Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making c) to complacency
most effective? d) to monotony states
a) Assertiveness.
b) Competitiveness.
40.3.6.1 (3192)
c) General intelligence.
If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of ""optimum arousal"" he/she will
d) Friendliness.
be:
a) prepared best to cope with a difficult task
40.3.5.2 (3186) b) unprepared to handle a difficult situation
A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which c) approaching a condition of complacency or fatigue
psychological consequence is most likely? d) in a confused mental state
a) His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which
have to be incorporated.
40.3.6.1 (3193)
b) His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.
Please check the following statements:1. A stressor causes activation 2. Activation
c) The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.
stimulates a person to cope with it
d) An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological consequences.
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
40.3.5.3 (3187) c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought d) 1 and 2 are both not correct
patterns (attitudes) for pilots to develop?
a) Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerabilty, resignation, machismo complex
40.3.6.1 (3194)
b) Invulnerability, underconfidence, avoidance of making decisions, lack of situational
An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive
awareness
sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:
c) Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self critcism
a) the arousal level of both pilots will be raised
d) Resignation, confidence, inattention
b) both pilots will loose their motor-coordination
c) both pilots will experience the same amount of stress
40.3.5.3 (3188) d) the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to
Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude? what may happen
a) Domination
b) Macho
40.3.6.2 (3195)
c) Anti-authority
What are easily observable indications of stress?
d) Impulsivity
a) Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
b) Lowering of the blood pressure.
40.3.6.1 (3189) c) Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
The relationship between arousal and flying performance is d) Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.
a) approximately the form of an inverted U
b) approximately linear increasing

269
40.3.6.2 (3196) 40.3.6.2 (3202)
Which of the following statements is true? What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?-1 :
a) Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhaustion. increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.-2 : an increase in heart
b) Stressors are independent from each other. rate, respiration and release of glucose.-3 : a decrease in stress resistance.-4 :
c) Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances. activation of the digestive system.-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize
d) People are capable of living without stress. attention.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2
40.3.6.2 (3197)
c) 2,4,5
How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?
d) 1,3,5
a) Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the entire
body and improves wellness.
b) Use moderate administration of tranquillizers before flight. 40.3.6.2 (3203)
c) Ignore the particular stressors and increase your physical exercises. What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome ?
d) Always consult a psychotherapist before the next flight. a) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
b) Alert, resistance, performance.
c) alarm, resistance, performance,
40.3.6.2 (3198)
d) alert, resistance, exhaustion
In case of in-flight stress, one should :
a) use all available resources of the crew
b) only trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limits 40.3.6.2 (3204)
c) demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew The organism is mobilized by a process known as:
d) always carry out a breathing exercise a) GAS : General Adaptation Syndrome
b) NAS : Natural Adaptation Syndrome
c) GMS : General Mobilization Syndrome.
40.3.6.2 (3199)
d) GAF : General Adaptation Function.
The behavioural effects of stress may include :-1 : manifestation of
aggressiveness.-2 : a willingness to improve communication.-3 : a willingness for
group cohesion.-4 : a tendency to withdrawl.-5 : inappropriate gestural 40.3.6.2 (3205)
agitation.The combination of correct statements is : What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
a) 1,4 and 5 are correct a) The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
b) 1 and 4 are correct b) The time available to cope with the situation.
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct c) The objective threat of the situation.
d) 2,4 and 5 are correct d) The unexpected outcome of the situation.

40.3.6.2 (3200) 40.3.6.2 (3206)

The cognitive effects of stress may include :-1 : excessive haste.-2 : an Stress appears:-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.-2 : only when faced
improvement in memory.-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.-4 : a risk of with real, existing and palpable phenomenon.-3 : sometimes via imagination, the
focusing on a particular aspect.-5 : ease of decision-making.-6 : an increase in the anticipation of a situation or its outcome.-4 : because of the similarity with a
rate of mistakes.The combination which brings together all correct statements is : formerly experienced stressful situationThe correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1,3,4,6 a) 3,4
b) 1,2,5 b) 1,2
c) 2,3,5,6 c) 2, 3
d) 3,4,5 d) 1,2,4

40.3.6.2 (3201) 40.3.6.2 (3207)

What is the effect of stress on performance ?-1 : It always reduces Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:
performance.-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal.-3 : a) the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it
Excessive stress weakens performance.-4 : Insufficient stress weakens b) the evaluation of the situation and the the state of fatigue of the individual
performance.The combination of correct statements is: c) the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available
a) 2,3,4 d) the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,3,4
40.3.6.2 (3208)
d) 1,2,4
Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?-1 : noise.-2 :
270
interpersonnal conflict.-3 : temperature.-4 : administrative problem.-5 : 40.3.6.2 (3214)
hunger.The combination of correct statements is: What triggers stress in humans?
a) 1,3,5 a) The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
b) 1,3,4 b) Objective stimulation from the environment regards of subjective perceptions
c) 3,4,5 c) Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the smell of smoke
d) 2,3,5 d) Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation (e. g. rapide heart rate)

40.3.6.2 (3209) 40.3.6.2 (3215)

Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct? In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human beings, which of the following
a) Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or responses is correct?
reduces performance. a) ´Stress´is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon
b) Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural him/her.
performance. b) All forms of stress should be avoided.
c) Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind c) Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilot´s physical condition.
encountered in aeronautics d) Self imposed obligations will not create stress.
d) Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.
40.3.6.2 (3216)
40.3.6.2 (3210) Workload essentially depends on:
Acute stress quickly leads to a) the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system
a) the mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor b) the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system
b) a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the situation c) the pilot's knowledge
c) a permanent state of incapacitation d) the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc)
d) a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower
40.3.6.2 (3217)
40.3.6.2 (3211) Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?
The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized by:-1 : activation of the a) Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit
autonomic nervous system (ANS).-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to attention management capabilities
be converted into sugar.-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.-4 : the appearance b) Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention
of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time.The combination of c) Motivation will reduce the task automation process
correct statements is: d) Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities
a) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
40.3.6.2 (3218)
c) 2 , 3 and 4 are correct
What are the effects of distress (overstress) ?
d) 3 and 4 are correct
a) It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus
attention
40.3.6.2 (3212) b) It reduces vigilance and focusses attention
Stress may be defined as: c) It activates resources stored in memory
a) a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered d) It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention
situations
b) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities
40.3.6.2 (3219)
c) a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalities
Pilot stress reactions :
d) a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate
a) differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular
stressors
40.3.6.2 (3213) b) seem to be always the same for most pilots
What is a stressor? c) are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors where the top-ten items should
a) An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as beeing be avoided by all means
stressful d) do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with the characters
b) All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the internal equilibrium themselves
c) A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
d) The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
40.3.6.2 (3220)
Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when :
271
a) stress is high 40.3.6.2 (3227)
b) stress is medium Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurence of various stressors. Of
c) stress and motivation are medium these, which can be called physiological ?
d) stress and motivation are low a) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
b) Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
c) Heat, humidity, fatique, administrative problems
40.3.6.2 (3221)
d) Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called :
a) Homeostasis
b) Heterostasis 40.3.6.2 (3228)
c) Homeothermy General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases :-1 :
d) Poikilothermy alarm-2 : alert phase-3 : resistance phase-4 : exhaustion phase-5 : vigilance phase
a) 1,3,4
b) 2,3,4
40.3.6.2 (3222)
c) 1,2,4,5
A stress reaction is:
d) 2,3,4,5
a) the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
b) the specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
c) the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond 40.3.6.2 (3229)
d) the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
a) distress (stress reactions)
b) coping stress
40.3.6.2 (3223)
c) eustress
Stress is above all :
d) stressors
a) the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the
various situation which he may have to face
b) a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control 40.3.6.2 (3230)
c) a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his Getting uneasy will effect:1. attention2. concentration 3. memory 4. prudence
performance a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) a phenomenon which is specific to modern man b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
40.3.6.2 (3224)
Experiencing stress depends on:
a) the individual interpretation of the situation 40.3.6.2 (3231)
b) the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This
c) the individual's state of tiredness mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the ""General
d) the environment of the situation which the individual will live through or is in the process of Adaptation Syndrome"". The sequence is:
living through a) alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase
b) alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phase
c) exhaustion phase - resistance phase - adaptation phase
40.3.6.2 (3225)
d) resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase
Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation.This reaction
a) may include various psychological and physiological elements which one can
learn to manage 40.3.6.2 (3232)
b) is always linked to excessive fear According to the different phases of the ""General Adaptation Syndrom"" check the
c) can only be controlled by medical treatment following statements:1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin)
d) is purely physiological and automatic will cause a massiv release of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and
blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing2. During
the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone
40.3.6.2 (3226)
(cortisol) assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply
The individual's perception of stress depends on:
to the brain and body cells for sustained operation.3. During the exhaustion phase
a) the subjectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have been
b) the objectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
generated excessively during the two preceeding phases,
c) the pilot's increasing level of arousal
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) the conditions of the current situation only
b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false

272
c) only 1 is correct a) will show signs of increased irritability
d) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false b) is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
c) will get precordial pain
d) considerably increases the ability to concentrate
40.3.6.2 (3233)
1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful
situation. 2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope 40.3.6.3 (3239)
with it will determine the type and strength of stress. What is the effect of tiredness on attention ?
a) 1 and 2 are both correct a) It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters
b) 1 is correct, 2 is false b) It increases the ability to manage multiple matters
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct c) It leads to one's attention being dispersed between different centres of interest
d) 1 and 2 are both false d) It has no specific effects on attention

40.3.6.2 (3234) 40.3.6.3 (3240)

Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct ?
experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are:1. nervousness and a) Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor
chanellized attention2. being rough at the controls3. smoke and drink much more management of intellectual capabilities
alcohol than usual4. airsickness, lack of sleep b) Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload
a) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false c) Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of performance
b) 1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct, d) Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a reduction in attention
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false capabilities
d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
40.3.6.4 (3241)
40.3.6.2 (3235) In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian
The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful rhythms require
a) depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the a) less time when flying from east to west
situational demands b) more time when flying from east to west
b) does not depend on his capacity to absorb information c) about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift
c) depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational d) about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift
demands
d) depends on self-confidence alone
40.3.6.4 (3242)
Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time
40.3.6.2 (3236) measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3. day?
Please check the following statements:1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or a) LT (local time).
emotional stressors can be manifested in organic stress reactions.2. Psychosomatic b) MEZ (middle european time).
means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress. c) ZT (zonal time).
a) 1 is correct, 2 is false d) UTC (universal time coordinated).
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct
40.3.6.4 (3243)
d) 1 and 2 are both false
The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally more
difficult
40.3.6.2 (3237) a) with flights towards the East
1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is followed by psychological b) with flights towards the West
stress. 2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because c) with flights towards the North
of the strict selection for this particular profession . d) with flights towards the South
a) 1 and 2 are both not correct
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
40.3.6.4 (3244)
c) 1 is correct 2 is not correct
During paradoxical sleep
d) 1 is not correct 2 is correct
a) rapid eye movements can be observed
b) the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state
40.3.6.3 (3238) c) respiration is very regular
A fatigued pilot d) the rhythm of the heart is very regular
273
40.3.6.4 (3245) a) It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron
The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this energy reserves
new time zone at a rate of about b) It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatigue
a) 1 - 1.5 hours a day c) Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and restoration of attention
b) 2 - 2.5 hours a day capabilities
c) 3 - 3.5 hours a day d) Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and paradoxical
d) 4 - 4.5 hours a day phases

40.3.6.4 (3246) 40.3.6.4 (3251)

The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance ?
a) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep a) It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory
b) the duration of your previous sleep illusions and mood disorders
c) the amount of time you have been awake b) It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by
d) the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system muscular relaxation,
c) It causes muscular spasms
d) It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours
40.3.6.4 (3247)
Of the following statements concerning the effects of circadian rhythms on
performance, we know that : 40.3.6.4 (3252)
a) Sensorimotor performance is better in the evening whereas intellectual The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:
performance is better in the morning a) 24 hours
b) Sensorimotor performance is better in the morning whereas intellectual performance is b) 1.5 hours
better in the evening c) 12 hours
c) Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the morning and are sensitive to d) 48 hours
the duration of the sleep state
d) Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the evening and very sensitive to
40.3.6.4 (3253)
the duration of the waking period
Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:1. bad night's sleep 2. day flight
Amsterdam - New York 3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg4. night flight New
40.3.6.4 (3248) York - Amsterdam
In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a a) 2 and 4 are correct
layover more than 24 hrs, it is advisable to :1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
rhythm of the arrival country2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure c) 1 and 3 are correct
country for as long as possible3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
alternation and regular meal pattern )4. Try to sleep as much as possible to
overcome negative arousal effects
40.3.6.4 (3254)
a) 2,3
Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns 1. can lead to symptoms of
b) 1,3
drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration2. will make an individual more
c) 2,4
prone to make errors
d) 1,4
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
40.3.6.4 (3249) c) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to d) 1 and 2 are both not correct
destination time :1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights2. are longer
for eastern rather than western flights3. vary little between individuals4. may vary
40.3.6.4 (3255)
greatly between individuals
Check the following statements:1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to
a) 2,4
be aware of personal performance degradation2. Performance loss may be present
b) 1,3
up to 20 minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)
c) 1,4
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
d) 2,3
b) 1 is correct 2 is false
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct
40.3.6.4 (3250) d) 1 and 2 are both false
What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ?

274
40.3.6.4 (3256) c) hypoxia
The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's sleep.1. Each succeeding d) eustress
cycle contains a greater amount of REM- sleep.2. Frequent interruption of the REM-
sleep can harm a human being in the long run.
40.3.7.0 (3263)
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
The performance of the man machine system is above all :
b) 1 is correct 2 is not correct
a) a combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's workload and increasing
c) 1 is not correct 2 is correct
his time for supervision
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct
b) a balanced combination between someone actively engaged in his work and automated
systems which serve to control the pilot's workload
40.3.6.4 (3257) c) a combination which must make the pilot available for the sphere in which he is most
1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.2. qualified, namely checking departures from the normal operating range
REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental and physical functions d) a combination in which the pilot must keep the main repetitive tasks and automated
than all the other sleep stages are. systems under his control in line with rule-based behaviour
a) 1 is not correct 2 is correct
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
40.3.7.1 (3264)
c) 1 is correct 2 is not correct
Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic
d) 1 and 2 are false
systems than by people ?1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon2. Long term
controlling of a set value (e.g holding of trajectory) 3. Monitoring to ensure that
40.3.6.5 (3258) certain values are not exceeded (e.g holding of flight path) 4. Qualitative decision-
Stress management programmes usually involve: making
a) the prevention and/or the removal of stress a) 1,2,3
b) only the removal of stress b) 2,4
c) only the prevention of stress c) 3,4
d) the use of psychoactive drugs d) 2,3,4

40.3.6.5 (3259) 40.3.7.1 (3265)

Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation ?1. Reduced
a) safety, because the concentration on the check list items will draw the pilot´s competence in manually controlling the aircraft2. Increased likelihood of slips
attention to flight related tasks, reducing distraction from personal stress while programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a
b) stress, because time pressure prior take-off is always present sidestick4. General decrease in technical reliability
c) workload, because using checklists will increase the pilot´s workload prior take-off a) 1,2
d) frustration b) 1,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,3
40.3.6.5 (3260)
The human performance is generally
a) better when relaxed, independent of the period of day 40.3.7.1 (3266)
b) better very early in the morning Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than
c) always better in the evening than in the morning by automatic systems ?1. Qualitative decision-making2. Waiting for an infrequent
d) constant throughout the day phenomenon3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded4.
Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)
a) 1,4
40.3.6.5 (3261)
b) 1,2
What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?
c) 3,4
a) The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
d) 2,3,4
b) The preparation of action and time management
c) The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
d) The preparation of action and the application of procedures 40.3.7.1 (3267)
If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man :
a) has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of
40.3.6.5 (3262)
considerable synergy
If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
b) has less effective means of action (output) than the computer
a) distress
c) has less effective means of data collection than the computer
b) adaptation
275
d) is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of data collection or means of c) 11 km
action are referred to d) 40 km

40.3.7.2 (3268) 50.1.1.1 (3274)

How can a pilot avoid automation complacency? In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity concentrated ?
a) Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be a) Troposphere.
crosschecked as well b) Tropopause.
b) Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods c) Stratosphere.
c) Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-machine loop d) Stratopause.
d) Nothing, because it is system-inherent
50.1.1.1 (3275)
40.3.7.2 (3269) What is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere called?
A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in a) Tropopause.
a way, that b) Ionosphere.
a) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of c) Stratosphere.
'being out of the loop' d) Atmosphere.
b) it is guaranteed that the crew maqintains always situational awareness
c) Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromizing safety
50.1.1.1 (3276)
d) the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal situation without
Which of the following cloud types can project up into the stratosphere?
monitoring the automatic systems
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Cirrostratus
40.3.7.2 (3270) c) Altocumulus
One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in : d) Altostratus
a) complacency among the crewmembers
b) pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
50.1.1.1 (3277)
c) constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasks
Which one of the following statements applies to the tropopause?
d) less experienced crews because of more transparent system details
a) It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
b) It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
40.3.7.3 (3271) c) It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate
As a result of automation in cockpits, d) It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
a) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of
the crew members
50.1.1.1 (3278)
b) man-man communication has been significantly improved
Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 per cent of all water vapour?
c) coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more precise and more
a) Troposphere
important information
b) Lower stratosphere
d) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine
c) Upper stratosphere
relations
d) Ionosphere

50.1.1.1 (3272)
50.1.1.1 (3279)
How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern
The thickness of the troposphere varies with
hemisphere ?
a) latitude
a) It decreases from south to north.
b) longitude
b) It remains constant from north to south.
c) rotation of the earth
c) It increases from south to north.
d) the wind
d) It remains constant throughout the year.

50.1.1.1 (3280)
50.1.1.1 (3273)
What is the approximate composition of the dry air by volume in the troposphere ?
What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
a) 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
a) 16 km
b) 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
b) 8 km

276
c) 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses c) 8 km and - 75°C over the poles
d) 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses d) 16 km and -40°C over the poles

50.1.1.1 (3281) 50.1.1.1 (3288)

Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an average from
a) decreases and its temperature increases a) 11 to 50 km
b) increases and its temperature increases b) 0 to 11 km
c) increases and its temperature decreases c) 50 to 85 km
d) decreases and its temperature decreases d) 85 to more than 200 km

50.1.1.1 (3282) 50.1.2.1 (3289)

The troposphere The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the temperature be at FL 110 if the
a) has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ?
b) contains all oxygen of the stratosphere a) -6°C.
c) is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere b) -18°C.
d) reaches the same height at all latitudes c) -9°C.
d) -15°C.
50.1.1.1 (3283)
The troposphere is the 50.1.2.1 (3290)
a) part of the atmosphere below the tropopause At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to
b) part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere the tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
c) boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere temperature at FL 350 ?
d) boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere a) -54°C.
b) -50°C.
c) -56,5°C.
50.1.1.1 (3284)
d) -58°C.
The tropopause is a level at which
a) temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
b) water vapour content is greatest 50.1.2.1 (3291)
c) pressure remains constant An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is
d) vertical currents are strongest the temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) 10°C colder than ISA.
b) 10°C warmer than ISA.
50.1.1.1 (3285)
c) 5°C warmer than ISA.
The tropopause is lower
d) 5°C colder than ISA.
a) over the North Pole than over the equator
b) in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
c) south of the equator than north of it 50.1.2.1 (3292)
d) over the equator than over the South Pole What is the most likely temperature at the tropical tropopause?
a) -75°C.
b) -55°C.
50.1.1.1 (3286)
c) -35°C.
The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about
d) -25°C.
a) 11 km
b) 8 km
c) 14 km 50.1.2.1 (3293)
d) 16 km The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL would you expect a
temperature of -6° C?
a) FL 80
50.1.1.1 (3287)
b) FL 20
The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
c) FL 100
a) 16 km and -75°C over the equator
d) FL 110
b) 8 km and -40°C over the equator

277
50.1.2.1 (3294) western Europe?
The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the temperature be at FL 130 if the a) Within +/-5°C of ISA
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? b) High
a) -4°C c) Low
b) -6°C d) Very high
c) 0°C
d) +2°C
50.1.2.1 (3301)
In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature
50.1.2.1 (3295) a) is almost constant
The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the temperature be at FL 50 if the b) decreases with altitude
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? c) increases with altitude
a) +7°C d) increases at first and decreases afterward
b) +3°C
c) 0°C
50.1.2.1 (3302)
d) -3°C
Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
a) It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
50.1.2.1 (3296) b) It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the temperature be at FL 90 if the c) It is highest in middle latitudes
ICAO standard lapse rate is applied ? d) There is no significant difference with change of latitude
a) -8°C
b) -4°C
50.1.2.2 (3303)
c) 0°C
Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. Which of the
d) +4°C
following contribute the most ?
a) Convection and condensation.
50.1.2.1 (3297) b) Solar radiation and conduction.
A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500 metres above sea level. If c) Absorption and vaporization.
the vertical temperature gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the d) Absorption and evaporation.
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500 metres above sea level?
a) +2°C
50.1.2.2 (3304)
b) +4°C
Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in
c) 0°C
a) summer in the afternoon.
d) -2°C
b) winter during the night and early morning.
c) summer during the night and early morning.
50.1.2.1 (3298) d) winter in the afternoon.
How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C at the 700 hPa level over
western Europe?
50.1.2.2 (3305)
a) Low
Advection is :
b) High
a) horizontal motion of air
c) Within +/-5°C of ISA
b) vertical motion of air
d) 20°C below standard
c) the same as subsidence
d) the same as convection
50.1.2.1 (3299)
How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C at the 300 hPa level over
50.1.2.2 (3306)
western Europe?
The radiation of the sun heats
a) High
a) the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the troposphere
b) Within +/-5°C of ISA
b) the air in the troposphere directly
c) Low
c) the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
d) Very low
d) the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are present

50.1.2.1 (3300)
How would you characterise an air temperature of -55°C at the 200 hPa level over
278
50.1.2.3 (3307)
A layer is conditionally unstable if the air
a) is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.
b) is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.
c) becomes stable by lifting it.
d) is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.
50.1.2.3 (3314)
When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected the
a) stability increases in the layer
b) stability decreases in the layer
c) wind will back with increasing height in the northern hemisphere
d) wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in the northern hemisphere

50.1.2.3 (3308) 50.1.2.3 (3315)

Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental lapse rate An inversion is a layer of air which is
a) exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate. a) absolutely stable
b) exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. b) absolutely unstable
c) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. c) conditionally unstable
d) is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. d) conditionally stable

50.1.2.3 (3309) 50.1.2.3 (3316)

In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is 15°C and 13°C at 1000m. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere
This layer of air is: a) varies with time
a) stable b) has a fixed value of 1°C/100m
b) unstable c) has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m
c) a layer of heavy turbulence d) has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT
d) conditionally unstable
50.1.2.3 (3317)
50.1.2.3 (3310) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of
The dry adiabatic lapse rate a) 1°C/100m
a) has a constant fixed value b) 2°C/1000FT
b) is greater in summer than in winter c) 0.65°C/100m
c) is greater during the night than during the day d) 0.5°C/100m
d) has a variable value
50.1.2.3 (3318)
50.1.2.3 (3311) In still air the temperature decreases at an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in
An air mass is called stable when altitude. This temperature change is called:
a) the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and disappears a) environmental lapse rate
b) the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with height b) saturated adiabatic lapse rate
c) the pressure in a given area is constant c) dry adiabatic lapse rate
d) the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion of air currents d) normal lapse rate

50.1.2.3 (3312) 50.1.2.3 (3319)

A layer can be The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest to that of the dry
a) stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air adiabatic lapse rate in
b) stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air a) cirrus
c) unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air b) freezing fog
d) unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable c) stratus
d) cumulus
50.1.2.3 (3313)
From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the 50.1.2.4 (3320)
atmosphere be derived? Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature
a) Environmental lapse rate inversion ?
b) Surface temperature a) Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.
c) Dry adiabatic lapse rate b) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
d) Pressure at the surface c) The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.
d) Heating of the air by subsidence
279
50.1.2.4 (3321) 50.1.2.5 (3328)
Which of the following is a common result of subsidence ? The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the sky is
a) An inversion over a large area with haze, mist. a) clear and winds are weak
b) CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area. b) clear and winds are strong
c) Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation. c) overcast and winds are weak
d) Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes . d) overcast and winds are strong

50.1.2.4 (3322) 50.1.2.5 (3329)

What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude? Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface temperature, under shelter,
a) Inversion is 3°C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is
b) Subsidence covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3rd to January
c) Adiabatic 4th should be
d) Advection a) slightly below +3°C.
b) significantly below 0°C.
c) slightly above +3°C.
50.1.2.4 (3323)
d) significantly above +3°C.
What characteristic is associated with a temperature inversion ?
a) Stability
b) Instability 50.1.2.5 (3330)
c) Clear ice On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm, the minimum temperature
d) Area of active storms is reached approximately
a) half an hour after sunrise
b) half an hour before sunrise
50.1.2.4 (3324)
c) at the moment the sun rises
A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of
d) one hour before sunrise
a) nocturnal radiation
b) the passage of cold front
c) advection fog 50.1.3.1 (3331)
d) cumulus clouds What positions are connected by isobars on the surface weather chart?
a) Positions with the same air pressure at a given level
b) Positions with the same temperature at a given level
50.1.2.4 (3325)
c) Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature
d) Positions with the same relative pressure heights
a) increases with height
b) remains constant with height
c) increases with height more than 1°C/100m 50.1.3.1 (3332)
d) decreases with height more than 1°C/100m The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
a) QFF
b) QFE
50.1.2.4 (3326)
c) QNH
An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the temperature
d) QNE
a) remains constant with height
b) increases with height
c) decreases with height at a constant rate 50.1.3.1 (3333)
d) increases with height at a constant rate The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
a) reduced to sea level
b) at flight level
50.1.2.4 (3327)
c) at height of observatory
An inversion is
d) at a determined density altitude
a) an increase of temperature with height
b) an increase of pressure with height
c) a decrease of pressure with height 50.1.3.1 (3334)
d) a decrease of temperature with height Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal
a) QFF
b) QFE

280
c) QNE a) Elevation of the airfield.
d) QNH b) Temperature at the airfield.
c) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
d) Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
50.1.3.1 (3335)
(For this question use annex 050-10850A)The pressure distribution located mainly
in square 2A is a 50.1.3.3 (3342)
a) ridge of high pressure The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air
b) col temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
c) trough of low pressure a) More than 1016 hPa
d) depression b) 1016 hPa
c) Less than 1016 hPa
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
50.1.3.1 (3336)
(For this question use annex 050-10784A)The pressure system at position ""D"" is
a 50.1.3.3 (3343)
a) col The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air
b) secondary low temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
c) trough of low pressure a) Less than 1016 hPa
d) ridge of high pressure b) More than 1016 hPa
c) 1016 hPa
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
50.1.3.2 (3337)
In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m increase in height
a) is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels. 50.1.3.3 (3344)
b) remains constant at all levels. The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1009 hPa. The air
c) is greater at higher levels than at lower levels. temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
d) is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL. a) More than 1009 hPa
b) 1009 hPa
c) Less than 1009 hPa
50.1.3.2 (3338)
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal to a pressure change of 1
hPa at an altitude of 5500 m ?
a) 15 m (50 FT). 50.1.3.3 (3345)
b) 8 m (27 FT). The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
c) 32 m (105 FT). temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
d) 64 m (210 FT). a) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
b) More than 1022 hPa
c) 1022 hPa
50.1.3.2 (3339)
d) Less than 1022 hPa
Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric pressure ?
a) It decreases with height
b) It is higher in winter than in summer 50.1.3.3 (3346)
c) It is higher at night than during the day The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level is 1022 hPa. The air
d) It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m temperature is not available. What is the QFF?
a) 1022 hPa
b) Less than 1022 hPa
50.1.3.2 (3340)
c) More than 1022 hPa
An isohypse (contour)
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer
a) indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
b) is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
c) is the limit between two air masses of different temperature 50.1.3.3 (3347)
d) indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1018 hPa.
The air temperature is 10°C higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
a) More than 1018 hPa
50.1.3.3 (3341)
b) Less than 1018 hPa
In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the following must be known ?

281
c) 1018 hPa 50.1.3.3 (3354)
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following item(s) must be known ?
a) Elevation of the airfield
b) Temperature at the airfield
50.1.3.3 (3348)
c) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres below sea level is 1030 hPa.
d) Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
The air temperature is 10°C lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
a) More than 1030 hPa
b) Less than 1030 hPa 50.1.4.1 (3355)
c) 1030 hPa At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at this level is:
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer a) Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
b) Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
c) Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
50.1.3.3 (3349)
d) Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH ?
a) 1005 hPa 50.1.4.1 (3356)
b) 1000 hPa Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
c) 1015 hPa altitude ?
d) 1010 hPa a) At standard temperature.
b) At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
c) When the altimeter has no position error.
50.1.3.3 (3350)
d) When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1000 hPa, what is the
approximate QNH?
a) 1025 hPa 50.1.4.1 (3357)
b) 985 hPa Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first
c) 990 hPa a) 5 km
d) 1035 hPa b) 3 km
c) 8 km
d) 11 km
50.1.3.3 (3351)
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1015 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE?(Assume 1hPa = 8m) 50.1.5.1 (3358)
a) 990 hPa The lowest assumed temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
b) 995 hPa is :
c) 1000 hPa a) -56.5°C
d) 1005 hPa b) -273°C
c) -44.7°C
d) -100°C
50.1.3.3 (3352)
If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 1025 hPa, what is the
approximate QFE? 50.1.5.1 (3359)
a) 1000 hPa A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of
b) 995 hPa the following average heights is applicable ?
c) 1005 hPa a) FL 390.
d) 1025 hPa b) FL 300.
c) FL 100.
d) FL 50.
50.1.3.3 (3353)
QNH is defined as
a) QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard atmosphere 50.1.5.1 (3360)
b) pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
c) pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere following average heights is applicable ?
d) QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual atmosphere a) FL 300
b) FL 390

282
c) FL 100 50.1.5.1 (3367)
d) FL 50 How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in the ICAO standard
atmosphere below the tropopause?
a) Decreases
50.1.5.1 (3361)
b) Increases
A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
c) At first it increases and higher up it decreases
following average heights is applicable ?
d) Remains constant
a) FL 180
b) FL 160
c) FL 100 50.1.5.1 (3368)
d) FL 390 What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, in the standard ICAO
atmosphere ?
a) 6.5°C per 1000 m
50.1.5.1 (3362)
b) 4.5°C per 1000 m
A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
c) 3°C per 1000 m
following average heights is applicable ?
d) 2°C per 1000 m
a) FL 100
b) FL 180
c) FL 300 50.1.5.1 (3369)
d) FL 390 In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease in temperature with height
below 11 km is
a) 0.65°C per 100m
50.1.5.1 (3363)
b) 1°C per 100m
A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In temperate regions which of the
c) 0.5°C per 100m
following average heights is applicable ?
d) 0.6°C per 100m
a) FL 50
b) FL100
c) FL 300 50.1.5.1 (3370)
d) FL 390 Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere ?
a) At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
b) At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
50.1.5.1 (3364)
c) At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C warmer than a standard
d) At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of temperature with height is 1°C per
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
100m
a) -30°C
b) -45°C
c) -60°C 50.1.5.1 (3371)
d) -15°C In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340 situated?
a) 300 - 200 hPa
b) 400 - 300 hPa
50.1.5.1 (3365)
c) 500 - 400 hPa
If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard
d) 600 - 500 hPa
atmosphere, what is the outside temperature likely to be?
a) +5°C
b) +15°C 50.1.5.1 (3372)
c) -10°C The temperature at 10000 FT in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
d) -15°C a) -5°C
b) 0°C
c) -20°C
50.1.5.1 (3366)
d) -35°C
If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature is -2°C, at what altitude
will the ""freezing level"" be?
a) FL 110 50.1.5.1 (3373)
b) FL 130 The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100 m in the International
c) FL 150 Standard Atmosphere is :
d) FL 90 a) 0.65°C
b) 1°C
283
c) 0.5°C (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences no change to true altitude. The reason for this is
d) variable that :
a) the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
b) the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
50.1.6.1 (3374)
c) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the temperature deviation from
d) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
ISA is -15°C below FL 100.What is the true altitude of FL 100?
a) 8590 FT.
b) 10210 FT. 50.1.6.1 (3380)
c) 9790 FT. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de
d) 11410 FT. Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa), the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if
any, should be taken ?
a) None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma is warmer than the
50.1.6.1 (3375)
air around Marseille
You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude of 15000 FT/AMSL. The
b) Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are obviously wrong
air is on an average 15°C colder than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa.
c) Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be wrong
What indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
d) Compensate by heading further to the left
a) 16230 FT.
b) 15690 FT.
c) 14370 FT. 50.1.6.1 (3381)
d) 13830 FT. During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de
Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa), the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the
probable reason for this ?
50.1.6.1 (3376)
a) The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca
b) One of the QNH values must be wrong
(QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this
c) The altimeter is faulty
is that :
d) The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
a) the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca.
b) the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested.
c) the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca. 50.1.6.1 (3382)
d) one of the two QNH values may be incorrect. During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is 13500 feet, local QNH is
1019 hPa. What information, if any, can be gained about the air mass in which the
aircraft is flying?
50.1.6.1 (3377)
a) It is colder than ISA
You intend to overfly a mountain range. The recommended minimum flight altitude
b) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
is, according to the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that you will fly
c) It is warmer than ISA
through is on average 15°C warmer than the standard atmosphere. The altimeter
d) There is insufficient information to make any assumption
is set to QNH (1023 hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at the
recommended minimum flight altitude?
a) 14100 FT. 50.1.6.1 (3383)
b) 13830 FT. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90, the true altitude is 9100 feet, local QNH
c) 14370 FT. is unknown. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the
d) 15900 FT. aircraft is flying ?
a) There is insufficient information to make any assumption
b) It is colder than ISA
50.1.6.1 (3378)
c) It is warmer than ISA
You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000 FT. What is the
d) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
temperature deviation from that of the standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH
1013,2 hPa) ?
a) ISA -20°C 50.1.6.1 (3384)
b) ISA +/-0°C An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true altitude of 12000 feet, local
c) ISA +20°C QNH is 1013 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
d) ISA +12°C which the aircraft is flying ?
a) Its average temperature is the same as ISA
b) It is colder than ISA
50.1.6.1 (3379)
An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca
284
c) It is warmer than ISA 50.1.6.1 (3390)
d) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion (For this question use annex 050-4248A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point
B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of
these statements is correct?
50.1.6.1 (3385)
a) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true altitude of 10000 feet, local
b) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
QNH is 1003 hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
c) Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A
which the aircraft is flying ?
d) Wind speed at B is higher than at A
a) It is warmer than ISA
b) Its average temperature is about ISA
c) It is colder than ISA 50.1.6.1 (3391)
d) There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion (For this question use annex 050-4249A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point
B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of
these statements is correct?
50.1.6.1 (3386)
a) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold winter's day. The regional QNH
b) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
is 1013 hPa. During the flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its
c) Wind speed at A and at B is the same
summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the elevation of
d) Wind speed at B is higher than at A
the summit?
a) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
b) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit 50.1.6.1 (3392)
c) The same altitude as the elevation of the summit You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40°C, and the pressure at sea
d) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a) 19340 feet
b) 20660 feet
50.1.6.1 (3387)
c) 21740 feet
An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm summer's day. The weather is fine,
d) 18260 feet
and there is a high pressure system in the area. During the flight, a mountain is
passed at an altitude of its summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give,
compared to the summit's elevation? 50.1.6.1 (3393)
a) A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -27°C, and the pressure at sea
b) A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit level is 1003 hPa. What is the true altitude?
c) The same altitude as the elevation of the summit a) 15090 feet
d) There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion b) 15630 feet
c) 16370 feet
d) 16910 feet
50.1.6.1 (3388)
(For this question use annex 050-4246A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point
B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of 50.1.6.1 (3394)
these statements is correct? You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The chart recommends a
a) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B minimum altitude of 12000 feet above mean sea level. The air mass you will be
b) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A flying through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your altimeter is set to 1023
c) Wind speed at A is higher than at B hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter
d) Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B show when you have reached the recommended minimum altitude?
a) 11520 feet
b) 12210 feet
50.1.6.1 (3389)
c) 11250 feet
(For this question use annex 050-4247A)An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point
d) 11790 feet
B on the upper level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa. Which of
these statements is correct?
a) The true altitude will be higher at A than at B 50.1.6.1 (3395)
b) The true altitude will be higher at B than at A Which of the following conditions would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower
c) Wind speed at A is higher than at B altitude than that actually flown ?
d) Wind speed at A and at B is the same a) Air temperature higher than standard
b) Atmospheric pressure lower than standard

285
c) Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude. 50.1.6.3 (3401)
d) Air temperature lower than standard. An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT, QNH 1008 hPa). The
altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The altimeter will indicate :
a) 1375 FT.
50.1.6.1 (3396)
b) 1200 FT.
The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
c) 1105 FT.
a) standard atmospheric conditions occur
d) 1280 FT.
b) the outside air temperature is standard for that height
c) the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
d) the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude 50.1.6.3 (3402)
After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 1715 FT), the altimeter
indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013
50.1.6.1 (3397)
hPa. What is the QNH at this aerodrome?
The following temperatures have been observed over a station at 1200 UTC.
a) 1028 hPa.
Assume the station is at MSL. Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C. 20000.-12
b) 1015 hPa.
18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12
c) 1013 hPa.
2000. +15 surface+15.
d) 998 hPa.
a) Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true altitude of an aircraft
would actually be higher than the indicated altitude.
b) The height of the freezing level over the station is approximately 12000 FT. 50.1.6.3 (3403)
c) The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the temperature in the International An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local QNH is 1009 hPa, what will
Standard Atmosphere. happen to the altitude reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level ?
d) The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely unstable a) It will decrease
b) It will increase
c) It will remain the same
50.1.6.1 (3398)
d) It will not be affected
Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
pressure surface on a heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following statements is
correct? 50.1.6.3 (3404)
a) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 360 degrees, then After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is noticed that the altimeter is still
true altitude is increasing set to 1013,2 hPa and that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
b) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 180 degrees, then true aerodrome above mean sea level ?
altitude is increasing a) 660 feet.
c) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 270 degrees, then true altitude b) 1200 feet.
is increasing c) 1740 feet.
d) If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction 090 degrees, then true d) 2280 feet.
altitude is increasing
50.1.6.3 (3405)
50.1.6.1 (3399) During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere with a crosswind from altitude. If the local QNH is 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
the left. Which of the following is correct concerning its true altitude ? during the resetting procedure ?
a) It decreases a) It will decrease
b) It increases b) It will increase
c) It remains constant c) It will remain the same
d) Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can not be answered. d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

50.1.6.3 (3400) 50.1.6.3 (3406)

What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at an airport situated 50 FT During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition
below sea level? altitude. If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
a) QFE is greater than QNH. during the resetting procedure?
b) QFE is smaller than QNH. a) It will increase
c) QFE equals QNH. b) It will decrease
d) No clear relationship exists. c) It will remain the same
d) It is not possible to give a definitive answer

286
50.1.6.3 (3407) 50.1.6.3 (3413)
An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, QNH 993 hPa) with the Which of the following statements is true ?
altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What will it indicate ? a) QNH can be equal to QFE
a) 1080 FT b) QNH is always lower than QFE
b) 700 FT c) QNH is always higher than QFE
c) 380 FT d) QNH is always equal to QFE
d) 0 FT
50.1.6.3 (3414)
50.1.6.3 (3408) Which statement is true ?
What pressure is defined as QFE? a) QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPa
a) The pressure at field elevation b) QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa
b) The pressure of the altimeter c) QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time
c) The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures d) QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL
d) The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures
50.1.6.3 (3415)
50.1.6.3 (3409) When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter indicates
An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude of 3600 FT. Should this a) elevation while landing
altimeter be adjusted to the local QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated b) zero while landing
would be c) elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
a) 3006 FT. d) zero while landing only if conditions are as in the International Standard Atmosphere
b) 2922 FT.
c) 4278 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3416)
d) 4194 FT.
You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH of a field on a nearby island
with an elevation of 4000 FT is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is
50.1.6.3 (3410) your pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is set in the subscale?
In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE a) Less than 0 FT
adjustment in Geneva is b) 0 FT
a) 942 hPa. c) More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
b) 967 hPa. d) 4000 FT
c) 961 hPa.
d) 948 hPa.
50.1.6.3 (3417)
The QNH is equal to the QFE if
50.1.6.3 (3411) a) the elevation = 0
An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second altimeter b) T actual = T standard
has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be approximately c) T actual > T standard
a) 7650 FT. d) T actual < T standard
b) 8600 FT.
c) 8350 FT.
50.1.6.3 (3418)
d) 8000 FT.
Which of the following conditions gives the highest value of the QNH?
a) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m)
50.1.6.3 (3412) b) QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on reference 1013.2 hPa. c) QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
The aircraft has to land on a point with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is d) QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m)
1023 hPa.Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading on the altimeter
on the ground will be:
50.1.6.3 (3419)
a) 20 FT.
For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000 hPa. The approximate
b) 11 FT.
elevation of the airfield is
c) -10 FT.
a) 160 metres
d) 560 FT.
b) 600 metres
c) 540 metres
d) 120 metres
287
50.1.6.3 (3420) hPa
Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates d) In a warm high pressure region
a) in standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the official airport
elevation.
50.2.1.1 (3426)
b) the flight level.
What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind, expressed in kilometres per
c) the aircraft's altitude above the mean sea level.
hour?
d) the height of the aircraft's wheels above the runway.
a) 45 km/h
b) 35 km/h
50.1.6.4 (3421) c) 55 km/h
If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature deviation is ISA +10°C d) 60 km/h
in the lower troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness
between FL 60 and FL 120 ?
50.2.1.1 (3427)
a) 6240 FT.
What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind, expressed in knots?
b) 6000 FT.
a) 50 kt
c) 5900 FT.
b) 55 kt
d) 5760 FT.
c) 60 kt
d) 70 kt
50.1.6.4 (3422)
What information is required to convert a minimum safe altitude into a lowest
50.2.1.1 (3428)
usable flight level?
What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind, expressed in m/sec?
a) Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
a) 20 m/sec
b) Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature deviation from ISA.
b) 15 m/sec
c) Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature deviation from ISA
c) 25 m/sec
d) Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature deviation from ISA
d) 30 m/sec

50.1.6.4 (3423)
50.2.1.1 (3429)
Which weather condition lowers true altitude as compared to pressure altitude to a
What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher levels?
position where flight over mountains could be dangereous?
a) Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
a) Cold low.
b) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
b) Warm depression.
c) Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
c) Cold high.
d) Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
d) Warm high.

50.2.2.1 (3430)
50.1.6.4 (3424)
Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an aircraft experiences right
A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required separation between two FL.
drift. What effect, if any, will this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
Under conditions of cold air advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical
a) It decreases
separation be?
b) It increases.
a) Less than 1000 FT
c) It remains constant.
b) It remains 1000 FT
d) Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot be answered.
c) More than 1000 FT
d) Without QNH information, it can not be determined
50.2.2.1 (3431)
Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
50.1.6.4 (3425)
a) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
At which pressure and temperature conditions may you safely assume that the
b) Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
minimum usable flight level at least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe
c) Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
altitude?
d) Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
a) At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is
greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
b) In a cold low pressure region 50.2.2.1 (3432)
c) At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and where the QNH is less than 1013 In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you expect when flying from a
high pressure area towards a low pressure area at FL 100?

288
a) Wind from the right. c) always increases with increasing height
b) Wind from the left. d) veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern hemisphere
c) Tailwind with no drift.
d) Headwind with no drift.
50.2.2.1 (3439)
Wind is caused by
50.2.2.1 (3433) a) horizontal pressure differences
An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 feet, has to turn to the right b) the rotation of the earth
in order to allow for drift. In which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre c) friction between the air and the ground
of low pressure ? d) the movements of fronts
a) In front.
b) Behind.
50.2.2.1 (3440)
c) To the left.
You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa
d) To the right.
pressure surface. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
50.2.2.1 (3434) b) If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind around a low pressure c) If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude
system because the d) If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude
a) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
b) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
50.2.2.1 (3441)
c) coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are
d) coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force
a) straight lines and no friction is involved.
b) curved lines and no friction is involved
50.2.2.1 (3435) c) straight lines and friction is involved.
The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an anticyclone because d) curved lines and friction is involved.
the
a) centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
50.2.2.1 (3442)
b) centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses) above the friction layer
c) effect of coriolis is added to friction
because
d) coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force
a) the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal pressure gradient force
b) contour lines are lines that connect points with the same windspeed in the upper air
50.2.2.1 (3436) c) the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects high and low pressure system
An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low altitude (less than 2000 d) the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow a diversion perpendicular to
feet) and going directly away from a centre of low pressure. What direction, the gradient force.
relative to the aircraft, does the wind come from ?
a) From the left and slightly on the nose
50.2.2.1 (3443)
b) From the right and slightly on the nose
The wind speed in a system with curved isobars compared to a system with
c) From the right and slightly on the tail
straight isobars is (other conditions being the same)
d) From the left and slightly on the tail
a) higher if curvature is anticyclonic
b) always higher
50.2.2.1 (3437) c) always lower
What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure d) higher if curvature is cyclonic
areas ?
a) Coriolis force
50.2.2.1 (3444)
b) Surface friction
The geostrophic wind depends on
c) Katabatic force
a) density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude
d) The pressure gradient force
b) earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
c) geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
50.2.2.1 (3438) d) centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
Geostrophic wind
a) is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force
b) is directly proportional to the density of the air
289
50.2.2.1 (3445) 50.2.2.2 (3452)
The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient wind is caused by Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind flow patterns around high-
a) curvature of isobars and low-pressure systems that are shown on a surface weather chart.
b) friction a) When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and
c) horizontal temperature gradients wind velocities are stronger.
d) slope of pressure surfaces b) Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.
c) Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.
d) When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves may be marked by stationary
50.2.2.1 (3446)
lenticular clouds.
The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to the
a) horizontal pressure gradient
b) curvature of isobars 50.2.2.2 (3453)
c) sine of latitude The greater the pressure gradient the
d) density of the air a) closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
b) further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
c) closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
50.2.2.1 (3447)
d) further the isobars will be apart and the higher the temperature
For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind speed will be
a) greater at 30°N than at 60°N
b) greater at 60°N than at 30°N 50.2.2.2 (3454)
c) the same at all latitudes north or south of 15° When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a weather map, are close
d) equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component together, the wind is most likely to be
a) strong
b) blowing perpendicular to the isobars
50.2.2.1 (3448)
c) changing direction rapidly
For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N the speed of the
d) light
geostrophic wind will be
a) greatest at 40°N
b) the same at all latitudes 50.2.2.2 (3455)
c) greatest at 60°N Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is flying at FL180 in the
d) least at 50°N northern hemisphere, where wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains
constant ?
a) There is no cross wind
50.2.2.1 (3449)
b) There is a cross wind from the left
Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the
c) There is a cross wind from the right
speed of the gradient wind is
d) Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question can not be answered
a) greater than the geostrophic wind
b) less than the geostrophic wind
c) the same as the thermal component 50.2.2.3 (3456)
d) proportional only to the Coriolis force In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface is caused by
a) frictional forces
b) centripetal forces
50.2.2.2 (3450)
c) the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the Coriolis force
What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on
d) the curvature of the isobars
the weather map are very close together?
a) Strong and flowing across the isobars.
b) Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars. 50.2.2.3 (3457)
c) Strong and parallel to the isobars. In an area of converging air
d) Moderate and parallel to the isobars. a) clouds can be formed
b) convective clouds can be dissolved
c) stratified clouds can be dissolved
50.2.2.2 (3451)
d) clouds can not be formed
Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
a) In the transition zone between two air masses
b) At the centre of a low-pressure system 50.2.2.3 (3458)
c) At the centre of a high-pressure system Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in
d) Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months a) falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
290
b) rising pressure and likely formation of clouds 50.2.3.1 (3465)
c) rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds (For this question use annex 050-10724A)Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the
d) falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds weather is predominantly influenced by the zone of
a) subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of fronts originating in
the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate low pressure
50.2.3.1 (3459)
b) antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective land mass between south
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the subtropical high-pressure
Australia and Antarctica
belt ?
c) disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost continuous succession of fronts
a) 25° - 35°.
resulting in strong winds, low cloud and rain
b) 10° - 15°.
d) equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the intertropical convergence zone over
c) 35° - 55°.
central Australia
d) 55° - 75°.

50.2.3.1 (3466)
50.2.3.1 (3460)
(For this question use annex 050-10725A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of
Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the region of travelling low
world climatic and wind circulation, zone ""y"" is an area of
pressure systems ?
a) travelling low pressure systems
a) 55° - 75°
b) NE trade winds
b) 35° - 55°
c) SE trade winds
c) 25° - 35°
d) subtropical high pressure systems
d) 10° - 15°

50.2.3.1 (3467)
50.2.3.1 (3461)
(For this question use annex 050-10726A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of
In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N and 20°N the prevailing
world wind circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone
winds are
a) u
a) NE trade winds
b) t
b) NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
c) v
c) SE trade winds
d) w
d) SW winds throughout the whole year

50.2.3.1 (3468)
50.2.3.1 (3462)
(For this question use annex 050-10727A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of
(For this question use annex 050-10721A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of
world climatic and wind circulation, zone ""u"" is in area of
world wind circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone
a) NE trade winds
a) w
b) travelling depressions
b) t
c) SW trade winds
c) u
d) subtropical high pressure
d) v

50.2.4.1 (3469)
50.2.3.1 (3463)
Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the following ICAO
(For this question use annex 050-10722A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of
description?""There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude and/or altitude
world climatic and wind circulation, zone ""t"" is an area of
but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times. Usually, small variations in
a) subtropical high pressure systems
air speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g at the aircraft's center
b) SE trade winds
of gravity. Occupants feel strain against seat belts. Loose objects move about.
c) travelling low pressure systems
Food service and walking are difficult.""
d) NE trade winds
a) Moderate.
b) Light.
50.2.3.1 (3464) c) Severe.
(For this question use annex 050-10723A)Assuming a generalised zonal system of d) Violent.
world wind circulation the travelling low pressure systems are applicable to zone
a) s and y
50.2.4.1 (3470)
b) t only
All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You
c) t and x
experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain against
d) u and w
291
their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged. Food service 50.2.5.1 (3477)
and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind, and intend to land at an
a) moderate airport, at sea level directly below. From approximately which direction would you
b) light expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern hemisphere)?
c) severe a) South-southeast.
d) extreme b) South-southwest.
c) Southwest.
d) South.
50.2.4.2 (3471)
What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be encountered while flying through
a cold front in the summer over Central Europe at FL 100? 50.2.5.1 (3478)
a) Severe turbulence in CB cloud. If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
b) Moderate turbulence in NS cloud. expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
c) Light turbulence in CB cloud. a) 22030KT
d) Light turbulence in ST cloud. b) 16020KT
c) 25025KT
d) 22010KT
50.2.4.2 (3472)
Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe turbulence ?
a) Altocumulus lenticularis 50.2.5.1 (3479)
b) Stratocumulus If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
c) Cirrocumulus expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
d) Nimbostratus a) 11020KT
b) 08015KT
c) 05020KT
50.2.4.2 (3473)
d) 08005KT
Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
a) turbulence at and below the cloud level
b) poor visibility at surface 50.2.5.1 (3480)
c) smooth flying conditions below the cloud level If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
d) a high risk of thunderstorms expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground?
a) 19040KT
b) 16030KT
50.2.4.2 (3474)
c) 14020KT
On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced
d) 17015KT
a) during the early afternoon
b) immediately after sunset
c) during early morning hours before sunrise 50.2.5.1 (3481)
d) about midmorning If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what wind velocity would you
expect to encounter at a height of 2000 feet above the ground ?
a) 33025KT
50.2.5.1 (3475)
b) 23030KT
Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL are southwesterly while
c) 30025KT
most of the surface winds are southerly. What is the primary reason of difference
d) 27020KT
between these two wind directions?
a) Friction between the wind and the surface.
b) A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes. 50.2.5.1 (3482)
c) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface. In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the wind changes direction
d) The influence of warm air at the lower altitude. towards the low pressure area because :
a) wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases
b) the pressure gradient increases
50.2.5.1 (3476)
c) turbulence is formed and pressure increases
Friction between the air and the ground results in the northern hemisphere in:
d) turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
a) backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
b) veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the surface.
c) backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface. 50.2.5.1 (3483)
d) veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the surface. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
292
parallel to the isobars ? 50.2.5.1 (3490)
a) Surface friction In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a cyclonic pressure distribution is
b) Coriolis force 350/24, over the sea the surface wind would approximate
c) Greater density of the air at the surface a) 340/20
d) Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface b) 030/20
c) 340/28
d) 030/28
50.2.5.1 (3484)
In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL directly towards the
centre of a low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from 50.2.5.1 (3491)
a) left and behind In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic pressure system the geostrophic
b) right and behind wind at 2000 FT over the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind is
c) about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead most likely to be
d) directly ahead a) 045/12
b) 060/12
c) 060/18
50.2.5.1 (3485)
d) 075/12
In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows
a) counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low pressure area
b) from a low pressure area to a high pressure area 50.2.5.2 (3492)
c) clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low pressure area At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere) the wind direction changes
d) counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a high pressure area. from the surface up to the tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
a) veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
b) backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
50.2.5.1 (3486)
c) veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the surface (no frontal
d) backs in the friction layer and and backs above the friction layer
passage) the wind normally
a) backs and decreases
b) veers and increases 50.2.6.1 (3493)
c) backs and increases In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze blows :
d) veers and decreases a) during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
b) during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
c) during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
50.2.5.1 (3487)
d) during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze.
What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet and the surface wind?
a) The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the surface wind direction
is across the isobars toward the low pressure and the surface wind is weaker. 50.2.6.1 (3494)
b) They have the same direction, but the surface wind is weaker, caused by friction A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers an area of the
c) They are practically the same, except when eddies exist, caused by obstacles Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. What surface wind direction is likely at
d) The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000 feet and is usually weaker. the airport on a sunny afternoon?
a) Sea to land.
b) Land to sea.
50.2.5.1 (3488)
c) Variable.
The vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on
d) Parallel to the coastline.
a) stability, wind speed, roughness of surface
b) wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
c) roughness of surface, temperature, local time 50.2.6.1 (3495)
d) temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows
a) down the slope during the night.
b) up the slope during the day.
50.2.5.1 (3489)
c) down the slope during the day.
During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with anticyclonic conditions, the
d) up the slope during the night.
a) surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early afternoon
b) surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
c) angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to be greatest in the early 50.2.6.1 (3496)
afternoon Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
d) wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon a) It blows from land to water
293
b) It blows from water to land c) during the day down from the mountains
c) It blows by day d) during the day up from the valley
d) It blows only at noon
50.2.7.1 (3503)
50.2.6.1 (3497) What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front jet stream?
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is a) The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar front
parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. b) The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a high over the Azores and a low
What wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a over Iceland
sunny afternoon? c) The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front region
a) Crosswind from the right d) Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
b) Crosswind from the left
c) Tailwind
50.2.7.2 (3504)
d) Headwind
An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream from south to north, beneath
the core. How would the OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this
50.2.6.1 (3498) portion of the flight?
The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by thermal effects is toward a) It decreases.
the : b) It increases.
a) mountain during daylight hours. c) It first increases, then decreases.
b) mountain at night. d) It remains constant.
c) valley during daylight hours.
d) valley during daylight as much as at night.
50.2.7.2 (3505)
What is the approximate ratio between height and width for a jet stream cross
50.2.6.1 (3499) section?
An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an airfield whose runway is a) 1/100
parallel to the coast. When downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What b) 01-Jan
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and landing during a sunny c) 10-Jan
afternoon ? d) 1/1000
a) Crosswind from the left
b) Crosswind from the right
50.2.7.2 (3506)
c) Tailwind
An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar front jet stream, at FL 400
d) Headwind
in the southern hemisphere. What change, if any, in temperature will be
experienced ?
50.2.6.1 (3500) a) It falls.
When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of a large b) It rises.
body of water will experience wind c) It stays the same.
a) from the water in daytime and from the land at night d) It falls and then rises.
b) continually from land to water
c) continually from water to the land
50.2.7.2 (3507)
d) from the land in daytime and from the water at night
A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should be world-wide regarded as:
a) possible but a very rare phenomenon.
50.2.6.1 (3501) b) not possible.
The sea breeze is a wind from the sea c) a common occurence.
a) occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in daytime d) not unusual in polar regions.
b) that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
c) blowing at night in mid-latitudes
50.2.7.2 (3508)
d) occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime
An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream 2500 FT below its core at
right angles. While crossing, the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing
50.2.6.1 (3502) wind is
In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind blows a) from the right
a) at night down from the mountains b) from the left.
b) at night up from the valley
294
c) tailwind. d) This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since normally no large temperature
d) headwind. differences are possible at these heights.

50.2.7.2 (3509) 50.2.7.2 (3515)

Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to be found ? What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight from Stockholm to Rio de
a) Just below the tropopause Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in July ?
b) At about 5500 metres altitude a) A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet streams.
c) Close to the ground b) A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.
d) In the stratosphere c) A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream and later, a second polar front
jet stream.
d) One subtropical jet stream.
50.2.7.2 (3510)
Which jet stream is connected with a surface front system?
a) The polar front jet stream 50.2.7.2 (3516)
b) The arctic jet stream While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western Europe (3000 FT below its
c) The subtropical jet stream core) and OAT is decreasing, what would be the prevailing wind?
d) The equatorial jet stream a) Crosswind from the left
b) Crosswind from the right
c) A headwind.
50.2.7.2 (3511)
d) A tailwind.
What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified as a jet stream?
a) 60 kt.
b) 50 kt. 50.2.7.2 (3517)
c) 70 kt. Which of the following statements concerning jet streams is correct?
d) 100 kt. a) In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet streams occur
b) In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
c) In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
50.2.7.2 (3512)
d) In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream gives the following
windprofile (Northern hemisphere).900hPa 220/20kt 800hPa 220/25kt 700hPa
230/35kt 500hPa 260/60kt 400hPa 280/85kt300hPa 300/100kt250hPa 50.2.7.2 (3518)
310/120kt 200hPa 310/80ktWhich system is the jet stream associated with? Which of the following statements concerning the core of a polar front jet stream
a) With a warm front. is correct ?
b) With a cold front. a) It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature gradient, the slope
c) With a ITCZ. of the pressure surfaces at the height of the core is at its maximum
d) With an easterly wave. b) It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
c) It lies in the warm air, its pressure surfaces are horizontal at the height of the core
d) It lies in the cold air, the thermal wind reverses direction at the height of the core
50.2.7.2 (3513)
Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet stream to be found?
a) In the warm air mass. 50.2.7.2 (3519)
b) In the cold air mass. On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs from north to south in the
c) Just above the warm-air tropopause. northern hemisphere. This means that
d) Just below the cold-air tropopause. a) the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
b) the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the jet
c) below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
50.2.7.2 (3514)
d) above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient runs from north to south
You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at approximately right angles. While
crossing, in spite of a strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely
changes. 50.2.7.3 (3520)
a) This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing the jet core. (For this question use annex 050-2541A)What name is given to the jet stream
b) You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be very weak with practically no lying over North Africa (B) ?
temperature difference between the two airmasses. a) Sub-tropical jet stream
c) Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will after landing have the b) Equatorial jet stream
instruments tested. c) Polar front jet stream
d) Arctic jet stream
295
50.2.7.3 (3521) 50.2.7.3 (3528)
(For this question use annex 050-3017A)What name is given to the jet stream Which of the following types of jet streams can be observed all year round?
lying across India (A) ? a) Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream.
a) Equatorial jet stream. b) Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream.
b) Polar front jet stream. c) Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream.
c) Arctic jet stream. d) Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream.
d) Sub-tropical jet stream.
50.2.7.3 (3529)
50.2.7.3 (3522) The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs :
What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core? a) only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45 000 FT
a) 20000 FT . b) only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30 000 FT
b) 30000 FT. c) during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
c) 40000 FT. d) during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
d) 50000 FT.
50.2.7.3 (3530)
50.2.7.3 (3523) During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the northern hemisphere, the polar
Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern hemisphere? front jet stream moves toward the
a) The subtropical jet stream. a) south and speed increases
b) The polar night jet stream. b) north and speed decreases
c) The equatorial jet stream. c) south and speed decreases
d) The arctic jet stream. d) north and speed increases

50.2.7.3 (3524) 50.2.7.3 (3531)

What is the average height of the jet core within a polar front jet stream? Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams) have a westerly direction.
a) 30000 FT. There is, however, an important easterly jet stream. When and where is it likely to
b) 20000 FT. be encountered ?
c) 40000 FT. a) In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern India to central Africa.
d) 50000 FT. b) In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.
c) In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern part of the Mediterranean to
southern Spain.
50.2.7.3 (3525)
d) Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high.
At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet stream found over Europe?
a) FL 400
b) FL 200 50.2.7.4 (3532)
c) FL 300 The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually
d) FL 500 identified in flight by
a) long streaks of cirrus clouds.
b) dust or haze at high level
50.2.7.3 (3526)
c) a constant outside air temperature
In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising level FL 370) from Bombay
d) a high-pressure centre at high level
(19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok (13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
a) Headwinds.
b) Light winds diagonal to the route. 50.2.7.5 (3533)
c) Tailwinds. In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be expected ?
d) Strong northerly winds. a) The cold air side of the core.
b) The warm air side of the core.
c) Exactly in the centre of the core.
50.2.7.3 (3527)
d) About 12000 FT above the core.
What is the most significant difference between an equatorial jet stream and all
the other jet streams ?
a) Wind direction. 50.2.7.5 (3534)
b) Vertical dimension. Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern hemisphere has the highest
c) Horizontal dimension. probability of turbulence?
d) Windspeed. a) Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core.
296
b) Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core. a) Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X 100
c) In the core of the jet stream. b) Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100
d) Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air. c) Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100
d) Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
50.2.7.5 (3535)
Under which of the following conditions is the most severe CAT likely to be 50.3.1.2 (3541)
experienced ? The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative humidity of
a) A curved jet stream near a deep trough this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
b) A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms a) It increases with increasing water vapour.
c) A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer b) It is not influenced by changing water vapour.
d) A straight jet stream near a low pressure area c) It decreases with increasing water vapour.
d) It is only influenced by temperature.
50.2.8.1 (3536)
Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of 50.3.1.2 (3542)
mountain waves ? Relative humidity
a) Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across a) changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature remains
the mountain ridge. constant.
b) Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across the b) is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
mountain ridge. c) is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
c) Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots blowing parallel d) does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature of the air remains
to the mountain ridge. constant.
d) Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the
mountain ridge.
50.3.1.2 (3543)
How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated airmass influenced by
50.2.8.1 (3537) temperature changes?
At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions, the cloud most likely to be a) It decreases with increasing temperature.
encountered is b) It is not influenced by temperature changes.
a) altocumulus lenticularis. c) It increases with increasing temperature.
b) cirrostratus. d) It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.
c) cirrus.
d) cumulus mediocris.
50.3.1.2 (3544)
How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass change
50.3.1.1 (3538) with varying temperature?
What of the following is the most important constituent in the atmosphere from a a) When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint
weather stand-point ? remains constant.
a) Water vapour b) When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
b) Nitrogen c) When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the dewpoint increases.
c) Oxygen d) When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint remain constant.
d) Hydrogen
50.3.1.2 (3545)
50.3.1.2 (3539) When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative humidity?
What does dewpoint mean? a) It decreases.
a) The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach b) It increases.
saturation. c) It remains constant.
b) The temperature at which ice melts. d) It increases up to 100%, then remains stable.
c) The freezing level (danger of icing).
d) The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour pressure are the
50.3.1.2 (3546)
same.
During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C
were measured. What temperature change must occur during the night in order to
50.3.1.2 (3540) induce saturation?
Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ? a) It must decrease to +5°C.
297
b) It must decrease by 5°C. 50.3.1.2 (3553)
c) It must decrease to +6°C. Relative humidity depends on
d) It must decrease to +7°C. a) moisture content and temperature of the air
b) moisture content and pressure of the air
c) moisture content of the air only
50.3.1.2 (3547)
d) temperature of the air only
Which of the following statements is true of the dew point of an air mass?
a) It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the air mass
b) It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass 50.3.1.2 (3554)
c) It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the air mass's relative humidity The dewpoint temperature
d) It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity even if the air temperature is a) can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure constant
unknown b) can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping temperature constant
c) can not be equal to the air temperature
d) can not be lower than the air temperature
50.3.1.2 (3548)
Relative humidity
a) increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant 50.3.1.2 (3555)
b) is higher in warm air than in cool air Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between
c) is higher in cool air than in warm air a) actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content
d) decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour pressure constant b) water vapour weight and dry air weight
c) water vapour weight and humid air volume
d) dew point and air temperature
50.3.1.2 (3549)
The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can contain depends on the
a) air temperature 50.3.2.1 (3556)
b) relative humidity Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation?
c) stability of the air a) Solid direct to vapour
d) dewpoint b) Solid direct to liquid
c) Liquid direct to solid
d) Liquid direct to vapour
50.3.1.2 (3550)
Dew point is defined as
a) the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated at a 50.3.2.1 (3557)
given pressure Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
b) the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given pressure a) water vapour condenses.
c) the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce the relative humidity b) water vapour is present.
d) the temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of air will result in the c) relative humidity reaches 98%.
absorption of latent heat d) temperature and dew point are nearly equal.

50.3.1.2 (3551) 50.3.2.1 (3558)

The difference between temperature and dewpoint is greater in In which of the following changes of state is latent heat released ?
a) dry air a) Gas to liquid
b) moist air b) Solid to liquid
c) air with high temperature c) Solid to gas
d) air with low temperature d) Liquid to gas

50.3.1.2 (3552) 50.3.2.1 (3559)

The dewpoint temperature How are high level condensation trails formed that are to be found occasionally
a) can be equal to the air temperature behind jet aircraft ?
b) is always lower than the air temperature a) Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
c) is always higher than the air temperature b) Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated adiabatic drop in temperature at the
d) can not be equal to the air temperature wing tips while flying through relatively warm but humid air
c) Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
d) In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot contained in the exhaust gases

298
50.3.2.1 (3560) 50.3.3.1 (3567)
Supercooled droplets can occur in What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ?
a) clouds, fog and precipitation a) 3.0°C.
b) clouds but not in precipitation b) 2.0°C
c) precipitation but not in clouds c) 1.5°C
d) clouds but not in fog d) 3.5°C

50.3.2.1 (3561) 50.3.3.1 (3568)

Supercooled droplets are always A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the condensation level and then
a) at a temperature below freezing returned to its original level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
b) small and at a temperature below freezing a) The same as the starting temperature.
c) large and at a temperature below freezing b) Higher than the starting temperature.
d) at a temperature below -60°C c) Lower than the starting temperature.
d) It depends upon the QFE.
50.3.2.1 (3562)
Supercooled droplets can be encountered 50.3.3.1 (3569)
a) at any time of the year A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to adiabatic effects. Which of the
b) in winter only in high clouds following changes ?
c) only in winter above 10000 FT a) Relative humidity
d) only in winter at high altitude b) Absolute humidity
c) Mixing ratio
d) Specific humidity
50.3.2.1 (3563)
A super-cooled droplet is
a) a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing 50.3.3.1 (3570)
b) a water droplet that is mainly frozen If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its temperature increases at
c) a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C a) a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.
d) a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent b) the same rate as if the air mass were dry.
c) a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.
d) a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation heat.
50.3.2.1 (3564)
The process by which water vapour is transformed directly into ice is known as
a) sublimation 50.3.3.1 (3571)
b) supercooling During an adiabatic process heat is
c) supersaturation a) neither added nor lost
d) radiation cooling b) added
c) lost
d) added but the result is an overall loss
50.3.2.1 (3565)
When water evaporates into unsaturated air
a) heat is absorbed 50.3.3.1 (3572)
b) heat is released The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air
c) relative humidity is not changed is
d) relative humidity is decreased a) 1°C
b) 2°C
c) 0.65°C
50.3.2.1 (3566)
d) 0.5°C
A super-cooled droplet is one that
a) remains liquid at a below freezing temperature
b) has frozen to become an ice pellet 50.3.3.1 (3573)
c) has a shell of ice with water inside it The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a saturated rising parcel of air at
d) is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air lower level of the atmosphere is approximately
a) 0.6°C
b) 1°C

299
c) 1.5°C b) a conditionally unstable layer
d) 0.35°C c) an unstable layer
d) a layer that can be either stable or unstable
50.3.3.1 (3574)
The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less than the rate of cooling of 50.3.3.1 (3581)
ascending unsaturated air because: In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is
a) heat is released during the condensation process more than 1°C. This layer can be described as being
b) moist air is heavier than dry air a) absolutely unstable
c) water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air b) absolutely stable
d) water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun c) conditionally unstable
d) conditionally stable
50.3.3.1 (3575)
A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature decrease with height is 50.3.3.1 (3582)
a) more than 1°C per 100m Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable layer?
b) between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m a) The environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C/100m
c) 0.65°C per 100m b) The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65°C/100m
d) less than 0.65°C per 100m c) The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
d) The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65°C/100m
50.3.3.1 (3576)
A layer in which the temperature remains constant with height is 50.3.3.1 (3583)
a) absolutely stable The stability in a layer is increasing if
b) unstable a) warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the lower part
c) neutral b) warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the upper part
d) conditionally unstable c) warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
d) cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
50.3.3.1 (3577)
A layer in which the temperature increases with height is 50.3.3.1 (3584)
a) absolutely stable Which of the following statements concerning the lifting of a parcel of air is correct
b) absolutely unstable ?
c) conditionally unstable a) Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels
d) neutral b) Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels
c) Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m
d) Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m
50.3.3.1 (3578)
A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per 100m is
a) neutral for dry air 50.3.3.1 (3585)
b) absolutely stable The height of the lifting condensation level is determined by
c) absolutely unstable a) temperature and dewpoint at the surface
d) conditionally unstable b) temperature at surface and air pressure
c) wind and dewpoint at the surface
d) wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface
50.3.3.1 (3579)
If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at
the top of the layer is 8°C then this layer is 50.3.3.1 (3586)
a) absolutely unstable A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated by
b) absolutely stable a) lifting the parcel to a higher level
c) conditionally unstable b) lowering the parcel to a lower level
d) neutral c) moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal temperature
d) moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal temperature
50.3.3.1 (3580)
An inversion is 50.3.3.1 (3587)
a) an absolutely stable layer A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become saturated by

300
a) expanding it adiabatically 50.4.1.1 (3594)
b) raising the temperature In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The vertical extent of these
c) lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant clouds depends on the
d) compressing it adiabatically a) thickness of the unstable layer
b) wind direction
c) air pressure at the surface
50.3.3.1 (3588)
d) pressure at different levels
If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature at 10000 FT in a current
of ascending unsaturated air is:
a) -15°C 50.4.1.2 (3595)
b) 0°C Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?
c) 5°C a) Nimbostratus.
d) -5°C b) Stratus.
c) Altocumulus.
d) Cirrus.
50.4.1.1 (3589)
Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?
a) Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind. 50.4.1.2 (3596)
b) Unstable air. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions?
c) Convection during the day. a) CU, CB.
d) The release of latent heat. b) ST, CS.
c) SC, NS.
d) CI, SC.
50.4.1.1 (3590)
Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building of
CU and CB clouds? 50.4.1.2 (3597)
a) Convection. Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in temperate
b) Radiation. regions ?
c) Subsidence. a) AS, AC.
d) Frontal lifting within stable layers. b) SC, NS
c) CI, CC.
d) CS, ST.
50.4.1.1 (3591)
What process in an air mass leads to the creation of wide spread NS, AS and ST
cloud coverage? 50.4.1.2 (3598)
a) Lifting (For this question use annex 050-1914A)Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
b) Sinking representative of altocumulus castellanus?
c) Convection process a) 3.
d) Radiation b) 1.
c) 2.
d) 4.
50.4.1.1 (3592)
Rising air cools because
a) it expands 50.4.1.2 (3599)
b) surrounding air is cooler at higher levels What is the main composition of clouds classified as ""high level clouds""?
c) it becomes more moist a) Ice crystals.
d) it contracts b) Supercooled water droplets.
c) Water droplets.
d) Water vapour.
50.4.1.1 (3593)
Convective clouds are formed
a) in unstable atmosphere 50.4.1.2 (3600)
b) in stable atmosphere A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea
c) in summer during the day only level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. At
d) in mid-latitudes only what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a) 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain.
b) 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain.
301
c) 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain. 50.4.1.2 (3607)
d) 15000 - 25000 FT above the terrain. A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea
level is covered with a uniform CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
50.4.1.2 (3601)
a) 15000 - 35000 FT above the terrain
Which of the following cloud is classified as low level cloud ?
b) 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain
a) ST
c) 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain
b) CS
d) 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain
c) AS
d) CC
50.4.1.2 (3608)
Which of the following cloud types is found at high levels?
50.4.1.2 (3602)
a) CI
Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air conditions?
b) SC
a) ST, AS
c) AS
b) CU, CB
d) CU
c) NS, CU
d) CB, CC
50.4.1.2 (3609)
Which of the following cloud types is a medium level cloud ?
50.4.1.2 (3603)
a) AS
(For this question use annex 050-4273A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
b) CS
representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
c) ST
a) 2
d) SC
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1 50.4.1.2 (3610)
Fallstreaks or virga are
a) water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before reaching the
50.4.1.2 (3604)
ground
(For this question use annex 050-4274A) Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
b) strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with jet streaks
representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
c) gusts associated with a well developed Bora
a) 4
d) strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and accompanied by heavy precipitation
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1 50.4.1.2 (3611)
Altostratus clouds are classified as
a) medium level clouds
50.4.1.2 (3605)
b) low level clouds
Which of the following types of cloud can extend over the low, medium and high
c) high level clouds
cloud levels ?
d) convective clouds
a) CB
b) AC
c) ST 50.4.1.2 (3612)
d) CI A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer contains
a) a combination of ice crystals, water droplets and supercooled water droplets
b) only water droplets
50.4.1.2 (3606)
c) only ice crystals
A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500 m (1600 FT) above sea
d) a combination of ice crystals and water droplets
level is covered with a uniform SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At
what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
a) 1500 - 7000 FT above ground 50.4.1.2 (3613)
b) 100 - 1500 FT above ground Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of
c) 7000 - 15000 FT above ground a) instability in the atmosphere
d) 15000 - 25000 FT above ground b) the presence of a low level inversion
c) the presence of warm air aloft
d) poor surface visibility
302
50.4.1.2 (3614) c) In clear air above the freezing level
Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to have bases from d) Within cloud of any type
a) the surface to 6500 FT
b) 1000 to 2000 FT
50.4.1.4 (3621)
c) 500 to 1000 FT
What flying conditions may be encountered when flying in cirrus clouds?
d) 100 to 200 FT
a) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m, nil icing.
b) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m, nil icing.
50.4.1.2 (3615) c) Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m, light to moderate icing.
Which of the following are medium level clouds ? d) Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m, light to moderate rime ice.
a) Altostratus and altocumulus
b) Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
50.4.1.4 (3622)
c) Cumulonimbus
Cumulus clouds are an indication for
d) All convective clouds
a) up and downdrafts
b) stability
50.4.1.2 (3616) c) the approach of a cold front
What type of cloud is being described ?A generally grey cloud layer with fairly d) the approach of a warm front
uniform base and uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow grains.
When the sun is visible through the cloud, the outline is clearly discernible.
50.4.2.1 (3623)
Sometimes it appears in the form of ragged patches.
At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely to occur?
a) Stratus
a) Shortly after sunrise.
b) Altostratus
b) At sunset.
c) Nimbostratus
c) Late evening.
d) Cirrostratus
d) Shortly after midnight.

50.4.1.2 (3617)
50.4.2.1 (3624)
The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates
What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?
a) instability in the middle troposphere
a) 500 FT.
b) strong convection at low height
b) 2 000 FT.
c) stability in the higher troposphere
c) 5 000 FT.
d) subsidence in a large part of the troposphere
d) 10 000 FT.

50.4.1.2 (3618)
50.4.2.1 (3625)
The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication of the
What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour the formation of fog at an
a) presence of mountain waves
airport where the temperature is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C?
b) risk of orographic thunderstorms
a) Calm.
c) development of thermal lows
b) Northerly, 10 kt.
d) presence of valley winds
c) Westerly, 10 kt variable.
d) Easterly, 10 kt.
50.4.1.4 (3619)
What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?
50.4.2.1 (3626)
a) Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear ice.
Which of the following weather conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
b) Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of rain.
a) Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
c) Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime ice.
b) Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.
d) Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and rime ice.
c) Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.
d) Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
50.4.1.4 (3620)
In which of the following conditions is moderate to severe airframe icing most
50.4.2.1 (3627)
likely to be encountered?
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the dissipation of radiation fog ?
a) In Nimbostratus cloud
a) A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
b) Below the freezing level in clear air
b) A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground

303
c) Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night 50.4.2.1 (3634)
d) A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic warming associated with a sinking The morning following a clear, calm night when the temperature has dropped to
air mass the dewpoint, is likely to produce
a) radiation fog
b) a cold front
50.4.2.1 (3628)
c) advection fog
The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or become low stratus is :
d) good clear weather
a) increasing surface wind speed.
b) an increasingly stable atmosphere.
c) surface cooling. 50.4.2.1 (3635)
d) a low level temperature inversion. Which of the following circumstances most favour the development of radiation
fog?
a) Moist air over land during clear night with little wind
50.4.2.1 (3629)
b) Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain
What are the differences between radiation fog and advection fog ?
c) Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea
a) Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light wind. Advection fog
d) Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea
forms when warm humid air flows over a cold surface.
b) Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only on the sea.
c) Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog due to daytime cooling. 50.4.2.1 (3636)
d) Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind. Advection fog is formed by Freezing fog consists of
evaporation over the sea. a) supercooled water droplets
b) frozen water droplets
c) frozen minute snow flakes
50.4.2.1 (3630)
d) ice crystals
What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night, with calm
or light wind conditions ?
a) Radiation. 50.4.2.1 (3637)
b) Advection. The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most likely to form is :
c) Steam. a) below 5 kt
d) Orographic. b) between 10 and 15 kt
c) between 5 and 10 kt
d) above 15 kt
50.4.2.1 (3631)
Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?
a) Little or no cloud 50.4.2.2 (3638)
b) Very dry air Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of
c) Strong surface winds advection fog ?
d) Very low temperatures a) Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
b) Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
c) Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
50.4.2.1 (3632)
d) Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
Which of the following is most likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog?
a) Heat loss from the ground on clear nights
b) Dry, warm air passing over warm ground 50.4.2.2 (3639)
c) The passage of fronts Which type of fog is likely to form when air having temperature of 15°C and dew
d) Cold air passing over warm ground point of 12°C blows at 10 knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ?
a) Advection fog
b) Radiation fog
50.4.2.1 (3633)
c) Steam fog
When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather
d) Frontal fog
conditions are most likely to be
a) fog or low cloud
b) clear and cool 50.4.2.2 (3640)
c) high scattered clouds Advection fog can be formed when
d) unlimited visibility a) warm moist air flows over a colder surface
b) cold moist air flows over a warmer surface

304
c) warm moist air flows over a warmer surface b) Moderate rain with large drops.
d) cold moist air flows over warmer water c) Heavy rain with large drops.
d) Hail.
50.4.2.2 (3641)
Which of the following statements is true concerning advection fog? 50.5.1.1 (3648)
a) It can be formed suddenly by day or night How does freezing rain develop?
b) It forms at night or the early morning a) Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
c) It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically b) Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
d) It forms slowly and disappears rapidly c) Through melting of sleet grains
d) Through melting of ice crystals
50.4.2.3 (3642)
Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead to the formation of steam 50.5.2.1 (3649)
fog (arctic smoke)? With what type of clouds are showers most likely associated?
a) Cold air moving over warm water a) Cumulonimbus.
b) Warm air moving over cold water b) Stratocumulus.
c) The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun c) Nimbostratus.
d) The coastal region of the sea cools at night d) Stratus.

50.4.2.3 (3643) 50.5.2.1 (3650)

Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy
a) with cold mass properties precipitation ?
b) with warm mass properties a) NS.
c) that is absolutely stable b) CS.
d) that is stable c) SC.
d) ST.
50.4.2.4 (3644)
When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur? 50.5.2.1 (3651)
a) When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air. Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing rain?
b) When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air. a) Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature below 0°C.
c) When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air. b) Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C.
d) When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air. c) Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.
d) An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through which rain is falling.
50.4.2.4 (3645)
Frontal fog is most likely to occur 50.5.2.1 (3652)
a) in advance of a warm front What type of cloud can produce hail showers?
b) in rear of a warm front a) CB
c) in summer in the early morning b) NS
d) in winter in the early morning c) CS
d) AC
50.4.2.5 (3646)
What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation of hill fog? 50.5.2.1 (3653)
a) Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills. The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that
b) High relative humidity and an unstable air mass a) freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
c) Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity b) a cold front has passed
d) Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds striking the range c) there are thunderstorms in the area
d) a warm front has passed
50.5.1.1 (3647)
Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall 50.5.2.1 (3654)
in mid-latitudes? With which of the following types of cloud is ""+RA"" precipitation most commonly
a) Drizzle. associated?

305
a) NS a) rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C
b) AC b) ice pellets melt
c) SC c) water vapour first turns into water droplets
d) ST d) snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air

50.5.2.1 (3655) 50.5.2.1 (3662)

With what type of cloud is ""GR"" precipitation most commonly associated? Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from
a) CB a) convective clouds
b) AS b) stratified clouds
c) ST c) cirro-type clouds
d) CC d) clouds containing only ice crystals

50.5.2.1 (3656) 50.5.2.1 (3663)

With what type of cloud is ""DZ"" precipitation most commonly associated? Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from
a) ST a) stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence
b) CB b) convective clouds with little or no turbulence
c) CC c) stratiform clouds with severe turbulence
d) CU d) convective clouds with moderate turbulence

50.5.2.1 (3657) 50.5.2.1 (3664)

Which of the following cloud types is least likely to produce precipitation ? Large hail stones
a) CI a) are typically associated with severe thunderstorms
b) AS b) only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes
c) CB c) are entirely composed of clear ice
d) NS d) only occur in frontal thunderstorms

50.5.2.1 (3658) 50.5.2.1 (3665)

With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely during the summer The following statements deal with precipitation, turbulence and icing. Select the
months ? list containing the most likely alternatives for NS cloud:
a) SC, AS a) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable and may range
b) CB, ST between light and severe. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
c) NS, CC b) Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
d) AS, NS c) Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and turbulence are frequently severe.
d) Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely more than moderate.
50.5.2.1 (3659)
With what type of cloud is ""+TSRA"" precipitation most commonly associated? 50.5.2.1 (3666)
a) CB From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?
b) AS a) Stratus.
c) SC b) Altostratus
d) NS c) Cumulus
d) Cirrostratus.
50.5.2.1 (3660)
Freezing precipitation occurs 50.5.2.1 (3667)
a) mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?
b) only in the precipitation of a cold front a) Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
c) only in the precipitation of a warm front b) Towering cumulus and altostratus.
d) mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow c) Altostratus and stratus.
d) Nimbostratus.
50.5.2.1 (3661)
Freezing rain occurs when

306
50.5.2.1 (3668) 50.6.1.2 (3675)
What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ? (For this question use annex 050-2065A)What is the classification of the airmass
a) Cumulus and cumulonimbus affecting position ""Q"" at 0600 UTC?
b) Cumulus and altostratus a) Tropical maritime.
c) Altostratus and stratus b) Polar maritime.
d) Nimbostratus c) Polar continental.
d) Tropical continental.
50.6.1.1 (3669)
An airmass is unstable when 50.6.1.2 (3676)
a) an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a considerable height. In which of the following regions does polar maritime air originate ?
b) temperature and humidity are not constant a) East of Greenland
c) pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal area b) Region of British Isles
d) temperature increases with height c) Baltic Sea
d) Black Sea
50.6.1.1 (3670)
An airmass is stable when 50.6.2.1 (3677)
a) the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become weaker and What type of low pressure area is associated with a surface front?
disappears. a) Polar front low.
b) temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height b) A cold air pool.
c) pressure is constant c) A low on lee side of a mountain.
d) the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m d) Heat low.

50.6.1.2 (3671) 50.6.2.1 (3678)

What are the typical differences between the temperature and humidity between At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic lows moving from west to
an air mass with its origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over east generally at their most southerly position?
northern Russia ? a) Winter.
a) The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the North-Russian air. b) Summer.
b) The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air of the Azores. c) Spring.
c) The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-Russian air. d) Autumn.
d) The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of the Azores.
50.6.2.1 (3679)
50.6.1.2 (3672) The polar front is the boundary between:
Where is the source of tropical continental air that affects Europe in summer? a) polar air and tropical air.
a) The southern Balkan region and the Near East. b) arctic air and polar air.
b) Southern Italy. c) arctic air and tropical air.
c) Southern France. d) maritime polar air and continental polar air.
d) The Azores region.
50.6.2.1 (3680)
50.6.1.2 (3673) (For this question use annex 050-4297A)Examining the pictures, on which one of
Where does polar continental air originate? the tracks (dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?
a) Siberian landmass. a) Track B-D
b) Areas of arctic water. b) Track B-C
c) The region of the Baltic sea. c) Track A-D
d) The region of Greenland. d) Track A-E

50.6.1.2 (3674) 50.6.2.2 (3681)

In which air mass are extremely low temperatures encountered? What type of fronts are most likely to be present during the winter in Central
a) Polar continental air. Europe when temperatures close to the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain
b) Polar maritime air. starts to fall?
c) Tropical continental air. a) Warm fronts, warm occlusions.
d) Arctic maritime air. b) Cold occlusions.
307
c) High level cold fronts. 50.6.2.2 (3688)
d) Cold fronts. What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm front ?
a) At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS until the front
b) Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS begin
50.6.2.2 (3682)
c) At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the front CB
Which of the following conditions are you most likely to encounter when
d) At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some 250 km thickening AS
approaching an active warm front at medium to low level ?
a) Low cloud base and poor visibility.
b) Severe thunderstorms at low altitude. 50.6.2.2 (3689)
c) Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground. If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing level is at 10000 feet in the
d) High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated thunderstorms. warm air and at 2000 feet in the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of
freezing rain the lowest ?
a) 12000 feet
50.6.2.2 (3683)
b) 9000 feet
During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the following sequence of
c) 5000 feet
clouds:Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus.Which of the following are
d) 3000 feet
you most likely to encounter ?
a) Decreasing temperatures.
b) Strong, gusty winds. 50.6.2.2 (3690)
c) A strong downdraught. Read this description: ""After such a fine day, the ring around the moon was a bad
d) Increasing temperatures. sign yesterday evening for the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down
outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low ceiling of uniform grey, but at
least it has become a little bit warmer."" Which of these weather phenomena is
50.6.2.2 (3684)
being described?
What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low levels when a warm air mass
a) A warm front
overrides a cold air mass?
b) A blizzard
a) Nimbostratus.
c) Weather at the back of a cold front
b) Cumulus.
d) A cold front
c) Altostratus.
d) Cumulonimbus.
50.6.2.2 (3691)
Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur in a warm front if
50.6.2.2 (3685)
a) the warm air is convectively unstable.
The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
b) the cold air is convectively unstable.
a) 1/150
c) the cold air is convectively stable.
b) 1/50
d) the warm air is convectively stable.
c) 1/300
d) 1/500
50.6.2.2 (3692)
On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching
50.6.2.2 (3686)
a) QFE and QNH decrease.
In which of the following situations can freezing rain be encountered ?
b) QFE and QNH increase.
a) Ahead of a warm front in the winter
c) QFE increases and QNH decreases.
b) Ahead of a cold front in the winter
d) QFE decreases and QNH increases.
c) Behind a warm front in the summer
d) Ahead of a cold front in the summer
50.6.2.2 (3693)
The main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a
50.6.2.2 (3687)
warm front is the
How do air masses move at a warm front ?
a) saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
a) Warm air overrides a cold air mass
b) saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and evaporating
b) Cold air overrides a warm air mass
c) reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds
c) Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
d) warm air moving over a cold surface
d) Warm air undercuts a cold air mass

50.6.2.3 (3694)
After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction of the
308
cold air, what will you encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after a 50.6.2.4 (3701)
marked change in temperature? What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a polar front depression over
a) A veering in the wind direction. Central Europe in the summer ?
b) A backing in the wind direction. a) Fair weather CU
c) An increase in tailwind. b) BKN CU and CB
d) A decrease in headwind. c) Sky clear
d) ST with drizzle
50.6.2.3 (3695)
(For this question use annex 050-2388A)What change in pressure, will occur at 50.6.2.4 (3702)
point A, during the next hour? What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
a) A rise in pressure ground during the period following the passage of an active cold front ?
b) A drop in pressure a) It will have decreased.
c) Irregular fluctuations b) It will remain unchanged.
d) Approximately constant pressure c) It will have increased.
d) It will show a small increase or decrease.
50.6.2.3 (3696)
What type of precipitation would you expect at an active unstable cold front? 50.6.2.4 (3703)
a) Showers associated with thunderstorms What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
b) Freezing rain ground shortly before an active cold front passes?
c) Light to moderate continuous rain a) It will be increasing.
d) Drizzle b) It will remain unchanged.
c) It will be decreasing.
d) It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
50.6.2.3 (3697)
What is the relative movement of the two airmasses along a cold front ?
a) Cold air pushes under a warm air mass 50.6.2.4 (3704)
b) Warm air pushes over a cold air mass What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the
c) Cold air slides over a warm air mass ground as an active cold front is passing?
d) Warm air pushes under a cold air mass a) It will first increase then decrease.
b) It will remain unchanged.
c) It will first decrease then increase.
50.6.2.3 (3698)
d) It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
Which of the following is typical for the passage of a cold front in the summer ?
a) Mainly towering clouds
b) Mainly layered clouds 50.6.2.5 (3705)
c) Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed What weather conditions are prevalent during the summer, over the North Sea,
d) Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed approximately 300 km behind a quickly moving cold front?
a) Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.
b) Showers and thunderstorms.
50.6.2.4 (3699)
c) Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS.
Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical of the warm sector of a
d) 8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.
depression during winter?
a) ST with drizzle.
b) CI, CS. 50.6.2.6 (3706)
c) Fair weather CU. Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion with cold front characteristics?
d) CU, CB. a) Behind the front.
b) Ahead of the front.
c) At the surface position of the front.
50.6.2.4 (3700)
d) At the junction of the occlusion.
What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm sector of tropical
maritime air, during the summer?
a) Moderate (several km). 50.6.2.6 (3707)
b) Very poor (less than 1 km). Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
c) Good (greater than 10 km). a) The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
d) Very good (greater than 50 km). b) The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air mass ahead of the front
309
c) The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass behind the front 50.6.2.7 (3714)
d) The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front What characterizes a stationary front ?
a) The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
b) The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to the front
50.6.2.6 (3708)
c) The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the cold air
When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in Europe?
d) The weather conditions that it originates is a combination between those of an intense cold
a) Summer
front and those of a warm and very active front
b) Winter
c) Autumn and winter
d) Winter and spring 50.6.2.8 (3715)
In which approximate direction does the centre of a frontal depression move?
a) In the direction of the warm sector isobars.
50.6.2.6 (3709)
b) In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front.
(For this question use annex 050-2060A)Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is
c) In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase.
represented by the cross-section shown on the left ?
d) In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front.
a) Track D-A
b) Track C-A
c) Track B-A 50.6.2.8 (3716)
d) Track B-C What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?
a) Cold front.
b) Warm front.
50.6.2.6 (3710)
c) Cold occlusion.
(For this question use annex 050-2061A)Which cross-section of air mass and cloud
d) Warm occlusion.
presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B?
a) 3
b) 1 50.6.2.8 (3717)
c) 2 In which main direction does a polar front depression move?
d) 4 a) Along the front towards the east
b) Along the front towards the west
c) Across the front towards the north
50.6.2.6 (3711)
d) Across the front towards the south
How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ?
a) The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of the occlusion, the
warm air mass is above ground level. 50.6.2.8 (3718)
b) The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the occlusion, the warm air mass is (For this question use annex 050-2064A)Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual
above ground level. direction of movement, where will this polar frontal wave have moved ?
c) The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the occlusion, the less cold air is above a) Position 3
ground level. b) Position 1
d) The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the occlusion, the less cold air mass is c) Position 2
above ground level. d) Position 4

50.6.2.6 (3712) 50.6.2.8 (3719)

In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a warm occlusion when the cold Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the direction of the 2000 feet wind
air a) in the warm sector
a) behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm air at a high altitude. b) in front of the warm front
b) in front of the surface position of front is only at a high altitude. c) behind the cold front
c) behind is colder than the cold air in front. d) at the apex of the wave
d) behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air being at a high altitude.
50.6.2.8 (3720)
50.6.2.6 (3713) A frontal depression passes through the airport. What form of precipitation do you
In a warm front occlusion expect ?
a) the warm air is lifted a) Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front arrives. The
b) the warm front overtakes the cold front precipitation stops for several hours within the warm sector. On the arrival of the
c) the warm front becomes a front aloft cold front, showers within a couple of hours.
d) the cold air is lifted b) Continous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a period of some 24 hours.
310
c) Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. Drizzle in the warm sector within 50.7.1.1 (3725)
12 hours. Rain or snow on the passage of the cold front. In which of the following areas do surface high pressure systems usually
d) Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front arrives. Within the warm sector predominate over the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the
the rain increases. Improvement on the passage of the cold front. adjoining land areas during the northern summer?
a) Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
b) Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
50.6.2.8 (3721)
c) Iceland, SW USA, Azores
(For this question use annex 050-4298A)Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual
d) Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
direction of movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave have moved ?
a) Position C
b) Position D 50.7.1.1 (3726)
c) Position A Select the answer which you consider will complete correctly the following
d) Position B statement in relation to the main pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic
region between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant mean low pressure
system at the surface is usually centred over
50.6.2.8 (3722)
a) Iceland / Greenland
(For this question use annex 050-4389A)This chart shows the weather conditions
b) USA
on the ground at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports reflects
c) Siberia
weather development at Geneva Airport?
d) Azores
a) TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 BECMG 0810 5000 RA
BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 +RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000
SCT030 BKN090 = 50.7.1.1 (3727)
b) TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjacent
05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 = land areas during mid-summer, the predominant pressure systems are
c) TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080 TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or a) Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
+SHRA BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 = b) Scandinavian high and Azores high
d) TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG 0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU c) weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB = d) Azores low and Icelandic high

50.6.2.8 (3723) 50.7.1.1 (3728)

In Zurich during a summer day the following weather observations were Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and 65°N together with the
taken:160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 13/12 Q1010 NOSIG adjacent land areas during winter, the normal disposition of the main anticyclones
=160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010 RERA NOSIG =160850Z at the surface is
25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009 NOSIG =161050Z 24008KT 9999 a) Azores, Siberia
SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008 NOSIG =161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 b) Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
NOSIG =161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003 BECMG c) NE Canada, Iceland
25020G40KT TS =161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB 18/16 d) Greenland, Iberian peninsula
Q1002 NOSIG =161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 NOSIG
=What do you conclude based on these observations?
50.7.2.1 (3729)
a) A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a cold front during
What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a large high pressure area?
late afternoon
a) Subsidence.
b) A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late afternoon
b) Convergence.
c) A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a warm front during late
c) Advection.
afternoon
d) Convection.
d) Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the station

50.7.2.1 (3730)
50.6.2.8 (3724)
What surface weather is associated with a stationary high pressure region over
An observer on the northern hemisphere is under influence of the wind system of a
land in the winter?
depression, which is moving from West to East. The centre of the depression
a) A tendency for fog and low ST.
passes to the South of the observer. For this observer the wind direction is
b) Thunderstorms.
a) continuously backing
c) NS with continuous rain.
b) continuously veering
d) The possibility of snow showers.
c) initially backing, then veering
d) initially veering, then backing
311
50.7.2.1 (3731) 50.7.2.1 (3738)
In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be expected over land during Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it
the summer in the centre of a stationary high pressure zone ? a) is heated by compression
a) Calm winds, haze. b) reaches warmer layers
b) TS, SH. c) is heated by expansion
c) CB, TS. d) loses water vapour
d) NS.
50.7.3.1 (3739)
50.7.2.1 (3732) What is encountered during the summer, over land, in the centre of a cold air pool?
What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at higher levels in a stationary a) Showers and thunderstorms.
high? b) Strong westerly winds.
a) Sinking air c) Fine weather CU.
b) Rising air d) Nothing (CAVOK).
c) Instability
d) Divergence at higher levels
50.7.3.1 (3740)
How do you recognize a cold air pool?
50.7.2.1 (3733) a) As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
Subsidence is : b) As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
a) vertically downwards motion of air c) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a low pressure area.
b) horizontal motion of air d) A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart as a high pressure area.
c) vertically upwards motion of air
d) the same as convection
50.7.3.1 (3741)
What type of air movement is associated with the centre line of a trough?
50.7.2.1 (3734) a) Convergence with lifting.
If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a b) Divergence with descending air.
a) warm high c) Divergence with lifting.
b) cold low d) Convergence with descending air.
c) cold high
d) warm low
50.7.3.1 (3742)
With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland during wintertime the
50.7.2.1 (3735) weather likely to be experienced is :
The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere of an older high pressure a) strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
area in the mid-latitudes is called b) light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
a) subsidence inversion c) strong wind with subsidence at low levels
b) friction inversion d) strong wind associated with an almost clear sky
c) radiation inversion
d) trade wind inversion
50.7.3.1 (3743)
Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated with a non frontal thermal
50.7.2.1 (3736) depression because of :
A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is a) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread ascent of
a) a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N air in the depression
b) quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold anticyclone b) surface convergence and upper level divergence causing widespread descent of air in the
c) situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering depressions depression
d) a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over Scandinavia c) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread descent of air in the
depression
d) surface divergence and upper level convergence causing widespread ascent of air in the
50.7.2.1 (3737)
depression
The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
a) subsidence
b) convection 50.7.3.1 (3744)
c) a decrease in temperature A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is an area of
d) a decrease in pressure a) convergence and widespread ascent
312
b) divergence and subsidence 50.7.4.1 (3751)
c) divergence and widespread ascent What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane in the Carribean area?
d) convergence and subsidence a) West in the earlier stages and later north east
b) East
c) West deep into the U.S.
50.7.3.1 (3745)
d) West in the earlier stages and later south east
Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal depression?
a) It forms over land in summer
b) It forms over the ocean in summer 50.7.4.1 (3752)
c) It forms over the ocean in winter Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North Atlantic?
d) It forms over land in winter a) From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is warmer than its
surroundings
b) They intensify rapidly after landfall
50.7.3.1 (3746)
c) The diameter is 50-500 m
Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern hemisphere?
d) Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter
a) It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense
b) It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense
c) It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary 50.7.4.1 (3753)
d) It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop mostly in the western parts of
the tropical oceans?
a) Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the trade winds`long sea
50.7.4.1 (3747)
passage
What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance, could indicate the presence of
b) Because they are areas in which there is a strong progressive windshear with increase of
a tropical revolving storm?
height
a) Dense CI
c) Because there is a maximal temperature difference between land mass and sea
b) Frequent SC
d) Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a strong rotary circulation
c) Excessive accumulation of CU
d) NS spread over a large area
50.7.4.2 (3754)
At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to occur over the southern
50.7.4.1 (3748)
islands of Japan?
Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical revolving storm?
a) July to November.
a) In the wall of clouds around the eye.
b) September to January.
b) Anywhere in the eye.
c) January to May.
c) In the centre of the eye.
d) May to July.
d) About 600 km away from the eye.

50.7.4.2 (3755)
50.7.4.1 (3749)
On which coast of North America, is the danger of tropical revolving storms the
Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast Pacific and the south
greatest?
Atlantic because
a) SE coast
a) of the low water temperature.
b) W coast
b) there is no coriolis force present.
c) N coast
c) of the strong southeast wind.
d) NE coast
d) the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern hemisphere.

50.7.4.2 (3756)
50.7.4.1 (3750)
What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean area?
What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving storm?
a) West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
a) Latent heat released from condensing water vapour.
b) East then south.
b) Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure trough and subtropical high
c) West deep into the USA.
pressure belt.
d) West in the earlier stages and later turning south east.
c) Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.
d) The equatorial jet stream.
50.7.4.2 (3757)
During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to appear in the northern
hemisphere?
313
a) Summer and autumn. c) May to July and are called cyclones
b) Winter. d) December to April and are called tornadoes
c) Winter and spring.
d) All seasons.
50.7.4.2 (3764)
When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely to affect Darwin, on the
50.7.4.2 (3758) central north coast of Australia?
During which months is the Hurricane season in the Caribbean? a) December to April
a) July until November. b) May to July
b) October until January. c) August to October
c) January until April. d) Not experienced at Darwin
d) April until July.
50.8.1.1 (3765)
50.7.4.2 (3759) At about what geographical latitude as average is assumed for the zone of
The region of the globe where the greatest number of tropical revolving storms prevailing westerlies?
occur is a) 50°N.
a) the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and the Chinese b) 10°N.
coastline. c) 30°N.
b) the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the south-east coastline of the d) 80°N.
USA.
c) the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar, Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
50.8.1.1 (3766)
d) the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is normally deeper in winter than in
summer is that
50.7.4.2 (3760) a) the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial areas are much greater
(For this question use annex 050-10788A)The arrows labelled ""r"" represent the in winter.
mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from b) the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher in winter.
a) December to April and are called cyclones c) the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable for the development of lows.
b) December to April and are called tornadoes d) converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.
c) June to October and are called typhoons
d) June to October and are called hurricanes
50.8.1.1 (3767)
(For this question use annex 050-10795A)Considering that portion of the route
50.7.4.2 (3761) indicated from 30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 are most
(For this question use annex 050-10791A)The arrows labelled ""s"" represent the likely to be
mean tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from a) a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
a) May to November and are called cyclones b) a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 90 kt
b) December to April and are called cyclones c) variable in direction and less than 30 kt
c) May to November and are called hurricanes d) light easterlies
d) December to April and are called typhoons
50.8.1.2 (3768)
50.7.4.2 (3762) What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of precipitation in the equatorial
(For this question use annex 050-10792A)The arrows labelled ""t"" represents the region ?
mean track of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from a) Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the whole year, but
a) June to October and are called cyclones frequency is highest during two periods: April-May and October-November.
b) December to April and are called hurricanes b) Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The frequency is the same throughout the
c) June to October and are called tornadoes year
d) June to October and are called hurricanes c) Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but continuous rain occurs also. The
greatest intensity is in July.
d) Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year, the frequency is highest in January.
50.7.4.2 (3763)
(For this question use annex 050-10793A)The arrows labelled ""u"" represent the
tracks of tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from 50.8.2.2 (3769)
a) July to October and are called typhoons When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
b) January to March and are called willy-willies a) March to May and October to November.
314
b) December to February and July to October. 50.8.2.3 (3775)
c) March to May and August to October. Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies at the equator?
d) April to July and December to February. a) SE trade winds and NE trade winds
b) SW monsoon and NW monsoon
c) SW monsoon and NW trade winds
50.8.2.2 (3770)
d) NW monsoon and SW trade winds
During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to Karachi (25°N - 67°E)
experience an average tailwind component of 22 kt. In January the same flights,
also operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt. What is the reason 50.8.2.3 (3776)
for this difference? Which of the following best describes the intertropical convergence zone ?
a) The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of the regional wind a) The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere meet those of the
system. southern hemisphere.
b) The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very unusual, favourable b) The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly trade winds over Africa.
conditions. c) The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.
c) The flights in January encountered, by chance, very unusual, adverse conditions. d) The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high pressure belt.
d) The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet stream.
50.8.2.3 (3777)
50.8.2.2 (3771) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly affects
Which of the following statements concerning trade winds is correct? a) western Africa between 10° and 20°N and the northern coasts of the Arabian
a) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and more pronounced over sea in July.
the oceans b) western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July.
b) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the continents c) the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N, depending on the time of year.
c) They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced over the oceans d) western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and 30°N parallels, depending on the
d) They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are more pronounced over the time of the year.
continents
50.8.2.3 (3778)
50.8.2.3 (3772) Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the movement of the
Which one of the following statements regarding the intertropical convergence ITCZ in the region of West Africa?
zone (ITCZ) is correct? a) It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in July
a) Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected within the area of b) It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in January
the ITCZ. c) It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and 10 degrees South.
b) Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ. d) It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10 degrees North.
c) The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream.
d) The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of the year.
50.8.2.3 (3779)
Which of the following statements concerning the intertropical convergence zone
50.8.2.3 (3773) is true?
In which of the following bands of latitude is the intertropical convergence zone a) There are frequent occurrences of CB
most likely to be encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de Janeiro? b) It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in the southern hemisphere in
a) 0° - 7°N. January
b) 3° - 8°S. c) It does not change its position over the oceans during the year
c) 8° - 12°S. d) It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity
d) 7° - 12°N.
50.8.2.3 (3780)
50.8.2.3 (3774) (For this question use annex 050-10797A)The dotted line designated ""Z""
Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, may the ITCZ be represents the
encountered? a) mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during July
a) In the vicinity of Dakar b) mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during January
b) Near the Canary Islands c) northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during July
c) At the latitudes of Gibraltar d) northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January
d) At the latitudes of Algeria
50.8.2.3 (3781)
(For this question use annex 050-10798A)The dotted line labelled ""Y"" represents
315
the 50.8.2.4 (3788)
a) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during January What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to the main part of India its
b) axis of the subtropical jet stream during January greatest proportion of precipitation?
c) mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) during July a) South-west monsoon.
d) mean position of the temperate/tropical front during July b) South-east trade wind.
c) Indian, maritime tropical air mass.
d) Winter monsoon.
50.8.2.3 (3782)
(For this question use annex 050-10799A)What weather conditions are most likely
to affect an approach to Dakar during July? 50.8.2.4 (3789)
a) Wet and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) (For this question use annex 050-10800A)Weather conditions at Bombay during
b) Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high pressure system early July are mainly influenced by the
c) Generally clear skies - NW trade winds a) SW monsoon
d) Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan b) NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
c) passage of frontal system generated in the south indian ocean
d) high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the persian gulf
50.8.2.4 (3783)
What winds are mainly associated with the winter monsoon in the monsoon
regions of the Indian sub-continent ? 50.8.2.4 (3790)
a) Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air. (For this question use annex 050-10801A)Weather conditions at Bombay during
b) Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air. January are mainly influenced by the
c) Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air. a) NE monsoon
d) Southeasterly winds carrying warm and humid air. b) SW monsoon
c) NW monsoon
d) SE monsoon
50.8.2.4 (3784)
What weather conditions are indications of the summer monsoon in India?
a) Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain. 50.8.2.4 (3791)
b) Stratus clouds and drizzle. The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in
c) Sandstorms. a) September, October, November
d) Fog. b) July, August, September
c) December, January, February
d) February, March, April
50.8.2.4 (3785)
From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the southern hemisphere?
a) SE 50.8.2.4 (3792)
b) NE The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast of Africa north of the
c) SW equator (gulf of Guinea) is a
d) N a) SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter
b) SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
c) NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter
50.8.2.4 (3786)
d) NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer
What name is given to the low level wind system between the subtropical high
pressure belt and the equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
a) Trade winds. 50.8.2.4 (3793)
b) Doldrums. Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are the
c) Westerly winds. a) SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January
d) Monsoon. b) SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January
c) NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
d) SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January
50.8.2.4 (3787)
In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
a) In June. 50.8.2.5 (3794)
b) In October. What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?
c) In December. a) Thunderstorms and rain.
d) In March. b) Continuous rain.

316
c) Clear skies. 50.8.3.3 (3800)
d) Frontal weather. (For this question use annex 050-2059A)Which typical weather situation is shown
on the weather chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa)
a) Uniform pressure pattern.
50.8.2.5 (3795)
b) Cutting wind.
An easterly wave is a
c) West wind condition.
a) wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with severe convective
d) Warm south wind condition (Foehn).
activity in rear of its trough
b) wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India, moving from east to west, with
severe convective activity ahead of its trough 50.8.3.3 (3801)
c) small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from east to west, with severe With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms around, what will the
convective activity ahead of its trough indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a
d) disturbance in the higher levels associated with the equatorial easterly jet, moving from period of about ten minutes?
east to west, with severe convective activity in rear of its trough a) Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.
b) Increase rapidly.
c) Show strong fluctuations.
50.8.3.1 (3796)
d) Decrease rapidly.
(For this question use annex 050-4391A)Which typical weather condition is shown
by the design for the area of Central Europe ?
a) Westerly waves 50.8.3.3 (3802)
b) Uniform pressure pattern (For this question use annex 050-10803A)The weather most likely to be
c) Cutting wind experienced at position ""R"" is
d) Easterly waves a) fine and warm at first - AC Castellanus and CB in late afternoon with
thunderstorms
b) early morning fog lifting to low stratus
50.8.3.2 (3797)
c) increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain
(For this question use annex 050-4392A)Which typical weather condition is shown
d) overcast with drizzle and hill fog
by the design for northern Italy?
a) High pressure
b) Warm southerly wind 50.8.3.4 (3803)
c) Westerly wind A cold pool
d) Easterly wind a) is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature fields of the middle
troposphere and may show little or no sign on a surface chart
b) develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar or maritime arctic air currents
50.8.3.2 (3798)
stream southwards along the eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in
(For this question use annex 050-4393A)The attached chart shows the weather
association with occluded systems
conditions on the ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the following
c) normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively in summer
reports reflects weather development at Zurich Airport?
d) occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this region is under the influence
a) TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618 00000KT 3500 MIFG
of cold north-westerly airstream
BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG 2022 0100 FG VV001 =
b) TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO 1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =
c) TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030 TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 50.8.4.1 (3804)
+SNRA BKN003 OVC015 = Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with
d) TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO 2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA stormy winds from the south (Foehn)?
BKN020CB = a) Good visibility, turbulence.
b) Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.
c) Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.
50.8.3.2 (3799)
d) Icing, huge mass of clouds.
(For this question use annex 050-10802A)The weather most likely to be
experienced at position ""R"" is
a) fine and warm with little or no cloud 50.8.4.1 (3805)
b) early morning fog lifting to low stratus For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers associated with a Harmattan
c) increasing high and medium cloud cover and generally good visibility wind?
d) mainly overcast with anticyclonic gloom a) Dust and poor visibility.
b) Thunderstorms.

317
c) Sand up to FL 150. 50.8.4.1 (3812)
d) Hail. The Bora is a
a) cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
b) squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
50.8.4.1 (3806)
c) cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air mass
What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind, blowing down the northern
d) cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and heavy showers
Adriatic coast, mainly during the winter and spring called?
a) Bora.
b) Ghibli. 50.8.4.1 (3813)
c) Mistral. The Foehn wind is a
d) Scirocco. a) warm fall wind
b) cold fall wind
c) warm anabatic wind
50.8.4.1 (3807)
d) cold anabatic wind
What is characteristic of the pamperos?
a) A marked advance of cold air in South America
b) Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains 50.8.4.1 (3814)
c) A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind?
d) Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees a) Chinook
b) Scirocco
c) Harmattan
50.8.4.1 (3808)
d) Bora
What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would you expect with Foehn
from south?
a) Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps 50.8.4.1 (3815)
b) Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps A Foehn wind occurs on the
c) Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps a) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by significant moisture loss by
d) Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the Alps precipitation from cloud
b) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface heating
c) windward side of a mountain range and is caused by surface cooling and reverse air flow
50.8.4.1 (3809)
d) leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the condensation level being lower on
Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter little or no precipitation?
the leeward side than on the windward side
a) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the south.
b) The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the north.
c) Frontal zones. 50.8.4.1 (3816)
d) Occlusions. The Chinook is a
a) warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the leeward side of the Rocky
Mountains
50.8.4.1 (3810)
b) very cold wind with blowing snow
(For this question use annex 050-4305A)Under the weather conditions depicted,
c) downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools along mountain slopes
which of the following statements is likely to apply?
d) warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers
a) Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over Central Europe.
b) Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe.
c) Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps. 50.8.4.1 (3817)
d) Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter. A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by prior enforced ascent of air
over hills or mountains is known as a
a) Foehn
50.8.4.1 (3811)
b) Harmattan
(For this question use annex 050-4725A)Considering the route indicates from
c) Mistral
Lisbon to Freetown, the Harmattan is a
d) Bora
a) NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to April reducing visibility
in rising dust.
b) SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection fog along the West African coast 50.8.4.1 (3818)
south of 15°N. A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that blows in winter over large
c) warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of North Africa. parts of North West Africa is known as a
d) localised depression giving squally winds. a) Harmattan
b) Scirocco
318
c) Pampero 50.9.1.1 (3825)
d) Khamsin (For this question use annex 050-4314A)Continuous freezing rain is observed at an
airfield. Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect temperatures above
the airfield concerned?
50.8.4.1 (3819)
a) Diagram d)
What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind, that sometimes blows
b) Diagram c)
over a certain part of Europe?
c) Diagram b)
a) Mistral.
d) Diagram a)
b) Foehn.
c) Bora.
d) Typhoon. 50.9.1.1 (3826)
Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature profile :3000 FT
+15°C6000 FT +8°C10000 FT +1°C14000 FT -6°C18000 FT -14°C24000 FT -26°CAt
50.8.4.1 (3820)
which of the following flight levels is the risk for aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest?
What are the characteristics of the Bora ?
a) FL 150
a) It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter from a tableland
b) FL 80
downwards to the Adriatic
c) FL 180
b) It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a northwesterly direction in the
d) FL 220
Mediterranean
c) It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in the eastern Mediterranean, that
usually carries precipitation. 50.9.1.1 (3827)
d) It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara desert, that often carries dust. On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -5°C. The freezing level is at
3000 FT/AGL. At 4000 FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is
falling.According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to an inversion caused
50.8.4.1 (3821)
by warm air sliding up and over an inclined front. Would you expect icing?
What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows downwards from mountain
a) Yes, between ground level and 3000 FT/AGL.
chains? In the Alps, for instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly wind
b) Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL.
depending on the weather situation.
c) No, flights clear of cloud experience no icing.
a) Foehn.
d) No, absolutely no icing will occur.
b) Mistral.
c) Bora.
d) Scirocco. 50.9.1.1 (3828)
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest rate
of accretion ?
50.9.1.1 (3822)
a) Freezing rain.
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
b) Cirrus clouds.
a) CI
c) Stratus clouds.
b) SC
d) Snow.
c) NS
d) CU
50.9.1.1 (3829)
In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to form on the aircraft's
50.9.1.1 (3823)
surface?
In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled out?
a) 0°C to -10°C
a) CS
b) +10°C to 0°C
b) AS
c) -20°C to -35°C
c) SC
d) -35°C to -50°C
d) NS

50.9.1.1 (3830)
50.9.1.1 (3824)
Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause airframe icing ?
icing?
a) #NAME?
a) It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
b) GR
b) It will occur in clear-sky conditions
c) SHSN
c) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
d) PE
d) It always occurs in altostratus cloud

319
50.9.1.1 (3831) a) A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the upper part due to
Which of the following statements is true regarding moderate-to-severe airframe accumulation of large droplets.
icing? b) Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but only light icing in clouds.
a) It will not occur in clear-sky conditions c) Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
b) It always occurs in altostratus cloud d) Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because clouds consist of ice crystals
c) It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
d) It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus capillatus formation
50.9.1.1 (3838)
Which one of the following statements concerning the formation of aircraft icing is
50.9.1.1 (3832) most correct ?
You have been flying for some time in dense layered cloud. The outside air a) A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and ice crystals produces
temperature is -25°C. Which of the following statements is true? aircraft icing
a) Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions b) Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus clouds.
b) Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions c) Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases well below minus 12 degrees C.
c) If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need to worry, as CB is unlikely to d) Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall from a cloud.
form in such cloud
d) In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside air temperature of -5°C
50.9.1.1 (3839)
Which of the following factors have the greatest effect on the formation of the
50.9.1.1 (3833) various types of ice on an aircraft ?
Freezing fog exists if fog droplets a) Cloud temperature and droplet size
a) are supercooled b) Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets
b) are frozen c) Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil
c) are freezing very rapidly d) Relative humidity inside the cloud
d) freeze when temperature falls below zero
50.9.1.2 (3840)
50.9.1.1 (3834) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft surfaces of
A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of severe icing when the a) small supercooled water drops.
temperature profile b) large supercooled water drops.
a) intersects the 0°C isotherm twice c) water vapour.
b) coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate d) snow.
c) indicates temperatures below -40°C
d) indicates temperatures above 3°C
50.9.1.2 (3841)
Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur
50.9.1.1 (3835) in a CB?
In which of the following situations is an aircraft most susceptible to icing ? a) Between -2°C and -15°C
a) Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below zero degrees C. b) Between -20°C and -30°C
b) Flying in dense cirrus clouds. c) Close to the freezing level
c) Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer. d) Between -30°C and -40°C
d) Flying in heavy drizzle.
50.9.1.2 (3842)
50.9.1.1 (3836) Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
Which of the following cloud types are most likely to produce light to moderate a) large supercooled water drops
icing when they are not subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled b) water vapour
cloud droplets? c) small supercooled water drops
a) Altocumulus and altostratus. d) snow
b) Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
c) Stratus and cumulonimbus
50.9.1.2 (3843)
d) Altostratus and cirrocumulus
During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets freeze
a) rapidly and do not spread out
50.9.1.1 (3837) b) slowly and do not spread out
A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of stratocumulus clouds and c) slowly and spread out
temperature close to zero degrees C at ground level, you can expect: d) rapidly and spread out
320
50.9.1.2 (3844) 50.9.1.2 (3851)
Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets are While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a small amount of a white
a) large and at a temperature just below freezing and rough powderlike contamination is detected along the leading edge of the
b) small and at a temperature just below freezing wing. This contamination is called:
c) small and freeze rapidly a) Rime ice.
d) of any size at temperatures below -35°C. b) Clear ice.
c) Mixed ice.
d) Frost.
50.9.1.2 (3845)
Clear ice forms as a result of
a) supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing process 50.9.1.2 (3852)
b) water vapour freezing to the aircraft A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an airfoil will most likely
c) ice pellets splattering on the aircraft a) freeze immediately and create rime ice.
d) supercooled droplets freezing on impact b) freeze immediately and create clear ice.
c) travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.
d) travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.
50.9.1.2 (3846)
Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact on an aircraft, form
a) clear ice 50.9.1.3 (3853)
b) rime ice How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000 FT/AGL, when he is unable to
c) hoar frost deice, nor land?
d) cloudy ice a) He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
b) He descends to the warm air layer below.
c) He ascends to the cold air layer above.
50.9.1.2 (3847)
d) He continues to fly at the same altitude.
The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large supercooled drops that
have a temperature of -5°C is most likely to be
a) clear ice 50.9.1.3 (3854)
b) hoar frost At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change of course and/or altitude
c) rime ice desirable"" recommendation be followed?
d) cloudy ice a) Moderate
b) Light
c) Severe
50.9.1.2 (3848)
d) Extreme
Clear ice is dangerous because it
a) is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces
b) is translucent and only forms at the leading edges 50.9.1.3 (3855)
c) is not translucent and forms at the leading edges At what degree of icing should ICAO's ""Change course and/or altitude
d) spreads out and contains many air particles immediately"" instruction be followed?
a) Severe
b) Light
50.9.1.2 (3849)
c) Moderate
Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of
d) Extreme
a) water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
b) freezing rain striking the aircraft
c) droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing 50.9.1.3 (3856)
d) small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft At what degree of icing can ICAO's ""No change of course and altitude necessary""
recommendation be followed?
a) Light
50.9.1.2 (3850)
b) Moderate
Hoar frost is most likely to form when
c) Severe
a) taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion.
d) Extreme
b) flying inside convective clouds.
c) flying inside stratiform clouds.
d) flying in supercooled drizzle. 50.9.1.3 (3857)
The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
a) clear ice.
321
b) hoar frost. 50.9.2.1 (3863)
c) dry ice. A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and 27. Surface wind is
d) rime ice. 270/05, an inversion is reported at 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The
wind just above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest departure procedure ?
a) Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.
50.9.1.3 (3858)
b) Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage through the inversion.
Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the other with a thick profile
c) Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.
(T), are flying through the same cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists
d) Take-off is not possible under these conditions.
of small supercooled droplets. Which of the following statements is most correct
concerning ice accretion ?
a) Aircraft S experiences more icing than T. 50.9.2.2 (3864)
b) Aircraft T experiences more icing than S. The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an aircraft is proportional to the
c) Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing a) intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear
d) Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of droplets. b) height of the aircraft
c) stability of the air
d) intensity of the solar radiation
50.9.2.1 (3859)
How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
a) Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control 50.9.2.2 (3865)
at all times. The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above FL 250) is mainly of the
b) Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced without appreciable changes in type Clear Air Turbulence. In what way can moderate to severe Clear Air
altitude or attitude. Turbulence affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
c) Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft may only be out of a) The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage of worn out type. The
control momentarily. manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult or even impossible. For the
d) Continued flight in this environment will result in structural damage. passengers the flight will be unpleasant.
b) The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the aircraft will be difficult to
manoeuvre. The passengers will feel some discomfort.
50.9.2.1 (3860)
c) The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a washing-board (small scale) and
A zone of strong convection currents is encountered during a flight. In spite of
will not have influence on the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more difficult.
moderate gust you decide to continue the flight. What are your precautionary
The passengers will seldom notice anything of this turbulence.
measures?
d) The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight unpleasant for the passengers but the
a) Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if
manoeuvring will not be affected essentially.
aircraft performance parameters allow.
b) Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of convective currents if aircraft
performance parameters allow. 50.9.3.1 (3866)
c) Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents. What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ?
d) Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of convective currents. a) It promotes vertical windshear.
b) It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.
c) It prevents vertical windshear.
50.9.2.1 (3861)
d) It results in good visual conditions.
What is normally the most effective measure to reduce or avoid CAT effects?
a) Change of flight level.
b) Change of course. 50.9.3.1 (3867)
c) Increase of speed. Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest
d) Decrease of speed. a) at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.
b) at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
c) at the condensation level when there is strong surface friction.
50.9.2.1 (3862)
d) at the top of the friction layer.
An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air mass side at FL 270 and
experiencing moderate to severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL
310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by : 50.9.3.1 (3868)
a) Descending Vertical wind shear is
b) Climbing a) vertical variation in the horizontal wind
c) Turn right b) vertical variation in the vertical wind
d) Maintain FL 270 c) horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
d) horizontal variation in the vertical wind

322
50.9.3.2 (3869) 50.9.4.1 (3876)
Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the night A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered
a) in association with radiation inversions a) ahead of a cold front
b) in unstable atmospheres b) at an occluded front
c) and early morning only in winter c) in an airmass with cold mass properties
d) and early morning only in summer d) behind of a stationary front

50.9.3.2 (3870) 50.9.4.1 (3877)

The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm cell occur both up- and
a) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms downdrafts simultaneously?
b) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt a) Mature stage
c) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys b) Cumulus stage
d) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains. c) Dissipating stage
d) In all stages
50.9.3.2 (3871)
Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely to 50.9.4.1 (3878)
a) change significantly in speed and direction During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized
b) change in speed but not in direction predominantly by downdrafts?
c) change in direction but not in speed a) Dissipating stage
d) experience little or no change in speed and direction b) Cumulus stage
c) Mature stage
d) Anvil stage
50.9.4.1 (3872)
Where is a squall line to be expected?
a) In front of an active cold front. 50.9.4.1 (3879)
b) Behind a cold front. What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
c) In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels. a) Continuous updraft
d) At the surface position of a warm front. b) Roll cloud
c) Frequent lightning
d) Rain or hail at the surface
50.9.4.1 (3873)
What are squall lines?
a) Bands of intensive thunderstorms. 50.9.4.1 (3880)
b) Unusual intensive cold fronts. A gustfront is
c) The surface weather associated with upper air troughs. a) formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
d) The paths of tropical revolving storms. b) normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
c) characterized by heavy lightning
d) another name for a cold front
50.9.4.1 (3874)
What weather condition would you expect at a squall line?
a) Thunderstorms 50.9.4.2 (3881)
b) Strong steady rain In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to warm
c) Fog updrafts?
d) Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels a) Mid - afternoon.
b) Around midnight.
c) Early morning.
50.9.4.1 (3875)
d) Late morning.
At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be expected in connection with
a CB?
a) From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450. 50.9.4.2 (3882)
b) From the ground up to about FL 200. During which stage of thunderstorm development are rotor winds characterized by
c) From the ground up to about FL 100. roll clouds most likely to occur ?
d) From the base of the clouds up to FL 200. a) Mature stage.
b) Cumulus stage.

323
c) Dissipating stage. a) cumulus stage.
d) Cumulus stage and mature stage. b) mature stage.
c) dissipating stage.
d) period in which precipitation is falling.
50.9.4.2 (3883)
What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed
by lifting processes, over land? 50.9.4.2 (3890)
a) High temperatures, high humidity. Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
b) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures. a) mature stage.
c) Low temperatures, low humidity. b) cumulus stage.
d) Subsidence, inversion. c) dissipating stage.
d) period in which precipitation is not falling.
50.9.4.2 (3884)
Which of the following meteorological phenomenon indicates upper level 50.9.4.2 (3891)
instability which may lead to thunderstorm development ? What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
a) AC castellanus. a) An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a lifting action
b) AC lenticularis. b) Water vapour and high pressure
c) Halo. c) A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
d) Red cirrus. d) A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an inversion

50.9.4.2 (3885) 50.9.4.2 (3892)

Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally caused by Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon in summer over land in
a) thermal triggering. moderate latitudes?
b) frontal lifting (warm front). a) Airmass thunderstorms
c) frontal lifting (cold front). b) Warm front thunderstorms
d) frontal occlusion. c) Cold mass thunderstorms
d) Occlusion thunderstorms
50.9.4.2 (3886)
Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? 50.9.4.2 (3893)
a) Frontal thunderstorms. In which of the following areas is the highest frequency of thunderstorms
b) Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes. encountered ?
c) Thermal thunderstorms. a) Tropical
d) Orographic thunderstorms. b) Polar
c) Subtropical
d) Temperate
50.9.4.2 (3887)
The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by
a) continuous updraughts 50.9.4.2 (3894)
b) continuous downdraughts Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the
c) frequent lightning a) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated
d) rain starting at surface adiabatic lapse rate
b) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less than the saturated adiabatic
50.9.4.2 (3888)
lapse rate
In addition to a lifting action, what are two other conditions necessary for
d) cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse
thunderstorm formation ?
rate
a) Unstable conditions and high moisture content
b) Stable conditions and high moisture content
c) Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure 50.9.4.3 (3895)
d) Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure The most hazardous type of cloud that may be encountered on a cross country
flight is
a) cumulonimbus
50.9.4.2 (3889)
b) stratocumulus
Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during the

324
c) cumulus a) has a diameter up to 4 km
d) cirrus b) has a life time of more than 30 minutes
c) is always associated with thunderstorms
d) occurs only in tropical areas
50.9.4.4 (3896)
What is the approximate maximum diameter of a microburst ?
a) 4 km 50.9.4.5 (3903)
b) 400 m Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get considerable damage and at least
c) 20 km temporarily the manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult. Which one
d) 50 km of the following statements is correct?
a) Aircraft made by composite material may get severe damage, the crew may be
blinded and temporarily lose the hearing.
50.9.4.4 (3897)
b) An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a lightning, but the lightning will
What is a microburst?
follow the surface and therefore no damage will be caused.
a) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower temperature than the
c) An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a ""Faradays cage"", which means
surrounding air.
that struck of lightning seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an occasional engine
b) A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher temperature than the surrounding
failure. The crew may get a shock.
air.
d) Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a lightning and will therefore very
c) An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.
seldom be struck.
d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with very high speeds.

50.9.5.1 (3904)
50.9.4.4 (3898)
At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to occur in North America?
How long does a typical microburst last?
a) Spring, summer.
a) 1 to 5 minutes.
b) Summer, autumn.
b) Less than 1 minute.
c) Autumn, winter.
c) 1 to 2 hours.
d) Winter.
d) About 30 minutes.

50.9.5.1 (3905)
50.9.4.4 (3899)
With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally associated ?
A microburst phenomenon can arise in the
a) Cumulonimbus
a) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
b) Cumulus
b) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
c) Stratus
c) downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.
d) Nimbostratus
d) updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage.

50.9.5.1 (3906)
50.9.4.4 (3900)
The diameter of a typical tornado is
Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?
a) 100 to 150 metres
a) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
b) only a few metres
surroundings
c) about 2 to 6 km
b) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
d) in the order of 10 km
c) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed
50.9.6.1 (3907)
A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi Arabia. Shortly after take
50.9.4.4 (3901)
off the aircraft's rate of climb drops to zero. This can be due to
The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of
a) a very strong temperature inversion
a) 4 km and 1-5 minutes
b) sand/dust in the engines
b) 4 km and 30-40 minutes
c) very pronounced downdrafts
c) 8 km and 5-15 minutes
d) low relative humidity
d) 12 km and 5-10 minutes

50.9.8.1 (3908)
50.9.4.4 (3902)
Which of the following phenomena are formed when a moist, stable layer of air is
A microburst
forced to rise against a mountain range ?
325
a) Stratified clouds 50.9.9.1 (3915)
b) Inversions In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility
c) Showers and thunderstorms when
d) Areas of severe turbulence a) there is a low level inversion
b) the surface wind is strong and gusty
c) cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
50.9.8.2 (3909)
d) a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a hot summer day, when the
weather is unstable. What is the best time of day to conduct this flight?
a) Morning. 50.9.9.1 (3916)
b) Mid-day. Below a low level inversion visibility is often
c) Afternoon. a) moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange
d) Early evening. b) very good at night
c) very good in the early morning
d) moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.
50.9.8.2 (3910)
You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C and a TAS of 250 kt at FL
150 through 8 oktas NS. What type and degree of icing is most probable? 50.10.1.1 (3917)
a) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe mixed ice. What is the relationship between meteorological visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in
b) In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to severe rime ice. homogeneous fog?
c) Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed ice. a) The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR.
d) Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost. b) The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR.
c) The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR.
d) There is no specific relationship between the two.
50.9.9.1 (3911)
In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall compared to during drizzle
is 50.10.1.1 (3918)
a) greater The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
b) the same anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
c) less a) On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
d) in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km b) 1 m above the runway.
c) Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
d) On the roof of the weather station.
50.9.9.1 (3912)
Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a tropical downpour can
decrease to minimal 50.10.1.1 (3919)
a) tens of metres What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""BKN""?
b) about 200 metres a) 5 - 7 oktas.
c) about 500 metres b) 3 - 4 oktas.
d) about 1000 metres c) 6 - 8 oktas.
d) 8 oktas.
50.9.9.1 (3913)
Visibility is reduced by haze when 50.10.1.1 (3920)
a) dust particles are trapped below an inversion When is the RVR reported at most airports?
b) a light drizzle falls a) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
c) a cold front just passed b) When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.
d) small waterdroplets are present c) When the RVR decreases below 800 m.
d) When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.
50.9.9.1 (3914)
In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by 50.10.1.1 (3921)
a) showers of rain or snow When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust factor ?
b) haze a) When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind speed
c) drizzle b) When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind speed
d) low stratus c) With gusts of at least 25 knots
d) With gusts of at least 35 knots
326
50.10.1.1 (3922) c) To help provide 14-day forecasts
While approaching your target aerodrome you receive the following message:RVR d) To locate precipitation zones
runway 23: 400mThis information indicates the
a) length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground would see, on the
50.10.1.4 (3929)
threshold of runway 23.
Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological radar screens?
b) meteorological visibility on runway 23.
a) Hail
c) portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the runways would see, with
b) Water vapour
runway 23 in service.
c) Fog
d) minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being the one in service.
d) Any cloud

50.10.1.1 (3923)
50.10.1.4 (3930)
Runway Visual Range (RVR) is
An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible to detect the location of
a) usually better than meteorological visibility
a) zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation, and also their
b) reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
intensity
c) reported in TAF and METAR
b) all clouds
d) measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
c) cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is accompanied by falls of hail
d) stratocumulus and its vertical development
50.10.1.1 (3924)
The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
50.10.2.1 (3931)
a) true north
In which meteorological forecast chart is information about CAT regions found?
b) magnetic north
a) Significant Weather Chart.
c) the 0-meridian
b) 24 hour surface forecast.
d) grid north
c) 500 hPa chart.
d) 300 hPa chart.
50.10.1.1 (3925)
The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above
50.10.2.1 (3932)
a) airfield level
On which of the following aviation weather charts can a pilot most easily find a
b) mean sea level
jetstream?
c) the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of observation
a) Significant weather chart.
d) the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the observation station
b) Wind / temperature chart.
c) Surface chart.
50.10.1.2 (3926) d) Upper air chart.
(For this question use annex 050-2056A)Of the four radio soundings, select the
one that indicates ground fog:
50.10.2.1 (3933)
a) 2
Which weather chart gives information about icing and the height of the freezing
b) 1
level ?
c) 3
a) Significant weather chart
d) 4
b) 500 hPa chart
c) 700 hPa chart
50.10.1.2 (3927) d) Surface chart
(For this question use annex 050-4319A)Of the four radio soundings, select the
one that indicates low stratus:
50.10.2.1 (3934)
a) 3
What information is given on a Significant Weather Chart?
b) 1
a) The significant weather forecast for the time given on the chart
c) 2
b) The significant weather that is observed at the time given on the chart
d) 4
c) The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3 hours after the time given on the
chart
50.10.1.3 (3928) d) The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after the time given on the chart
What are the images of satellites provided daily by the Weather Service used for?
a) To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
b) To measure wind currents on the ground
327
50.10.2.3 (3935) c) 500 hPa
How is the direction and speed of upper winds described in forecasts ? d) 700 hPa
a) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in knots.
b) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in knots.
50.10.2.3 (3942)
c) The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is in miles per hour.
If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these upper wind and temperature
d) The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in miles per hour.
charts would be nearest your flight level ?
a) 500 hPa
50.10.2.3 (3936) b) 300 hPa
What positions are connected with contour lines on the weather chart? c) 850 hPa
a) Positions with the same height in a chart of constant pressure. d) 700 hPa
b) Positions with the same thickness between two constant pressure levels.
c) Positions with the same air density.
50.10.2.3 (3943)
d) Positions with the same wind velocity.
If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these upper wind and temperature
charts would be nearest your flight level ?
50.10.2.3 (3937) a) 300 hPa
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 4781 FT pressure level b) 500 hPa
(FL50)? c) 700 hPa
a) 850 hPa. d) 850 hPa
b) 700 hPa.
c) 500 hPa.
50.10.2.3 (3944)
d) 300 hPa.
When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and temperature chart would be
nearest your flight level ?
50.10.2.3 (3938) a) 850 hPa
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 9882 FT pressure level (FL b) 700 hPa
100) ? c) 500 hPa
a) 700 hPa d) 300 hPa
b) 850 hPa
c) 500 hPa
50.10.2.3 (3945)
d) 300 hPa
When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and temperature chart would
be nearest your flight level ?
50.10.2.3 (3939) a) 700 hPa
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 18289 FT pressure level b) 850 hPa
(FL 180) ? c) 300 hPa
a) 500 hPa d) 500 hPa
b) 300 hPa
c) 200 hPa
50.10.2.3 (3946)
d) 700 hPa
The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa corresponds, in a standard
atmosphere, to about
50.10.2.3 (3940) a) 34 000 FT
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 30065 FT pressure level b) 39 000 FT
(FL 300)? c) 30 000 FT
a) 300 hPa d) 32 000 FT
b) 200 hPa
c) 700 hPa
50.10.2.3 (3947)
d) 500 hPa
An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled with the number 552. This
means that for all points on the isohypse the
50.10.2.3 (3941) a) topography is 552 decameters above MSL
Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 38662 FT pressure level b) pressure is 552 hPa
(FL 390) ? c) topography is 552 meters above MSL
a) 200 hPa d) pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT
b) 300 hPa
328
50.10.2.4 (3948) c) C
(For this question use annex 050-2422A) Which of the following symbols d) D
represents a tropical revolving storm?
a) Symbol a)
50.10.2.4 (3955)
b) Symbol b)
(For this question use annex 050-4332A)The warm sector is indicated by letter:
c) Symbol c)
a) C
d) Symbol d)
b) B
c) D
50.10.2.4 (3949) d) A
(For this question use annex 050-2539A) The front labelled ""Z"" is a:
a) Warm front
50.10.2.4 (3956)
b) Cold front
(For this question use annex 050-4333A)Which of the following best describes
c) Warm front occlusion
Zone A?
d) Cold front occlusion
a) Trough of low pressure
b) Col
50.10.2.4 (3950) c) Ridge of high pressure
How are well separated CB clouds described on the Significant Weather Chart? d) Depression
a) OCNL CB.
b) EMBD CB.
50.10.2.4 (3957)
c) FREQ CB.
(For this question use annex 050-4334A)Which of the following best describes
d) ISOL CB.
Zone B?
a) Col
50.10.2.4 (3951) b) Ridge of high pressure
(For this question use annex 050-2421A)Which of the following symbols c) Depression
represents a squall line? d) Trough of low pressure
a) Symbol a)
b) Symbol b)
50.10.2.4 (3958)
c) Symbol c)
(For this question use annex 050-4335A)Which of the following best describes
d) Symbol d)
Zone C?
a) Ridge of high pressure
50.10.2.4 (3952) b) Col
(For this question use annex 050-2055A)The cold front is indicated with a number c) Trough of low pressure
at position: d) Depression
a) 2
b) 1
50.10.2.4 (3959)
c) 3
(For this question use annex 050-4336A)Which of the following best describes
d) 4
Zone D?
a) Depression
50.10.2.4 (3953) b) Ridge of high pressure
(For this question use annex 050-2058A)What does the symbol indicate on a c) Anticyclone
significant weather chart? d) Trough of low pressure
a) The center of a tropopause ""high"", where the tropopause is at FL 400.
b) The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.
50.10.2.4 (3960)
c) The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.
(For this question use annex 050-4337A)According to ICAO, which symbol
d) The lower limit of the tropopause.
indicates severe icing ?
a) Symbol a)
50.10.2.4 (3954) b) Symbol b)
(For this question use annex 050-4331A)A trough is indicated by letter: c) Symbol c)
a) A d) Symbol d)
b) B

329
50.10.2.4 (3961) c) GAFOR
(For this question use annex 050-4338A)According to ICAO, which symbol d) TAF
indicates a tropical revolving storm?
a) Symbol d)
50.10.3.1 (3968)
b) Symbol c)
In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is the probability of fog
c) Symbol b)
formation, in the coming night, the highest?
d) Symbol a)
a) VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
b) 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG =
50.10.2.4 (3962) c) VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
(For this question use annex 050-4339A)According to ICAO, which symbol d) 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
indicates danger to an aircraft in flight?
a) Symbol b)
50.10.3.1 (3969)
b) Symbol d)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
c) Symbol a)
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
d) Symbol c)
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
a) LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026 BECMG 5000 =
50.10.2.4 (3963) b) LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
(For this question use annex 050-4340A)According to ICAO, which symbol c) LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
indicates danger to an aircraft in flight? d) LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
a) Symbol c)
b) Symbol d)
50.10.3.1 (3970)
c) Symbol a)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
d) Symbol b)
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
50.10.3.1 (3964) a) LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000 =
What is a trend forecast? b) LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG =
a) A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2 hours c) LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
b) An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours d) LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG =
c) A route forecast valid for 24 hours
d) A routine report
50.10.3.1 (3971)
Within a short interval, several flight crews report that they have experienced
50.10.3.1 (3965) strong clear air turbulence in a certain airspace. What is the consequence of these
What does the expression ""Broken (BKN)"" mean? reports?
a) 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered a) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
b) 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered b) The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
c) 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered c) The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
d) Nil significant cloud cover d) The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm warning

50.10.3.1 (3966) 50.10.3.1 (3972)

What does the abbreviation ""nosig"" mean? Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999
a) No significant changes SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA
b) No report received =Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of precipitation is forecast
c) No weather related problems on the approach to Bordeaux ?
d) Not signed by the meteorologist a) Heavy rain showers
b) Continuous moderate rain
c) Light drizzle and fog
50.10.3.1 (3967)
d) Moderate snow showers
In which weather report would you expect to find information about icing
conditions on the runway?
a) METAR 50.10.3.1 (3973)
b) SIGMET Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.FCFR31 281400LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999
SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA
330
=Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA Bordeaux what is the lowest 50.10.3.1 (3978)
quoted visibility forecast ? You receive the following METAR :LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG
a) 8 km VV001 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG =What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
b) 8 NM a) The RVR is unknown, because the ""NOSIG"" does not refer to RVR.
c) 10 NM b) 300 m.
d) 10 or more km c) 700 m.
d) 900 m.
50.10.3.1 (3974)
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT 50.10.3.1 (3979)
6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of data from the following
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from METAR ?16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003 M02/M02 Q1026
Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is BECMG 2000 =
forecast ? a) Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m, dew point -2°C,
a) 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt freezing fog.
b) 140° / 10 kt b) RVR for runway 16 1000 m, meteorological visibility increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000
c) 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt m, vertical visibility 300 m, temperature -2°C.
d) 250° / 20 kt c) RVR for runway 14 1500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m, QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3
kt.
d) Meteorological visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level at 300 m, variable winds,
50.10.3.1 (3975)
temperature 2°C.
Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT
6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000
RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from 50.10.3.1 (3980)
Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast for Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport.FCNL31 281500EHAM 281601 14010KT
ETA Amsterdam ? 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000
a) 3 km RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020 =Flight from
b) 5 km Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. What lowest cloud base is forecast for
c) 5 NM arrival at Amsterdam?
d) 6 km a) 500 FT
b) 250 FT
c) 500 m
50.10.3.1 (3976)
d) 800 FT
In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of your landing you note:
TEMPO TS. What is the maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ? 50.10.3.1 (3981)
a) 60 minutes. In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase of a passenger flight from
b) 120 minutes. Zurich to Rome, you examine the following weather reports of pressing importance
c) 10 minutes. at the time:EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev turb fcst einn
d) 20 minutes. fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500
mod sev cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet
nr01 valid 0800/1200 for london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn
50.10.3.1 (3977)
52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst mov e wkn =Which decision
Does the following report make sense?LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015
is correct?
NOSIG
a) Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level below FL 250.
a) The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog
b) You show no further interest in these reports, since they do not concern the route to be
below eye level.
flown.
b) The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not reported when the
c) Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence of heavy thunderstorms at
meteorological visibility is more than 2 km.
planned FL 310 you select a higher flight level (FL 370).
c) The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe a meteorological visibility of 5
d) You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather conditions along the route
km if shallow fog is reported.
would demand too much of the passengers.
d) The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of 2°C and a dew point of 2°C
there must be uniform fog.
50.10.3.1 (3982)
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
2124 0500 FG VV001What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
331
a) 500 m. c) Many short term changes in the original weather.
b) 2000 m. d) Many long term changes in the original weather.
c) Between 500 m and 2000 m.
d) Between 0 m and 1000 m.
50.10.3.1 (3989)
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
50.10.3.1 (3983) 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""BKN004"" mean?
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG a) 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""VV001"" mean? b) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
a) Vertical visibility 100 FT. c) 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
b) RVR less than 100 m. d) 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
c) RVR greater than 100 m.
d) Vertical visibility 100 m.
50.10.3.1 (3990)
Refer to the following TAF extract,BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG
50.10.3.1 (3984) 2124 0500 FG VV001What does the abbreviation ""PROB30"" mean?
What does the term METAR signify? a) Probability of 30%.
a) A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally b) Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes.
issued in half-hourly intervals. c) The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.
b) A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions within a FIR. d) Change expected in less than 30 minutes.
c) A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily.
d) A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report as a brief prognostic
50.10.3.1 (3991)
report.
What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on?
a) The average speed of the previous 10 minutes
50.10.3.1 (3985) b) The average speed of the previous 30 minutes
How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a METAR valid? c) The strongest gust in the previous hour
a) 2 hours. d) The actual speed at the time of recording
b) 9 hours.
c) 1 hour.
50.10.3.1 (3992)
d) 30 minutes.
What does the term SIGMET signify?
a) A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
50.10.3.1 (3986) b) A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
What is a SPECI? c) A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
a) A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change d) A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-
of the weather conditions have been observed. hourly intervals
b) A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.
c) A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome, issued only when required.
50.10.3.1 (3993)
d) An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.
What does the term TREND signify?
a) It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather report
50.10.3.1 (3987) b) It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at half-hourly
Appended to a METAR you get the following runway report: 01650428What must intervals
you consider when making performance calculations? c) It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
a) The friction coefficient is 0.28. d) It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times daily
b) The braking action will be medium to good.
c) The runway will be wet.
50.10.3.1 (3994)
d) Aquaplaning conditions.
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time
they are observed?
50.10.3.1 (3988) a) SN
Refer to the following TAF extract:BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG b) BCFG
2124 0500 FG VV001What does the ""BECMG"" data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour c) FZFG
time frame? d) HZ
a) The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
b) A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
332
50.10.3.1 (3995) 50.10.3.1 (4000)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050
they are observed? BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
a) #NAME? 4000 RA OVC010=The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200 UTC) is:
b) VA a) 1500 FT.
c) BR b) 1000 FT.
d) MIFG c) 1500 m.
d) 5000 FT.
50.10.3.1 (3996)
Which of the following phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time 50.10.3.1 (4001)
they are observed? The following weather reportEDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG
a) DZ 1517 00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001is a :
b) SA a) 9 hour TAF.
c) TS b) 24 hour TAF.
d) SQ c) SPECI.
d) METAR.
50.10.3.1 (3997)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?LSAW 50.10.3.1 (4002)
SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID 030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the
north of alps btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf = a) QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa.
a) Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north of the Alps. b) QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL 260 and FL 380 c) QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.
b) Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the area north of the Alps. d) QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa.
Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 260
c) Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. Pilots advised to cross this area
50.10.3.1 (4003)
above FL 380
What is the meaning of the abbreviation ""SCT"" ?
d) Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity to be expected north of the
a) 3 - 4 oktas
Alps
b) 1 - 2 oktas
c) 5 - 7 oktas
50.10.3.1 (3998) d) 1 - 4 oktas
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the SIGMET ?SIGMET
VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w part of athinai fir / mov e / intst
50.10.3.1 (4004)
nc =
Refer to TAF below.EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822
a) Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the Athens FIR. The
29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO 1821 1500 TSGR
thunderstorm zone is moving east. Intensity is constant
BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KTFrom the TAF above you can assume that
b) Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the Athens FIR and are slowly moving
visibility at 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
west
a) not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
c) Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The thunderstorm zone should be east of
b) a maximum 5 km.
Athens by 1820 UTC
c) a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
d) The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in intensity, but are stationary above
d) more than 10 km
the western part of the Athens FIR

50.10.3.1 (4005)
50.10.3.1 (3999)
Which of the following meteorological phenomena can rapidly change the braking
Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050
action of a runway?
BKN080 TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 1518 23020G35KT
a) #NAME?
4000 RA OVC010=The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
b) MIFG
a) 6 km.
c) FG
b) 6 NM.
d) HZ
c) 4 km.
d) 10 km.
50.10.3.1 (4006)
Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of aquaplaning?
333
a) #NAME?
b) FG
c) BCFG
d) SA
50.10.3.1 (4007)
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is most likely in the next few
hours?
a) 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
b) 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
c) 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 =
d) 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (4008)
Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in the
next few hours?
a) 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
b) 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008 NOSIG =
c) 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG =
d) 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000 =
50.10.3.1 (4009)
In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in the
coming night the highest?
a) 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 =
b) 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =
c) 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
d) 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =
50.10.3.1 (4010)
Look at this TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012
BKN030 BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG
2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z =Which of these statements best describes the
weather most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?
a) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 3000 feet, wind
250°, temperature 18°C.
b) Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots, temperature 18°C.
c) Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45
knots.
d) Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres, temperature 15°C, gusts up to
35 knots.
50.10.3.1 (4011)
Refer to the TAF for Zurich AirportTAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001
BECMG 0810 0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO 1316 6000
SCT007 =Which of these statements best describes the weather that can be
expected at 1200 UTC?
a) Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
b) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°, cloudbase 500 feet
c) Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200 feet, calm
d) Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet, windspeed 5 knots
50.10.3.1 (4012)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?
a) 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
b) 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO 4000 =
c) 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA NOSIG =
d) 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (4013)
Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the
regulations, abbreviated to ""CAVOK""?
a) 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
b) 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
c) 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
d) 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
50.10.3.1 (4014)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?25020G38KT
1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18 Q1016 BECMG NSW =
a) Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point 18°C
b) Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200 metres, temperature 23°C
c) Broken, cloudbase 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18°C
d) Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
50.10.3.1 (4015)
Which of the following statements is an interpretation of the METAR ?00000KT
0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 =
a) RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, calm, meteorological
visibility improving to 800 metres in the next 2 hours
b) Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 1500 metres, temperature -3°C,
vertical visibility 100 metres
c) Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres, vertical
visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar frost
d) Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with hoar frost, RVR for runway 16
more than 1500 metres
50.10.3.1 (4016)
Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT 2000 R26R/P1500N
R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
a) Visibility is reduced by water droplets
b) There is a distinct change in RVR observed
c) Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
d) RVR on runway 26R is increasing
50.10.3.1 (4017)
Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ?
a) For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
b) Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
c) For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
d) Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast
334
50.10.3.1 (4018) 50.10.3.1 (4025)
The validity of a TAF is At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature and dew point are
a) stated in the TAF respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C.In the METAR message transmitted by this
b) 2 hours station, the ""temperature group"" will be:
c) between 6 and 9 hours a) M00/M01
d) 9 hours from the time of issue b) M01/M02
c) 00/M01
d) M01/M01
50.10.3.1 (4019)
If CAVOK is reported then
a) no low drifting snow is present 50.10.3.2 (4026)
b) no clouds are present Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for Nice:TAF 240716 VRB02KT
c) low level windshear has not been reported CAVOK =0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015 TEMPO TS =What
d) any CB's have a base above 5000 FT can be concluded from the differences between the two reports ?
a) That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the TAF could have
predicted earlier in the morning
50.10.3.1 (4020)
b) That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted in the TAF
Runway visual range can be reported in
c) That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as predicted in the TAF
a) a METAR
d) That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up, because there is no way the
b) a TAF
latest VOLMET report could be so different from the TAF
c) a SIGMET
d) both a TAF and a METAR
50.10.3.2 (4027)
Marseille Information gives you the following meteorological information for
50.10.3.1 (4021)
Ajaccio and Calvi for 1600 UTC :Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain,
SIGMET information is issued as a warning for significant weather to
BKN stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.Calvi:
a) all aircraft
wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus
b) light aircraft only
at 2000 FT, OVC altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.The ceilings (more than 4
c) VFR operations only
oktas) are therefore:
d) heavy aircraft only
a) 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi
b) 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 500 FT at Calvi
50.10.3.1 (4022) c) 8000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi
A SPECI is d) 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 2000 FT at Calvi
a) an aviation selected special weather report
b) an aviation routine weather report
50.10.3.2 (4028)
c) a warning for special weather phenomena
ATIS information contains
d) a forecast for special weather phenomena
a) meteorological and operational information
b) only meteorological information
50.10.3.1 (4023) c) operational information and if necessary meteorological information
On the European continent METARs of main airports are compiled and distributed d) only operational information
with intervals of
a) 0.5 hour
50.10.3.3 (4029)
b) 1 hour
(For this question use annex 050-2432A)At which airport, is the following weather
c) 2 hours
development taking place? TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710
d) 3 hours
OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG 1316 23014KT 6000 RA
SCT030 OVC050 =
50.10.3.1 (4024) a) EDDL
The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the b) LFPO
a) value representative of the touchdown zone c) LOWW
b) average value of the A-, B- and C-position d) LEMD
c) highest value of the A-, B- and C-position
d) lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position
50.10.3.3 (4030)
(For this question use annex 050-2545A)What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris

335
? a) From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
a) 210/40 b) From FL 240 to FL 370, light
b) 240/20 c) From below FL 130 to FL 270, light
c) 030/40 d) From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate
d) 190/40
50.10.3.3 (4037)
50.10.3.3 (4031) (For this question use annex 050-2511A)At what flight level is the jet stream core
(For this question use annex 050-2547A)What is the average temperature at FL that is situated over nothern Scandinavia ?
160 between Oslo and Paris ? a) FL 280
a) -19°C b) FL 330
b) -23°C c) FL 360
c) -15°C d) FL 300
d) -25°C
50.10.3.3 (4038)
50.10.3.3 (4032) (For this question use annex 050-2512A)At which position could you encounter
(For this question use annex 050-2548A)What is the temperature deviation in thunderstorms, and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds?
degrees Celsius, from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead Frankfurt ? a) Position B, FL 270.
a) ISA -4°C b) Position A, FL 200.
b) ISA -12°C c) Position C, FL 200.
c) ISA +12°C d) Position D, FL 290.
d) ISA +4°C
50.10.3.3 (4039)
50.10.3.3 (4033) (For this question use annex 050-2513A)At what approximate flight level is the
(For this question use annex 050-2549A)What is the speed of the front located tropopause over Frankfurt?
over France ? a) FL 330
a) 15 kt b) FL 300
b) 25 kt c) FL 350
c) 10 kt d) FL 240
d) 30 kt
50.10.3.3 (4040)
50.10.3.3 (4034) (For this question use annex 050-2522A)Select from the map the wind for the
(For this question use annex 050-2550A)Flight Munich to London. What is the route Zurich - London at FL 280.
direction and maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route between a) 220 / 60
Munich and London ? b) 250 / 80
a) 220° / 120 kt c) 040 / 60
b) 050° / 120 km/h d) 160 / 90
c) 050° / 120 kt
d) 230° / 120 m/sec
50.10.3.3 (4041)
(For this question use annex 050-2523A)What is the average wind at FL 160
50.10.3.3 (4035) between Zurich and Rome ?
(For this question use annex 050-2554A)Flight Shannon to London. What amount a) 020/50
and type of cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route between Shannon b) 050/40
and London at FL 220 ? c) 200/45
a) Well separated cumulonimbus d) 350/40
b) Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
c) Scattered towering cumulus
50.10.3.3 (4042)
d) Scattered castellanus
(For this question use annex 050-2529A)The temperature at FL 330 overhead
London will be
50.10.3.3 (4036) a) -45°C
(For this question use annex 050-2510A)In what height range and at what b) -39°C
intensity could you encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2?
336
c) -33°C b) FL 340
d) -57°C c) FL 160
d) FL 360
50.10.3.3 (4043)
How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level, which is between two upper 50.10.3.3 (4049)
air chart levels? (e.g. wind at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are (For this question use annex 050-2505A)Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA
available). 1800 UTC. At what flight level would you first expect to encounter clear air
a) By interpolation of the wind information available from the two charts, while turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?
also considering the maximum wind information found on the Significant Weather a) FL 220
Chart. b) FL 160
b) By simple interpolation of wind information available from the two charts. c) FL 320
c) By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher chart. d) FL 140
d) By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.
50.10.3.3 (4050)
50.10.3.3 (4044) (For this question use annex 050-2506A)What is the approximate height of the
Why are indications about the height of the tropopause not essential for flight tropopause between Munich and Helsinki?
documentation in the tropics? a) FL 340
a) The tropopause is generally well above the flight level actually flown. b) FL 280
b) The meteorological services are unable to provide such a chart. c) FL 300
c) The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very cold and therefore not d) FL 390
important.
d) Tropopause informations are of no value.
50.10.3.3 (4051)
(For this question use annex 050-2509A)You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam.
50.10.3.3 (4045) Which of the following flight levels would you choose in order to avoid turbulence
(For this question use annex 050-2493A)Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing?
and icing is forecast at FL 200 ? a) FL 260
a) Moderate turbulence, moderate icing b) FL 320
b) Moderate turbulence, light icing c) FL 180
c) Severe turbulence, moderate icing d) FL 140
d) Severe turbulence, severe icing
50.10.3.3 (4052)
50.10.3.3 (4046) (For this question use annex 050-2053A)What is the wind direction and speed at 3
(For this question use annex 050-2496A)Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the 000 FT overhead position ""Q"" at 0600 UTC?
lowest probability of precipitation? a) 270° 30 kt.
a) LSZH b) 270° 15 kt.
b) ESSA c) 240° 25 kt.
c) ENFB d) 240° 20 kt.
d) EFHK
50.10.3.3 (4053)
50.10.3.3 (4047) (For this question use annex 050-2433A) What weather conditions are expected at
(For this question use annex 050-2503A)Over Paris at what height would you Paris airport (LFPO) around 0550 UTC?
expect to find the tropopause according to the map? a) 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 NOSIG =
a) 30000 FT b) 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO 5000 SHRA =
b) 33000 FT c) 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB 18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW =
c) 15000 FT d) 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =
d) 28000 FT
50.10.3.3 (4054)
50.10.3.3 (4048) (For this question use annex 050-2555A)Over Amsterdam, what amount and
(For this question use annex 050-2504A)What is the optimum flight level between general type of cloud would you expect at FL 160 ?
Rome and Paris according to the significant weather chart? a) Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers
a) FL 220 b) 4 oktas broken cumulus
337
c) Isolated cumulonimbus only b) ENFB
d) 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate turbulence c) EKCH
d) ESSA
50.10.3.3 (4055)
(For this question use annex 050-2556A)To what extent is Munich covered by 50.10.3.3 (4061)
clouds ? (For this question use annex 050-4365A)Select from the map the average wind for
a) 5 to 8 oktas the route Zurich - Rome at FL110.
b) 1 to 4 oktas a) 230/10
c) 5 to 7 oktas b) 200/30
d) 3 to 5 oktas c) 040/10
d) 250/20
50.10.3.3 (4056)
(For this question use annex 050-2558A)What OAT would you expect at FL 200 50.10.3.3 (4062)
over Geneva ? (For this question use annex 050-4366A)Select from the map the average
a) -24°C temperature for the route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
b) -20°C a) -9°C
c) -16°C b) -12°C
d) -28°C c) -6°C
d) +5°C
50.10.3.3 (4057)
(For this question use annex 050-3030A)To which aerodrome is the following TAF 50.10.3.3 (4063)
most applicable ?TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113 (For this question use annex 050-4367A)Look at the chart. Assuming a normal
25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG 1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 vertical temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above
TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020 BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030 Shannon be found?
a) LOWW a) FL 60
b) LFPG b) FL 20
c) LEMD c) FL 140
d) EKCH d) FL 120

50.10.3.3 (4058) 50.10.3.3 (4064)

(For this question use annex 050-4362A)At which airport is the following weather (For this question use annex 050-4368A)Select from the map the average wind for
development taking place?TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015 the route Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170.
BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA a) 230/40
BKN025TCU BECMG 1922 27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 = b) 200/50
a) EINN c) 050/40
b) ESSA d) 030/35
c) LSZH
d) EKCH
50.10.3.3 (4065)
(For this question use annex 050-4369A)Assuming a normal vertical temperature
50.10.3.3 (4059) gradient, at what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be found?
(For this question use annex 050-4363A)Which of the following weather a) FL 100
conditions would be expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC? b) FL 20
a) 21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG = c) FL 180
b) 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031 BECMG 0800 = d) FL 260
c) 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =
d) 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =
50.10.3.3 (4066)
(For this question use annex 050-4370A)What is the mean temperature deviation
50.10.3.3 (4060) from ISA for the Frankfurt - Rome route?
(For this question use annex 050-4364A)Which airport is most likely to have fog in a) 4°C colder than ISA
the coming night? b) 4°C warmer than ISA
a) LSZH
338
c) 10°C colder than ISA 50.10.3.3 (4073)
d) 10°C warmer than ISA (For this question use annex 050-4377A)Select from the map the average
temperature for the route Geneva -Stockholm at FL 260.
a) -47°C
50.10.3.3 (4067)
b) -51°C
(For this question use annex 050-4371A)Select from the map the average wind for
c) -55°C
the route Athens - Geneva at FL 160.
d) -63°C
a) 240/40
b) 210/25
c) 260/40 50.10.3.3 (4074)
d) 050/35 (For this question use annex 050-4378A)On which of the following routes can you
expect icing to occur, on the basis of the chart?
a) Rome - Frankfurt
50.10.3.3 (4068)
b) Hamburg - Oslo
(For this question use annex 050-4372A)Select from the map the average
c) Tunis - Rome
temperature for the route Athens - Geneva at FL 150.
d) Copenhagen - Helsinki
a) -14°C
b) -21°C
c) -11°C 50.10.3.3 (4075)
d) -27°C 8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an aerodrome in the north of
France, the QNH is 1028 hPa and there is a variable wind of 3 kt.What change in
these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in summer and winter?
50.10.3.3 (4069)
a) Winter: OVC base 500 FT/AGL, summer SCT base 3000 FT/AGL.
(For this question use annex 050-4373A)What is the deviation of the temperature
b) Winter: clear sky, summer BKN CB base 1500 FT/AGL.
at FL 140 above Copenhagen compared to ISA?
c) Winter: BKN base 2500 FT/AGL, summer BKN base 3500 FT/AGL.
a) 8°C colder than ISA
d) Winter: SCT base 3000 FT/AGL, summer OVC base 500 FT/AGL.
b) 4°C warmer than ISA
c) 8°C warmer than ISA
d) 12°C colder than ISA 50.10.3.3 (4076)
(For this question use annex 050-4379A)Looking at the chart, at what altitude
above Frankfurt would you expect the tropopause to be located?
50.10.3.3 (4070)
a) FL 310
(For this question use annex 050-4374A)Select from the map the average wind for
b) FL 350
the route Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.
c) FL 250
a) 230/20
d) FL 280
b) 020/20
c) 200/15
d) 260/25 50.10.3.3 (4077)
(For this question use annex 050-4380A)If you are flying from Zurich to London at
FL 220, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?
50.10.3.3 (4071)
a) Scattered thunderstorms
(For this question use annex 050-4375A)Select from the map the average
b) Flight largely in cloud, no turbulence
temperature for the route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200.
c) Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
a) -33°C
d) CAT for the first half of the flight
b) -30°C
c) -41°C
d) -49°C 50.10.3.3 (4078)
(For this question use annex 050-4381A)Which of the following statements is
true?
50.10.3.3 (4072)
a) The front to the north of Frankfurt is moving north-east at about 5 kt
(For this question use annex 050-4376A)Select from the map the average wind for
b) The jet stream above Italy has a maximum speed of 120 km/h
the route Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.
c) Thunderclouds have formed over the Iberian peninsula extending to some 25000 meters
a) 360/80
d) There is no significant cloud above Rome
b) 030/70
c) 190/75
d) 340/90 50.10.3.3 (4079)
(For this question use annex 050-4382A)On which of these routes would you not
339
have to worry about turbulence at FL 340? c) Zurich - Hamburg
a) Shannon - Hamburg d) Zurich - Vienna
b) Zurich - Rome
c) Zurich - Athens
50.10.3.3 (4086)
d) Rome - Berlin
A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels by information supplied in
a) SWC and SIGMET
50.10.3.3 (4080) b) TAF and METAR
(For this question use annex 050-4383A)If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm c) METAR and SIGMET
at FL 240, what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude? d) TAF and SIGMET
a) Largely free of cloud, moderate icing half way along the route
b) Cloud most of the way, little chance of CAT
50.10.3.5 (4087)
c) Scattered thunderstorms
What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
d) Out of cloud throughout the flight
a) kt/100 FT.
b) kt.
50.10.3.3 (4081) c) m/100 FT.
(For this question use annex 050-4384A)Judging by the chart, what windspeeds d) m/sec.
can you expect at FL 340 above Rome?
a) 145 kt
50.10.3.6 (4088)
b) 340 kt
Which of the following weather reports is a warning of conditions that could be
c) 95 kt
potentially hazardous to aircraft in flight ?
d) 140 km/h
a) SIGMET.
b) ATIS.
50.10.3.3 (4082) c) SPECI.
(For this question use annex 050-4385A)Judging by the chart, on which of these d) TAF.
routes can you expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at FL 300?
a) Zurich - Rome
50.10.3.6 (4089)
b) London - Zurich
In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET issued ?
c) Zurich - Copenhagen
a) Marked mountain waves.
d) Paris - Bordeaux
b) Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
c) Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
50.10.3.3 (4083) d) A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the METAR.
(For this question use annex 050-4386A)If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon
at FL 340, where will your cruising altitude be?
61.1.1.0 (4090)
a) Constantly in the stratosphere
The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the plane of equator is
b) Constantly in the troposhere
approximately :
c) First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere
a) 23.5°
d) In the stratosphere for part of time
b) 25.3°
c) 27.5°
50.10.3.3 (4084) d) 66.5°
(For this question use annex 050-4387A)Which of these statements is true?
a) Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France
61.1.1.0 (4091)
b) Freezing level above Madrid is higher than FL 120
Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will rise above the
c) The front to the north of London is moving south
horizon and set every day?
d) Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid
a) 66°
b) 68°
50.10.3.3 (4085) c) 72°
(For this question use annex 050-4388A)On which of these routes would you not d) 62°
need to worry about icing at FL 180?
a) Hamburg - Stockholm
61.1.1.0 (4092)
b) Zurich - Madrid
In which two months of the year is the difference between the transit of the

340
Apparent Sun and Mean Sun across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? c) 45°00'N 169°22W
a) February and November d) 53°20'N 172°38'E
b) March and September
c) June and December
61.1.2.0 (4099)
d) April and August
The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumb-line track joining
the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure
61.1.1.0 (4093) A, is:
What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of a) 7.8°
90° above the horizon at some time during the year? b) 9°
a) 23° c) 15.6°
b) 45° d) 5.2°
c) 66°
d) 0°
61.1.2.0 (4100)
Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°WWhat will be the
61.1.1.0 (4094) approximate latitude shown on the display unit of an inertial navigation system at
Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S).At which time of year is the relationship longitude 025°W?
between the length of day and night, as well as the rate of change of declination of a) 060°06'S
the sun, changing at the greatest rate? b) 060°11'S
a) Spring equinox and autumn equinox c) 059°49'S
b) Summer solstice and spring equinox d) 060°00'S
c) summer solstice and winter solstice
d) Winter solstice and autumn equinox
61.1.2.0 (4101)
What is the time required to travel along the parallel of latitude 60° N between
61.1.1.0 (4095) meridians 010° E and 030° W at a groundspeed of 480 kt?
At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun (perihelion)? a) 2 HR 30 MIN
a) Beginning of January b) 1 HR 15 MIN
b) End of March c) 1 HR 45 MIN
c) Beginning of July d) 5 HR 00 MIN
d) End of June
61.1.2.0 (4102)
61.1.1.0 (4096) A Rhumb line is :
At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the sun (aphelion)? a) a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
a) Beginning of July b) the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection
b) End of December c) any straight line on a Lambert projection
c) Beginning of January d) a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection
d) End of September
61.1.2.0 (4103)
61.1.1.0 (4097) A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B (61°S 148°W). What is the
Seasons are due to the: difference between the great circle track at A and B?
a) inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane a) It increases by 6°
b) Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun b) It decreases by 6°
c) Earth's rotation on its polar axis c) It increases by 3°
d) variable distance between Earth and Sun d) It decreases by 3°

61.1.2.0 (4098) 61.1.2.0 (4104)

An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W) and flies northward What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of 58°42'N 094°00'W?
following the meridian for 2950 NM. It then flies westward along the parallel of a) 093°48.5'W
latitude for 382 NM to position B. The coordinates of position B are? b) 093°54.0'W
a) 45°00'N 172°38'E c) 093°53.1'W
b) 53°20'N 169°22W d) 094°12.0'W

341
61.1.2.0 (4105) a) 5 400 NM
Given: value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297. Earth's semi-major axis, as b) 10 800 km
measured at the equator, equals 6378.4 km. What is the semi-minor axis (km) of c) 2 700 NM
the earth at the axis of the Poles? d) 10 800 NM
a) 6 356.9
b) 6 378.4
61.1.2.0 (4112)
c) 6 367.0
Given:Position A 45°N, ?°EPosition B 45°N, 45°15'EDistance A-B = 280 NMB is to
d) 6 399.9
the East of ARequired: longitude of position A?
a) 38°39'E
61.1.2.0 (4106) b) 49°57'E
Position A is located on the equator at longitude 130°00E. Position B is located 100 c) 51°51'E
NM from A on a bearing of 225°(T).The coordinates of position B are: d) 40°33'E
a) 01°11'S 128°49'E
b) 01°11'N 131°11'E
61.1.2.0 (4113)
c) 01°11'S 131°11'E
If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following parallel 60°N at a ground
d) 01°11'N 128°49'E
speed of 480 kt. In order to circle around the Earth along the equator in the same
amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:
61.1.2.0 (4107) a) 960 kt
In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to position B (30°00'N, b) 240 kt
050°00'W), maintaining a constant true course, it is necessary to fly: c) 550 kt
a) a rhumb line track d) 480 kt
b) the constant average drift route
c) the great-circle route
61.1.2.0 (4114)
d) a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart
An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on route to position B (60°00'N
140°30'W). What is the great circle track on departure from A?
61.1.2.0 (4108) a) 279°
The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N, 010°00'W) and position B b) 288°
(48°30'N, 015°00'W) is approximately: c) 261°
a) 315 d) 270°
b) 330
c) 300
61.1.2.0 (4115)
d) 345
An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S 148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt.
The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial Navigation System in which
61.1.2.0 (4109) AB track is active.On route AB, the true track:
The diameter of the Earth is approximately: a) increases by 5°
a) 12 700 km b) varies by 10°
b) 6 350 km c) decreases by 6°
c) 18 500 km d) varies by 4°
d) 40 000 km
61.1.2.0 (4116)
61.1.2.0 (4110) The circumference of the earth is approximately:
The maximum difference between geocentric and geodetic latitude occurs at a) 21600 NM
about: b) 43200 NM
a) 45° North and South c) 5400 NM
b) 60° North and South d) 10800 NM
c) 90° North and South
d) 0° North and South (equator)
61.1.2.0 (4117)
The Great Circle bearing of 'B' (70°S 060°E), from 'A' (70° S 030° W), is
61.1.2.0 (4111) approximately:
The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N 008°08.4'E) and B a) 135°(T)
(30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is: b) 150°(T)
342
c) 090°(T) 61.1.3.0 (4124)
d) 315°(T) The duration of civil twilight is the time:
a) between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below the true horizon
b) agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
61.1.2.0 (4118)
c) needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to the apparent height of 6°
At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute of arc along a meridian
d) between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below the true horizon
equal to one NM (1852 m) correct?
a) 45°
b) 0° 61.1.3.0 (4125)
c) 90° On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the
d) 30° same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at:
a) 0743 UTC
b) 0243 UTC
61.1.2.0 (4119)
c) 2143 UTC
An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to 62° N 110° E. The total
d) 0523 UTC
distance travelled is?
a) 3720 NM
b) 5420 NM 61.1.3.0 (4126)
c) 1788 NM What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W at 2200 UTC?
d) 2040 NM a) 1345
b) 2200
c) 615
61.1.2.0 (4120)
d) 815
Given :A is N55° 000°B is N54° E010°The average true course of the great circle is
100°.The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
a) 100° 61.1.3.0 (4127)
b) 096° The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000 UTC, is :
c) 104° a) 1738:40 previous day
d) 107° b) 0621:20 previous day
c) 1738:40 same day
d) 0621:20 same day
61.1.2.0 (4121)
The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is approximately:
a) 10 800 NM 61.1.3.0 (4128)
b) 18 706 NM 5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude difference of:
c) 20 000 NM a) 80°05'
d) 34 641 NM b) 81°10'
c) 75°00'
d) 78°45'
61.1.2.0 (4122)
Given:The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux are:N48°50'
E002°16.5'The coordinates of the antipodes are : 61.1.3.0 (4129)
a) S48°50' W177°43.5' (For this question use annex 061-2304A)The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at
b) S48°50' E177°43.5' WINNIPEG (Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is:
c) S41°10' W177°43.5' a) 1413
d) S41°10' E177°43.5' b) 930
c) 113
d) 2230
61.1.2.0 (4123)
Given:Position 'A' is N00° E100°, Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'.What is
the position of 'B'? 61.1.3.0 (4130)
a) S01°40' E097°07' (For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061-2305B) When it is 1000
b) N01°40' E097°07' Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard Time in Algeria is:
c) S01°40' E101°40' a) 800
d) N01°40' E101°40' b) 1200
c) 1300
d) 700
343
61.1.3.0 (4131) b) positions that have the same variation
(For this question use annex 061-2325A to 061-2325D)An aircraft takes off from c) points of equal magnetic dip
Guam at 2300 Standard Time on 30 April local date. After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN d) points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength
it lands at Los Angeles (California). What is the Standard Time and local date of
arrival (assume summer time rules apply)?
61.1.4.0 (4138)
a) 1715 on 30 April
Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
b) 1215 on 1 May
a) the same variation
c) 1315 on 1 May
b) 0° variation
d) 1615 on 30 April
c) the same elevation
d) the same angle of magnetic dip
61.1.3.0 (4132)
(For this question use annex 061-2326A to 061-2326D)When it is 0600 Standard
61.1.4.0 (4139)
Time in Queensland (Australia) the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is:
Compass deviation is defined as the angle between:
a) 1000
a) Magnetic North and Compass North
b) 1200
b) True North and Magnetic North
c) 200
c) True North and Compass North
d) 600
d) the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic field

61.1.3.0 (4133)
61.1.4.0 (4140)
The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration,
The angle between True North and Magnetic North is called :
is due to the:
a) variation
a) inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
b) deviation
b) earth's rotation
c) compass error
c) relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
d) drift
d) gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth

61.1.4.0 (4141)
61.1.3.0 (4134)
Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:
What is the meaning of the term ""standard time"" ?
a) compass heading
a) It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part of a country
b) true heading
b) It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA
c) magnetic course
c) It is an expression for local mean time
d) magnetic track
d) It is another term for UTC

61.1.4.0 (4142)
61.1.3.0 (4135)
Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have:
Civil twilight is defined by :
a) the same grivation
a) sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon
b) the same horizontal magnetic field strength
b) sun altitude is 12° below the celestial horizon
c) the same variation
c) sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizon
d) O° magnetic dip
d) sun upper edge tangential to horizon

61.1.4.0 (4143)
61.1.4.0 (4136)
The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal magnetic variation are
Given: true track is 348°, drift 17° left, variation 32° W, deviation 4°E. What is the
called:
compass heading?
a) isogonals
a) 033°
b) isotachs
b) 007°
c) isogrives
c) 359°
d) isoclines
d) 337°

61.1.4.0 (4144)
61.1.4.0 (4137)
A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that :
An Agonic line is a line that connects:
a) True North is East of Magnetic North
a) positions that have 0° variation
344
b) True North is West of Magnetic North c) N40º 00´ E060º 00´
c) Compass North is East of Magnetic North d) N40º 00´ E068º 10´
d) Compass North is West of Magnetic North
61.1.5.0 (4151)
61.1.4.0 (4145) A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S, 180°E/W.The distance in
The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North is called: kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is approximately:
a) compass deviation a) 1000
b) compass error b) 1222
c) magnetic variation c) 540
d) alignment error d) 804

61.1.4.0 (4146) 61.1.5.0 (4152)

The north and south magnetic poles are the only positions on the earth's surface An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 km.On completion of the
where: flight the longitude will be:
a) a freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical a) 000°40'E
b) isogonals converge b) 005°15'E
c) a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal c) 002°10'W
d) the value of magnetic variation equals 90° d) 000°15'E

61.1.5.0 (4147) 61.1.5.0 (4153)

The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60°00'N The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N 'x' is 900 NM.What is the
007°30'W) is: longitude of 'x'?
a) 300 NM a) 170°W
b) 450 NM b) 140°W
c) 600 NM c) 145°E
d) 150 NM d) 175°E

61.1.5.0 (4148) 61.1.5.0 (4154)

An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km.On completion of the
04°00'N 030°00'W :600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then flight the latitude will be:
600 NM West.The final position of the aircraft is: a) 03°50'S
a) 04°00'N 029°58'W b) 04°10'S
b) 04°00'N 030°02'W c) 04°30'S
c) 04°00'N 030°00'W d) 09°05'S
d) 03°58'N 030°02'W
61.1.5.0 (4155)
61.1.5.0 (4149) An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890 km/HR. What will its
What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have latitude be after 1.5 HR?
been followed from position 60°00'N 030°00'W?South for 3600 NM, East for 3600 a) 02°00'N
NM, North for 3600 NM, West for 3600 NM.The final position of the aircraft is: b) 12°15'N
a) 60°00'N 090°00'W c) 22°00'N
b) 60°00'N 030°00'E d) 03°50'N
c) 59°00'N 060°00'W
d) 59°00'N 090°00'W
61.1.5.0 (4156)
An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a groundspeed of 445 km/HR.What
61.1.5.0 (4150) will be its latitude after 3 HR?
An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a constant true track of 270º at a) 02°00'S
a ground speed of 120 kt. What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 b) 12°15'S
HR? c) 22°00'S
a) N40º 00´ E064º 20´ d) 03°50'S
b) N40º 00´ E070º 30´
345
61.1.5.0 (4157) c) isogonal
Given : Position 'A' N60 W020,Position 'B' N60 W021, Position 'C' N59 W020. What d) isotach
are, respectively, the distances from A to B and from A to C?
a) 30 NM and 60 NM
61.2.1.0 (4164)
b) 52 NM and 60 NM
The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field:
c) 60 NM and 30 NM
a) is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50°N and 50°S
d) 60 NM and 52 NM
b) weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles
c) weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic pole
61.2.1.0 (4158) d) is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than 60°
An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), where YYR VOR (53°30'N
060°15'W) can be received. The magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at
61.2.1.0 (4165)
YYR.What is the radial from YYR?
Complete the following statement regarding magnetic variation. The charted
a) 028°
values of magnetic variation on earth normally change annually due to:
b) 208°
a) magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase or
c) 031°
decrease
d) 332°
b) magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all locations to increase.
c) a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to decrease.
61.2.1.0 (4159) d) an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all locations to increase.
When is the magnetic compass most effective?
a) About midway between the magnetic poles
61.2.1.0 (4166)
b) In the region of the magnetic South Pole.
The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the:
c) In the region of the magnetic North Pole.
a) blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic
d) On the geographic equator
force pointing straight down to the earth's surface
b) red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
61.2.1.0 (4160) straight down to the earth's surface
What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic south pole ? c) blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
a) 90° straight up from the earth's surface
b) 45° d) red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of the magnetic force pointing
c) 60° straight up from the earth's surface
d) 0°
61.2.1.0 (4167)
61.2.1.0 (4161) Which of the following statements concerning earth magnetism is completely
The value of magnetic variation: correct?
a) has a maximum of 180° a) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation,
b) must be 0° at the magnetic equator the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip
c) varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West b) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the agonic
d) cannot exceed 90° line is the line of zero magnetic dip
c) An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip, the aclinic is the line of zero
magnetic dip
61.2.1.0 (4162)
d) An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same magnetic variation, the aclinic
Isogonals converge at the:
connects places with the same magnetic field strength
a) North and South geographic and magnetic poles
b) Magnetic equator
c) North magnetic pole only 61.2.1.0 (4168)
d) North and South magnetic poles only Which of the following statements concerning the earth's magnetic field is
completely correct?
a) The blue pole of the earth's magnetic field is situated in North Canada
61.2.1.0 (4163)
b) At the earth's magnetic equator, the inclination varies depending on whether the geograhic
A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the value of magnetic
equator is north or south of the magnetic equator
variation is zero is called an:
c) The earth's magnetic field can be classified as transient, semi-permanent or permanent
a) agonic line
d) Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical field component
b) aclinic line

346
61.2.1.0 (4169) c) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies: d) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
a) directly with the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
b) directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
61.2.2.0 (4176)
c) inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field
When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the
d) inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn :
a) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
61.2.1.0 (4170) b) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
Isogonals are lines of equal : c) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
a) magnetic variation. d) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
b) compass deviation.
c) pressure.
61.2.2.0 (4177)
d) wind velocity.
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one turn to the
right. If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct reading magnetic
61.2.1.0 (4171) compass should read:
At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation: a) more than 225°
a) varies slowly over time b) 225°
b) depends on the type of compass installed c) less than 225°
c) depends on the magnetic heading d) more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used
d) depends on the true heading
61.2.2.0 (4178)
61.2.2.0 (4172) When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass
When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern hemisphere accelerates, card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:
the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass to: a) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
a) indicate a turn towards the north b) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
b) lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft c) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
c) indicate a turn towards the south d) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
d) to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft
61.2.2.0 (4179)
61.2.2.0 (4173) Which of the following statements is correct concerning the effect of turning errors
When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the on a direct reading compass?
compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn : a) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are greatest at high
a) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south latitudes
b) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south b) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes
c) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north c) Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes
d) anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north d) Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are greatest at high latitudes

61.2.2.0 (4174) 61.2.2.0 (4180)

An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to the At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off on heading West, a
right/starboard. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct reading compass :
direct reading magnetic compass should read: a) indicates the correct heading
a) less than 060° b) overreads the heading
b) 060° c) underreads the heading
c) more than 060° d) indicates a turn to the south
d) more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used
61.2.2.0 (4181)
61.2.2.0 (4175) Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from:
When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the northern hemisphere, the a) hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field, whilst under
reading of a direct reading magnetic compass will: construction
a) under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect b) exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal operation
b) over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
347
c) the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the earth's magnetic field 61.2.3.0 (4188)
d) the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used when:
a) synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements
b) compensating for deviation
61.2.2.0 (4182)
c) setting local magnetic variation
Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere, it can
d) setting the 'heading' pointer
be said that :
a) on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to
the North 61.2.3.0 (4189)
b) on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote reading compass as
c) on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South compared with a standby compass?
d) on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent turn to the North a) It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass
sensitivity
b) It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from the detector unit,
61.2.2.0 (4183)
existing aircraft equipment
In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly direction, the
c) It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously suspending the
magnetic compass will indicate:
detector unit
a) a decrease in heading
d) It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and power is always available from
b) an increase in heading
sources within the aircraft
c) an apparent turn to the South
d) a heading of East
61.2.3.0 (4190)
Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a compass swing on a Direct
61.2.2.0 (4184)
Reading Compass?
The purpose of compass check swing is to:
a) After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical storm, or has been
a) measure the angle between Magnetic North and Compass North
struck by lightning
b) cancel out the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field
b) Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large change of magnetic latitude
c) cancel out the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field
c) After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed due to unserviceability
d) cancel out the effects of the magnetic fields found on board the aeroplane
d) Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless of its content

61.2.3.0 (4185)
In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused by aircraft
magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimised by:
a) mounting the detector unit in the wingtip
b) the use of repeater cards
c) positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
d) using a vertically mounted gyroscope
61.2.3.0 (4186)
A direct reading compass should be swung when:
a) there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude
b) there is a large change in magnetic longitude
c) the aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently moved
d) the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings
61.2.3.0 (4187)
The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic (dead beat) by:
a) keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass point and by using
damping wires
b) using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
c) using long magnets
d) pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
61.2.3.0 (4191)
The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading compass in
the wingtip of an aeroplane is:
a) to minimise the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical
circuits
b) to maximise the units exposure to the earth's magnetic field
c) to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft for ease of
maintenance
d) by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by the
aircraft strucure
61.2.3.0 (4192)
The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit of a remote indicating
compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is to:
a) reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical
circuits
b) facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its exposure to the Earth's magnetic
field
c) place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to cause deviation errors
d) place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or magnetic interference from the aircraft
61.2.3.0 (4193)
The main advantage of a remote indicating compass over a direct reading compass

348
is that it: c) 0.92
a) senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian d) 0.42
b) has less moving parts
c) requires less maintenance
61.3.1.0 (4200)
d) is able to magnify the earth's magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy
On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians:
a) is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin
61.3.1.0 (4194) b) is zero throughout the chart
A chart has the scale 1 : 1 000 000. From A to B on the chart measures 1.5 inches c) varies as the secant of the latitude
(one inch equals 2.54 centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is : d) equals earth convergency at the standard parallels
a) 20.6
b) 38.1
61.3.1.0 (4201)
c) 44.5
A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents 150 NM. The
d) 54.2
chart scale is:
a) 1 : 6 000 000
61.3.1.0 (4195) b) 1 : 3 000 000
The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is the: c) 1 : 5 000 000
a) scale at the standard parallels d) 1 : 1 000 000
b) mean scale between pole and equator
c) mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone
61.3.1.0 (4202)
d) scale at the equator
On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a certain length represents
70 NM. At latitude 30° North, the same length represents approximately:
61.3.1.0 (4196) a) 86 NM
The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar areas is based on a: b) 57 NM
a) Stereographical projection c) 70 NM
b) Direct Mercator projection d) 81 NM
c) Gnomonic projection
d) Lambert conformal projection
61.3.1.0 (4203)
On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured between two meridians
61.3.1.0 (4197) spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N is 8 cm.The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is
A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1 : 3 704 000. What is the scale at approximately:
latitude 60° S? a) 1 : 3 500 000
a) 1 : 1 852 000 b) 1 : 4 750 000
b) 1 : 7 408 000 c) 1 : 7 000 000
c) 1 : 3 208 000 d) 1 : 6 000 000
d) 1 : 185 200
61.3.1.0 (4204)
61.3.1.0 (4198) On a Mercator chart, the scale:
The distance measured between two points on a navigation map is 42 mm a) varies as 1/cosine of latitude (1/cosine= secant)
(millimetres). The scale of the chart is 1:1 600 000.The actual distance between b) varies as the sine of the latitude
these two point is approximately: c) is constant throughout the chart
a) 36.30 NM d) varies as 1/2 cosine of the co-latitude
b) 370.00 NM
c) 67.20 NM
61.3.1.0 (4205)
d) 3.69 NM
In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7 cm. The scale of the chart is
approximately:
61.3.1.0 (4199) a) 1 : 1 300 000
The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N b) 1 : 700 000
and 38°20' N.The constant of the cone for this chart is: c) 1 : 130 000
a) 0.39 d) 1 : 7 000 000
b) 0.60

349
61.3.1.0 (4206) b) 1 : 3 750 000
At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000 000.What is the scale at c) 1 : 2 000 000
the equator? d) 1 : 6 000 000
a) 1 : 6 000 000
b) 1 : 3 000 000
61.3.1.0 (4213)
c) 1 : 3 500 000
The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at latitude 65° North is 3.75
d) 1 : 1 500 000
inches. The chart scale at this latitude approximates:
a) 1 : 5 000 000
61.3.1.0 (4207) b) 1 : 6 000 000
What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E and 175°W on a direct c) 1 : 2 500 000
Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 5 000 000 at the equator? d) 1 : 3 000 000
a) 133 mm
b) 106 mm
61.3.1.0 (4214)
c) 167 mm
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard parallels, the quoted scale
d) 72 mm
is correct:
a) along the two standard parallels
61.3.1.0 (4208) b) in the area between the standard parallels
The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a direct Mercator chart is 133 c) along the parallel of origin
cm. What is the approximate scale of the chart at latitude 30°S? d) along the prime meridian
a) 1 : 25 000 000
b) 1 : 30 000 000
61.3.1.0 (4215)
c) 1 : 18 000 000
The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.78535.
d) 1 : 21 000 000
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented?
a) 51°45'
61.3.1.0 (4209) b) 52°05'
A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two standard parallels: c) 80°39'
a) the scale is only correct along the standard parallels d) 38°15'
b) shows all great circles as straight lines
c) the scale is only correct at parallel of origin
61.3.1.0 (4216)
d) shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10° apart is 5 inches. The scale
of the chart at 47° North approximates:
61.3.1.0 (4210) a) 1 : 6 000 000
The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the convergence angle b) 1 : 8 000 000
between longitudes 010°E and 030°W is 30°, is: c) 1 : 3 000 000
a) 0.75 d) 1 : 2 500 000
b) 0.40
c) 0.50
61.3.1.0 (4217)
d) 0.64
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency is most accurately
represented at the:
61.3.1.0 (4211) a) parallel of origin
The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic chart is quoted as 0.3955. At b) north and south limits of the chart
what latitude on the chart is earth convergency correctly represented? c) standard parallels
a) 23°18' d) Equator
b) 66°42'
c) 68°25'
61.3.1.0 (4218)
d) 21°35'
On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct along the:
a) meridian of tangency
61.3.1.0 (4212) b) Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical
On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between meridians 5° apart along c) datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it
latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The scale of the chart at that parallel approximates: d) prime meridian and the equator
a) 1 : 5 000 000
350
61.3.1.0 (4219) b) radio navigational charts in equatorial regions
Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to 12 cm on a map with a scale c) topographical maps of large east/ west extent
of 1 : 2 000 000? d) plotting charts in equatorial regions
a) 130
b) 150
61.3.1.0 (4226)
c) 329
The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert projection are at N10°40'N and
d) 43
N41°20'.The cone constant of this chart is approximatively :
a) 0.44
61.3.1.0 (4220) b) 0.90
Transverse Mercator projections are used for: c) 0.66
a) maps of large north/south extent d) 0.18
b) maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas
c) radio navigation charts in equatorial areas
61.3.1.0 (4227)
d) plotting charts in equatorial areas
On a chart, the distance along a meridian between latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6
cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:
61.3.1.0 (4221) a) 1 : 1 850 000
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain length represents a distance b) 1 : 1 000 000
of 120 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth, c) 1 : 185 000
at latitude 10°N, a distance of : d) 1 : 18 500 000
a) 122.3 NM
b) 117.7 NM
61.3.1.0 (4228)
c) 124.2 NM
Given:Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000. The chart distance between two points is 4
d) 118.2 NM
centimetres. Earth distance is approximately :
a) 40 NM
61.3.1.0 (4222) b) 74 NM
On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain length represents a c) 100 NM
distance of 90 NM on the earth. The same length on the chart will represent on the d) 4 NM
earth, at latitude 30°N, a distance of :
a) 110 NM
61.3.1.0 (4229)
b) 73.5 NM
On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance measured between W002° and
c) 78 NM
E008° is 20 cm. The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
d) 45 NM
a) 1 : 2 780 000
b) 1 : 278 000
61.3.1.0 (4223) c) 1 : 5 560 000
On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly correct along the: d) 1 : 556 000
a) meridians of tangency
b) equator and parallel of origin
61.3.1.0 (4230)
c) meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude perpendicular to it
At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1 : 5 000 000. The length on
d) prime meridian and the equator
the chart between 'C' N60° E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is:
a) 17.8 cm
61.3.1.0 (4224) b) 16.2 cm
On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of the Equator, parallels of c) 35.6 cm
latitude appear as: d) 19.2 cm
a) ellipses
b) straight lines
61.3.1.0 (4231)
c) hyperbolic lines
Assume a Mercator chart.The distance between positions A and B, located on the
d) parabolas
same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale at the parallel is 1 : 9 260
000.What is the latitude of A and B?
61.3.1.0 (4225) a) 60° N or S
An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to produce: b) 30° N or S
a) charts of the great circle route between two points
351
c) 0° b) straight lines regardless of distance
d) 45° N or S c) curves concave to the pole of projection
d) straight lines within the standard parallels
61.3.1.0 (4232)
A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185 NM.The scale of this chart is 61.3.2.0 (4239)
approximately : On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be represented by a:
a) 1 : 7 000 000 a) curve concave to the equator
b) 1 : 3 500 000 b) complex curve
c) 1 : 6 000 000 c) curve convex to the equator
d) 1 : 5 000 000 d) straight line

61.3.1.0 (4233) 61.3.2.0 (4240)

The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart : The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic chart, between the arrival
a) is constant along a parallel of latitude and departure track is equal to:
b) is constant along a meridian of longitude a) map convergence
c) is constant across the whole map b) earth convergence
d) varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude c) conversion angle
d) difference in longitude
61.3.1.0 (4234)
A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that is : 61.3.2.0 (4241)
a) cylindrical The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are represented by:
b) conical a) arcs of concentric circles
c) spherical b) straight lines
d) concentric c) parabolic lines
d) hyperbolic lines
61.3.2.0 (4235)
Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are : 61.3.2.0 (4242)
a) parallel straight lines unequally spaced Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:
b) parallel straight lines equally spaced a) Rhumb lines
c) arcs of concentric circles equally spaced b) Great circles
d) straight lines converging above the pole c) both Rhumb lines and Great circles
d) are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles
61.3.2.0 (4236)
A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart for normal flight planning 61.3.2.0 (4243)
purposes: On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N), with respect to the
a) is approximately a Great Circle straight line drawn on the map between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°),
b) is a Loxodromic line the:
c) is a Rhumb line a) great circle and rhumb line are to the south
d) can only be a parallel of latitude b) great circle and rhumb line are to the north
c) great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south
d) rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south
61.3.2.0 (4237)
On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:
a) straight line 61.3.2.0 (4244)
b) small circle concave to the nearer pole On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are:
c) spiral curve a) parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines
d) curve convex to the nearer pole b) inclined, equally spaced, straight lines that meet at the nearer pole
c) parallel, unequally spaced, vertical straight lines
d) inclined, unequally spaced, curved lines that meet at the nearer pole
61.3.2.0 (4238)
On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that are not meridians are:
a) curves concave to the parallel of origin

352
61.3.2.0 (4245) a) straight lines
On which of the following chart projections is it NOT possible to represent the b) curves concave to the equator
north or south poles? c) ellipses
a) Direct Mercator d) curves convex to the equator
b) Lambert's conformal
c) Transverse Mercator
61.3.3.0 (4252)
d) Polar stereographic
Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect points :
a) having the same elevation above sea level
61.3.2.0 (4246) b) with the same variation
Which one of the following, concerning great circles on a Direct Mercator chart, is c) having the same longitude
correct? d) of equal latitude
a) With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are curves concave to the
equator
61.3.3.0 (4253)
b) They are all curves concave to the equator
On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle course from A 70°N 060°W
c) They approximate to straight lines between the standard parallels
to B 70°N 060°E is approximately:
d) They are all curves convex to the equator
a) 030° (T)
b) 330° (T)
61.3.2.0 (4247) c) 150° (T)
On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance between parallels of latitude d) 210° (T)
spaced the same number of degrees apart :
a) reduces between, and expands outside, the standard parallels
61.3.3.0 (4254)
b) is constant between, and expands outside, the standard parallels
On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the South Pole, a straight line
c) expands between, and reduces outside, the standard parallels
joins position A (70°S 065°E) to position B (70°S 025°W).The true course on
d) is constant throughout the chart
departure from position A is approximately:
a) 225°
61.3.2.0 (4248) b) 250°
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the appearance of c) 135°
great circles, with the exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart d) 315°
whose tangency is at the pole ?
a) The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a straight line
61.3.3.0 (4255)
b) Any straight line is a great circle
Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A (80°N 000°) and B (70°N
c) They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave to the Pole
102°W) are joined by a straight line whose highest latitude is reached at 035°W.At
d) They are curves convex to the Pole
point B, the true course is:
a) 203°
61.3.2.0 (4249) b) 023°
Which one of the following describes the appearance of rhumb lines, except c) 247°
meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart? d) 305°
a) Curves concave to the Pole
b) Ellipses around the Pole
61.3.3.0 (4256)
c) Curves convex to the Pole
Given:Magnetic heading 311°Drift angle 10° leftRelative bearing of NDB 270°What
d) Straight lines
is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from the aircraft?
a) 221°
61.3.2.0 (4250) b) 208°
What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar Stereographic chart? c) 211°
a) 1.0 d) 180°
b) 0.866
c) 0.5
61.3.3.0 (4257)
d) 0.0
A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.75. The initial
course of a straight line track drawn on this chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is
61.3.2.0 (4251) 043°(T) at A, course at B is 055°(T). What is the longitude of B?
On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are: a) 34°W
353
b) 36°W b) N6127 W00443
c) 38°W c) N6010 E00255
d) 41°W d) N6109 E00255

61.3.3.0 (4258) 61.3.3.0 (4264)

A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the cone of 0.80. A straight line (For this question use annex 061-12405A)Which of the following beacons is 185
course drawn on this chart from A (53°N 004°W) to B is 080° at A, course at B is NM from AKRABERG (N6124 W00640)?
092°(T). What is the longitude of B? a) SUMBURGH (N5955 W00115)
a) 011°E b) SAXAVORD (N6050 W00050)
b) 009°36'E c) KIRKWALL (N5858 W 00254)
c) 008°E d) STORNOWAY (N5815 W00617)
d) 019°E
61.3.3.0 (4265)
61.3.3.0 (4259) (For this question refer to annex 061-12608A)What feature is shown on the chart
(For this question use annex 061-12400A)What are the average magnetic course at position N5417 W01005?
and distance between INGO VOR (N6350 W01640) and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W a) EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
00115)? b) Belmullet aerodrome
a) 131° - 494 NM c) Carnmore aerodrome
b) 118° - 440 NM d) Clonbullogue aerodrome
c) 117° - 494 NM
d) 130° - 440 NM
61.3.3.0 (4266)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12609A)Which of the following lists all the
61.3.3.0 (4260) aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7?
(For this question use annex 061-12401A)What are the average magnetic course a) civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting point
and distance between position N6000 W02000 and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W b) civil airport: VOR: non-compulsory reporting point
00115)? c) VOR: DME: NDB:compulsory reporting point
a) 105° - 562 NM d) VOR: DME: NDB: ILS
b) 091° - 480 NM
c) 091° - 562 NM
61.3.3.0 (4267)
d) 105° - 480 NM
(For this question refer to annex 061-12610A)Which of the following lists all the
aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5318.0 W00626.9?
61.3.3.0 (4261) a) military airport: VOR: DME
(For this question use annex 061-12402A)What are the initial true course and b) civil airport: VOR: DME
distance between positions N5800 W01300 and N6600 E00200? c) military airport: VOR: NDB
a) 036° - 638 NM d) VOR: DME: danger area
b) 029° - 570 NM
c) 042° - 635 NM
61.3.3.0 (4268)
d) 032° - 470 NM
(For this question refer to annex 061-12611A)Which of the following lists all the
aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5416.7 W00836.0?
61.3.3.0 (4262) a) civil airport: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting point
(For this question use annex 061-12403A)An aircraft on radial 315° at a range of b) VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point
150 NM from MYGGENES NDB (N6206 W00732) is at position: c) civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
a) N6320 W01205 d) VOR: DME: NDB: non-compulsory reporting point
b) N6020 W00405
c) N6345 W01125
61.3.3.0 (4269)
d) N6040 W00320
(For this question refer to annex 061-12612A)Which of the following lists all the
aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5318.1 W00856.5?
61.3.3.0 (4263) a) civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
(For this question use annex 061-12404A)An aircraft on radial 110° at a range of b) VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point
120 NM from SAXAVORD VOR (N6050 W00050) is at position: c) civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
a) N6027 E00307 d) VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point
354
61.3.3.0 (4270) distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6
(For this question refer to annex 061-12613A)Which of the following lists all the W00820.4)?
aeronautical chart symbols shown at position N5211 W00705? a) 327° - 124 NM
a) civil airport: NDB b) 335° - 128 NM
b) VOR: NDB c) 325° - 126 NM
c) civil airport: ILS d) 320° - 127 NM
d) NDB: ILS
61.3.3.0 (4277)
61.3.3.0 (4271) (For this question use annex 061-12578A)What is the average track (°T) and
(For this question refer to annex 061-12614A)Which of the aeronautical chart distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6
symbols indicates a VOR/DME? W00738.7)?
a) 1 a) 035° - 80 NM
b) 2 b) 042° - 83 NM
c) 6 c) 036° - 81 NM
d) 7 d) 044° - 82 NM

61.3.3.0 (4272) 61.3.3.0 (4278)

(For this question refer to annex 061-12615A)Which of the aeronautical chart (For this question use annex 061-12579A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1)
symbols indicates a DME? radial 223°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°.What is the aircraft
a) 2 position?
b) 3 a) N5220 W00920
c) 5 b) N5230 W00910
d) 6 c) N5210 W00910
d) N5210 W00930
61.3.3.0 (4273)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12616A)Which of the aeronautical chart 61.3.3.0 (4279)
symbols indicates a VOR? (For this question use annex 061-12580A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1)
a) 3 radial 205°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317°.What is the aircraft
b) 5 position?
c) 6 a) N5210 W00910
d) 2 b) N5118 W00913
c) N5205 W00915
d) N5215 W00917
61.3.3.0 (4274)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12617A)Which of the aeronautical chart
symbols indicates an NDB? 61.3.3.0 (4280)
a) 4 (For this question use annex 061-12590A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CRK
b) 6 VOR N5150.4 W00829.7Aircraft position N5230 W00820Which of the following
c) 2 lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
d) 3 a) SHA 131°CRK 017°
b) SHA 304°CRK 189°
c) SHA 312°CRK 197°
61.3.3.0 (4275)
d) SHA 124°CRK 009°
(For this question use annex 061-12576A)What is the average track (°T) and
distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1
W00856.5)? 61.3.3.0 (4281)
a) 270° - 90 NM (For this question use annex 061-12591A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CRK
b) 278° - 89 NM VOR N5150.4 W00829.7Aircraft position N5230 W00930Which of the following
c) 268° - 91 NM lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
d) 272° - 89 NM a) SHA 248°CRK 325°
b) SHA 068°CRK 145°
c) SHA 060°CRK 138°
61.3.3.0 (4276)
d) SHA 240°CRK 137°
(For this question use annex 061-12577A)What is the average track (°T) and
355
61.3.3.0 (4282) c) N5305 W00930
(For this question use annex 061-12592A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CON d) N5310 W00820
VOR N5354.8 W00849.1Aircraft position N5330 W00800Which of the following
lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
61.3.3.0 (4288)
a) SHA 042°CON 138°
(For this question use annex 061-12598A)Given:CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1)
b) SHA 213°CON 310°
DME 30 NM,CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM,Aircraft heading 270°
c) SHA 033°CON 130°
(M),Both DME distances decreasing.What is the aircraft position?
d) SHA 221°CON 318°
a) N5330 W00820
b) N5343 W00925
61.3.3.0 (4283) c) N5335 W00925
(For this question use annex 061-12593A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CON d) N5337 W00820
VOR N5354.8 W00849.1Aircraft position N5320 W00950Which of the following
lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position?
61.3.3.0 (4289)
a) SHA 325°CON 235°
(For this question refer to annex 061-12599A)Given:CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4
b) SHA 137°CON 046°
W00829.7)Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4)What is the CRK radial and DME
c) SHA 317°CON 226°
distance when overhead Kerry aerodrome?
d) SHA 145°CON 055°
a) 307° - 43 NM
b) 119° - 44 NM
61.3.3.0 (4284) c) 127° - 45 NM
(For this question use annex 061-12594A)Given:SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) d) 299° - 42 NM
DME 50 NM,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM,Aircraft heading 270°
(M),Both DME distances increasing.What is the aircraft position?
61.3.3.0 (4290)
a) N5200 W00935
(For this question refer to annex 061-12600A)Given:SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3
b) N5215 W00940
W00853.1)Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754)What is the SHA radial and DME
c) N5215 W00745
distance when overhead Birr aerodrome?
d) N5235 W00750
a) 068° - 41 NM
b) 248° - 42 NM
61.3.3.0 (4285) c) 060° - 42 Nm
(For this question use annex 061-12595A)Given:SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) d) 240° - 41 NM
DME 41 NM,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM,Aircraft heading 270°
(M),Both DME distances decreasing.What is the aircraft position?
61.3.3.0 (4291)
a) N5215 W00805
(For this question refer to annex 061-12601A)Given:SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3
b) N5205 W00915
W00853.1)Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928)What is the SHA radial and
c) N5215 W00915
DME distance when overhead Connemara aerodrome?
d) N5225 W00810
a) 333° - 37 NM
b) 154° - 38 NM
61.3.3.0 (4286) c) 326° - 37 NM
(For this question use annex 061-12596A)Given:CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) d) 146° - 38 NM
DME 18 NM,SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM,Aircraft heading 270°
(M),Both DME distances decreasing.What is the aircraft position?
61.3.3.0 (4292)
a) N5310 W00830
(For this question refer to annex 061-12602A)Given:CON VOR/DME (N5354.8
b) N5252 W00923
W00849.1)Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917)What is the CON radial and DME
c) N5307 W00923
distance when overhead Castlebar aerodrome?
d) N5355 W00825
a) 265° - 17 NM
b) 077° - 18 NM
61.3.3.0 (4287) c) 257° - 17 NM
(For this question use annex 061-12597A)Given:CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) d) 086° - 18 NM
DME 34 NM,SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM,Aircraft heading 090°
(M),Both DME distances increasing.What is the aircraft position?
61.3.3.0 (4293)
a) N5255 W00815
(For this question use annex 061-12560A)What is the radial and DME distance
b) N5250 W0030
from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330 W00930?
356
a) 233° - 35 NM a) 142° - 95 NM
b) 165° - 27 NM b) 315° - 94 NM
c) 335° - 43 NM c) 135° - 96 NM
d) 025° - 38 NM d) 322° - 95 NM

61.3.3.0 (4294) 61.3.3.0 (4300)

(For this question use annex 061-12561A)What is the radial and DME distance (For this question refer to annex 061-12635A)What is the meaning of aeronautical
from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710? chart symbol No. 15?
a) 236° - 44 NM a) Aeronautical ground light
b) 223° - 36 NM b) Visual reference point
c) 320° - 44 NM c) Hazard to aerial navigation
d) 333° - 36 NM d) Lighthouse

61.3.3.0 (4295) 61.3.3.0 (4301)

(For this question use annex 061-12562A)What is the radial and DME distance (For this question refer to annex 061-12636A)What is the meaning of aeronautical
from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5440 W00730? chart symbol No. 16?
a) 278° - 44 NM a) Lightship
b) 090° - 46 NM b) Off-shore helicopter landing platform
c) 278° - 10 NM c) Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide
d) 098° - 45 NM d) Off-shore lighthouse

61.3.3.0 (4296) 61.3.3.0 (4302)

(For this question use annex 061-12563A)What is the radial and DME distance (For this question refer to annex 061-12637A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
from BEL VOR/DME (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500 W00700? indicates an aeronautical ground light?
a) 315° - 34 NM a) 15
b) 296° - 65 NM b) 16
c) 126° - 33 NM c) 10
d) 222° - 48 NM d) 14

61.3.3.0 (4297) 61.3.3.0 (4303)

(For this question use annex 061-12564A)What is the average track (°M) and (For this question refer to annex 061-12638A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9 indicates a lightship?
W00931.5)? a) 16
a) 278° - 90 NM b) 10
b) 090° - 91 NM c) 12
c) 270° - 89 NM d) 14
d) 098° - 90 NM
61.3.3.0 (4304)
61.3.3.0 (4298) (For this question refer to annex 061-12624A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
(For this question use annex 061-12565A)What is the average track (°M) and indicates an uncontrolled route?
distance between CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 a) 4
W00856.5)? b) 5
a) 357° - 89 NM c) 2
b) 169° - 91 NM d) 3
c) 349° - 90 NM
d) 177° - 92 NM
61.3.3.0 (4305)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12625A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
61.3.3.0 (4299) indicates the boundary of advisory airspace?
(For this question use annex 061-12566A)What is the average track (°M) and a) 5
distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3 b) 2
W00705.0)?
357
c) 3 61.3.3.0 (4312)
d) 4 (For this question refer to annex 061-12632A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
indicates a group of lighted obstacles?
a) 12
61.3.3.0 (4306)
b) 9
(For this question refer to annex 061-12626A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
c) 10
indicates a non-compulsory reporting point?
d) 11
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8 61.3.3.0 (4313)
d) 15 (For this question refer to annex 061-12633A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
indicates an exceptionally high unlighted obstacle?
a) 13
61.3.3.0 (4307)
b) 14
(For this question refer to annex 061-12627A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
c) 9
indicates a compulsory reporting point?
d) 11
a) 7
b) 8
c) 15 61.3.3.0 (4314)
d) 6 (For this question refer to annex 061-12634A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
indicates an exceptionally high lighted obstacle?
a) 14
61.3.3.0 (4308)
b) 10
(For this question refer to annex 061-12628A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
c) 12
indicates a Way-point?
d) 13
a) 8
b) 15
c) 6 61.3.3.0 (4315)
d) 7 (For this question use annex 061-12567A)What is the average track (°M) and
distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0
W00626.9)?
61.3.3.0 (4309)
a) 026° - 71 NM
(For this question refer to annex 061-12629A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
b) 018° - 153 NM
indicates an unlighted obstacle?
c) 206° - 71 NM
a) 9
d) 198° - 72 NM
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12 61.3.3.0 (4316)
(For this question use annex 061-12568A)What is the average track (°M) and
distance between KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1
61.3.3.0 (4310)
W00856.5)?
(For this question refer to annex 061-12630A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
a) 025° - 70 NM
indicates a lighted obstacle?
b) 197° - 71 NM
a) 10
c) 205° - 71 NM
b) 11
d) 017° - 70 NM
c) 12
d) 9
61.3.3.0 (4317)
(For this question use annex 061-12569A)What is the average track (°M) and
61.3.3.0 (4311)
distance between BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7
(For this question refer to annex 061-12631A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
W00836.0)?
indicates a group of unlighted obstacles?
a) 316° - 96 NM
a) 11
b) 262° - 86 NM
b) 12
c) 128° - 99 NM
c) 13
d) 308° - 98 NM
d) 9

358
61.3.3.0 (4318) c) 358° - 72 NM
(For this question use annex 061-12570A)What is the average track (°M) and d) 006° - 71 NM
distance between CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7
W00613.8)?
61.3.3.0 (4324)
a) 057° - 126 NM
(For this question refer to annex 061-12603A)Given:CON VOR/DME (N5354.8
b) 089° - 95 NM
W00849.1)Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)What is the CON radial and
c) 229° - 125 NM
DME distance when overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
d) 237° - 130 NM
a) 124° - 46 NM
b) 116° - 47 NM
61.3.3.0 (4319) c) 296° - 46 NM
(For this question use annex 061-12571A)What is the average track (°T) and d) 304° - 47 NM
distance between CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7
W00613.8)?
61.3.3.0 (4325)
a) 063° - 101 NM
(For this question refer to annex 061-12604A)What feature is shown on the chart
b) 071° - 100 NM
at position N5211 W00931?
c) 113° - 97 NM
a) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
d) 293° - 98 NM
b) Waterford NDB
c) Connemara aerodrome
61.3.3.0 (4320) d) Punchestown aerodrome
(For this question use annex 061-12572A)What is the average track (°T) and
distance between SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6
61.3.3.0 (4326)
W00820.4)?
(For this question refer to annex 061-12605A)What feature is shown on the chart
a) 011° - 47 NM
at position N5212 W00612?
b) 020° - 46 NM
a) TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB
c) 348° - 46 NM
b) WTD NDB
d) 191° - 45 NM
c) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
d) Clonbullogue aerodrome
61.3.3.0 (4321)
(For this question use annex 061-12573A)What is the average track (°T) and
61.3.3.0 (4327)
distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0
(For this question refer to annex 061-12606A)What feature is shown on the chart
W00911.7)?
at position N5311 W00637?
a) 286° - 81 NM
a) Punchestown aerodrome
b) 294° - 80 NM
b) Connemara aerodrome
c) 075° - 81 NM
c) KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
d) 277° - 83 NM
d) Clonbullogue aerodrome

61.3.3.0 (4322)
61.3.3.0 (4328)
(For this question use annex 061-12574A)What is the average track (°T) and
(For this question refer to annex 061-12607A)What feature is shown on the chart
distance between WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7
at position N5351 W00917?
W00836.0)?
a) Castlebar aerodrome
a) 336° - 137 NM
b) Connaught aerodrome
b) 344° - 139 NM
c) Connemara aerodrome
c) 156° - 136 NM
d) Brittas Bay aerodrome
d) 164° - 138 NM

61.3.3.0 (4329)
61.3.3.0 (4323)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12618A)Which of the aeronautical chart
(For this question use annex 061-12575A)What is the average track (°T) and
symbols indicates a basic, non-specified, navigation aid?
distance between SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8
a) 5
W00849.1)?
b) 6
a) 002° - 72 NM
c) 2
b) 010° - 71 NM
d) 3
359
61.3.3.0 (4330) 61.3.3.0 (4336)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12619A)Which of the aeronautical chart (For this question use annex 061-12581A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1)
symbols indicates a TACAN? radial 120°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033°.What is the aircraft
a) 6 position?
b) 7 a) N5230 W00800
c) 1 b) N5225 W00805
d) 2 c) N5220 W00750
d) N5240 W00750
61.3.3.0 (4331)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12620A)Which of the aeronautical chart 61.3.3.0 (4337)
symbols indicates a VORTAC? (For this question use annex 061-12582A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1)
a) 7 radial 129°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047°.What is the aircraft
b) 1 position?
c) 3 a) N5220 W00750
d) 6 b) N5215 W00755
c) N5210 W00750
d) N5205 W00755
61.3.3.0 (4332)
(For this question refer to annex 061-12621A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
indicates a Flight Information Region (FIR) boundary? 61.3.3.0 (4338)
a) 1 (For this question use annex 061-12583A)Given: SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1)
b) 3 radial 143°,CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050°.What is the aircraft
c) 4 position?
d) 5 a) N5210 W00800
b) N5155 W00810
c) N5205 W00805
61.3.3.0 (4333)
d) N5200 W00800
(For this question refer to annex 061-12623A)Which aeronautical chart symbol
indicates a Control Zone boundary?
a) 3 61.3.3.0 (4339)
b) 4 (For this question use annex 061-12584A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3
c) 5 W00853.1) radial 120°/35 NM.What is the aircraft position?
d) 2 a) N5230 W00800
b) N5300 W00945
c) N5225 W00805
61.3.3.0 (4334)
d) N5250 W00950
At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40 NM of a VOR/DME
station.At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40 NM.Magnetic
variation is zero.The true track and ground speed are : 61.3.3.0 (4340)
a) 085° - 226 kt (For this question use annex 061-12585A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3
b) 090° - 232 kt W00853.1) radial 165°/36 NM.What is the aircraft position?
c) 080° - 226 kt a) N5210 W00830
d) 088° - 232 kt b) N5208 W00840
c) N5315 W00915
d) N5317 W00908
61.3.3.0 (4335)
Given:An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M),2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from
a VOR station, 2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station.At 2300 UTC, 61.3.3.0 (4341)
the distance between the aircraft and the station is : (For this question use annex 061-12586A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3
a) the same as it was at 2254 UTC W00853.1) radial 232°/32 NM.What is the aircraft position?
b) greater than it was at 2254 UTC a) N5220 W00930
c) randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC b) N5305 W00815
d) less than it was at 2254 UTC c) N5228 W00935
d) N5303 W00810

360
61.3.3.0 (4342) 61.3.3.0 (4348)
(For this question use annex 061-12587A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 (For this question use annex 061-12549A)What is the radial and DME distance
W00853.1) radial 025°/49 NM.What is the aircraft position? from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5220 W00810?
a) N5330 W00830 a) 030° - 33 NM
b) N5328 W00820 b) 048° - 40 NM
c) N5155 W00915 c) 014° - 33 NM
d) N5200 W0925 d) 220° - 40 NM

61.3.3.0 (4343) 61.3.3.0 (4349)

(For this question use annex 061-12588A)Given: SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 (For this question use annex 061-12550A)What is the radial and DME distance
W00853.1) radial 048°/22 NM.What is the aircraft position? from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210 W00920?
a) N5300 W0830 a) 311° - 38 NM
b) N5258 W00825 b) 350° - 22 NM
c) N5225 W00917 c) 295° - 38 NM
d) N5228 W00920 d) 170° - 22 NM

61.3.3.0 (4344) 61.3.3.0 (4350)

(For this question use annex 061-12589A)Given:SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1CRK (For this question use annex 061-12551A)What is the radial and DME distance
VOR N5150.4 W00829.7Aircraft position N5220 W00910Which of the following from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230 W00750?
lists two radials that are applicable to the aircraft position? a) 039° - 48 NM
a) SHA 212°CRK 328° b) 024° - 43 NM
b) SHA 025°CRK 141° c) 023° - 48 NM
c) SHA 205°CRK 321° d) 017° - 43 NM
d) SHA 033°CRK 149°
61.3.3.0 (4351)
61.3.3.0 (4345) (For this question use annex 061-12552A)What is the radial and DME distance
A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and 'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert from CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140 W00730?
Conformal conic chart with a scale of 1 : 1 000 000 at 60°N. The chart distance a) 113° - 38 NM
between 'X' and 'Y' is: b) 104° - 76 NM
a) 66.7 cm c) 293° - 39 NM
b) 33.4 cm d) 106° - 38 NM
c) 38.5 cm
d) 36.0 cm
61.3.3.0 (4352)
(For this question use annex 061-12553A)What is the radial and DME distance
61.3.3.0 (4346) from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5300 W00940?
Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an angle of 35° with longitude a) 309° - 33 NM
026°E. Average magnetic variation between 'A' and 'B' is 3°E.What is the average b) 057° - 27 NM
magnetic course from 'A' to 'B'? c) 293° - 33 NM
a) 322° d) 324° - 17 NM
b) 328°
c) 032°
61.3.3.0 (4353)
d) 038°
(For this question use annex 061-12554A)What is the radial and DME distance
from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5310 W00830?
61.3.3.0 (4347) a) 035° - 30 NM
Given:Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at equator,Chart length b) 070° - 58 NM
from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator, 11 cm.What is the approximate c) 207° - 31 NM
distance from 'A' to 'B'? d) 019° - 31 NM
a) 12 NM
b) 21 NM
61.3.3.0 (4354)
c) 22 NM
(For this question use annex 061-12555A)What is the radial and DME distance
d) 14 NM
from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220 W00810?
361
a) 139° - 35 NM c) 048°
b) 129° - 46 NM d) 072°
c) 132° - 36 NM
d) 212° - 26 NM
61.4.1.0 (4361)
Given: True track 180°Drift 8°RCompass heading 195°Deviation -2°Calculate the
61.3.3.0 (4355) variation?
(For this question use annex 061-12556A)What is the radial and DME distance a) 21°W
from SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)to position N5210 W00920? b) 25°W
a) 214° - 37 NM c) 5°W
b) 354° - 34 NM d) 9°W
c) 198° - 37 NM
d) 346° - 34 NM
61.4.1.0 (4362)
Given: True course 300°drift 8°Rvariation 10°Wdeviation -4° Calculate the
61.3.3.0 (4356) compass heading?
(For this question use annex 061-12557A)What is the radial and DME distance a) 306°
from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5430 W00900? b) 322°
a) 358° - 36 NM c) 294°
b) 214° - 26 NM d) 278°
c) 049° - 45 NM
d) 169° - 35 NM
61.4.1.0 (4363)
Given:true track 352°variation 11° Wdeviation is -5°drift 10°R.Calculate the
61.3.3.0 (4357) compass heading?
(For this question use annex 061-12558A)What is the radial and DME distance a) 358°
from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5400 W00800? b) 346°
a) 088° - 29 NM c) 018°
b) 320° - 8 NM d) 025°
c) 094° - 64 NM
d) 260° - 30 NM
61.4.1.0 (4364)
Given:true track 070°variation 30°Wdeviation +1°drift 10°RCalculate the compass
61.3.3.0 (4358) heading?
(For this question use annex 061-12559A)What is the radial and DME distance a) 089°
from CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340 W00820? b) 091°
a) 140° - 23 NM c) 100°
b) 119° - 42 NM d) 101°
c) 311° - 22 NM
d) 240° - 24 NM
61.4.1.0 (4365)
Given: True course from A to B = 090°,TAS = 460 kt, W/V = 360/100kt,Average
61.4.1.0 (4359) variation = 10°E,Deviation = -2°.Calculate the compass heading and GS?
Given the following:True track: 192°Magnetic variation: 7°EDrift angle: 5° a) 069° - 448 kt
leftWhat is the magnetic heading required to maintain the given track? b) 068° - 460 kt
a) 190° c) 078° - 450 kt
b) 194° d) 070° - 453 kt
c) 204°
d) 180°
61.4.1.0 (4366)
Given: True course A to B = 250°Distance A to B = 315 NMTAS = 450 kt. W/V =
61.4.1.0 (4360) 200°/60kt.ETD A = 0650 UTC.What is the ETA at B?
Given the following:Magnetic heading: 060°Magnetic variation: 8°WDrift angle: 4° a) 0736 UTC
rightWhat is the true track? b) 0730 UTC
a) 056° c) 0810 UTC
b) 064° d) 0716 UTC

362
61.4.1.0 (4367) 61.4.1.0 (4374)
Given: GS = 510 kt.Distance A to B = 43 NMWhat is the time (MIN) from A to B? Given: GS = 105 kt.Distance from A to B = 103 NM.What is the time from A to B?
a) 5 a) 00 HR 59 MIN
b) 4 b) 00 HR 57 MIN
c) 6 c) 00 HR 58 MIN
d) 7 d) 01 HR 01 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4368) 61.4.1.0 (4375)

Given: GS = 122 kt.Distance from A to B = 985 NM.What is the time from A to B? Given: GS = 120 kt.Distance from A to B = 84 NM.What is the time from A to B?
a) 8 HR 04 MIN a) 00 HR 42 MIN
b) 7 HR 48 MIN b) 00 HR 43 MIN
c) 7 HR 49 MIN c) 00 HR 44 MIN
d) 8 HR 10 MIN d) 00 HR 45 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4369) 61.4.1.0 (4376)

Given: GS = 236 kt.Distance from A to B = 354 NMWhat is the time from A to B? Given: GS = 135 kt.Distance from A to B = 433 NM.What is the time from A to B?
a) 1 HR 30 MIN a) 3 HR 12 MIN
b) 1 HR 09 MIN b) 3 HR 25 MIN
c) 1 HR 10 MIN c) 3 HR 19 MIN
d) 1 HR 40 MIN d) 3 HR 20 MIN

61.4.1.0 (4370) 61.4.1.0 (4377)

Given: GS = 435 kt.Distance from A to B = 1920 NM.What is the time from A to B? The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
a) 4 HR 25 MIN a) estimated time of arrival at destination
b) 3 HR 25 MIN b) actual time of arrival at a point or fix
c) 3 HR 26 MIN c) estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix
d) 4 HR 10 MIN d) estimated time en route

61.4.1.0 (4371) 61.4.1.0 (4378)

Given: GS = 345 kt.Distance from A to B = 3560 NM.What is the time from A to B? Given:Required course 045°(M),Variation is 15°E,W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt,CAS is 120
a) 10 HR 19 MIN kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere.What are the heading (°M) and GS?
b) 10 HR 05 MIN a) 055° and 147 kt
c) 11 HR 00 MIN b) 036° and 151 kt
d) 11 HR 02 MIN c) 052° and 154 kt
d) 056° and 137 kt
61.4.1.0 (4372)
Given: GS = 480 kt.Distance from A to B = 5360 NM.What is the time from A to B? 61.4.1.0 (4379)
a) 11 HR 10 MIN Given:Course 040°(T),TAS is 120 kt,Wind speed 30 kt.Maximum drift angle will be
b) 11 HR 06 MIN obtained for a wind direction of:
c) 11 HR 07 MIN a) 130°
d) 11 HR 15 MIN b) 145°
c) 115°
d) 120°
61.4.1.0 (4373)
Given: GS = 95 kt.Distance from A to B = 480 NM.What is the time from A to B?
a) 5 HR 03 MIN 61.4.2.0 (4380)
b) 4 HR 59 MIN How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if GS is 135 kt?
c) 5 HR 00 MIN a) 3.94
d) 5 HR 08 MIN b) 2.36
c) 3.25
d) 39.0

363
61.4.2.0 (4381) 61.4.2.0 (4388)
Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83 IMP GAL.What is the The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately:
endurance? a) 136 kt
a) 4 HR 32 MIN b) 145 kt
b) 3 HR 12 MIN c) 210 kt
c) 3 HR 53 MIN d) 35 kt
d) 2 HR 15 MIN
61.4.2.0 (4389)
61.4.2.0 (4382) Given:IAS 120 kt,FL 80,OAT +20°C. What is the TAS?
What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ? a) 141 kt
a) 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres b) 102 kt
b) 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL c) 120 kt
c) 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres d) 132 kt
d) 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL
61.4.3.0 (4390)
61.4.2.0 (4383) An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant TAS of 210 kt. The wind
265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80) velocity is 350° / 30 kt. The GS and drift angle are:
a) 803 kg a) 192 kt, 7° right
b) 862 kg b) 200 kt, 3.5° right
c) 895 kg c) 192 kt, 7° left
d) 940 kg d) 225 kt, 7° left

61.4.2.0 (4384) 61.4.3.0 (4391)

730 FT/MIN equals: For a given track the:Wind component = +45 ktDrift angle = 15° leftTAS = 240
a) 3.7 m/sec ktWhat is the wind component on the reverse track?
b) 5.2 m/sec a) -65 kt
c) 1.6 m/sec b) -55 kt
d) 2.2 m/sec c) -45 kt
d) -35 kt
61.4.2.0 (4385)
How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269 Kt ? 61.4.3.0 (4392)
a) 1 MIN 07 SEC Given:Magnetic heading = 255°VAR = 40°WGS = 375 ktW/V = 235°(T) / 120
b) 1 MIN 55 SEC ktCalculate the drift angle?
c) 2 MIN 30 SEC a) 7° left
d) 0 MIN 34 SEC b) 7° right
c) 9° left
d) 16° right
61.4.2.0 (4386)
An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. What is its groundspeed?
a) 160 kt 61.4.3.0 (4393)
b) 183 kt Given:True Heading = 180° TAS = 500 ktW/V 225° / 100 ktCalculate the GS?
c) 209 kt a) 435 kt
d) 131 kt b) 600 kt
c) 535 kt
d) 450 kt
61.4.2.0 (4387)
An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long does it take to travel 215
NM? 61.4.3.0 (4394)
a) 50 MIN Given:True heading = 310° TAS = 200 ktGS = 176 ktDrift angle 7° right.Calculate
b) 100 MIN the W/V?
c) 90 MIN a) 270° / 33 kt
d) 80 MIN b) 360° / 33 kt

364
c) 090° / 33 kt 61.4.3.0 (4401)
d) 180° / 33 kt The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is 240°/35 kt. Runway 30
(300°). What is the cross-wind component?
a) 30 kt
61.4.3.0 (4395)
b) 24 kt
Given:True Heading = 090° TAS = 180 ktGS = 180 ktDrift 5° rightCalculate the W/
c) 27 kt
V?
d) 21 kt
a) 360° / 15 kt
b) 190° / 15 kt
c) 010° / 15 kt 61.4.3.0 (4402)
d) 180° / 15 kt Given:TAS = 132 kt,True HDG = 257°W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.Calculate the drift angle
and GS?
a) 4°R - 165 kt
61.4.3.0 (4396)
b) 2°R - 166 kt
Given:True Heading = 090°TAS = 200 ktW/V = 220° / 30 kt.Calculate the GS?
c) 4°L - 167 kt
a) 220 kt
d) 3°L - 166 kt
b) 230 kt
c) 180 kt
d) 200 kt 61.4.3.0 (4403)
Given:TAS = 270 kt,True HDG = 270°,Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,Calculate the drift
angle and GS?
61.4.3.0 (4397)
a) 6R - 259kt
Given: M 0.80, OAT -50°C, FL 330, GS 490 kt, VAR 20°W, Magnetic heading 140°,
b) 6L - 256kt
Drift is 11° Right. Calculate the true W/V?
c) 6R - 251kt
a) 020°/95 kt
d) 8R - 259kt
b) 025°/47 kt
c) 200°/95 kt
d) 025°/45 kt 61.4.3.0 (4404)
Given:TAS = 270 kt,True HDG = 145°,Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt.Calculate the
drift angle and GS?
61.4.3.0 (4398)
a) 6°L - 256 kt
Given: Compass Heading 090°, Deviation 2°W, Variation 12°E, TAS 160 kt.Whilst
b) 6°R - 251 kt
maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station, the aircraft flies a ground distance of
c) 8°R - 261 kt
14 NM in 6 MIN. What is the W/V °(T)?
d) 6°R - 259 kt
a) 160°/50 kt
b) 340°/25 kt
c) 340°/98 kt 61.4.3.0 (4405)
d) 155°/25 kt Given:TAS = 470 kt,True HDG = 317°W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle
and GS?
a) 5°L - 470 kt
61.4.3.0 (4399)
b) 3°R - 470 kt
An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°. The W/V is 045° /
c) 5°L - 475 kt
50kt.How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and return in one hour?
d) 5°R - 475 kt
a) 85 NM
b) 88 NM
c) 56 NM 61.4.3.0 (4406)
d) 176 NM Given:TAS = 140 kt,True HDG = 302°,W/V = 045°(T)/45ktCalculate the drift angle
and GS?
a) 16°L - 156 kt
61.4.3.0 (4400)
b) 9°R - 143 kt
The following information is displayed on an Inertial Navigation System:GS 520
c) 9°L - 146 kt
kt,True HDG 090°,Drift angle 5° right,TAS 480 kt.SAT (static air temperature)
d) 18°R - 146 kt
-51°C.The W/V being experienced is:
a) 320° / 60 kt
b) 225° / 60 kt 61.4.3.0 (4407)
c) 220° / 60 kt Given:TAS = 290 kt,True HDG = 171°,W/V = 310°(T)/30ktCalculate the drift angle
d) 325° / 60 kt and GS?
365
a) 4°L - 314 kt 61.4.3.0 (4414)
b) 4°R - 310 kt Given: TAS = 190 kt,HDG (T) = 355°,W/V = 165/25kt.Calculate the drift and GS?
c) 4°R - 314 kt a) 1L - 215 kt
d) 4°L - 310 kt b) 1L - 225 kt
c) 1R - 175 kt
d) 1R - 165 kt
61.4.3.0 (4408)
Given:TAS = 485 kt,True HDG = 226°,W/V = 110°(T)/95kt.Calculate the drift
angle and GS? 61.4.3.0 (4415)
a) 9°R - 533 kt Given: TAS = 230 kt,HDG (T) = 250°,W/V = 205/10kt.Calculate the drift and GS?
b) 7°R - 531 kt a) 2R - 223 kt
c) 9°R - 433 kt b) 2L - 224 kt
d) 8°L - 435 kt c) 1L - 225 kt
d) 1R - 221 kt
61.4.3.0 (4409)
Given:TAS = 235 kt,HDG (T) = 076°W/V = 040/40kt.Calculate the drift angle and 61.4.3.0 (4416)
GS? Given: TAS = 205 kt,HDG (T) = 180°,W/V = 240/25kt.Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 7R - 204 kt a) 6L - 194 kt
b) 7L - 269 kt b) 7L - 192 kt
c) 5L - 255 kt c) 3L - 190 kt
d) 5R - 207 kt d) 4L - 195 kt

61.4.3.0 (4410) 61.4.3.0 (4417)

Given: TAS = 440 kt,HDG (T) = 349°W/V = 040/40kt.Calculate the drift and GS? Given: TAS = 250 kt,HDG (T) = 029°,W/V = 035/45kt.Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 4L - 415 kt a) 1L - 205 kt
b) 2L - 420 kt b) 1R - 205 kt
c) 6L - 395 kt c) 1L - 265 kt
d) 5L - 385 kt d) 1R - 295 kt

61.4.3.0 (4411) 61.4.3.0 (4418)

Given: TAS = 465 kt,HDG (T) = 124°,W/V = 170/80kt.Calculate the drift and GS? Given: TAS = 132 kt,HDG (T) = 053°,W/V = 205/15kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and
a) 8L - 415 kt GS?
b) 3L - 415 kt a) 050 - 145 kt
c) 4L - 400 kt b) 057 - 144 kt
d) 6L - 400 kt c) 052 - 143 kt
d) 051 - 144 kt
61.4.3.0 (4412)
Given: TAS = 95 kt,HDG (T) = 075°,W/V = 310/20kt.Calculate the drift and GS? 61.4.3.0 (4419)
a) 9R - 108 kt For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface W/V reported by the ATIS is
b) 10L - 104 kt 180/30kt. VAR is 13°E. Calculate the cross wind component?
c) 9L - 105 kt a) 22 kt
d) 8R - 104 kt b) 26 kt
c) 15 kt
d) 20 kt
61.4.3.0 (4413)
Given: TAS = 140 kt,HDG (T) = 005°,W/V = 265/25kt.Calculate the drift and GS?
a) 10R - 146 kt 61.4.3.0 (4420)
b) 9R - 140 kt Given:Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 kt. Planned runway
c) 11R - 142 kt 05 (047° magnetic). The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°.
d) 11R - 140 kt Variation is 17°E. Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can be
accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit?
a) 11 kt
b) 18 kt
366
c) 8 kt 61.4.3.0 (4427)
d) 15 kt Given:TAS = 375 kt,True HDG = 124°,W/V = 130°(T)/55kt.Calculate the true track
and GS?
a) 123 - 320 kt
61.4.3.0 (4421)
b) 125 - 322 kt
Given: Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt. Runway 06, RWY QDM
c) 126 - 320 kt
063°(M). Wind direction 100°(M)Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed?
d) 125 - 318 kt
a) 33 kt
b) 31 kt
c) 26 kt 61.4.3.0 (4428)
d) 25 kt Given:TAS = 125 kt,True HDG = 355°,W/V = 320°(T)/30kt.Calculate the true track
and GS?
a) 005 - 102 kt
61.4.3.0 (4422)
b) 345 - 100 kt
Given:TAS = 472 kt,True HDG = 005°,W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.Calculate the drift
c) 348 - 102 kt
angle and GS?
d) 002 - 98 kt
a) 6°L - 487 kt
b) 7°R - 491 kt
c) 7°L - 491 kt 61.4.3.0 (4429)
d) 7°R - 487 kt Given: TAS = 198 kt,HDG (°T) = 180,W/V = 359/25.Calculate the Track(°T) and
GS?
a) 180 - 223 kt
61.4.3.0 (4423)
b) 179 - 220 kt
Given:TAS = 190 kt,True HDG = 085°,W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.Calculate the drift
c) 181 - 180 kt
angle and GS?
d) 180 - 183 kt
a) 8°L - 146 kt
b) 7°L - 156 kt
c) 4°L - 168 kt 61.4.3.0 (4430)
d) 4°L - 145 kt Given: TAS = 135 kt,HDG (°T) = 278,W/V = 140/20ktCalculate the Track (°T) and
GS?
a) 283 - 150 kt
61.4.3.0 (4424)
b) 279 - 152 kt
Given: TAS = 220 kt,Magnetic course = 212 º, W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt,Calculate the
c) 282 - 148 kt
GS?
d) 275 - 150 kt
a) 186 kt
b) 290 kt
c) 246 kt 61.4.3.0 (4431)
d) 250 kt Given: TAS = 225 kt,HDG (°T) = 123°,W/V = 090/60kt.Calculate the Track (°T)
and GS?
a) 134 - 178 kt
61.4.3.0 (4425)
b) 134 - 188 kt
Given: Magnetic track = 315 º, HDG = 301 º(M),VAR = 5ºW,TAS = 225 kt, The
c) 120 - 190 kt
aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN.Calculate the W/V(°T)?
d) 128 - 180 kt
a) 190 º/63 kt
b) 355 º/15 kt
c) 195 º/61 kt 61.4.3.0 (4432)
d) 195 º/63 kt Given: TAS = 480 kt,HDG (°T) = 040°,W/V = 090/60kt.Calculate the Track (°T)
and GS?
a) 034 - 445 kt
61.4.3.0 (4426)
b) 028 - 415 kt
Given:TAS = 370 kt,True HDG = 181°,W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.Calculate the true track
c) 032 - 425 kt
and GS?
d) 036 - 435 kt
a) 186 - 370 kt
b) 176 - 370 kt
c) 192 - 370 kt 61.4.3.0 (4433)
d) 189 - 370 kt Given: TAS = 155 kt,HDG (T) = 216°,W/V = 090/60kt.Caslculate the Track (°T)
and GS?
367
a) 231 - 196 kt c) 313 - 235 kt
b) 224 - 175 kt d) 310 - 233 kt
c) 222 - 181 kt
d) 226 - 186 kt
61.4.3.0 (4440)
Given: TAS = 465 kt,Track (T) = 007°,W/V = 300/80kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and
61.4.3.0 (4434) GS?
Given: TAS = 170 kt,HDG(T) = 100°,W/V = 350/30kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and a) 358 - 428 kt
GS? b) 001 - 432 kt
a) 109 - 182 kt c) 000 - 430 kt
b) 091 - 183 kt d) 357 - 430 kt
c) 103 - 178 kt
d) 098 - 178 kt
61.4.3.0 (4441)
Given: TAS = 200 kt,Track (T) = 073°,W/V = 210/20kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and
61.4.3.0 (4435) GS?
Given: TAS = 90 kt,HDG (T) = 355°,W/V = 120/20kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and a) 077 - 214 kt
GS? b) 079 - 211 kt
a) 346 - 102 kt c) 075 - 213 kt
b) 006 - 95 kt d) 077 - 210 kt
c) 358 - 101 kt
d) 359 - 102 kt
61.4.3.0 (4442)
Given: TAS = 200 kt,Track (T) = 110°,W/V = 015/40kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and
61.4.3.0 (4436) GS?
Given: TAS = 485 kt,HDG (T) = 168°,W/V = 130/75kt.Calculate the Track (°T) and a) 099 - 199 kt
GS? b) 121 - 207 kt
a) 174 - 428 kt c) 121 - 199 kt
b) 173 - 424 kt d) 097 - 201 kt
c) 175 - 420 kt
d) 175 - 432 kt
61.4.3.0 (4443)
Given: TAS = 270 kt,Track (T) = 260°,W/V = 275/30kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and
61.4.3.0 (4437) GS?
Given: TAS = 155 kt,Track (T) = 305°,W/V = 160/18kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and a) 262 - 241 kt
GS? b) 262 - 237 kt
a) 301 - 169 kt c) 264 - 241 kt
b) 305 - 169 kt d) 264 - 237 kt
c) 309 - 170 kt
d) 309 - 141 kt
61.4.3.0 (4444)
Given: True HDG = 307°,TAS = 230 kt,Track (T) = 313°,GS = 210 kt.Calculate the
61.4.3.0 (4438) W/V?
Given: TAS = 130 kt,Track (T) = 003°,W/V = 190/40kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and a) 260/30kt
GS? b) 257/35kt
a) 001 - 170 kt c) 255/25kt
b) 002 - 173 kt d) 265/30kt
c) 359 - 166 kt
d) 357 - 168 kt
61.4.3.0 (4445)
Given:True HDG = 233°,TAS = 480 kt,Track (T) = 240°,GS = 523 kt.Calculate the
61.4.3.0 (4439) W/V?
Given: TAS = 227 kt,Track (T) = 316°, W/V = 205/15kt.Calculate the HDG (°T) and a) 110/75kt
GS? b) 115/70kt
a) 312 - 232 kt c) 110/80kt
b) 311 - 230 kt d) 105/75kt

368
61.4.3.0 (4446) a) 340/50kt
Given: True HDG = 133°,TAS = 225 kt,Track (T) = 144°,GS = 206 kt.Calculate the b) 335/45kt
W/V? c) 335/55kt
a) 075/45kt d) 340/45kt
b) 070/40kt
c) 070/45kt
61.4.3.0 (4453)
d) 075/50kt
Given: course required = 085° (T),Forecast W/V 030/100kt,TAS = 470 kt,Distance
= 265 NM.Calculate the true HDG and flight time?
61.4.3.0 (4447) a) 075°, 39 MIN
Given: True HDG = 074°,TAS = 230 kt,Track (T) = 066°,GS = 242 kt.Calculate the b) 076°, 34 MIN
W/V? c) 096°, 29 MIN
a) 180/35kt d) 095°, 31 MIN
b) 180/30kt
c) 185/35kt
61.4.3.0 (4454)
d) 180/40kt
Given:Runway direction 083°(M),Surface W/V 035/35kt.Calculate the effective
headwind component?
61.4.3.0 (4448) a) 24 kt
Given: True HDG = 206°,TAS = 140 kt,Track (T) = 207°,GS = 135 kt.Calculate the b) 27 kt
W/V? c) 31 kt
a) 180/05kt d) 34 kt
b) 000/05kt
c) 000/10kt
61.4.3.0 (4455)
d) 180/10kt
Given:For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component of at least 10 kt and
has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt. The angle between the wind direction and the
61.4.3.0 (4449) runway is 60°, Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind speeds?
Given:True HDG = 054°,TAS = 450 kt,Track (T) = 059°,GS = 416 kt.Calculate the a) 20 kt and 40 kt
W/V? b) 12 kt and 38 kt
a) 010/50kt c) 15 kt and 43 kt
b) 005/50kt d) 18 kt and 50 kt
c) 010/55kt
d) 010/45kt
61.4.3.0 (4456)
Given: Runway direction 230°(T), Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt. Calculate the
61.4.3.0 (4450) effective cross-wind component?
Given: True HDG = 145°,TAS = 240 kt,Track (T) = 150°,GS = 210 kt.Calculate the a) 31 kt
W/V? b) 36 kt
a) 115/35kt c) 21 kt
b) 360/35kt d) 26 kt
c) 180/35kt
d) 295/35kt
61.4.3.0 (4457)
Given:Runway direction 210°(M),Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt. Calculate the cross-
61.4.3.0 (4451) wind component?
Given:True HDG = 002°,TAS = 130 kt,Track (T) = 353°,GS = 132 kt.Calculate the a) 10 kt
W/V? b) 19 kt
a) 095/20kt c) 16 kt
b) 090/15kt d) 13 kt
c) 090/20kt
d) 095/25kt
61.4.3.0 (4458)
Given:Runway direction 305°(M),Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt. Calculate the cross-
61.4.3.0 (4452) wind component?
Given: True HDG = 035°,TAS = 245 kt,Track (T) = 046°,GS = 220 kt.Calculate the a) 21 kt
W/V? b) 24 kt
369
c) 27 kt c) 1890 FT
d) 18 kt d) 3640 FT

61.4.3.0 (4459) 61.4.5.0 (4465)

Given:Magnetic track = 075°,HDG = 066°(M),VAR = 11°E,TAS = 275 ktAircraft Given:FL 350,Mach 0.80,OAT -55°C. Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of
flies 48 NM in 10 MIN.Calculate the true W/V °? sound (LSS)?
a) 340°/45 kt a) 461 kt , LSS 576 kt
b) 320°/50 kt b) 237 kt, LSS 296 kt
c) 210°/15 kt c) 490 kt, LSS 461 kt
d) 180°/45 kt d) 461 kt , LSS 296 kt

61.4.3.0 (4460) 61.4.5.0 (4466)

Given: Magnetic track = 210°,Magnetic HDG = 215°,VAR = 15°E,TAS = 360 Given: Pressure Altitude 29000 FT, OAT -55°C. Calculate the Density Altitude?
kt,Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN.Calculate the true W/V? a) 27500 FT
a) 265°/50 kt b) 31000 FT
b) 195°/50 kt c) 33500 FT
c) 235°/50 kt d) 26000 FT
d) 300°/30 kt
61.4.5.0 (4467)
61.4.3.0 (4461) Given:TAS = 485 kt,OAT = ISA +10°C,FL 410.Calculate the Mach Number?
Given:An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°),The wind velocity a) 0.825
reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.,TAS on approach is 95 kt. In order to maintain b) 0.90
the centre line, the aircraft's heading (°M) should be : c) 0.85
a) 328° d) 0.87
b) 322°
c) 316°
61.4.5.0 (4468)
d) 326°
What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?
a) -50°C
61.4.3.0 (4462) b) -56°C
Given:FL120, OAT is ISA standard, CAS is 200 kt,Track is 222°(M),Heading is 215° c) -66°C
(M),Variation is 15°W.Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN.What is the W/V? d) -81°C
a) 050°(T) / 70 kt.
b) 040°(T) / 105 kt.
61.4.5.0 (4469)
c) 055°(T) / 105 kt .
Given: TAS 487kt, FL 330, Temperature ISA + 15. Calculate the MACH Number?
d) 065°(T) / 70 kt.
a) 0.81
b) 0.84
61.4.4.0 (4463) c) 0.76
A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the d) 0.78
aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and:
a) set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or
61.4.5.0 (4470)
railway
Given: FL250, OAT -15 ºC, TAS 250 kt.Calculate the Mach No.?
b) fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is
a) 0.40
obtained
b) 0.42
c) fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
c) 0.44
d) fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained
d) 0.39

61.4.5.0 (4464)
61.4.5.0 (4471)
An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from the runway, on a flat
Given:Airport elevation is 1000 ft. QNH is 988 hPa.What is the approximate airport
terrain, its height is approximately:
pressure altitude?(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
a) 2210 FT
a) 1680 FT
b) 680 FT
370
b) 320 FT aircraft position at 1215 UTC?
c) 680 FT a) 40°55'N 027°55'W
d) - 320 FT b) 40°50'N 027°40'W
c) 41°00'N 028°10'W
d) 41°05'N 027°50'W
61.4.5.0 (4472)
Given :True altitude 9000 FT,OAT -32°C,CAS 200 kt.What is the TAS?
a) 220 kt 61.4.6.0 (4478)
b) 215 kt (For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data for 1300 UTC)1300 UTC DR
c) 200 kt position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W)
d) 210 kt TAS 450 kt,Forecast W/V 360°/30kt.Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?
a) 1348
b) 1344
61.4.5.0 (4473)
c) 1341
Given:Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airportElevation of airport 720 FT.QNH is
d) 1354
1003 hPa.OAT at FL150 -5°C.What is the true altitude of the aircraft?(Assume 1
hPa = 27 FT)
a) 15 280 FT 61.4.7.0 (4479)
b) 15 840 FT For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground speed ""out"" of 385 kt, a
c) 14 160 FT ground speed ""back"" of 465 kt and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves)
d) 14 720 FT the distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
a) 1685 NM
b) 1532 NM
61.4.5.0 (4474)
c) 930 NM
An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE (altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963
d) 1865 NM
hPa, temperature = 32°C).Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second
altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :
a) 6 400 FT 61.4.7.0 (4480)
b) 6 800 FT Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt.On the flight between A and B
c) 6 000 FT the equivalent headwind is -20 kt.On the return leg between B and A, the
d) 4 000 FT equivalent headwind is +40 kt.What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the
the Point of Equal Time (PET)?
a) 530 NM
61.4.6.0 (4475)
b) 470 NM
(For this question use annex 061-1818A)Assume a North polar stereographic chart
c) 455 NM
whose grid is aligned with the Greenwich meridian.An aircraft flies from the
d) 500 NM
geographic North pole for a distance of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then
follows a grid track of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.Its position is now
approximately: 61.4.7.0 (4481)
a) 80°00'N 080°E Given:AD = Air distance GD = Ground distanceTAS = True AirspeedGS =
b) 78°45'N 087°E GroundspeedWhich of the following is the correct formula to calculate ground
c) 79°15'N 074°E distance (GD) gone?
d) 70°15'N 080°E a) GD = (AD X GS)/TAS
b) GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
c) GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
61.4.6.0 (4476)
d) GD = TAS/(GS X AD)
Given:A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with the zero meridian.
Grid track 344°, Longitude 115°00'W,Calculate the true course?
a) 229° 61.4.7.0 (4482)
b) 099° An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.Given:Distance 'A' to 'B'
c) 279° 2900 NMTrue airspeed 470 ktMean wind component 'out' +55 ktMean wind
d) 049° component 'back' -75 ktThe ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 1657
61.4.6.0 (4477)
b) 1744
(For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data for 1215 UTC)1215 UTC
LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI reads 178°, range 135 NM.Calculate the
371
c) 1846 61.4.7.0 (4488)
d) 1721 Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NMGroundspeed 'out' 430 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385
ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 130 MIN
61.4.7.0 (4483)
b) 145 MIN
An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.Given:Distance 'A' to 'B'
c) 162 MIN
2900 NMTrue airspeed 470 ktMean wind component 'out' +55 ktMean wind
d) 181 MIN
component 'back' -75 ktSafe endurance 9 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the
Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 2141 NM 61.4.7.0 (4489)
b) 1611 NM Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NMGroundspeed 'out' 430 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385
c) 1759 NM ktSafe endurance 7 HR 20 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return
d) 2844 NM (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 1490 NM
b) 1664 NM
61.4.7.0 (4484)
c) 1698 NM
Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NMGroundspeed 'out' 420 ktGroundspeed 'back' 500
d) 1422 NM
ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 193 MIN
b) 163 MIN 61.4.7.0 (4490)
c) 173 MIN Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NMGroundspeed 'out' 365 ktGroundspeed 'back' 480
d) 183 MIN ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is:
a) 219 MIN
b) 290 MIN
61.4.7.0 (4485)
c) 197 MIN
Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NMMean groundspeed 'out' 420 ktMean groundspeed
d) 167 MIN
'back' 500 ktSafe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN The distance from 'A' to the Point of
Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
a) 1940 NM 61.4.7.0 (4491)
b) 1908 NM Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NMGroundspeed 'out' 365 ktGroundspeed 'back' 480
c) 1736 NM ktSafe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
d) 1630 NM 'A' is:
a) 290 MIN
b) 219 MIN
61.4.7.0 (4486)
c) 197 MIN
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R'
d) 209 MIN
3016 NMTrue airspeed 480 ktMean wind component 'out' -90 ktMean wind
component 'back' +75 ktThe ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'Q' and 'R' is: 61.4.7.0 (4492)
a) 1752 Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NMGroundspeed 'out' 435 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385
b) 1756 ktThe time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'Q' and 'R' is:
c) 1820 a) 114 MIN
d) 1742 b) 110 MIN
c) 106 MIN
d) 102 MIN
61.4.7.0 (4487)
An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R'
3016 NMTrue airspeed 480 ktMean wind component 'out' -90 ktMean wind 61.4.7.0 (4493)
component 'back' +75 ktSafe endurance 10:00 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Given:Distance 'Q' to 'R' 1760 NMGroundspeed 'out' 435 ktGroundspeed 'back' 385
Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'Q' is: ktSafe endurance 9 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
a) 2290 NM between 'Q' and 'R' is:
b) 2370 NM a) 1838 NM
c) 1310 NM b) 1313 NM
d) 1510 NM c) 1467 NM
d) 1642 NM

372
61.4.7.0 (4494) display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
Given:Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NMGroundspeed 'out' 370 ktGroundspeed 'back' 300 observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of 276° with the magnetic
ktThe time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) between 'A' and 'B' is: variation 12°W?
a) 263 MIN a) 054°
b) 288 MIN b) 318°
c) 323 MIN c) 234°
d) 238 MIN d) 038°

61.4.7.0 (4495) 61.5.1.0 (4501)

An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before sunset. The pilot flies a track of A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and five minutes later
090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure on a relative bearing of 280°. The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W,
before sunset, the furthest distance which may be travelled is: drift 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was 280°, the distance
a) 97 NM and true bearing of the aircraft from the feature was:
b) 115 NM a) 30 NM and 240°
c) 105 NM b) 40 NM and 110°
d) 84 NM c) 40 NM and 290°
d) 30 NM and 060°
61.4.7.0 (4496)
From the departure point, the distance to the point of equal time is : 61.5.1.0 (4502)
a) inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the left. The aircraft heading is
b) proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground speed back 120°(M) and the magnetic variation 17°W. What is the true bearing of the aircraft
c) inversely proportional to the total distance to go from the island?
d) inversely proportional to ground speed back a) 268°
b) 302°
c) 088°
61.4.7.0 (4497)
d) 122°
Given:Distance A to B is 360 NM. Wind component A - B is -15 kt,Wind component
B - A is +15 kt,TAS is 180 kt.What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?
a) 165 NM 61.5.1.0 (4503)
b) 195 NM A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 315° and 3 MIN later on a
c) 180 NM relative bearing of 270°. The W/V is calm, aircraft GS 180 kt.What is the minimum
d) 170 NM distance between the aircraft and the ground feature?
a) 9 NM
b) 12 NM
61.5.1.0 (4498)
c) 3 NM
A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line of the CRT of an airborne
d) 6 NM
weather radar. If the heading of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation
is 15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature is:
a) 160° 61.5.1.0 (4504)
b) 220° An island is observed to be 15° to the left.The aircraft heading is 120°(M),
c) 310° variation 17°(W).The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is:
d) 130° a) 88
b) 122
c) 268
61.5.1.0 (4499)
d) 302
During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed at right angles by an
aircraft. The time between these roads can be used to check the aircraft:
a) groundspeed 61.5.1.0 (4505)
b) position An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
c) track display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
d) drift observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 276° with the
magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E?
a) 046°
61.5.1.0 (4500)
b) 086°
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
373
c) 226° cross the facility at FL130. If the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum
d) 026° rate of descent required is:
a) 960 FT/MIN
b) 860 FT/MIN
61.5.1.0 (4506)
c) 890 FT/MIN
An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
d) 920 FT/MIN
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 215° with the
magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W? 61.5.2.0 (4512)
a) 059° An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL80.
b) 101° Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS for descent is 276 kt. The
c) 239° minimum range from the DME at which descent should start is:
d) 329° a) 69 NM
b) 79 NM
c) 49 NM
61.5.1.0 (4507)
d) 59 NM
An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 355° with the 61.5.2.0 (4513)
magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E? An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME facility at FL110 and to
a) 220° commence descent when 100 NM from the facility. If the mean GS for the descent
b) 130° is 335 kt, the minimum rate of descent required is:
c) 160° a) 1340 FT/MIN
d) 190° b) 1390 FT/MIN
c) 1240 FT/MIN
d) 1290 FT/MIN
61.5.1.0 (4508)
An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an airborne weather radar
display. What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of 61.5.2.0 (4514)
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) of 020° with the An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a DME facility at FL70.
magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W? Maximum rate of descent is 2500 FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What
a) 145° is the minimum range from the DME at which descent should commence?
b) 195° a) 53 NM
c) 205° b) 58 NM
d) 325° c) 63 NM
d) 68 NM
61.5.2.0 (4509)
An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst maintaining a GS of 540 kt.The 61.5.2.0 (4515)
rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately: An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent when 100 NM from a DME
a) 6500 FT/MIN facility and to cross the station at FL120. If the mean GS during the descent is 396
b) 650 FT/MIN kt, the minimum rate of descent required is approximately:
c) 4500 FT/MIN a) 1650 FT/MIN
d) 3900 FT/MIN b) 2400 FT/MIN
c) 1000 FT/MIN
d) 1550 FT/MIN
61.5.2.0 (4510)
Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by an aircraft descending
15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN? 61.5.2.0 (4516)
a) 26.7 NM At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt, is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM
b) 19.2 NM distant. The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80. For a mean rate of descent
c) 38.4 NM of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS of 232 kt, the latest time at which to commence
d) 16.0 NM descent is:
a) 445
b) 448
61.5.2.0 (4511)
An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 120 NM from a VOR and to
374
c) 451 b) 1000 FT/MIN
d) 454 c) 700 FT/MIN
d) 800 FT/MIN
61.5.2.0 (4517)
An aircraft at FL330 is rerquired to commence descent when 65 NM from a VOR 61.5.2.0 (4523)
and to cross the VOR at FL100. The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt. What is Given:aircraft height 2500 FT,ILS GP angle 3°.At what approximate distance from
the minimum rate of descent required? THR can you expect to capture the GP?
a) 1950 FT/MIN a) 8.3 NM
b) 1650 FT/MIN b) 7.0 NM
c) 1750 FT/MIN c) 13.1 NM
d) 1850 FT/MIN d) 14.5 NM

61.5.2.0 (4518) 61.5.3.0 (4524)

An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent when 50 NM from a VOR and A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME station: radial 180°+/- 1°,
to cross that VOR at FL80. Mean GS during descent is 271kt. What is the minimum distance = 200 NM. What is the approximate error?
rate of descent required? a) +/- 3.5 NM
a) 1900 FT/MIN b) +/- 1 NM
b) 2000 FT/MIN c) +/- 2 NM
c) 1700 FT/MIN d) +/- 7 NM
d) 1800 FT/MIN
61.5.3.0 (4525)
61.5.2.0 (4519) An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in
An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent when 85 NM from a VOR and order to cross a reporting point five minutes later than planned. Assuming that a
to cross the VOR at FL80. The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt. What is the zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point
minimum rate of descent required? Mach Number should be reduced to:
a) 1800 FT/MIN a) M0.74
b) 1900 FT/MIN b) M0.76
c) 1600 FT/MIN c) M0.78
d) 1700 FT/MIN d) M0.80

61.5.2.0 (4520) 61.5.3.0 (4526)

What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an aircraft that is climbing with An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind component +30kt, is required to
constant CAS? reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
a) Mach number increases, TAS increases Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM from the reporting point
b) Mach number remains constant, TAS increases IAS should be reduced to:
c) Mach number decreases, TAS decreases a) 159 kt
d) Mach number increases, TAS remains constant b) 165 kt
c) 169 kt
d) 174 kt
61.5.2.0 (4521)
Given:TAS = 197 kt, True course = 240°,W/V = 180/30kt. Descent is initiated at FL
220 and completed at FL 40. Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM.What 61.5.3.0 (4527)
is the approximate rate of descent? An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind component 110 kt, is required to
a) 1400 FT/MIN reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned. If the
b) 800 FT/MIN speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the reporting point, what Mach
c) 950 FT/MIN Number is required?
d) 1500 FT/MIN a) M0.81
b) M0.73
c) M0.75
61.5.2.0 (4522)
d) M0.79
Given:ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG,GS = 150 kt.What is the approximate rate of
descent?
a) 900 FT/MIN
375
61.5.3.0 (4528) experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind component minus 35 kt, is a) 1333 UTC
required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than b) 1401 UTC
planned. Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when 150 NM from the c) 1347 UTC
reporting point the IAS should be reduced by: d) 1340 UTC
a) 20 kt
b) 25 kt
61.5.3.0 (4534)
c) 30 kt
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 250 NM at an
d) 15 kt
average GS of 115 kt. It departs 'A' at 0900 UTC.After flying 75 NM along track
from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5 MIN behind planned time.Using the actual GS
61.5.3.0 (4529) experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an NDB at 0830. At 0840 the a) 1115 UTC
relative bearing from the same position is 270°. Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 b) 1110 UTC
kt, what is the approximate range from the NDB at 0840? c) 1044 UTC
a) 40 NM d) 1050 UTC
b) 50 NM
c) 60 NM
61.5.3.0 (4535)
d) 30 NM
Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,Planned GS 315 kt,ATD 1000 UTC,1040 UTC -
fix obtained 190 NM along track.What GS must be maintained from the fix in order
61.5.3.0 (4530) to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An aircraft departs position A a) 340 kt
and after having travelled 60 NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the b) 360 kt.
intended track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what alteration of heading c) 300 kt
must be made in order to arrive at position B? d) 320 kt.
a) 6° Right
b) 8° Right
61.5.3.0 (4536)
c) 2° Left
Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM,Planned GS 315 kt,ATD 1130 UTC,1205 UTC -
d) 4° Right
fix obtained 165 NM along track.What GS must be maintained from the fix in order
to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
61.5.3.0 (4531) a) 355 kt
Given:Distance A to B = 120 NM,After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of b) 375 kt
course.What heading alteration should be made in order to arrive at point 'B'? c) 395 kt
a) 8° right d) 335 kt
b) 6° right
c) 4° right
61.5.3.0 (4537)
d) 8° left
Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM,Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left
of course.What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
61.5.3.0 (4532) a) 15° Right
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 480 NM at an b) 9° Right
average GS of 240 kt. It departs 'A' at 1000 UTC.After flying 150 NM along track c) 6° Right
from 'A', the aircraft is 2 MIN behind planned time.Using the actual GS d) 18° Right
experienced, what is the revised ETA at 'B'?
a) 1206
61.5.3.0 (4538)
b) 1203
Given: Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM,Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right
c) 1153
of course.What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
d) 1157
a) 12° Left
b) 16° Left
61.5.3.0 (4533) c) 4° Left
An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position 'B',distance 320 NM, at an d) 8° Left
average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 UTC.After flying 70 NM along track
from 'A', the aircraft is 3 MIN ahead of planned time.Using the actual GS

376
61.5.3.0 (4539) 61.5.4.0 (4545)
Given :ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTCGS is 441 kt TAS is 491 kt At 2010 UTC, (For this question use annex 061-9440A)Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT
ATC requests a speed reduction to cross the meridian at 2105 UTC.The reduction to NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'G' to 'H'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
TAS will be approximately: a) HDG 344° - ETA 1336 UTC
a) 40 kt b) HDG 354° - ETA 1326 UTC
b) 90 kt c) HDG 034° - ETA 1336 UTC
c) 75 kt d) HDG 344° - ETA 1303 UTC
d) 60 kt
61.5.4.0 (4546)
61.5.3.0 (4540) (For this question use annex 061-9441A)Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT
The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM,To calculate compass heading, the NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'J' to 'K'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
pilot used 2°E magnetic variation instead of 2°W.Assuming that the forecast W/V a) HDG 337° - ETA 1422 UTC
applied, what will the off track distance be at the second waypoint? b) HDG 320° - ETA 1412 UTC
a) 14 NM c) HDG 337° - ETA 1322 UTC
b) 7 NM d) HDG 320° - ETA 1432 UTC
c) 0 NM
d) 21 NM
61.5.4.0 (4547)
(For this question use annex 061-9442A)Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT
61.5.3.0 (4541) NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'L' to 'M'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
Given:Half way between two reporting points the navigation log gives the a) HDG 075° - ETA 1502 UTC
following information:TAS 360 kt, W/V 330°/80kt, Compass heading 237°, b) HDG 064° - ETA 1449 UTC
Deviation on this heading -5°, Variation 19°W.What is the average ground speed c) HDG 075° - ETA 1452 UTC
for this leg? d) HDG 070° - ETA 1459 UTC
a) 403 kt
b) 354 kt
61.5.4.0 (4548)
c) 373 kt
The flight log gives the following data :""True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic
d) 360 kt
variation, Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass heading""The right
solution, in the same order, is :
61.5.4.0 (4542) a) 119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116°
(For this question use annex 061-9437A) Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT b) 115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121°
NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'A' to 'B'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? c) 117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°
a) 268° - 1114 UTC d) 125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117°
b) 282° - 1128 UTC
c) 282° - 1114 UTC
61.5.4.0 (4549)
d) 268° - 1128 UTC
(For this question use appendix )Given:TAS is120 kt. ATA 'X' 1232 UTC,ETA 'Y' 1247
UTC,ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC. What is ETA 'Z'?
61.5.4.0 (4543) a) 1302 UTC
(For this question use annex 061-9438A)Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT b) 1257 UTC
NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'C' to 'D'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? c) 1300 UTC
a) HDG 193° - ETA 1239 UTC d) 1303 UTC
b) HDG 188° - ETA 1229 UTC
c) HDG 193° - ETA 1249 UTC
61.5.5.0 (4550)
d) HDG 183° - ETA 1159 UTC
The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS), as for example installed in
the B737-400, is to provide:
61.5.4.0 (4544) a) continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance management
(For this question use annex 061-9439A)Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT b) manual navigation guidance and automatic performance management
NAVIGATION LOG', positions 'E' to 'F'.What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? c) continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual performance management
a) HDG 105° - ETA 1205 UTC d) both manual navigation guidance and performance management
b) HDG 095° - ETA 1155 UTC
c) HDG 106° - ETA 1215 UTC
61.5.5.0 (4551)
d) HDG 115° - ETA 1145 UTC
Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management System (FMS) is used to
377
enter flight plan routeing and performance parameters? c) Priority and Alerting
a) Multi-Function Control Display Unit d) Urgent and Advisory
b) Flight Management Computer
c) Inertial Reference System
61.5.5.0 (4558)
d) Flight Director System
Which of the following can all be stored as five letter waypoint identifiers through
the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
61.5.5.0 (4552) a) Waypoint names, navaid identifiers, runway numbers, airport ICAO identifiers
What indication, if any, is given in the B737-400 Flight Management System if b) Airway names, navaid identifiers, airport names, waypoint code numbers
radio updating is not available? c) Waypoint names, navaid frequencies, runway codes, airport ICAO identifiers
a) A warning message is displayed on the EHSI and MFDU d) Waypoint names, navaid positions, airport ICAO identifiers, airport names
b) A warning message is displayed on the IRS displays
c) A warning message is displayed on the Flight Director System
61.5.5.0 (4559)
d) No indication is given so long as the IRS positions remain within limits
Which of the following lists all the methods that can be used to enter 'Created
Waypoints' into the CDU of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
61.5.5.0 (4553) a) Identifier bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing, along-track
What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base of aeronautical displacement, latitude and longitude
information stored in the FMC In the B737-400 Flight Management System? b) Identifier bearing/distance, place bearing/place distance, along/across-track displacement,
a) 28 days latitude and longitude
b) one calendar month c) Identifier bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing, latitude and longitude, waypoint
c) 3 calendar months name
d) 14 days d) Identifier bearing/distance, place distance/place distance, along-track displacement, latitude
and longitude
61.5.5.0 (4554)
In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during preflight to: 61.5.5.0 (4560)
a) manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power application to the
b) automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
c) manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information a) IDENT
d) manually initialize the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information b) INITIAL
c) POS INIT
d) PERF INIT
61.5.5.0 (4555)
How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the B737-400 Electronic Flight
Instrument System? 61.5.5.0 (4561)
a) DME/DME Which of the following lists the first three pages of the FMC/CDU normally used to
b) DME/DME or VOR/DME enter data on initial start-up of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
c) DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearings a) IDENT - POS INIT - RTE
d) VOR/DME range and bearing b) POS INIT - RTE - IDENT
c) IDENT - RTE - DEPARTURE
d) POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE
61.5.5.0 (4556)
In which of the following situations is the FMC present position of a B737-400
Electronic Flight Instrument System likely to be least accurate? 61.6.1.0 (4562)
a) Just after take-off With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:
b) At top of climb a) required to provide a W/V read out
c) At top of descent b) not required
d) On final approach c) required for Polar navigation
d) required for rhumb line navigation
61.5.5.0 (4557)
What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest, the two levels of message 61.6.1.0 (4563)
produced by the CDU of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System? The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is maintained at right angles to
a) Alerting and Advisory the local vertical by applying corrections for the effects of:
b) Urgent and Routine a) aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and coriolis
b) gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift
378
c) vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and transport drift 61.6.1.0 (4570)
d) movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and pendulous oscillation One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope occurs at low input rotation
rates tending towards zero when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced.
What is the name of the technique, effected by means of a piezo-electric motor,
61.6.1.0 (4564)
that is used to correct this error?
Some inertial reference and navigation systems are known as ""strapdown"". This
a) dither
means that:
b) cavity rotation
a) the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the unit's fixture to the
c) zero drop
aircraft structure
d) beam lock
b) only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft
structure
c) gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform in the aircraft 61.6.1.0 (4571)
d) gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to obtain a vertical reference The resultant of the first integration of the output from the east/west
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in NAV MODE is:
a) velocity along the local parallel of latitude
61.6.1.0 (4565)
b) change of longitude
In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a pendulous system, an aircraft
c) vehicle longitude
inertial platform incorporates a device:
d) departure
a) with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
b) without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
c) without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC 61.6.1.0 (4572)
d) with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial Reference System that
utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes (RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is
completely correct?
61.6.1.0 (4566)
a) There is little or no 'spin up' time and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces
The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro in:
b) The platform is kept stable relative to the earth mathematically rather than mechanically
a) the horizontal plane
but it has a longer 'spin up' time
b) the vertical plane
c) It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to gravitational ('g') forces
c) the vertical and horizontal plane
d) There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not suffer from 'lock in' error
d) any plane

61.6.1.0 (4573)
61.6.1.0 (4567)
The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the operation of Inertial Navigation
The resultant of the first integration from the north/south accelerometer of an
Systems/ Inertial Reference Systems is applicable to:
inertial navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:
a) both gyro-stabilised platform and 'strapdown' systems
a) velocity along the local meridian
b) only gyro-stabilised systems
b) groundspeed
c) both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when operating in the non 'strapdown'
c) change latitude
mode
d) latitude
d) only to 'strapdown' laser gyro systems

61.6.1.0 (4568)
61.6.1.0 (4574)
Double integration of the output from the east/west accelerometer of an inertial
What additional information is required to be input to an Inertial Navigation
navigation system (INS) in the NAV MODE give:
System (INS) in order to obtain an W/V readout?
a) distance east/west
a) TAS
b) vehicle longitude
b) IAS
c) distance north/south
c) Altitude and OAT
d) velocity east/west
d) Mach Number

61.6.1.0 (4569)
61.6.1.0 (4575)
In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed (GS) is calculated:
What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System (IRS) which has the gyros
a) by integrating measured acceleration
and accelerometers as part of the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure?
b) from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)
a) Strapdown
c) from TAS and W/V from RNAV data
b) Rigid
d) by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions respectively

379
c) Solid state 61.6.2.0 (4581)
d) Ring laser Which of the following statements concerning the alignment procedure for Inertial
Navigation Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid-latitudes is
correct?
61.6.2.0 (4576)
a) INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or NAV mode
During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is north aligned by inputs
b) INS/IRS can only be aligned in the ALIGN mode
from:
c) INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT mode
a) horizontal accelerometers and the east gyro
d) INS/IRS can only be aligned in NAV mode
b) the aircraft remote reading compass system
c) computer matching of measured gravity magnitude to gravity magnitude of initial alignment
d) vertical accelerometers and the north gyro 61.6.2.0 (4582)
A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then turns it back ON a few
moments later. Following this incident:
61.6.2.0 (4577)
a) it can only be used for attitude reference
During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation system (INS) the equipment:
b) no useful information can be obtained from the INS
a) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a 10° error in initial
c) everything returns to normal and is usable
longitude
d) the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
b) will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a 10° error in initial longitude
c) will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude
d) will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude 61.6.3.0 (4583)
The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of 0.01°/HR.After a flight of 12 HR
with a ground speed of 500 kt, the error on the aeroplane position is approximately
61.6.2.0 (4578)
:
Which of the following statement is correct concerning gyro-compassing of an
a) 12 NM
inertial navigation system (INS)?
b) 1 NM
a) Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it cannot
c) 6 NM
differentiate between movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.
d) 60 NM
b) Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it can differentiate between
movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations.
c) Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it cannot differentiate between 61.6.3.0 (4584)
movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations. The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces an error in the position
d) Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because it can differentiate between given by this unit. ""t"" being the elapsed time.The total error is:
movement induced and misalignment induced accelerations. a) proportional to t
b) proportional to the square of time, t²
c) proportional to t/2
61.6.2.0 (4579)
d) sinusoîdal
Which of the following statements concerning the loss of alignment by an Inertial
Reference System (IRS) in flight is correct?
a) The navigation mode, including present position and ground speed outputs, is 61.6.4.0 (4585)
inoperative for the remainder of the flight With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the initial great circle track
b) The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable system and a realignment carried between computer inserted waypoints will be displayed when the control display
out in flight unit (CDU) is selected to:
c) The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back through ALIGN to NAV in order to a) DSRTK/STS
obtain an in-flight realignment b) HDG/DA
d) It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the rest of the flight c) TK/GS
d) XTK/TKE
61.6.2.0 (4580)
The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial Reference System using laser 61.6.4.0 (4586)
ring gyros is approximately: Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is accomplished with the
a) 10 MIN mode selector switched to:
b) 20 MIN a) ALIGN
c) 2 MIN b) STBY
d) 5 MIN c) ATT/REF
d) ON

380
61.6.4.0 (4587) c) only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting
Which of the following correctly lists the order of available selections of the Mode d) the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode
Selector switches of an inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
a) OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT
61.6.5.0 (4593)
b) OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation system (INS) connected to
c) OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV
the autopilot. The following two points have been entered in the INS
d) OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV
computer:WPT 1: 60°N 030°WWPT 2: 60°N 020°WWhen 025°W is passed the
latitude shown on the display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:
61.6.4.0 (4588) a) 60°05.7'N
ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a back-up mode providing: b) 60°00.0'N
a) only attitude and heading information c) 59°49.0'N
b) only attitude information d) 60°11.0'N
c) navigation information
d) altitude, heading and position information
61.6.5.0 (4594)
An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the autopilot connected to the
61.6.4.0 (4589) aircraft's inertial system. The coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W)
Which of the following statements concerning the operation of an Inertial have been entered.The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the nearest
Navigation System (INS)/Inertial Reference System (IRS) is correct? degree, is:
a) NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the aircraft off the gate a) 277°
b) NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to take-off b) 284°
c) NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of passengers and/or freight c) 263°
d) NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure is commenced d) 270°

61.6.4.0 (4590) 61.6.5.0 (4595)

Which of the following statements concerning the aircraft positions indicated on a As the INS position of the departure aerodrome, coordinates 35°32.7'N
triple fit Inertial Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System (IRS) on the 139°46.3'W are input instead of 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft
CDU is correct? subsequently passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on the INS will
a) The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated from different be:
sources a) 099° 32.6'W
b) The positions will be the same because they are an average of three different positions b) 099° 32.6'E
c) The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been decoupled because of a c) 080° 27.4'E
detected malfunction d) 080° 27.4'W
d) The positions will only differ if an error has been made when inputting the present position
at the departure airport
61.6.5.0 (4596)
The following points are entered into an inertial navigation system (INS).WPT 1:
61.6.4.0 (4591) 60°N 30°WWPT 2: 60°N 20°WWPT 3: 60°N 10°WThe inertial navigation system is
Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different formats.In which of the connected to the automatic pilot on route (1-2-3).The track change when passing
following formats can waypoints be entered into all INSs? WPT 2 will be approximately:
a) geographic coordinates a) a 9° decrease
b) bearing and distance b) zero
c) hexadecimal c) a 9° increase
d) by waypoints name d) a 4° decrease

61.6.4.0 (4592) 61.6.5.0 (4597)

An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System (INS) flies with INS 1
coupled with autopilot 1. Both inertial navigation systems are navigating from
way-point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units (CDU) sho shows:-
XTK on INS 1 = 0- XTK on INS 2 = 8L(XTK = cross track)From this information it
can be deduced that:
a) at least one of the inertial navigaton systems is drifting
b) only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance
outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from
waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S 080°00'W).Comparing the
initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final track (°T) at 080°00'W, the difference
between them is that the initial track is approximately:
a) 9° less than the final one
b) 5° greater than the final one

381
c) 9° greater than the final one d) Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-flying a known position (VOR
d) 5° less than the final one station or NDB)

61.6.5.0 (4598) 61.6.5.0 (4603)

The automatic flight control system is coupled to the guidance outputs from an The sensors of an INS measure:
inertial navigation system. Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference a) acceleration
between initial track read-out and the average true course given, in each case, a b) velocity
difference of longitude of 10°? c) the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
a) 60°N to 60°N d) precession
b) 60°N to 50°N
c) 30°S to 30°N
62.1.1.0 (4604)
d) 30°S to 25°S
What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL130
could receive information from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
61.6.5.0 (4599) a) 180 NM
The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft is coupled to the guidance b) 220 NM
outputs from an inertial navigation system (INS).The aircraft is flying between c) 120 NM
inserted waypoints No. 3 (55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W).With d) 150 NM
DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest whole degree, the initial track
read-out from waypoint No. 3 will be:
62.1.1.0 (4605)
a) 274°
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL80 can obtain bearings
b) 278°
from a ground VDF facility sited 325 FT above MSL is:
c) 266°
a) 134 NM
d) 270°
b) 158 NM
c) 107 NM
61.6.5.0 (4600) d) 114 NM
Which of the following statements concerning the position indicated on the Inertial
Reference System (IRS) display is correct?
62.1.1.0 (4606)
a) It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV
What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of 113 NM, must fly in order
b) It is constantly updated from information obtained by the FMC
to contact the tower on R/T for a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above
c) It is updated when 'go-around' is selected on take-off
MSL?
d) The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a 'best position' which is displayed
a) FL60
on the IRS
b) FL50
c) FL80
61.6.5.0 (4601) d) FL100
What is the source of magnetic variation information in a Flight Management
System (FMS)?
62.1.1.0 (4607)
a) Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS memory, it is applied to the
What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted in order that a VDF let-
true heading calculated by the respective IRS
down may be flown?
b) The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic sensor (flux valve) positioned in
a) VHF radio
the wingtip
b) VOR
c) The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
c) none
d) Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the respective IRS position and the
d) VOR/DME
aircraft magnetic heading

62.1.1.0 (4608)
61.6.5.0 (4602)
Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF (VDF) let-down?
Where and when are the IRS positions updated?
a) It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
a) Only on the ground during the alignment procedure
b) It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of ATC
b) During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the FMC
c) It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the aircraft
c) IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-around' button at the start of the
d) It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF radio, to be installed in the
take-off roll
aircraft or on the ground

382
62.1.1.0 (4609) equipment are caused by:
In which one of the following circumstances is ground direction finding (VDF) a) signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
likely to be used to fix an aircraft's position? b) signal bending caused by electrical interference from aircraft wiring
a) When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz c) misalignment of the loop aerial
b) On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR boundary d) skywave/groundwave contamination
c) When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the open FIR
d) When declaring an emergency on any frequency
62.1.2.0 (4616)
Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on bearings at lower altitudes are
62.1.2.0 (4610) maximum when the NDB is:
An aircraft is ""homing"" to a radio beacon whilst maintaining a relative bearing of a) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
zero. If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is experiencing : b) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
a) right drift c) inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles
b) left drift d) near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle
c) zero drift
d) a wind from the west
62.1.2.0 (4617)
There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50 NM inland from the coast.
62.1.2.0 (4611) Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is the same for both
Given : Compass heading 270°Deviation 2°WVariation 30°E Relative bearing 316° propagations, the extent of the error in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is
What is the QDR? over water will be:
a) 044° a) greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland
b) 226° b) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 180° and 360°
c) 046° c) greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
d) 224° d) the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a relative bearing of 090° and 270°

62.1.2.0 (4612) 62.1.2.0 (4618)

An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI bearings of NDBs and VORs What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 kHZ?
to true bearings the correct combination for the application of magnetic variation a) 800 m
is: b) 8000 m
a) NDB: aircraft positionVOR: beacon position c) 8 m
b) NDB: beacon positionVOR: beacon position d) 80 m
c) NDB: beacon positionVOR: aircraft position
d) NDB: aircraft positionVOR: aircraft position
62.1.2.0 (4619)
Which of the following is likely to have the greatest effect on ADF accuracy?
62.1.2.0 (4613) a) Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By what factor should the b) Frequency drift at the ground station
transmitter power be increased in order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM? c) Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
a) Four d) Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
b) Six
c) Eight
62.1.2.0 (4620)
d) Two
ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the published protection range should
be accurate to within a maximum error of:
62.1.2.0 (4614) a) +/-5°
'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading, resulting in bearing errors b) +/-10°
from NDB transmissions, is due to: c) +/-2.5°
a) skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at dawn and dusk d) +/-2°
b) interference from other transmissions and is maximum at dusk when east of the NDB
c) static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower frequency band
62.1.2.0 (4621)
d) the effect of the Aurora Borealis
Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency band for ADF receivers?
a) 200 - 1750 kHz
62.1.2.0 (4615) b) 255 - 455 kHz
Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic Direction Finding (ADF)
383
c) 300 - 3000 kHz b) noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength of the transmitter
d) 200 - 2000 kHz c) sky wave interference from the same transmitter
d) sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same frequency
62.1.2.0 (4622)
In order to obtain an ADF bearing the: 62.1.3.0 (4629)
a) signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no error when using a
b) sense aerial must be tuned separately deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2° deviation, how many dots deviation from the
c) mode selector should be switched to 'loop' centre line of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway boundary?
d) BFO switch must be selected to 'ON' (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
a) 1.5
b) 3.0
62.1.2.0 (4623)
c) 4.5
Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system performance and reliability include:
d) 6.0
a) static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning system
b) static interference - station interference - latitude error
c) height error - station interference - mountain effect 62.1.3.0 (4630)
d) coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs each having a resultant
bearing accuracy of plus or minus 5.5°. In order to ensure accurate track guidance
within the airway limits the maximum distance apart for the transmitter is
62.1.2.0 (4624)
approximately:
Which one of the following disturbances is most likely to cause the greatest
a) 105 NM
inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
b) 50 NM
a) Local thunderstorm activity
c) 165 NM
b) Coastal effect
d) 210 NM
c) Quadrantal error
d) Precipitation interference
62.1.3.0 (4631)
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104° radial. Which of the
62.1.2.0 (4625)
following settings should be made on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
a) 284° with the TO flag showing
a) hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a continuous wave signal
b) 284° with the FROM flag showing
b) stop loop rotation
c) 104° with the TO flag showing
c) hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
d) 104° with the FROM flag showing
d) find the loop 'null' position

62.1.3.0 (4632)
62.1.2.0 (4626)
An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of 090°(M) from a VOR. The
An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is :
bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing selector to centralise the VOR/ILS
a) omnidirectional
left/right deviation needle with a 'TO' indication is:
b) bi-lobal circular
a) 270°
c) a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
b) 090°
d) a beam rotating at 30 Hz
c) 100°
d) 280°
62.1.3.0 (4627)
Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely affected by:
62.1.3.0 (4633)
a) uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An aircraft is located at position B
b) static interference
(44°00'N, 010°00'E). Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and at B is
c) night effect
15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
d) quadrantal error
a) 190°
b) 195°
62.1.3.0 (4628) c) 185°
If VOR bearing information is used beyond the published protection range, errors d) 180°
could be caused by:
a) interference from other transmitters

384
62.1.3.0 (4634) variation:
The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One degree at 200 NM a) at the VOR
represents a width of: b) at the aircraft location
a) 3.5 NM c) at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station
b) 2.0 NM d) at both the VOR and aircraft
c) 2.5 NM
d) 3.0 NM
62.1.3.0 (4641)
An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the 244° radial. In order to
62.1.3.0 (4635) obtain correct sense indications the deviation indicator should be set to:
An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR station located near the a) 064° with the TO flag showing
equator where the magnetic variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position b) 064° with the FROM flag showing
is 8°E.The aircraft is on VOR radial: c) 244° with the FROM flag showing
a) 255° d) 244° with the TO flag showing
b) 278°
c) 262°
62.1.3.0 (4642)
d) 285°
What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at FL150 can receive
signals from a VOR situated 609 feet above MSL?
62.1.3.0 (4636) a) 184 NM
Given:Magnetic heading 280°VOR radial 090°What bearing should be selected on b) 220 NM
the omni-bearing selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle with a c) 147 NM
""TO"" indication? d) 156 NM
a) 270°
b) 280°
62.1.3.0 (4643)
c) 100°
An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has gone unserviceable and is
d) 090°
locked on to a reading of 090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The
available information from the VOR is:
62.1.3.0 (4637) a) Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic variation equals b) Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°
32°W.An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where the magnetic c) Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°
variation equals 28°W.The aircraft is on VOR radial: d) Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
a) 212
b) 208
62.1.3.0 (4644)
c) 360
Which of the following statements concerning the variable, or directional, signal of
d) 180
a conventional VOR is correct?
a) The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per second gives it the
62.1.3.0 (4638) characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude modulation
The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is: b) The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by 30 Hz each time it rotates
a) phase comparison c) The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal by 30 Hz either side of the
b) envelope matching allocated frequency each time it rotates
c) beat frequency discrimination d) The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before combining it with the reference signal
d) difference in depth of modulation
62.1.3.0 (4645)
62.1.3.0 (4639) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL230 may receive signals
Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions? from a VOR facility sited at mean sea level is:
a) VHF a) 190 NM
b) UHF b) 230 NM
c) SHF c) 170 NM
d) HF d) 151 NM

62.1.3.0 (4640) 62.1.3.0 (4646)

In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot needs to know the magnetic If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
385
a) great circle track c) SE
b) rhumbline track d) NE
c) line of constant bearing
d) constant magnetic track
62.1.3.0 (4653)
An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to the left when within range
62.1.3.0 (4647) of a serviceable VOR. What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT above a) 10° or more
MSL at an approximate maximum range of : b) less than 10°
a) 110 NM c) 1.5° or more
b) 90 NM d) 2.5 or more
c) 100 NM
d) 120 NM
62.1.3.0 (4654)
An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of 300°, the track selector
62.1.3.0 (4648) (OBS) reads : 330. The indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are
An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR groundstation at 100 FT 'fly':
above MSL at an approximate maximum range of : a) left with 'TO' showing
a) 135 NM b) right with 'TO' showing
b) 123 NM c) right with 'FROM' showing
c) 130 NM d) left with 'FROM' showing
d) 142 NM
62.1.3.0 (4655)
62.1.3.0 (4649) Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is selected to 090°.From/To
The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at FL210 may receive signals indicator indicates ""TO"".CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right.On what
from a VOR facility sited 340 feet above mean sea level is approximately: radial is the aircraft?
a) 204 NM a) 275
b) 245 NM b) 85
c) 163 NM c) 265
d) 183 NM d) 95

62.1.3.0 (4650) 62.1.3.0 (4656)

In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate? The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :
a) VHF a) 108 to 117.95 MHz
b) UHF b) 108 to 111.95 MHz
c) SHF c) 118 to 135.95 MHz
d) EHF d) 108 to 135.95 MHz

62.1.3.0 (4651) 62.1.3.0 (4657)

The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR ground station are 90° out of If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase the radial from the VOR
phase on magnetic: station will be :
a) east a) 030°
b) south b) 330°
c) west c) 210°
d) north d) 150°

62.1.3.0 (4652) 62.1.3.0 (4658)

An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR OBS is also set to 270° with Given:VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E,Estimated position of an
the full left deflection and FROM flag displayed. In which sector is the aircraft from aircraft N59° E025°, variation 20°E.What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
the VOR ground station? a) 167°
a) NW b) 347°
b) SW c) 160°
d) 193°
386
62.1.3.0 (4659) 62.1.4.0 (4665)
The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to obtain weather information at An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own transmissions reflected from
the destination airfield from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical range the ground because:
will it be possible to obtain this information? a) they are not on the receiver frequency
a) 123 NM b) DME transmits twin pulses
b) 123 km c) the pulse recurrence rates are varied
c) 12.3 NM d) DME uses the UHF band
d) 1230 km
62.1.4.0 (4666)
62.1.3.0 (4660) The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates within the following
Given:Aircraft heading 160°(M),Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,Selected frequencies:
course on HSI is 250°.The HSI indications are deviation bar: a) 962 to 1213 MHz
a) behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing b) 108 to 118 MHz
b) behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing c) 329 to 335 MHz
c) ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing d) 962 to 1213 kHz.
d) ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing
62.1.4.0 (4667)
62.1.4.0 (4661) A DME is located at MSL.An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight
A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL. An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
away from the DME station, will have a DME reading of: a) 6 NM
a) 16 NM b) 7 NM
b) 14 NM c) 11 NM
c) 15 NM d) 8 NM
d) 17 NM
62.1.4.0 (4668)
62.1.4.0 (4662) During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any DME distance indication from
Which of the following will give the most accurate calculation of aircraft ground a DME station located approximately 220 NM away.The reason for this is that the:
speed? a) aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
a) A DME station sited on the flight route b) aeroplane is circling around the station
b) An ADF sited on the flight route c) altitude is too high
c) A VOR station sited on the flight route d) range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
d) A DME station sited across the flight route
62.1.4.0 (4669)
62.1.4.0 (4663) A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) is:
In which situation will speed indications on an airborne Distance Measuring a) 1000 MHz
Equipment (DME) most closely represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at b) 10 MHz
FL400? c) 100 MHz
a) When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100 NM or more d) 100 GHz
b) When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
c) When overhead the station, with no change of heading at transit
62.1.4.0 (4670)
d) When tracking directly away from the station at a range of 10 NM
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
a) UHF band and is a secondary radar system
62.1.4.0 (4664) b) VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance c) UHF band and is a primary radar system
Measuring Equipment (DME) to travel to the ground transponder and return to the d) SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. The slant range from the ground
transponder was:
62.1.4.0 (4671)
a) 165 NM
For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will occur whenever the
b) 186 NM
number of simultaneous interrogations exceeds:
c) 296 NM
a) 100
d) 330 NM
b) 200
387
c) 60 62.1.4.0 (4678)
d) 80 A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a reduction in signal strength
will switch the equipment in the first instance to:
a) memory mode
62.1.4.0 (4672)
b) search mode
On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their range indicates:
c) standby mode
a) the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
d) signal controlled search
b) airborne equipment failure
c) ground equipment failure
d) the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search 62.1.4.0 (4679)
Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil aviation ?
a) It can provide DME distance
62.1.4.0 (4673)
b) It is of no use to civil aviation
The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its own transmissions and
c) It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
reject replies to other aircraft interrogations because:
d) It can provide a magnetic bearing
a) pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft
b) pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft registration
c) aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are 63 MHz removed from each 62.1.4.0 (4680)
other A DME that has difficulty obtaining a ""lock-on"":(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence
d) transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft frequency, PPS = pulses per second)
a) stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 15000 pulse pairs
have been transmitted
62.1.4.0 (4674)
b) stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF
The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to interrogation signals reflected from the
c) stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS after 100 seconds
ground because:
d) alternates search mode with periods of memory mode lasting 10 seconds
a) aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting on different
frequencies
b) reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift 62.1.4.0 (4681)
c) DME transmits twin pulses DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
d) DME pulse recurrence rates are varied a) 1000 MHz
b) 300 MHz
c) 110 MHz
62.1.4.0 (4675)
d) 600 MHz
The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a range of 100 NM, the
maximum systematic error should not exceed:
a) + or - 1.5 NM 62.1.4.0 (4682)
b) + or - 3 NM A VOR and DME are co-located.You want to identify the DME by listening to the
c) + or - 0.25 NM callsign.Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds the:
d) + or - 1.25 NM a) DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was broadcast only once
b) DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct
operation
62.1.4.0 (4676)
c) DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was broadcast several times
ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by Distance Measuring
d) VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with the same pitch
Equipment (DME) should not exceed:
a) + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured
b) + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is the greater 62.1.5.0 (4683)
c) + or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
d) + or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a maximum of 5 NM a) 400 Hz, blue
b) 3000 Hz, blue
c) 1300 Hz, blue
62.1.4.0 (4677)
d) 400 Hz, amber
What is the maximum distance between VOR and DME/TACAN ground installations
if they are to have the same morse code identifier?
a) 600 m 62.1.5.0 (4684)
b) 2000 m A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground installation provides
c) 60 m accurate guidance from coverage limit down to:
d) 300 m a) 200 feet above the runway threshold
388
b) 50 feet above ILS reference point
c) runway surface
d) 200 feet above the inner marker
62.1.5.0 (4685)
The reason why pre take-off holding areas are sometimes further from the active
runway when ILS Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress than during
good weather operations is:
a) aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance signals
b) heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
c) to increase distance from the runway during offset approach operations
d) to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility conditions
c) 1350 FT
d) 1300 FT
62.1.5.0 (4691)
What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable navigation information for a
3° ILS glide path out to a distance of 10 NM?
a) 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and 8° each side of the
localiser centreline
b) 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and 8° each side of the localiser
centreline
c) 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of the localiser centreline
d) 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the localiser centreline

62.1.5.0 (4686) 62.1.5.0 (4692)

An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing System (ILS) localiser ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
inbound on the approach side, outside the published ILS coverage angle: a) multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
a) may receive false course indications b) spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
b) will not normally receive signals c) back-scattering of antennas
c) will receive signals without identification coding d) ground returns ahead of the antennas
d) can expect signals to give correct indications
62.1.5.0 (4693)
62.1.5.0 (4687) What is the colour sequence when passing over an Outer, Middle and Inner Marker
The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility is identified beacon?
audibly and visually by a series of: a) blue - amber - white
a) alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing b) amber - white - green
b) two dashes per second and a blue light flashing c) white - amber - blue
c) dots and a white light flashing d) blue - green - white
d) dashes and an amber light flashing
62.1.5.0 (4694)
62.1.5.0 (4688) An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving more 90 Hz than 150 Hz
The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System (ILS) facility transmits on a modulation notes from both the localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS
frequency of: indication will show:
a) 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second a) Fly right and fly down
b) 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse b) Fly left and fly down
c) 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse c) Fly right and fly up
d) 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per second d) Fly left and fly up

62.1.5.0 (4689) 62.1.5.0 (4695)

What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glide path An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach experiences a reduction in
at a groundspeed of 120 kt? groundspeed from 150 kt at the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The
a) 600 FT/MIN effect of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of descent will be a
b) 550 FT/MIN decrease of approximately:
c) 800 FT/MIN a) 150 FT/MIN
d) 950 FT/MIN b) 250 FT/MIN
c) 50 FT/MIN
d) 100 FT/MIN
62.1.5.0 (4690)
The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is located 4.6 NM from the
threshold. Assuming a glide slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the 62.1.5.0 (4696)
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer marker is: The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter is based on two
a) 1450 FT overlapping lobes that are transmitted on (i).......... frequencies and carry different
b) 1400 FT (ii)..........
389
a) (i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies 62.1.5.0 (4703)
b) (i) the same (ii) phases Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser transmitting aerial normally
c) (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies situated?
d) (i) different (ii) phases a) On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from the runway on the
extended centreline
b) At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from touchdown on the centreline
62.1.5.0 (4697)
c) At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m along the
In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope transmit?
extended centreline
a) UHF
d) At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway and 300 m from touchdown
b) VHF
c) SHF
d) EHF 62.1.5.0 (4704)
A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable guidance information down to:
a) the surface of the runway
62.1.5.0 (4698)
b) a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway
Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots on either side of the ILS
c) a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
localizer cockpit display represent :
d) a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
a) 0.5 degrees
b) 1.5 degrees
c) 2.5 degrees 62.1.5.0 (4705)
d) 2.0 degrees Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
a) 109.15 MHz
b) 108.25 MHz
62.1.5.0 (4699)
c) 110.20 MHz
Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural frequency of:
d) 112.10 MHz
a) 400 Hz
b) 1300 Hz
c) 2000 Hz 62.1.5.0 (4706)
d) 3000 Hz What approximate rate of descent is required in order to maintain a 3° glidepath at
a groundspeed of 90 kt?
a) 450 FT/MIN
62.1.5.0 (4700)
b) 400 FT/MIN
Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS glidepath, will require an
c) 600 FT/MIN
approximate:
d) 700 FT/MIN
a) decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
b) increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
c) decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN 62.1.5.0 (4707)
d) increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the
localizer needle will be:
a) centred
62.1.5.0 (4701)
b) left of centre
Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide azimuth coverage (i) ..........
c) right of centre
° each side of the localiser centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the
d) centred with the 'fail' flag showing
threshold.
a) (i) 8 (ii) 10
b) (i) 25 (ii) 17 62.1.6.0 (4708)
c) (i) 35 (ii) 25 The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System (MLS) provides a fan-
d) (i) 5 (ii) 8 shaped horizontal approach zone which is usually:
a) + or - 40° of the runway centre-line
b) + or - 50° of the runway centre-line
62.1.5.0 (4702)
c) + or - 60° of the runway centre-line
The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide slope at a groundspeed of
d) + or - 30° of the runway centre-line
140 kt is approximately:
a) 800 FT/MIN
b) 850 FT/MIN 62.1.6.0 (4709)
c) 670 FT/MIN Which one of the following is an advantage of a Microwave Landing System (MLS)
d) 700 FT/MIN compared with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
390
a) It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at sites where it is not radar of continuous wave transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
possible to use an ILS a) It eliminates the minimum target reception range
b) It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and elevation (azimuth) transmitter b) A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be used
c) The installation does not require to have a separate method (marker beacons or DME) to c) It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in long range radars
determine range d) The equipment required is more complex in continuous wave radar but this is offset by
d) There is no restriction on the number of ground installations that can be operated because greater reliability and accuracy
there is an unlimited number of frequency channels available
62.2.1.0 (4716)
62.1.6.0 (4710) A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
MLS installations notified for operation, unless otherwise stated, provide azimuth a) pulse technique
coverage of: b) transponder interrogation
a) + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM c) phase comparison
b) + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 NM d) continuous wave transmission
c) + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 NM
d) + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10 NM
62.2.1.0 (4717)
The main factor which determines the minimum range that can be measured by a
62.1.6.0 (4711) pulsed radar is pulse:
In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing System (MLS) operate? a) length
a) SHF b) amplitude
b) EHF c) repetition rate
c) VHF d) frequency
d) UHF
62.2.1.0 (4718)
62.1.6.0 (4712) Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be
Which one of the following methods is used by a Microwave Landing System (MLS) used by a primary radar facility to detect targets unambiguously to a range of 200
to indicate distance from the runway threshold? NM is:(pps = pulses per second)
a) A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters a) 405 pps
b) Timing the interval between the transmission and reception of primary radar pulses from b) 782 pps
the aircraft to MLS station c) 308 pps
c) Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS azimuth and elevation transmissions d) 375 pps
d) Timing the interval between the reception of sequential secondary radar pulses from the
MLS station to the aircraft
62.2.1.0 (4719)
The maximum range of primary radar depends on :
62.1.6.0 (4713) a) pulse recurrence frequency
Which one of the following correctly lists the major ground based components of a b) wave length
Microwave Landing System (MLS)? c) frequency
a) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility d) pulse length
b) Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and middle marker beacons
c) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
62.2.1.0 (4720)
d) Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner marker beacons
For any given circumstances, in order to double the effective range of a primary
radar the power output must be increased by a factor of:
62.2.1.0 (4714) a) 16
The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse technique, is determined b) 2
by the (i)........ , the maximum unambiguous range by the (ii)......... c) 4
a) (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency d) 8
b) (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
c) (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
62.2.1.0 (4721)
d) (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
The prime factor in determining the maximum unambiguous range of a primary
radar is the:
62.2.1.0 (4715) a) pulse recurrence rate
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning the use in primary b) power output
391
c) size of parabolic receiver aerial 62.2.1.0 (4728)
d) height of the transmitter above the ground In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to discriminate between
targets in azimuth is a factor of:
a) beam width
62.2.1.0 (4722)
b) aerial rotation rate
Which of the following types of radar systems are most suited for short range
c) Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
operation?
d) pulse length
a) primary continuous wave
b) centimetric pulse
c) millimetric pulse 62.2.1.0 (4729)
d) secondary continuous wave Which of the following radar equipments operate by means of the pulse technique?
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar2. Airborne Weather Radar3. Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR)4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
62.2.1.0 (4723)
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and ground based ATC, radar
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
systems operate?
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
a) SHF
d) 2 and 4 only
b) UHF
c) EHF
d) VHF 62.2.2.0 (4730)
Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum range of a ground radar
with a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity of
62.2.1.0 (4724)
light is 300 000 km/second)
In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, the term 'Pulse Recurrence
a) 333 km
Rate (PRR)' signifies the:
b) 666 km
a) number of pulses per second
c) 1333 km
b) delay after which the process re-starts
d) 150 km
c) the number of cycles per second
d) ratio of pulse period to pulse width
62.2.2.0 (4731)
A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence Frequency (PRF) of 1200
62.2.1.0 (4725)
pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar is determined by
a) 69 NM
the:
b) 135 NM
a) pulse recurrence frequency
c) 270 NM
b) transmission power
d) 27 NM
c) size of the aerial
d) transmission frequency
62.2.2.0 (4732)
A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200 pulses/second will have a maximum
62.2.1.0 (4726)
unambiguous range of approximately:
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length determines:
a) 67 NM
a) minimum measurable range
b) 135 NM
b) target discrimination
c) 270 NM
c) maximum measurable range
d) 27 NM
d) beam width

62.2.2.0 (4733)
62.2.1.0 (4727)
Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface movement Radar operates on
In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse
frequencies in the (i) .......... band employing an antenna that rotates at
recurrence rate (PRR) determines:
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute, it is (iii) ......... possible to
a) maximum theoretical range
determine the type of aircraft from the return on the radar screen.
b) target discrimination
a) (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes
c) minimum range
b) (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never
d) beam width
c) (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
d) (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never

392
62.2.2.0 (4734) a) detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can be used by a primary b) give an indication of cloud tops
radar facility in order to detect targets unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:(pps c) inhibit unwanted ground returns
= pulses per second) d) extend the mapping range
a) 1620 pps
b) 3240 pps
62.2.3.0 (4741)
c) 610 pps
In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar utilises a:
d) 713 pps
a) fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60 NM range
b) fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
62.2.2.0 (4735) c) pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility designed to have a maximum d) pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
unambiguous range of 50 km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
a) 3000
62.2.3.0 (4742)
b) 6000
Which of the following cloud types is most readily detected by airborne weather
c) 167
radar when using the 'weather beam'?
d) 330
a) cumulus
b) cirrocumulus
62.2.2.0 (4736) c) stratus
Which combination of characteristics gives best screen picture in a primary search d) altostratus
radar?
a) short pulse length and narrow beam
62.2.3.0 (4743)
b) long pulse length and wide beam
In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather radar use a cosecant
c) long pulse length and narrow beam
radiation pattern.
d) short pulse length and wide beam
a) MAPPING
b) CONTOUR
62.2.2.0 (4737) c) WEATHER
The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is d) MANUAL
approximately:
a) 300 NM
62.2.3.0 (4744)
b) 200 NM
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) the areas
c) 100 NM
of greatest turbulence are indicated on the screen by:
d) 400 NM
a) colour zones being closest together
b) blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
62.2.2.0 (4738) c) large areas of flashing red colour
On which of the following radar displays is it possible to get an indication of the d) iso-echo areas which are coloured black
shape, and to some extent the type, of the aircraft generating the return?
a) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
62.2.3.0 (4745)
b) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar antenna
c) Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
stabilisation axes?
d) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
a) roll and pitch
b) roll, pitch and yaw
62.2.3.0 (4739) c) pitch and yaw
Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of approximately 3 cm in order d) roll and yaw
to:
a) detect the larger water droplets
62.2.3.0 (4746)
b) transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended range
In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode ray tube (CRT) increasing
c) obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam
severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour from:
d) detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large
a) green to yellow to red
b) yellow to amber to blue
62.2.3.0 (4740) c) green to red to black
The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to: d) yellow to orange to red
393
62.2.3.0 (4747) cloud will be detected are:
A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum for use in an airborne a) size of the water drops,wavelength/frequency used
weather radar system because: b) range from cloud,wavelength/frequency used
a) the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the antenna can be kept c) size of the water drops,diameter of radar scanner
relatively small d) rotational speed of radar scanner,range from cloud
b) greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of the smaller water droplets
c) static interference is minimised
62.2.3.0 (4754)
d) less power output is required in the mapping mode
In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR)
is at or above the height of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: (Assume a
62.2.3.0 (4748) beam width of 5°)
In general the operation of airborne weather radar equipment on the ground is: a) 2.5° up
a) only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health of personnel and to b) 0°
protect equipment c) 2.5° down
b) permitted anywhere d) 5° up
c) totally prohibited
d) unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
62.2.3.0 (4755)
When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a single very bright line
62.2.3.0 (4749) appears on the screen.This means that the:
The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is used in preference to the a) scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
mapping mode for the determination of ground features: b) transmitter is faulty
a) beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be concentrated in the narrower c) scanner is not rotating
beam d) receiver is faulty
b) beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is available with the mapping mode
c) beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better definition
62.2.3.0 (4756)
d) when approaching coast-lines in polar regions
The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern radar technology is to:
a) virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence concentrate more energy
62.2.3.0 (4750) in the main beam
A frequency of airborne weather radar is : b) simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
a) 9375 MHz c) have a wide beam and as a consequence better target detection
b) 9375 GHz d) eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
c) 9375 kHz
d) 93.75 MHz
62.2.3.0 (4757)
Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be detected by weather
62.2.3.0 (4751) radar?
A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall at 50NM. By changing the a) snow, clear air turbulence
scale to 50 NM, the return on the radar screen should: b) dry hail, clear air turbulence
a) increase in area and move to the top of the screen c) clear air turbulence, turbulence in cloud with precipitation
b) increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the screen d) snow, turbulence in clouds with precipitation
c) decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
d) decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
62.2.3.0 (4758)
Which of the following equipments uses primary radar principles?
62.2.3.0 (4752) a) Airborne weather radar (AWR)
In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in 'Mapping' mode enables: b) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
a) scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose signals are practically c) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
independent of distance d) Global Positioning System (GPS)
b) better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as ground to sea
c) a greater radar range to be achieved
62.2.4.0 (4759)
d) higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer picture
When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR transponder the additional
information transmitted is:
62.2.3.0 (4753) a) flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors which determine whether a b) altitude based on regional QNH
394
c) aircraft height based on sub-scale setting 62.2.4.0 (4766)
d) height based on QFE The two main design functions of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
a) air to ground and ground to air data link communications and improved ATC
aircraft surveillance capability
62.2.4.0 (4760)
b) collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range (HF) communication capability.
The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) equipment incorporates a
c) continuous automatic position reporting using Global Positioning System (GPS) satellites and
transmitter and receiver respectively operating in the following frequencies:
collision avoidance using TCAS II
Transmitter Receiver
d) the elimination of ground to air communications and the introduction of automatic
a) 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
separation between aircraft using TCAS II
b) 1090 MHz 1030 MHz
c) 1090 MHz 1090 MHz
d) 1030 MHz 1030 MHz 62.2.4.0 (4767)
The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S, contains :
a) two modes, each of 4096 codes
62.2.4.0 (4761)
b) four modes, each 1024 codes
Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm clutter?
c) four modes, each 4096 codes
a) The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar
d) two modes, each 1024 codes
b) The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from moisture sources
c) A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of static or near static returns
d) The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from moisture sources 62.2.4.0 (4768)
A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different codes.These 4096 codes can be
used in:
62.2.4.0 (4762)
a) all modes
In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR transponder should be selected to
b) mode A only
code:
c) mode C only
a) 7600
d) mode S
b) 7700
c) 7000
d) 7500 62.2.4.0 (4769)
The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
a) pulses
62.2.4.0 (4763)
b) phase differences
In order to indicate unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight,
c) frequency differences
the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be selected to:
d) amplitude differences
a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700 62.2.4.0 (4770)
d) 7000 Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes is used to
indicate transponder malfunction?
a) 0
62.2.4.0 (4764)
b) 7600
When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance Radar in Mode C an air
c) 4096
traffic controller's presentation gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated
d) 9999
flight level that is accurate to within:
a) + or - 50 FT
b) + or - 75 FT 62.2.4.0 (4771)
c) + or - 100 FT Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) codes should be
d) + or - 25 FT used by aircraft entering airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been
required?
a) 2000
62.2.4.0 (4765)
b) 5000
The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
c) 7000
a) 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz
d) 0
b) 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
c) 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
d) 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz 62.2.4.0 (4772)
What is the maximum number of usable Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
395
transponder codes? 62.2.4.0 (4779)
a) 4096 The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
b) 3600 a) an emergency
c) 1000 b) radio communication failure
d) 760 c) transponder malfunction
d) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
62.2.4.0 (4773)
Which of the following equipments works on the interrogator/transponder 62.5.1.0 (4780)
principle? ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a method of navigation which
a) Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path:
b) Global Positioning System (GPS) a) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of
c) Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) the capability of self-contained aids, or a combination of these
d) Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar b) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with
a minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
c) within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with a
62.2.4.0 (4774)
minimum of one serviceable self-contained navigation aid
In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance
d) outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids provided that it is equipped with
Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
a minimum of two serviceable self-contained navigation aids
a) 7700
b) 7600
c) 7500 62.5.1.0 (4781)
d) 7000 Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
a) 0.5 NM standard deviation or better
b) 0.25 NM standard deviation or better
62.2.4.0 (4775)
c) 1.0 NM standard deviation or better
Which one of the following switch positions should be used when selecting a code
d) 1.5 NM standard deviation or better
on the Transponder?
a) STBY (Standby)
b) IDENT (Identification) 62.5.1.0 (4782)
c) NORMAL Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
d) OFF a) +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time
b) +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time
c) +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time
62.2.4.0 (4776)
d) +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight
The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has not been required
b) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight 62.5.1.0 (4783)
c) an emergency Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in red on an Electronic Flight
d) transponder malfunction Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
a) warnings, flight envelope and system limits
b) flight envelope and system limits, engaged modes
62.2.4.0 (4777)
c) warnings, cautions and abnormal sources
The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
d) cautions and abnormal sources, engaged modes
a) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
b) an emergency
c) transponder malfunction 62.5.1.0 (4784)
d) radio communication failure Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in amber/yellow on an
Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), indicate:
a) cautions, abnormal sources
62.2.4.0 (4778)
b) flight envelope and system limits
The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
c) warnings
a) radio communication failure
d) engaged modes
b) an emergency
c) unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
d) transponder malfunction 62.5.1.0 (4785)
Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in green on an Electronic Flight
396
Instrument System (EFIS), indicate: c) yellow
a) engaged modes d) cyan
b) cautions, abnormal sources
c) the earth
62.5.1.0 (4792)
d) the ILS deviation pointer
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
increasing intensity of precipititation are coloured in the order:
62.5.1.0 (4786) a) green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in cyan/blue, on an Electronic b) green, red, magenta, black
Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), indicate: c) black, amber/yellow, magenta, red
a) the sky d) amber/yellow, magenta, black
b) engaged modes
c) the flight director bar(s)
62.5.1.0 (4793)
d) flight envelope and system limits
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS),
turbulence is coloured:
62.5.1.0 (4787) a) white or magenta
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), b) red
current data and values are coloured: c) black
a) white d) cyan
b) cyan
c) red
62.5.2.0 (4794)
d) magenta
Which of the following gives the best information about the progress of a flight
between 2 en-route waypoints from a RNAV equipment?
62.5.1.0 (4788) a) ETO
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), b) ETD
armed modes are coloured: c) ATA
a) white d) Elapsed time on route.
b) green
c) magenta
62.5.2.0 (4795)
d) amber/yellow
(For this question use annex 062-9907A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an
62.5.1.0 (4789) ILS frequency selected?
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a) Figure 1
selected data and values are coloured: b) Figure 2
a) green c) Figure 3
b) white d) Figure 4
c) magenta
d) yellow
62.5.2.0 (4796)
(For this question use annex 062-9908A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
62.5.1.0 (4790) Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with a
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), a VOR frequency selected?
selected heading is coloured: a) Figure 4
a) magenta b) Figure 1
b) green c) Figure 2
c) white d) Figure 3
d) yellow
62.5.2.0 (4797)
62.5.1.0 (4791) (For this question use annex 062-9909A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Instrument Systems (EFIS), Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an VOR
the active route/flight plan is coloured: frequency selected?
a) magenta a) Figure 1
b) green b) Figure 4
397
c) Figure 5 b) EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
d) Figure 6 c) FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
d) FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
62.5.2.0 (4798)
(For this question use annex 062-9910A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic 62.5.2.0 (4804)
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode? The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is:
a) Figure 2 a) the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
b) Figure 3 b) the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
c) Figure 4 c) the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
d) Figure 6 d) another source of aircaft position, it is independent of other position sources (IRS, Radio,
ILS etc)
62.5.2.0 (4799)
(For this question use annex 062-9911A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic 62.5.2.0 (4805)
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation
a) Figure 3 Display of an Electronic Flight Instrument System:
b) Figure 4 a) represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it co-incides with the
c) Figure 5 desired track, wind influence is compensated for
d) Figure 2 b) corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during turns
c) indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection
d) indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is being flown
62.5.2.0 (4800)
(For this question use annex 062-9912A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an 62.5.2.0 (4806)
VOR frequency selected? In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at destination calculated by
a) Figure 4 the Flight Management Computer (FMC) be correct?
b) Figure 5 a) When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the actual cruising Mach
c) Figure 6 number is equal to the FMC calculated Mach number
d) Figure 1 b) When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the correct GS
c) When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
d) When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds calculated from the actual take-
62.5.2.0 (4801)
off time
(For this question use annex 062-9913A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) VOR/ILS mode with an
ILS frequency selected? 62.5.2.0 (4807)
a) Figure 5 (For this question use annex 062-9905A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
b) Figure 6 Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
c) Figure 2 a) Figure 3
d) Figure 3 b) Figure 4
c) Figure 1
d) Figure 2
62.5.2.0 (4802)
(For this question use annex 062-9914A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS mode with an ILS 62.5.2.0 (4808)
frequency selected? (For this question use annex 062-9906A)Which of the figures depicts an Electronic
a) Figure 6 Flight Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
b) Figure 2 a) Figure 2
c) Figure 3 b) Figure 3
d) Figure 5 c) Figure 4
d) Figure 1
62.5.2.0 (4803)
Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all Electronic Horizontal 62.5.2.0 (4809)
Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is organised in such a way
(EFIS) WITH THE EXCEPTION OF: that the pilot can:
a) FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN a) insert navigation data between two updates
398
b) only read the database indicate:
c) can modify the database every 28 days a) an off-route airport
d) read and write at any time in database b) a designated alternate airport
c) an off-route VOR/DME
d) the destination airport
62.5.3.0 (4810)
(For this question use annex 062-9915A)What drift is being experienced?
a) 8° Left 62.5.3.0 (4817)
b) 20° Right (For this question use annex 062-9922A)What is the manually selected heading?
c) 20° Left a) 260°(M)
d) 12° Right b) 272°(M)
c) 280°(M)
d) 300°(M)
62.5.3.0 (4811)
(For this question use annex 062-9916A)What is the value of the track from TBX to
YTB? 62.5.3.0 (4818)
a) 097°(T) (For this question use annex 062-9923A)The diagram indicates that the aircraft is
b) 170°(M) to the:
c) 140°(M) a) right of the localizer and below the glidepath
d) 280°(T) b) right of the localizer and above the glidepath
c) left of the localizer and below the glidepath
d) left of the localizer and above the glidepath
62.5.3.0 (4812)
(For this question use annex 062-9917A)What wind velocity is indicated?
a) 105°(M)/20KT 62.5.4.0 (4819)
b) 030°(M)/20KT Which of the following combinations is likely to result in the most accurate Area
c) 255°(M)/20KT Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
d) 285°(M)/20KT a) DME/DME
b) VOR/DME
c) NDB/VOR
62.5.3.0 (4813)
d) VOR/VOR
(For this question use annex 062-9918A)What is the value of the selected course?
a) 299°(M)
b) 272°(M) 62.5.4.0 (4820)
c) 260°(M) Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-contained and obtains no
d) 280°(M) external information?
a) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
b) Pressure altitude
62.5.3.0 (4814)
c) Magnetic heading
(For this question use annex 062-9919A)What is the instantaneous aircraft track?
d) VOR/DME radial/distance
a) 272°(M)
b) 300°(M)
c) 260°(M) 62.5.4.0 (4821)
d) 280°(M) Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation System (R-NAV) comes
from an external, not on-board, system?
a) VOR/DME radial/distance
62.5.3.0 (4815)
b) Magnetic heading
(For this question use annex 062-9920A)The letters QTX and adjacent symbol
c) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
indicate a:
d) Pressure altitude
a) VOR/DME
b) TACAN
c) VOR 62.5.4.0 (4822)
d) Airport In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of the following is an Air
Data input?
a) True airspeed
62.5.3.0 (4816)
b) Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
(For this question use annex 062-9921A)The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC'

399
c) VOR/DME radial/distance c) when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
d) Doppler drift d) when the Phantom Station is out of range

62.5.5.0 (4823) 62.5.5.0 (4829)

In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR into an RNAV, the VOR: What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2-dot basic RNAV system in
a) does not have to be in range when entered but must be when used the en-route mode?
b) does not have to be in range when entered or used a) 5 NM
c) must be in range b) 1 NM
d) has to be positively identified by one of the pilots c) 2 NM
d) 10 NM
62.5.5.0 (4824)
Which one of the following lists information given by a basic VOR/DME-based Area 62.5.5.0 (4830)
Navigation System? What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an 2-dot RNAV system in the
a) Crosstrack distance, alongtrack distance, angular course deviation approach mode?
b) Aircraft position in latitude and longitude a) 0.5°
c) Wind velocity b) 10°
d) True airspeed, drift angle c) 0.5 NM
d) 10 NM
62.5.5.0 (4825)
Which of the following lists information required to input a waypoint or 'Phantom 62.5.5.0 (4831)
Station' into a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? Which of the following is one of the functions of the Course-Line-Computer in a
a) Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station' basic Area Navigation (RNAV) system?
b) Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station' a) It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into tracking and
c) Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the waypoint or 'Phantom Station' distance indications to any chosen Phantom Station/waypoint
d) Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or 'Phantom Station' b) It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test programme
c) It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the Area-Nav-Mode and continues
working by memory in case one of the two necessary station goes off the air
62.5.5.0 (4826)
d) It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches
(For this question use annex 062-12409A)Which of the distances indicated will be
shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a
'Phantom Station'? 62.5.5.0 (4832)
a) 12 NM In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data relating primarily to
b) 21 NM navigation is provided by:
c) 10 NM a) Navigation radiosFlight Management ComputerInertial Reference Systems
d) 11 NM b) Inertial Reference SystemsAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radios
c) Flight Management ComputerAircraft Mapping RadarNavigation radios
d) Inertial Reference SystemsNavigation radiosTrue airspeed and drift inputs
62.5.5.0 (4827)
(For this question use annex 062-12410A)Which of the distances indicated will be
shown on a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when using a 62.5.5.0 (4833)
'Phantom Station' at position 'X'? How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System display of a B737-400 respond
a) 9 NM to the failure of a VHF navigation (VOR) receiver?
b) 11 NM a) It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or pointer from the
c) 14 NM display
d) 8 NM b) The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
c) The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and flash intermittently
d) The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar appears
62.5.5.0 (4828)
Erratic indications may be experienced when flying towards a basic VOR/DME-
based Area Navigation System 'Phantom Station': 62.5.5.0 (4834)
a) when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception range from the Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System generates
reference station the visual displays on the EADI and EHSI?
b) because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the Phantom Station other than a) Symbol Generator
180°/360°) it takes the computer more time to calculate the necessary information b) Flight Management Computer
400
c) Flight Control Computer c) Differential range by phase comparison
d) Navigation database d) Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions

62.6.1.0 (4835) 62.6.3.0 (4841)

An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which is proportional to the Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the Loran C navigation system?
transmitter velocity will occur when: a) 90 - 110 kHz
a) the transmitter moves towards the receiver b) 1750 - 1950 kHz
b) the transmitter moves away from the receiver c) 10.2 - 13.6 kHz
c) the receiver moves towards the transmitter d) 978 - 1213 MHz
d) both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
62.6.3.0 (4842)
62.6.1.0 (4836) Loran C coverage is:
The Doppler Navigation System is based on: a) confined to certain limited areas of the world
a) radar principles using frequency shift b) global
b) radio waves refraction in the ionosphere c) unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S
c) doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System d) unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but limited over the major continental
d) phase comparison from ground station transmissions land masses

62.6.1.0 (4837) 62.6.5.0 (4843)

Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a position line is obtained
proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when: by:
a) the transmitter moves away from the reciever a) timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to reach the
b) the transmitter and receiver move towards each other aircraft's receiver
c) the transmitter moves toward the reciever b) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the signal received from a satellite in a
d) both transmitter and receiver move away from each other known position
c) timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the aircraft's transmitter/receiver to
reach and return from a satellite in a known position
62.6.3.0 (4838)
d) the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between signals received from a
Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C is correct?
minimum number of satellites
a) It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of differential
range by pulse technique
b) It is a navigation system based on secondary radar principles, position lines are obtained in 62.6.5.0 (4844)
sequence from up to eight ground stations In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS)
c) It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the principle of range measurement by provide position information that is available to civil aircraft?
phase comparison a) UHF
d) It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges being received from a minimum of b) SHF
four ground stations c) EHF
d) VHF
62.6.3.0 (4839)
In which navigation system does the master station transmit a continuous string of 62.6.5.0 (4845)
pulses on a frequency close to 100 kHz? What is the minimum number of satellites required by a GPS in order to obtain a
a) Loran C three dimensional fix?
b) GPS a) 4
c) Decca b) 3
d) Doppler c) 5
d) 6
62.6.3.0 (4840)
Which of the following correctly gives the principle of operation of the Loran C 62.6.5.0 (4846)
navigation system? What is the minimum number of satellites required for a Satellite-Assisted
a) Differential range by pulse technique Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out two dimensional operation?
b) Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions a) 3
b) 4
401
c) 5 c) L1-precise (P)
d) 2 d) L2-for communications purpose

62.6.5.0 (4847) 62.6.5.0 (4852)

Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have Which of the following coordinate systems is used by the GPS receiver to
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted determine position (Latitude, longitude and altitude)?
Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional a) WGS 84
operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any b) ED 87
faulty satellite and remove it from contributing to the navigation solution. The c) ED 50
number of satellites is: d) EUREF 92
a) 6
b) 7
62.6.5.0 (4853)
c) 4
Which of the following lists all the parameters that can be determined by a GPS
d) 5
receiver tracking signals from 4 different satellites?
a) Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
62.6.5.0 (4848) b) Latitude and longitude
Signal reception is required from a minimum number of satellites that have c) Latitude, longitude and time
adequate elevation and suitable geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted d) Latitude, longitude and altitude
Navigation System (GPS) to carry out independent three dimensional operation
without the Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
62.6.5.0 (4854)
number of satellites is:
Which of the following combinations of satellite navigation systems provide the
a) 4
most accurate position fixes in air navigation?
b) 5
a) NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
c) 6
b) NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
d) 3
c) NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
d) GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
62.6.5.0 (4849)
Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the accuracy and reliability of
62.6.5.0 (4855)
the Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are located on:
a) Satellite clock, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
a) 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
b) Satellite mutual interference, satellite ephemeris, atmospheric propagation
b) 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
c) Satellite to ground time lag, atmospheric propagation, satellite clock
c) 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
d) Satellite mutual interference, frequency drift, satellite to ground time lag
d) 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve satellites positioned in a
geostationary orbital plane
62.6.5.0 (4850)
In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by:
62.6.5.0 (4856)
a) measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites' transmissions, in
Which of the following statements about the 'visibility' of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites
known positions, to reach the aircraft's receiver
is correct?
b) the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a number of
a) It varies, depending on the time and observer's location
satellites in known positions
b) It is the same throughout the globe
c) measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to travel to a number of satellites,
c) It is greatest at the equator
in known positions, and return to the aircraft's receiver
d) It is greatest at the poles
d) measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of satellites
received in a specific sequential order
62.6.5.0 (4857)
How many operational satellites are required for Full Operational Capability (FOC)
62.6.5.0 (4851)
of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS?
GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with different types of signals.
a) 24
Which of these are generally available for use by civil aviation?
b) 18
a) L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
c) 12
b) L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
d) 30

402
62.6.5.0 (4858) 62.6.5.0 (4864)
GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two carrier waves 1575 MHz and The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation system
1227 MHz and supply two possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
military).Commercial aviation uses: a) an ellipsoid
a) only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code b) a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
b) only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes c) a sphere
c) only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code d) a geoid
d) the two carrier waves and one public code
62.6.5.0 (4865)
62.6.5.0 (4859) In civil aviation, the height value computed by the receiver of the satellite
Which of the following satellite navigation systems has Full Operational Capability navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
(FOC) and is approved for specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe? a) height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
a) NAVSTAR/GPS b) geometric height above ground
b) NNSS-Transit c) height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
c) COSPAS-SARSAT d) flight level
d) GLONASS
62.6.5.0 (4866)
62.6.5.0 (4860) In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, the term 'inclination'
The basic elements of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are the: denotes the angle between the:
a) control, space and user segments a) orbital plane and the equatorial plane
b) main control station, the monitoring station and the ground antennas b) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct line to a satellite
c) antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU) c) orbital plane and the earth's axis
d) atomic clock, power supply and transponder d) horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital plane of a satellite

62.6.5.0 (4861) 62.6.5.0 (4867)

One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite navigation system How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit the earth?
NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a) Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
a) monitor the status of the satellites b) Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
b) manufacture and launch the satellites c) 12 days
c) manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the precision of the position fix d) 365 days because the satellites are located in a geostationary orbit
d) grant and monitor user authorisations
62.6.5.0 (4868)
62.6.5.0 (4862) At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid are NAVSTAR/GPS
The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the satellite navigation system satellites circling the earth?
NAVSTAR/GPS is to: a) 20200 km
a) select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the signals and to measure b) 10900 km
the time taken by signals from the satellites to reach the receiver c) 36000 km
b) transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to determine the distance to the d) 19500 km
satellite
c) to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their positions and to measure the time
62.6.5.0 (4869)
d) monitor the orbital planes of the satellites
The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS are:
a) inclined 55° to the equatorial plane
62.6.5.0 (4863) b) inclined 55° to the earth axis
One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/ c) inclined 90° to the equatorial plane
GPS is to: d) parallel to the equatorial plane
a) transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to determine time,
position and velocity
62.6.5.0 (4870)
b) transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the orbital planes autonomously
In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies used by the satellite
c) compute the user position from the received user messages and to transmit the computed
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS for transmission of the navigation message?
position back to the user segment
a) UHF
d) monitor the satellites' orbits and status
b) VHF
403
c) EHF
d) SHF
62.6.5.0 (4871)
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following
statements correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)' signal?
a) PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites and the measurement
of the time taken by the signal to reach the receiver
b) PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals transmitted by the satellites
c) PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical background noise that exists in space
d) PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from one satellite being received from
different directions (multipath effect)
62.6.5.0 (4872)
Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system codes can be
processed by 'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
a) C/A
b) P
c) C/A- and P
d) P and Y
62.6.5.0 (4873)
Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the:
a) fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
b) recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operative
c) assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
d) correction of receiver clock error
62.6.5.0 (4874)
How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver recognise which of
the received signals belongs to which satellite?
a) Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies, with an individual
Pseudo Random Noise code
b) The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
c) The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are received and compares this
information with the calculated positions of the satellites
d) Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency
62.6.5.0 (4875)
Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code,
forms part of the so called 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS
satellites?
a) almanac data, satellite status information
b) time, data to impair the accuracy of the position fix
c) data to correct receiver clock error, almanac data
d) time, positions of the satellites
62.6.5.0 (4876)
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the maximum time taken
to receive the complete set of almanac data from all satellites?
a) 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame)
b) 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)
c) 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
d) 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
62.6.5.0 (4877)
Which of the following statements concerning the L1 and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS
transmission frequencies and codes is correct?
a) The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
b) C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both frequencies
c) The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
d) The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P codes
62.6.5.0 (4878)
Which one of the following errors can be compensated for by a NAVSTAR/GPS
receiver comparing L1 and L2 frequencies?
a) Ionospheric
b) Multipath
c) Tropospheric
d) Receiver noise
62.6.5.0 (4879)
Which of the following statements is correct concerning the principle behind the
correction of one of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the
transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and L2)?
a) The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is proportional to the
inverse of the carrier frequency squared
b) The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the interference of both frequencies
c) The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be reduced due to the interference of
both frequencies
d) The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is proportional to the inverse of the carrier
frequency squared
62.6.5.0 (4880)
Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is the meaning of
the term 'Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
a) It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of the navigation
information
b) It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of the data transmitted by the
monitoring stations of the ground segment
c) It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN)
code transmitted by the satellites
d) It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide distributed monitor stations
(ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the navigation message
62.6.5.0 (4881)
The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and receiver is:
a) determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the satellite
multiplied by the speed of light
b) calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
c) calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the known positions of the satellite
404
and the receiver c) using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal processing
d) determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise code multiplied by the speed of d) offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined constant amount
light
62.6.5.0 (4888)
62.6.5.0 (4882) In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how does this affect, if at all, the
In relation to the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term navigation accuracy of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ?
used when a receiver: a) It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite signals
a) is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can instantly replace any lost b) It increases because only signals from satellites in the most suitable geometric constellation
signal with another already being monitored are selected by the receiver
b) is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking only those of the 4 with the best c) It has no influence because, by selecting of the most suitable signals, the computing
geometric coverage process in the receiver is quicker
c) is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational satellites simultaneously d) It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available satellites
d) requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation purposes
62.6.5.0 (4889)
62.6.5.0 (4883) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, receiver clock error:
The reason why the measured distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite a) is corrected by using signals from four satellites
navigation system satellite and a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because b) is the biggest part of the total error, it cannot be corrected
the: c) can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock with the satellite clocks
a) calculated range includes receiver clock error d) is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic clocks installed in the satellites
b) measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise code
c) movement of satellite and receiver during the distance calculation is not taken into account
62.6.5.0 (4890)
d) calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is:
62.6.5.0 (4884) a) minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere and comparing
What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS receiver is most suitable signals transmitted by the satellites
for use on board an aircraft? b) minimised by computing the average of all signals
a) Multichannel c) only significant if the satellites are located at a small elevation angle above the horizon
b) Sequential d) negligible
c) Multiplex
d) Any hand held type
62.6.5.0 (4891)
Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-sensor system using inputs
62.6.5.0 (4885) from a global navigation satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational
What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites required to produce an system (INS)?
accurate independent 3-D position fix? a) The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
a) 4 b) The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by the INS
b) 5 c) The average position calculated from data provided by both systems increases overall
c) 24 accuracy
d) 3 d) The only advantage of coupling both systems is double redundancy

62.6.5.0 (4886) 62.6.5.0 (4892)

The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted: What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the aircraft (e.g. wing) on the
a) on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity reception of signals from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
b) inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and fuselage a) It may prevent the reception of signals
c) in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines b) It causes multipath propagation
d) under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-GPS stations c) The signals will be distorted, however the error can be corrected for using an algorithm and
information from unaffected signals
d) It has no influence because high frequency signals are unaffected
62.6.5.0 (4887)
In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Selective Availability' (SA) gives
the option to artificially degrade the accuracy by : 62.6.5.0 (4893)
a) dithering the satellite clock Which of the following geometric satellite constellations provides the most
b) shutting off selected satellites accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
405
a) 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an azimuth of 120° from
each other together with a fourth directly overhead
b) 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the
horizon
c) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low elevation above the horizon
d) 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an elevation of 45° above the
horizon
62.6.5.0 (4894)
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what is involved in
the differential technique (D-GPS)?
a) Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit correction data to a
suitable receiver on the aircraft
b) The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and L2 frequencies are processed by
the receiver to determine an error correction
c) Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in parallel to reduce the characteristical
receiver noise error
d) Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas which are located a fixed
distance apart. This enables a suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for
multipath errors
62.6.5.0 (4895)
Which of the following statements about the accuracy that can be obtained with
the differential technique (D-GPS) of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is correct?
a) The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station, the more accurate
the position fix
b) The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of the receiver position in relation
to a D-GPS ground station
c) A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a more accurate position fix
d) Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non Precision Approaches'
62.6.5.0 (4896)
How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system determine
the elevation and azimuth data of a satellite relative to the location of the
antenna?
a) It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the satellites
b) The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code
c) The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined at the location of the antenna
d) The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted together with the navigation
message
62.6.5.0 (4897)
In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
a) procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is no stored satellite
data available
b) continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the GPS satellites
c) procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new satellites becoming operational
d) continuous procedure performed by the receiver that searches the sky for satellites rising
above the horizon
62.6.5.0 (4898)
What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under IFR conditions using the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, the number of satellites required to
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) function are not
available?
a) The flight may be continued using other certificated navigation systems
b) The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
c) A constant heading and speed must be flown until the required number of satellites are
again available
d) The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites are available and the pilot
monitors the GPS-System manually
62.6.5.0 (4899)
Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS
satellite navigation system is to be used in combination with a multi sensor
system?
a) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and operational
b) The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly and the navigation information
continuously displayed
c) The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to monitor all prescribed navigation
systems
d) Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under IFR conditions
62.6.5.0 (4900)
Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, on a flight under IFR
conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system receiver, the position
fix obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position of conventional
navigation systems by an unacceptable amount?
a) It may be continued using conventional navigation systems
b) It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS, prior to the next flight all systems must be
checked
c) It must be continued under VFR conditions
d) The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and correct the error or switch off
the faulty system
62.6.5.0 (4901)
What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) on a non-precision
approach when using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
a) Barometric altitude
b) If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from the D-GPS, otherwise
barometric altitude
c) Radar altitude
d) GPS altitude
62.6.5.0 (4902)
Which of the following is the datum for altitude information when conducting
flights under IFR conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system?
a) Barometric altitude
b) The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude
c) GPS altitude
d) GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise barometric altitude
406
71.1.1.0 (4903) c) 200 NM
Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently d) 400 NM
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:
71.1.1.0 (4909)
a) 60% of the landing distance available.
On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an aeroplane at a distance
b) 70% of the landing distance available.
away from land, which is suitable for making a emergency landing greater than
c) 80% of the landing distance available.
that corresponding to :
d) 50% of the landing distance available.
a) 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
b) 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed.
71.1.1.0 (4904) c) 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.
Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: d) 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.
a) while at their station.
b) only during take off and landing.
71.1.1.0 (4910)
c) only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
The minimum time track is a track defined for :
of safety.
a) a given travel
d) from take off to landing.
b) a period of 12 hours
c) a period of 24 hours
71.1.1.0 (4905) d) aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a operations manual and also
issue the amendments to keep it up to date?
71.1.1.0 (4911)
a) Aircraft operator.
The term decision height (DH) is used for :
b) Aircraft producer.
a) a precision approach.
c) Owner of the aircraft.
b) a conventional approach.
d) ATS authority of the state of registry.
c) an indirect approach.
d) a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
71.1.1.0 (4906)
The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by
71.1.1.0 (4912)
an operator must not be less than :
Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely
a) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the
made, and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? (Annex
last 90 days
6, Part I)
b) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90
a) The captain.
days
b) The operator.
c) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6
c) The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
months
d) The company's cargo technicians.
d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6
months
71.1.1.0 (4913)
For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be located at a distance
71.1.1.0 (4907)
that : (Annex 6, Part I)
The standby power supply powering the standby artificial horizon must be
a) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at cruising speed with
operable on board any aircraft of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers
only one engine operative.
during at least :
b) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at cruising speed with only one
a) 30 minutes.
engine operative.
b) 60 minutes.
c) Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
c) 15 minutes.
operating.
d) 2 hours.
d) Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at cruising speed all engines
operating.
71.1.1.0 (4908)
A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an aircraft flying away from
71.1.1.0 (4914)
the shore by more than :
One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules
a) 50 NM
unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of
b) 100 NM
predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative destination, are: (Annex 6,
407
Part I) 71.1.1.0 (4920)
a) At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard wing tip, with a
required for aerodrome use. coverage angle of :
b) At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required a) 110°.
for aerodrome use. b) 140°.
c) At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period before and after such a c) 70°.
predicted time, equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. d) 220°.
d) At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome
use.
71.1.1.0 (4921)
Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters recorded during at least
71.1.1.0 (4915) the last :
When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking a) 25 hours of operation.
the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I) b) 30 hours of operation.
a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified c) flight.
personnel on board. d) 48 hours of operation.
b) The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
71.1.1.0 (4922)
d) All the flight crew be on board.
For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit voice recorder must keep the
conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last :
71.1.1.0 (4916) a) 30 minutes of operation.
The operator will include in the operations manual a list of minimum required b) 25 hours of operation.
equipment approved by : (Annex 6, Part I) c) flight.
a) The country of the operator. d) 48 hours of operation.
b) The country where the aircraft was manufactured.
c) The country where the aircraft is operated.
71.1.1.0 (4923)
d) It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation authorities.
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the passengers must be fed
with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude is
71.1.1.0 (4917) greater than :
Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped: (Annex 6, a) 13 000 ft
Part I) b) 12 000 ft
a) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight c) 11 000 ft
rules. d) 10 000 ft
b) Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.
c) With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).
71.1.1.0 (4924)
d) As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess
On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with
indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.
oxygen throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the
pressure altitude is between :
71.1.1.0 (4918) a) 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft
The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : b) 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
a) the operator c) 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
b) the manufacturer d) 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
c) the aircraft manufacturer's list
d) the aircraft state of registry
71.1.1.0 (4925)
On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is
71.1.1.0 (4919) provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the
The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by : passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization,
a) the manufacturer. throughout the flight period, during which the pressure altitude is greater than :
b) the operator. a) 10 000 ft.
c) the aircraft manufacture'rs list. b) 11 000 ft.
d) the aircraft state of registry. c) 12 000 ft.
d) 13 000 ft.

408
71.1.1.0 (4926) b) 140°
For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen masks are compulsory on board c) 70°
any pressurized aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than : d) 220°
a) 25 000 ft
b) 13 000 ft
71.1.1.0 (4933)
c) 29 000 ft
For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
d) 10 000 ft
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of :
71.1.1.0 (4927) a) 0.6
A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data recorder when its certified b) 0.7
take-off gross weight is greater than : c) 0.5
a) 5 700 kg d) 0.8
b) 14 000 kg
c) 20 000 kg
71.1.1.0 (4934)
d) 27 000 kg
For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on
at alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied
71.1.1.0 (4928) by a factor of :
The coverage angle of the regulatory white position lights, continuously lit in flight a) 0.7
and located at the rear of the aircraft, is : b) 0.6
a) 140° c) 0.5
b) 110° d) 0.8
c) 70°
d) 220°
71.1.1.0 (4935)
The validity period of a ""certificate of airworthiness"" varies with the conditions
71.1.1.0 (4929) under which the aircraft is maintained.If the maintenance is carried out according
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming to an approved programme and done in a maintenance shop approved by the
from the front left, will first see the : Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity period is:
a) green steady light a) three years.
b) red steady light b) three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the others.
c) white steady light c) three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the others.
d) green flashing light d) three years if the aircraft has not undergone major modifications.

71.1.1.0 (4930) 71.1.2.0 (4936)

The JAR-OPS is based on : The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
a) ICAO Appendix 6 a) the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil commercial transport
b) The air transport rules aircraft.
c) The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR) b) the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over them.
d) A JAA guideline c) the aircraft used by police, customs and defense departments.
d) the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil aircraft.
71.1.1.0 (4931)
During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming 71.1.2.1 (4937)
from the front right right, will first see the : Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the :
a) red steady light a) operation manual.
b) green steady light b) flight manual.
c) white steady light c) journey logbook.
d) green flashing light d) operational flight plan.

71.1.1.0 (4932) 71.1.2.1 (4938)

The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, continuously lit in flight An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the
and located at the tip of the left wing is : ground a copy of the :
a) 110° a) operation flight plan.
409
b) ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan. c) 15 months
c) flight plan processing. d) 24 months
d) flight route sheet.
71.1.2.1 (4944)
71.1.2.1 (4939) The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He
An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the a) must do so, within a reasonable period of time.
ground, if required: b) can request a delay of 48 hours.
a) a copy of the weight and balance sheet. c) can refuse to present them.
b) a copy of the calculated take-off performances. d) can only do so after having consulted the operator.
c) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
d) the aircraft equipment report (logbook).
71.1.2.3 (4945)
The ""NO SMOKING"" sign must be illuminated :
71.1.2.1 (4940) a) when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin.
After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped with a flight recorder must b) during climb and descent.
keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: c) in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried.
a) 60 days. d) during take off and landing.
b) 30 days.
c) 90 days.
71.1.2.4 (4946)
d) 45 days.
A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with :
a) a decision height of at least 100 ft
71.1.2.1 (4941) b) a decision height of at least 200 ft
During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a c) a decision height of at least 50 ft
portable device suspected to disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain: d) no decision height
a) must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.
b) authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.
71.1.2.4 (4947)
c) authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.
A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with :
d) may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.
a) no runway visual range limits
b) a runway visual range of at least 50 m
71.1.2.1 (4942) c) a runway visual range of at least 200 m
Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of d) a runway visual range of at least 350 m
information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It contains more
particularly:1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast
71.1.2.4 (4948)
at destination,2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the
A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out
weight and balance sheet,3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel
with a runway visual range of at least :
report,4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the
a) 550 m
operator,5 - notification for special loadings,6 - for each flight, details of the day's
b) 350 m
performances and limitations with completed charts.The combination regrouping
c) 800 m
all the correct statements is:
d) 500 m
a) 2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,3,4,5,6
c) 1,3,5 71.1.2.4 (4949)
d) 2,4 A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an approach which may be
carried out with a runway visual range of at least :
a) 200 m
71.1.2.1 (4943)
b) 100 m
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that all relevant
c) 250 m
operational and technical information for a individual flight is preserved on ground
d) 50 m
for a predetermined period of time. Consequently, if practicable, a copy of the
operational flight plan shall be retained, during at least :
a) 3 months 71.1.2.4 (4950)
b) 12 months A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be
carried out with a runway visual range of at least :

410
a) 75 m c) 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude
b) 150 m d) 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude
c) 250 m
d) 200 m
71.1.2.4 (4957)
The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the
71.1.2.4 (4951) following into account :1. equipment available for navigation2. dimensions and
A category I precision approach (CAT I) has : characteristics of the runways3. composition of the flight crew4. obstacles in the
a) a decision height equal to at least 200 ft. vicinity of approach and missed approach areas5. facilities for determining and
b) a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. communicating the weather conditionsThe combination regrouping all the correct
c) a decision height equal to at least 50 ft. statements is :
d) no decision height. a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,4,5
c) 2,4,5
71.1.2.4 (4952)
d) 2,3,5
A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
a) 3600 m 71.1.2.4 (4958)
b) 2400 m When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories
c) 1600 m according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal
d) 1500 m to the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing
weight multiplied by a factor of:
a) 1.3
71.1.2.4 (4953)
b) 1.45
A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
c) 1.5
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
d) 1.15
a) 2400 m
b) 3600 m
c) 1600 m 71.1.2.4 (4959)
d) 1500 m In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the lowest
minima to be used by an operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :
a) MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
71.1.2.4 (4954)
b) MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
c) MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
maneuver only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:
d) MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
a) 1600 m
b) 1500 m
c) 3600 m 71.1.2.4 (4960)
d) 2400 m JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes that, the operator shall ensure
about VFR flights, that :
a) special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km
71.1.2.4 (4955)
b) for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance from clouds is 1 000 m at least
A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual
c) for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance from clouds is 250 m at least
manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to :
d) for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is
a) 1500 m
5 km at least (clear of cloud)
b) 2400 m
c) 1600 m
d) 3600 m 71.1.2.4 (4961)
In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima), the Category
III A Operation, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS
71.1.2.4 (4956)
with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR (runway visual range) no less
During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to
than :
the runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway
a) 200 m
threshold is at more than :
b) 250 m
a) 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude
c) 230 m
b) 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
d) 300 m

411
71.1.2.4 (4962) 71.1.2.4 (4967)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operationg Minima), an operator For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational take-off minimums may be
must ensure that system minima for ""non-precision approach procedures"", which used provided an alternate aerodrome is accessible at less than:
are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and a) 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
VDF are no lower than MDH following value with: b) 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
a) NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft c) 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
b) ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft d) 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
c) VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
d) VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
71.1.2.4 (4968)
During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services
71.1.2.4 (4963) and received by the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational
In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B operations, is a precision minimums, the point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:
instrument approach and landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower a) the outer marker (OM).
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual range lower than 200 m but b) the FAF.
no less than : c) the middle marker.
a) 75 m d) the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
b) 150 m
c) 100 m
71.1.2.4 (4969)
d) 50 m
The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-precision direct IFR approach with
the following operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750 metres. RVR
71.1.2.4 (4964) for threshold, mid and end of the runway are given by the controller...
The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 knots. a) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is higher than 750
The aircraft is flown by a single pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high metres.
intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold mid and end of b) the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-runway RVR are higher than
runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are : DH = 300 feet, Horizontal 750 metres.
visibility (HV) = 800 metres.The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) c) the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are higher than 750 metres.
900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.Is take-off possible? d) flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final approach only if he has a
a) Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM. meteorological visibility higher than 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for
b) No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure. precision approaches.
c) No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
d) Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure.
71.1.2.4 (4970)
An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which the operational minima are :
71.1.2.4 (4965) MDH = 360 feet, horizontal visibility = 1 500 metres :Visibility given by ATC and
The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre received by the crew is 2 500 metres :The pilot may start the final approach...
line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR a) whatever the ceiling given by ATC.
qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility required for take-off is: b) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 360 feet.
a) 150 m. c) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet.
b) 200 m. d) if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is higher than 240 feet during
c) 300 m. the day and 360 feet at night.
d) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
71.1.2.4 (4971)
71.1.2.4 (4966) In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima - General), it is
The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is :1 - the established, among other considerations, that an Operator must take full account
horizontal visibility2 - the ceiling3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)4 - the of Aeroplane Categories.The criteria taken into consideration for classification of
decision altitude (DA)Which of the following combinations contains all of the Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is
correct statements? equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by
a) 03-Jan 1,3.Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is :
b) 04-Jan a) D
c) 2001-02-03 b) B
d) 2001-02-04 c) C
d) E

412
71.1.2.5 (4972)
Supplemental oxygen is used to :
a) provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin depressurisation
b) protect a crew who fights a fire
c) provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, following a cabin depressurisation
d) assist a passenger with breathing disorders
71.1.2.8 (4973)
The minimum flight crew for night transport of passengers or according to the
Instrument flight rules is :
a) 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with more than 9 passenger
seats
b) 2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or having more than 9 passenger seats
c) 1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided that the maximum certified
number of passenger seats is less than 9
d) 2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
71.1.2.8 (4974)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not
operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-command unless :
a) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an
aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding
90 days
b) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or an approved
flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
c) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in any type of
aeroplane or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding
60 days
d) he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane
or an approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
71.1.2.8 (4975)
JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to operate at the flight
controls during take-off and landing unless :
a) he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the controls during take-
off and landing of the type to be used in the preceding 90 days.
b) he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at least three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 90
days.
c) he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest three take-off and three
landings in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding 30
days
d) he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command or as a co-pilot at the controls
of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days.
71.1.2.8 (4976)
In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot
engaged in a single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be :
a) 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the
preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
b) 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days
on the type class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
c) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days
on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
d) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days
on the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
71.1.2.8 (4977)
An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of eight occupants
(including pilot).The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two children (5
and 6 years old).The boarding of all passengers is:
a) forbidden.
b) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat and using the same seat
belt. No other particular precautions are necessary.
c) authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same seat, using the same seat belt
with an adult sitting on the seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if necessary.
d) authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature, sitting on the same seat and
using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir
seat bel
71.1.2.8 (4978)
In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight manual inidicates a
minimum crew of one pilot, when do the regulations require the presence of a
second pilot ?
a) never.
b) if the aircraft is a twin-engine.
c) if part or all the flight is done at night.
d) if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.
71.1.2.8 (4979)
The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:1 - the training2 - the test
results3 - a log of flying hours4 - a summary of the training by reference
periodWhich of the following combinations contains all of the correct answers?
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
b) 2001-02-03
c) 03-Fev
d) 04-Mar
71.1.3.0 (4980)
An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft planned for the flight is a
performance class B aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or its
alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to reach a climb rate of at least :
a) 300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous power.
b) 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous
power.
c) 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise power.
d) 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others operating at maximum continuous
power.
71.1.3.1 (4981)
When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one passes from the air isochrone
to the corresponding ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot) a
vector KK' which is equal to:
413
a) mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone.
b) wind at K'.
c) wind at K.
d) mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
71.1.3.1 (4982)
A minimum time track is a :
a) track determined according to weather conditions
b) great circle track
c) rhumb line
d) spherical capable flight segment
71.1.3.1 (4983)
On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined aircraft must mandatorily
have a quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
a) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
b) 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 30 minutes at cruising speed
d) 45 minutes at cruising speed
71.1.3.1 (4984)
On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet engined aircraft must
mandatorily have a minimum quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying
during :
a) 2 hours with normal cruising consumption
b) 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
c) 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
d) 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption
71.1.3.1 (4985)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :
a) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
b) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
c) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
d) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
71.1.3.1 (4986)
When the weather conditions require an alternate aerodrome to be available on
take-off, the latter shall be located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an
equivalent distance not exceeding :
a) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
b) 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
c) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative
d) 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating
71.1.3.1 (4987)
According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin-engined aircraft with a
maximum certificated take-off mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must be planned in such a way
that on one engine an appropriate aerodrome can be reached within :
a) 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
b) 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
c) 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
d) 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
71.1.3.1 (4988)
According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight with no alternate airfield can
be undertaken only if the minimum weather conditions stipulated in the
regulations are effective for at least :
a) 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
b) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival
c) 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
d) 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
71.1.3.1 (4989)
A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have :
a) reduced range
b) increased manoeuvring limits
c) increased flight envelope
d) increased Mach number stability
71.1.3.1 (4990)
For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the optimum altitude and the
lock-on altitude increase. The most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing
cruising levels which increase during the flight in order to fly :
a) about the optimum altitude
b) about the lock-on altitude
c) between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
d) just below the optimum altitude
71.1.3.2 (4991)
If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro compass (which is assumed
to be operating correctly) and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device
which is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the course followed by the
aircraft (in still air conditions) is a:
a) great circle.
b) rhumb line.
c) curve of some type or other.
d) spherical flight segment.
71.1.3.2 (4992)
An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the
gyro compass, which is assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly
rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on
a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass
remains in free gyro mode.If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading
at Q will be :
a) 328°.
b) 345°.
414
c) 003°. linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The grid route at the
d) 334°. starting point of this great circle is :
a) 295°.
b) 298°.
71.1.3.2 (4993)
c) 301°.
A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel to the zero
d) 292°.
meridian, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.In polar
regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro mode after leaving the 6
microteslas zone, and the grid heading controlled by information from the inertial 71.1.3.2 (4998)
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to ""magnetic mode"", the The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of the Antarctic regions. A grid,
compass heading is 220°. The INS position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The printed over it, its aligned with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the
magnetic variation on the chart is 10°E.The compass shift on this heading at this geographic North (non standard grid).The grid course followed by the aircraft is
point in time is: Rg=280°, the position is 80°S 100°E.The true course followed at this moment is :
a) -5°. a) 000°.
b) +5°. b) 260°.
c) -15°. c) 080°.
d) +15°. d) 100°.

71.1.3.2 (4994) 71.1.3.2 (4999)

(For this question use annex 071-2070A)On the diagram where :Nt = True (For this question use annex 071-2084A)The inertial navigation system (INS)
NorthNm = Magnetic NorthNg = Grid NorthIf the magnetic variation is equal to indicates:Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'WDrift: 6°L (left)The route followed in
65°W and if the grid variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the order to return to the VOR station is the meridian of the VOR station
different north is : used:RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has North set on the local
a) 3 geographic meridian.The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North (chart
b) 4 used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to zero meridian, Grid North in the
c) 1 direction of geographic North Pole).The correct representation of the RMI
d) 2 VOR/DME is at this moment:(the distance DME is in the box)
a) 2
b) 3
71.1.3.2 (4995)
c) 4
You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B (60°N 020°E).The gyro North
d) 1
of the gyro compass, assumed to be operating perfectly, with no rate correction
device, is aligned with the true North of point A.The constant gyro heading to be
followed when starting from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min 71.1.3.2 (5000)
with a zero wind, is equal to : The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type with its grid parallel to the
a) 076°. zero meridian, and Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole. The
b) 080°. gyro does not comprise a rate correction device.The gyro-magnetic compass of an
c) 066°. aircraft standing at an aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to free
d) 085°. gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being aligned with Grid North and the
gyro heading reading 120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 UTC.
The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, was not reset prior to take off.The
71.1.3.2 (4996)
error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will be :
A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it which is parallel to the
a) +32.5°.
meridian 054°W, with Grid North in the direction of the North geographic pole.An
b) +13°.
aircraft is following a true course of 330°.At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading
c) +73.5°.
(GH) with this system will be :
d) -32.5°.
a) 136°.
b) 276°.
c) 316°. 71.1.3.2 (5001)
d) 164°. On a polar stereographic chart where the earth convergence between 2 points
located on the parallel 60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is :
71.1.3.2 (4997)
a) 30 NM.
On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the Greenwich meridian
b) 4.0 NM.
in the direction of the true North pole, the ""true"" orientation of the great circle

415
c) 9.2 NM. 71.1.3.2 (5007)
d) 4.0 NM. Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the
tangentThe correct formula of the conversion angle applied, during a transoceanic
and polar navigation, is equal to :
71.1.3.2 (5002)
a) g/2.sin Lm
In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar stereographic chart whose
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
printed over grid is parallel with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction
c) g.sin Lm
of geographic North along this meridian.The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true
d) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
route is 110°, the grid route at this moment is :
a) 240°.
b) 060°. 71.1.3.2 (5008)
c) 110°. During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport precession is the rotation in
d) 340°. degrees of the gyro North with respect to the:
a) true North
b) grid North
71.1.3.2 (5003)
c) magnetic North
At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial systems of an aircraft flying on
d) compass North
the LONDON- ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole region. The
wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to
continue the flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure is :NOTE: 71.1.3.2 (5009)
The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar stereographic chart whose grid is During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart precession is a rotation in
parallel with the zero meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic degrees, for a moving aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
North pole. a) grid North for a given chart
a) 325°. b) grid North for any chart
b) 035°. c) true North for a given chart
c) 180°. d) true North for any chart
d) 000°.
71.1.3.2 (5010)
71.1.3.2 (5004) Astronomic precession is :
With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial Navigation System (INS), you a) existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
can read the following information :- Desired track (DTK) = 100°- Track (TK) = b) independent of the latitude
120°You can conclude that the : c) depending on the chart used
a) Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R) d) zero when the aircraft is on the ground
b) Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
c) Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course
71.1.3.2 (5011)
d) Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course
Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the
tangentThe correct formula expressing the travel precession applied during a
71.1.3.2 (5005) transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :
In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect, an aircraft a) 15°/h.sin Lm
would, at a constant gyro heading, follow a : b) g.sin Lm
a) great circle line c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
b) rhumb line d) g/2.sin Lm
c) spherical flight segment
d) straight map line
71.1.3.2 (5012)
Astronomic precession :
71.1.3.2 (5006) a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern hemisphere
Posit :g, the longitude differenceLm, the average latitudeLo, the latitude of the b) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern hemisphere
tangentThe transport precession is equal to : c) is zero at the North pole
a) g.sin Lm d) is zero at the South pole
b) 15°/h.sin Lm
c) g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
71.1.3.2 (5013)
d) g/2.sin Lm
Astronomic precession :
a) causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern hemisphere
416
b) causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern hemisphere between PARIS and WASHINGTON will be:
c) is zero at the North pole a) Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.
d) is zero at the South pole b) Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes.
c) Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.
d) Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.
71.1.3.2 (5014)
A polar track is a track part of which is included in an area where the horizontal
component of the earth magnetic field is less than : 71.1.3.3 (5020)
a) 6 micro-tesla In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) area, a pilot should
b) 17 micro-tesla first of all take the following action in the event of a failure of the last inertial
c) 38 micro tesla navigation system:
d) 10 micro-tesla a) notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
b) request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
c) set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous one.
71.1.3.3 (5015)
d) immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified special routes unless otherwise
specified, an aircraft must be equipped with at least:
a) One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS). 71.1.3.3 (5021)
b) One Inertial Navigation System (INS). A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification has to fly via the
c) Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS). SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The flight must be planned to take place :
d) Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS). a) at flight level FL 280 or less.
b) outside scheduled flight times.
c) at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.
71.1.3.3 (5016)
d) at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.
When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a domestic controlled area, the
pilot has to:
a) maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the last position shown in 71.1.3.3 (5022)
the oceanic clearance. The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
b) take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan. Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during an Eastbound flight
c) take any Mach number. normally is :
d) take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his airline. a) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
b) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
c) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
71.1.3.3 (5017)
d) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
MNPS is the abbreviation for:
a) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
b) Maximum North-atlantic Precision System. 71.1.3.3 (5023)
c) Military Network Performance Structure. The validity period of a flight track system organized in MNPS (Minimum
d) Minimum Navigation Positioning System. Navigation Performance Specification) airspace during a Westbound flight
normally is :
a) 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
71.1.3.3 (5018)
b) 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
c) 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
a) Mach number.
d) 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
b) ground speed.
c) true airspeed.
d) indicated airspeed. 71.1.3.3 (5024)
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC , you
71.1.3.3 (5019)
will then normally be :
(For this question use annex 071-2083A)In order to meet the ""twin-engine""
a) out of the organized flight track system.
flight standards authorised by the official departments of his company (1hour 45
b) within the organized daytime flight track system.
minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of 420 kt to reach the alternate
c) within the organized night-time flight track system.
aerodromes in still air conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in Minimum
d) in a random space.
Navigation Performance Specification area, while at the same time taking the
shortest possible time.Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into
account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN TORBAY, the track to be chosen
417
71.1.3.3 (5025) 71.1.3.3 (5031)
During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends from
Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC , you :
will then normally be , a) 27° North to 90° North.
a) out of the organized flight track system b) 30° North to 90° North.
b) within the organized daytime flight track system c) 27° North to 70° North.
c) within the organized night-time flight track system d) 30° North to 70° North.
d) in a random space
71.1.3.3 (5032)
71.1.3.3 (5026) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) airspace extends
The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying without vertically between flight levels:
restriction in MNPS airspace can be at the very least : a) 285 and 420.
a) Two inertial navigation units. b) 280 and 400.
b) Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA. c) 280 and 390.
c) Three inertial navigation units. d) 275 and 400.
d) One inertial navigation unit.
71.1.3.3 (5033)
71.1.3.3 (5027) In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum
The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying in MNPS airspace at the Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency for
same Mach number is : air-air communications is :
a) 10 minutes. a) 131.800 MHz.
b) 5 minutes. b) 118.800 MHz.
c) 15 minutes. c) 121.800 MHz.
d) 20 minutes. d) 128.800 MHz.

71.1.3.3 (5028) 71.1.3.3 (5034)

The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between aircraft flying in MNPS In the event of communication failure in an MNPS (Minimum Navigation
airspace is : Performance Specification) airspace, the pilot must:
a) 60 NM. a) continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic clearance received and
b) 30 NM. acknowledge by him.
c) 90 NM. b) return to his flight plan route if its different from the last oceanic clearance received and
d) 120 NM. acknowledge by him.
c) join one of the so-called ""special"" routes.
d) change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined instructions.
71.1.3.3 (5029)
During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a leading aircraft flying at
higher speed, the longitudinal spacing must be at least : 71.1.3.3 (5035)
a) 5 minutes The frequency designated for VHF air to air communications when out of range of
b) 10 minutes VHF ground stations in NAT region is :
c) 15 minutes a) 131.8 MHz.
d) 20 minutes b) 121.5 MHz.
c) 243 MHz.
d) 118.5 MHz.
71.1.3.3 (5030)
If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are unserviceable during a flight
in MNPS airspace, and if you cannot establish communication with the air traffic 71.1.3.3 (5036)
control, you : A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment during a transatlantic flight
a) take an intermediate flight level using the OTS (Organised Track System) must be done :
b) descend below the MNPS space a) At or prior entering the NAT region.
c) return to departure airport b) Prior entering the NAT region.
d) land at the nearest airport c) As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
d) When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.

418
71.1.3.3 (5037) 71.1.3.3 (5042)
If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of one of the organised An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-
tracks, the intended organised track should be defined in items of the FPL by : west north of 70°N between 10°W and 50°W, every:
a) the abbreviation ""NAT"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track. a) 20° of longitude.
b) inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message. b) 10° of longitude.
c) using the abbreviation ""OTS"" followed by the code letter assigned to the track. c) 15° of longitude.
d) inserting coordinates defining significant points with intervals of 10° of longitude. d) 5° of longitude.

71.1.3.3 (5038) 71.1.3.3 (5043)

In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate Which errors in ""estimates"" minutes shall be reported by aircraft overflying the
aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior North Atlantic?
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight a) 3 or more.
level should : b) 5 or more.
a) If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate c) 10 or more.
aerodrome. d) 2 or more.
b) If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate
aerodrome.
71.1.3.3 (5044)
c) If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
aerodrome.
a) 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
d) If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
b) 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
c) 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
71.1.3.3 (5039) d) 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate
aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior
71.1.3.3 (5045)
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to maintain its assigned flight
Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM)
level should:
is used when operating in MNPS airspace?
a) If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
a) 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
aerodrome.
b) 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
b) If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
c) 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
c) If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
d) 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
d) If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the alternate aerodrome.

71.1.3.3 (5046)
71.1.3.3 (5040)
At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used within
In the event of a contingency which required an en-route diversion to an alternate
NAT region?
aerodrome across the direction of the prevailing ""NAT"" traffic flow and if prior
a) Between FL290 and FL410.
ATC clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to maintain its assigned
b) Between FL275 and FL400.
flight level should:
c) Between FL245 and FL410.
a) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 30 NM from its
d) Below FL290.
assigned route or track.
b) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 60 NM from its assigned
route or track. 71.1.3.3 (5047)
c) Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated by 90 NM from its assigned Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in accordance with IFR when:
route or track. a) Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.
d) Descend below FL275. b) Flying above 3000 ft.
c) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within controlled airspace.
d) Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline within uncontrolled airspace.
71.1.3.3 (5041)
An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report position when flying east-west
south of 70°N between 5°W and 65°W, every: 71.1.3.3 (5048)
a) 10° of longitude. During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
b) 5° of longitude. Specification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC , you
c) 20° of longitude. will normally be :
d) 15° of longitude. a) in random airspace.
419
b) in a day flight route system. c) keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan
c) in a night flight route system. d) keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from that of the air-filed flight plan
d) out of the organised route system.
71.1.3.3 (5055)
71.1.3.3 (5049) The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to :
During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance a) the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures)
Spécification) airspace, you expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC , you b) rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
will normally be : c) rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document 7050 (North Atlantic Ocean
a) in random airspace Airspace)
b) in a day flight route system d) Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest surface area of territorial waters in
c) in a night flight route system this airspace
d) out of the organized route system
71.1.3.3 (5056)
71.1.3.3 (5050) In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical separation that can be
The abbreviation MNPS means : applied between FL 290 and FL410 inclusive is :
a) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification a) 1 000 ft
b) Main Navigation Performance Specification b) 500 ft
c) Maximum Navigation Performance Specification c) 2000ft
d) Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification d) 1 500 ft

71.1.3.3 (5051) 71.1.3.3 (5057)

Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS) airspace of the North
Atlantic is comprised within :
a) flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the pole
b) flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
c) sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole
d) flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
71.1.3.3 (5052)
Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :
a) subject to a mandatory clearance
b) subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of flight (scheduled or not)
c) not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already controlled
d) subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS Airspace is unable to
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles .... etc), but is able to
maintain its assigned level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave
its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and
maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned
route and :
a) climb or descend 500 ft
b) climb or descent 1 000 ft
c) climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft
d) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft

71.1.3.3 (5058)
71.1.3.3 (5053)
An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS Airspace is unable to continue
The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
flight in accordance with its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
Specification) airspace of a non MNPS certified aircraft is :
navigational performance requirements, mechanics troubles... etc), bus is able to
a) authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF contact with the MNPS
maintain its assigned level, and due to a total loss of communications capability,
controller
could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
b) forbidden in all cases
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever
c) authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation systems
this is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain in
d) authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the aircraft present in this space
either direction track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :
a) climb or descend 1 000 ft
71.1.3.3 (5054) b) climb or descent 500 ft
Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance c) climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft
Specification) airspace over the North Atlantic and not having yet received the d) climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
oceanic clearance, the crew :
a) carries out a holding pattern
71.1.3.3 (5059)
b) returns to base immediately
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in

420
accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level,and due to a
total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated
by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft, if :
a) at FL410
b) above FL 410
c) below FL 410
d) at FL 430
71.1.3.3 (5060)
An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to continue flight in
accordance with its air traffic control clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its assigned level, and due to a
total loss of communications capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° (90
degrees) to the right or left whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated
by 30 NM from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :
a) below FL 410
b) at FL 410
c) above FL 410
d) at FL 430
71.2.0.0 (5061)
According to the recommended ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure
A"" established in ICAO, DOC 8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft reaches :
a) 1 500 ft
b) 3 000 ft
c) 2 000 ft
d) 1 000 ft
71.2.1.0 (5062)
The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which
certain in-flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this
allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :
a) the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
b) the operator and is specified in the operation manual
c) the operator and approved by the certification authority
d) the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
71.2.1.0 (5063)
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment on which certain in-
flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this allowance can be
accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :
a) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment
List (MMEL)
b) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List
(MMEL)
c) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
d) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
71.2.1.0 (5064)
The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
a) the airline operator.
b) the manufacturer.
c) the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
d) the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.
71.2.1.0 (5065)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while taxiing to the
holding point. The reference document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is:
a) the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency Procedures"".
b) the minimum equipment list.
c) the JAR OPS.
d) the flight record.
71.2.1.0 (5066)
A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
a) the minimum equipment list.
b) the operation manual's chapter ""Abnormal and Emergency procedures"".
c) the JAR OPS.
d) the flight manual.
71.2.1.0 (5067)
The minimum equipment list of a public transport airplane is to be found in the :
a) operation manual.
b) JAR OPS.
c) flight manual.
d) flight record.
71.2.1.0 (5068)
The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is established by:
a) the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
b) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority
c) the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted by the authority
d) the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the manufacturer
71.2.1.0 (5069)
The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the additonnal procedures to be observed
accordingly. This list is prepared by:
a) the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
b) the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
c) the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
d) the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
421
71.2.2.0 (5070) stalling speed5 - a diminution of the climb gradientThe combination regrouping all
The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying under icing conditions, occurs the correct statements is :
on : a) 1, 3, 5
a) The aircraft front areas. b) 2, 4, 5
b) The upper and lower wingsurfaces. c) 1, 2, 3
c) The upper and lower rudder surfaces. d) 2, 3, 5
d) Only the pitot and static probes.
71.2.2.0 (5077)
71.2.2.0 (5071) The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft on ground will provide a :
The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather data. When do you expect a) certain time of protection depending on its concentration.
carburettor icing? b) 24 hours protection time.
a) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°CDew Point (DEWP) : +7°C c) certain time of protection independent of the outside temperature.
b) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°CDew Point (DEWP) : -5°C d) 3 hours protection time.
c) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°CDew Point (DEWP) : +5°C
d) Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°CDew point (DEWP) : -15°C
71.2.2.0 (5078)
If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure inspection reveals evidence
71.2.2.0 (5072) of freezing, the correct action is to :
If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR indications will be: a) carry out a further de-icing process
a) Greater than the actual. b) complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the possibility of further freezing
b) Less than the actual. c) switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems and leave on until clear of icing
c) Equal to the actual. conditions when airborne
d) Dependent on the temperature. d) complete departure provided that the recommended anti-icing holdover (protection) time
for the prevailing conditons and type of fluid used has not been exceeded
71.2.2.0 (5073)
In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions, the captain must check 71.2.2.0 (5079)
that: At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40
a) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may impede the airplane %, in air free of cloud, fog and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :
performance and manoeuvrability, except within the limits specified by the flight a) can occur, but only at a low power setting
manual. b) cannot occur
b) external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater than 5 mm. c) can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
c) external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid. d) is possible at any setting
d) possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and balance limits.
71.2.2.0 (5080)
71.2.2.0 (5074) For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing fluid used, in which one of
The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the: the following types of weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
a) stalling speed shortest ?
b) value of the stall angle of attack a) Freezing rain
c) tuck under b) Steady snow
d) roll rate c) Freezing fog
d) Frost
71.2.2.0 (5075)
The reference document dealing with air transport of hazardous materials is : 71.2.2.0 (5081)
a) ICAO Appendix 18 During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time
b) ICAO Appendix 8 starts:
c) the Washington Convention a) at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
d) Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957 b) at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
c) at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
d) a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
71.2.2.0 (5076)
When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing contamination by ice or frost will
cause the following effects:1 - an increase in the take-off distance2 - a diminution 71.2.2.0 (5082)
of the take-off run3 - an increase in the stalling speed4 - a diminution of the During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
422
a) the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing fluid is applied b) 1, 3, 5, 6
hot. c) 2, 3, 4, 5
b) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot. d) 1, 2, 4, 6
c) the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold.
d) the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing fluid is applied hot.
71.2.2.0 (5088)
The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and reduce considerably the
71.2.2.0 (5083) protection time:
Which of the following requirements should be met when planning a flight with a) during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft engines jet wash.
icing conditions: b) when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
a) The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection systems c) when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
b) The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising level can be initiated rapidly d) when the airplane is into the wind.
c) The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid
d) A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be performed without ice-protection
71.2.2.0 (5089)
systems
Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at take-off:
a) separate on each side of the runway.
71.2.2.0 (5084) b) stagnate on the runway.
In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-icing fluid on your airplane, c) separate to the right side.
you are waiting to take-off by:1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet d) separate to the left side.
wash of the preceding aircraft2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props
wash of the preceding aircraft 3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the
71.2.2.0 (5090)
preceding aircraft 4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the preceding
When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-icing procedure, must be
aircraft The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
protected again:
a) 1, 2
a) First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane, then apply the new layer
b) 3, 4
of anti-icing fluid.
c) 2, 3
b) You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without previous de-icing.
d) 1, 4
c) You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices before applying the new layer of
anti-icing fluid.
71.2.2.0 (5085) d) you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid is over before applying the
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure must be anti-icing fluid free new layer of anti-icing fluid.
at the latest when :
a) it is rotating (before taking-off).
71.2.2.0 (5091)
b) releasing the brakes in order to take-off.
The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure being carried out will vary
c) it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
considerbly depending on the ambient temperature and the weather conditions.
d) leaving the icing zone.
For a given ambient temperature, the longest protection will be in weather
conditions of :
71.2.2.0 (5086) a) frost
An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure and having exceeded the b) freezing fog
protection time of the anti-icing fluid: c) rain on a cold soaked wing
a) must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid d) steady snow
for take-off.
b) must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
71.2.2.0 (5092)
c) need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
For stable clouds:1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C
d) must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
and -10°C2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are between 0°C and
-15°C3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C5- the
71.2.2.0 (5087) diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and 0.03mm6- the diameter of water
The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:1. the type and intensity of droplets is between 0.004 and 0.2mmWhich of the following combinations
the showers2. the ambient temperature3. the relative humidity4. the direction and contains all the correct statements?
speed of the wind5. the temperature of the airplane skin6. the type of fluid, its a) 2001-03-05
concentration and temperatureThe combination regrouping all the correct b) 2002-04-06
statements is: c) 2002-03-05
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 d) 2001-04-06

423
71.2.3.0 (5093) a) 1,2,5
The observations and studies conducted on the behavior of birds on the ground, b) 1,2,3,4,5
ahead of an aircraft taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 kt, c) 1,3,4
show that birds fly away : d) 2,5
a) about two seconds beforehand
b) about ten seconds beforehand
71.2.3.0 (5100)
c) as soon as they hear the engines noise
You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you notice, after take-off, a flock
d) from the beginning of the takeoff roll
of birds which may present a bird strike hazard, you must:
a) immediately inform the appropriate ground station.
71.2.3.0 (5094) b) inform the other aircraft by radio.
A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk is encountered in a layer c) inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable period of time.
from : d) draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at most 48 hours.
a) from 0 to 150 m.
b) from 500 to 1200 m.
71.2.3.0 (5101)
c) from 100 to 800 m.
During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control vibrations a landing must be
d) from 200 to 500 m.
made immediately. Following this incident the pilot :
a) must file a Bird Strike report
71.2.3.0 (5095) b) must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having given no warning
90 % of bird strikes occur : c) must file a airworthiness report
a) under 500 m d) is not obliged to report this incident
b) above 1 000 m
c) between 500 and 1 000 m
71.2.4.0 (5102)
d) between 500 and 1 500 m
About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:
a) Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust .
71.2.3.0 (5096) b) They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least likely to attract flocks of c) Such procedures do not exist.
birds ? d) They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
a) long grass
b) edible rubbish
71.2.4.0 (5103)
c) an area liable to flooding
Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in the designation of a
d) short gang-mown grass
runway, under the following circumstances :1. when cross wind component,
including gust, exceeds 15 knots.2. when the tail wind component, including gust,
71.2.3.0 (5097) exceeds 5 knots.3. when the runway is not clear or dry.The combination
Which one of the following sets of conditions is most likely to attract birds to an regrouping all the correct statements is :
aerodrome ? a) 1,2,3.
a) a refuse tip in close proximity b) 1,2.
b) mowing and maintaining the grass long c) 1,3.
c) a modern sewage tip in close proximity d) 2,3.
d) the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel
71.2.4.0 (5104)
71.2.3.0 (5098) When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum height at which a power
The most efficient bird scaring technique generally available is : reduction shall be allowed is :
a) broadcasting of recorded distress calls a) 300 m (1000 ft)
b) firing shellcrackers b) 450 m (1500 ft)
c) various visual methods c) 150 m (500 ft)
d) the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc d) 600 m (2000 ft)

71.2.3.0 (5099) 71.2.4.0 (5105)

As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's means of information and Following take-off, the noise abatement climb procedures specified by the operator
prevention are:1 - ATIS.2 - NOTAMs.3 - BIRDTAMs.4 - Weather radar.5 - The report is :
by another crew.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is : a) for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.
424
b) for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport. limited to 20° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
c) different for a same airplane type, according to airports. d) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is
d) different according to airports and airplane types. limited to 28° (climbing at V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)

71.2.4.0 (5106) 71.2.5.0 (5111)

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin smoke is:
abatement purposes during instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS a) useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the breathing oxygen.
the : b) useless because the oxygen units do not operate under smoke conditions.
a) operator c) useless because breathing oxygen would explode under smoke conditions.
b) state of the operator d) possible and recommended.
c) state in which the aeroplane is operating
d) commander
71.2.5.0 (5112)
Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:
71.2.4.0 (5107) a) all available extinguishers simultaneously.
Which one of the following factors should prevent a runway being chosen as the b) all available liquids.
preferential landing runway for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological c) all available extinguishers in sequence.
condition (VMC) ? d) only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.
a) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
b) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt
71.2.5.0 (5113)
c) It has a tail wind component of any value
After a landing, with overweight and overspeed conditions, the tyres and brakes
d) It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, including gusts, of 12 kt
are extremely hot. The fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres:
a) only from front or rear side.
71.2.4.0 (5108) b) only from left or right side.
According with the ""noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B"", as c) from any side.
established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to d) under no circumstances.
20 kt, until reaching :
a) 1 000 ft
71.2.5.0 (5114)
b) 500 ft
Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for fire fighting is on board:
c) 1 500 ft
a) crash axes or crowbars.
d) 3 000 ft
b) water and all type of beverage.
c) a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools.
71.2.4.0 (5109) d) a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets.
According to the recommended noise abatement procedures contained in the
ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I part V, data available indicates that the procedure which
71.2.5.0 (5115)
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure close to the airport :
If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action to take is to :
a) is procedure B
a) Put on the mask and goggles.
b) is procedure A
b) Begin an emergency descent.
c) is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in noise distribution
c) Determine which system is causing the smoke.
d) depends on the wind component
d) Cut off all air conditioning units.

71.2.4.0 (5110)
71.2.5.0 (5116)
In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise preferential routes are
You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a
established to ensure that departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as far as practicable. In
statements is:
establishing noise preferential routes :
a) 1,2,3,4
a) no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of power associated
b) 3,4
with a noise abatement procedure.
c) 1,2,3
b) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the aeroplane has reached
d) 2,3
and can maintain throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above terrain and the
highest obstacle.
c) turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the bank angle for turns is

425
71.2.5.0 (5117) correct statements is:
You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:1. a paper fire2. a plastic fire3. a a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
hydrocarbon fire4. an electrical fireThe combination regrouping all the correct b) 1, 3, 5
statements is: c) 2, 3, 4
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 2, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3
71.2.5.0 (5124)
d) 1, 4
A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction for:1. a paper fire2. a
hydrocarbon fire3. a fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination
71.2.5.0 (5118) regrouping all the correct statements is:
The correct statement about extinguishing agents on board aeroplanes is : a) 1, 3, 5
a) Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in aeroplanes. b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) Water may only be used for minor fires. c) 2, 3, 4
c) A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit fire. d) 2, 4, 5
d) Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished by using carbon dioxide.
71.2.5.0 (5125)
71.2.5.0 (5119) You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a fire of :1 - solids (fabric,
The system which must be switched off in case of a belly compartment fire is carpet, ...)2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (sodium, ...)The
generally the : combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) ventilation of the cargo compartment a) 1
b) pressurization b) 2
c) total airconditioning c) 3
d) trim air d) 3 and 4

71.2.5.0 (5120) 71.2.5.0 (5126)

Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you should check the : You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of:1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)2 -
a) temperature of the brakes. liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...)3 - gas4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)The
b) temperature of the hydraulic fluid. combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
c) pressure of the hydraulic fluid. a) 1,2,3
d) pressure of the pneumatic tyres. b) 1,2,3,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2,4
71.2.5.0 (5121)
A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required to extinguish it. The
safest extinguishant to use is : 71.2.5.0 (5127)
a) dry powder An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire shut off-handle.The fire
b) water shut-off handle will be switched off when:
c) CO2 (carbon dioxide) a) fire is no longer detected.
d) foam b) the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
c) the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.
d) all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been triggered.
71.2.5.0 (5122)
A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a fabric fire3. an
electric fire4. a wood fire5. a hydrocarbon fireThe combination regrouping all the 71.2.5.0 (5128)
correct statements is: After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes you:
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 a) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from aft or fore.
b) 1, 3, 5 b) release the parking brake and you approach the wheels sidewards.
c) 2, 3, 4 c) apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either from fore or aft.
d) 2, 4, 5 d) apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.

71.2.5.0 (5123) 71.2.5.0 (5129)

A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:1. a paper fire2. a hydrocarbon fire3. a In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you fight the fire using:1. a dry
fabric fire4. an electrical fire5. a wood fireThe combination regrouping all the powder fire extinguisher2. a water spray atomizer3. a water fire-extinguisher4. a
426
CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximumThe combination regrouping all the correct - dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the
statements is: correct statements?
a) 1, 2 a) 2002-03-04
b) 2, 3, 4 b) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
c) 3, 4 c) 2
d) 1, 4 d) 04-Mar

71.2.5.0 (5130) 71.2.5.0 (5136)

In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you : H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
a) carry out a dry cranking. a) Class A fires
b) carry out a damp cranking. b) Class B fires
c) pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-extinguishers. c) electrical source fires
d) fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher. d) special fires: metals, gas, chemical products

71.2.5.0 (5131) 71.2.5.0 (5137)

To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use:1. a water fire-extinguisher2. a powder CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight:1 - class A fires2 - class B fires3 - electrical
or chemical fire-extinguisher3. a halon fire-extinguisher4. a CO2 fire- source fires4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical productWhich of the following
extinguisherThe combination regrouping all the correct statements is: combinations contains all the correct statements:
a) 3, 4 a) 2001-02-03
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 b) 2001-02-04
c) 1, 2 c) 2002-03-04
d) 2, 3, 4 d) 2001-03-04

71.2.5.0 (5132) 71.2.5.0 (5138)

To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold: A class A fire is a fire of:
a) you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire. a) solid material, generally of organic nature
b) Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning. b) liquid or liquefiable solid
c) Extinguish fire only. c) electrical origin
d) Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of combustible goods in an air- d) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
conditioned cargo hold is forbidden.
71.2.5.0 (5139)
71.2.5.0 (5133) A class B fire is a fire of:
A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:1- class A fires2- class B fires3- a) liquid or liquefiable solid
electrical source fires4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicalsWhich of the following b) solid material usually of organic nature
combinations contains all of the correct statements? c) electrical source fire
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 d) special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
b) 04-Fev
c) 04-Mar
71.2.6.0 (5140)
d) 2001-02-03
We would know that the automatic pressurization system has malfunctioned if :1.
threre is a change in environnemental sounds.2. the cabin barometer indicates a
71.2.5.0 (5134) sharp rise.3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the interior
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class A fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 becomes equal.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
- dry-chemical4 - halogenWhich of the following combinations contains all of the a) 1,2,3.
correct statements? b) 1,2.
a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 c) 1,3.
b) 2002-03-04 d) 2,3.
c) 1
d) 04-Mar
71.2.6.0 (5141)
An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What
71.2.5.0 (5135) is the initial action by the operating crew ?
The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class B fires are:1 - H2O2 - CO23 a) to put on oxygen masks
427
b) disconnect the autopilot altitude will the regulator supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ?
c) transmit a MAYDAY message a) 32000 ft
d) place the seat belts sign to ON b) 25000 ft
c) 14000 ft
d) 8000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5142)
When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for some considerable time a
small leak develops in the cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be 71.2.6.0 (5148)
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will indicate : The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised
a) a rate of climb aeroplanes during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall
b) a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a
c) zero minimum of X feet. That minimum of X feet is :
d) a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure a) 13000 ft
b) 14000 ft
c) 15000 ft
71.2.6.0 (5143)
d) 25000 ft
If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the differential pressure :
a) decreases
b) increases 71.2.6.0 (5149)
c) remains constant The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an
d) attains its maximum permitted operating limit altitude of 40 000 ft is:
a) 12 seconds.
b) 30 seconds.
71.2.6.0 (5144)
c) 1 minute.
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum differential pressure is limited
d) 5 minutes.
to 3 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum
achievable flight altitude is approximately :
a) 24500 ft 71.2.6.0 (5150)
b) 22500 ft During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 (FL 370), your first action
c) 27000 ft will be :
d) 29000 ft a) to put on the oxygen mask
b) to set the transponder to 7700
c) to warn the ATC
71.2.6.0 (5145)
d) to comfort your passengers
(For this question use annex 071-10645A)Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the
maximum differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the oxygen masks will
be deployed at 14000 feet, the maximum achievable flight altitude is 71.2.6.0 (5151)
approximately : A fast decompression is recognizable by the following elements:1. mist in the
a) 20750 ft cabin2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft3. expansion of body gases4. blast
b) 12000 ft of air released violently from the lungsThe combination regrouping all the correct
c) 8600 ft statements is:
d) 2900 ft a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
71.2.6.0 (5146)
d) 1, 4
Following an explosive decompression, the maximum altitude without oxygen at
which flying efficiency is not impaired is :
a) 8000 ft 71.2.6.0 (5152)
b) 25000 ft A slow decompression may be caused by:1. a slight airtightness defect2. a bad
c) 14000 ft functioning of the pressurization3. the loss of a window4. the loss of a doorThe
d) 2500 ft combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
71.2.6.0 (5147)
c) 3, 4
Following an explosive decompression, if you are using an oxygen diluter demand
d) 1, 2, 3
system, the regulator controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure oxygen
when the supply selector is at the ""normal"" position. At what approximate
428
71.2.7.0 (5153) 71.2.7.0 (5158)
In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you will:1. set the maximum After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing head wind.
take-off thrust2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating the stick In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the climb-out path2-
shaker3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)4. keep the airplane's current flies below the climb-out path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a decreasing
configuration5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratioThe combination true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :
regrouping all the correct statements is: a) 2,4.
a) 1, 2, 4 b) 2,3.
b) 1, 3, 5 c) 1,3.
c) 2, 3 d) 1,4.
d) 3, 5
71.2.7.0 (5159)
71.2.7.0 (5154) In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust or strong down wind
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing which forces you to go around. You1- maintain the same aircraft configuration
head wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1. flies above the glide (gear and flaps)2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)3- gradually increase the
path2. flies below the glide path3. has an increasing true airspeed4. has a attitude up to triggering of stick shaker4- avoid excessive attitude changeThe
decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is : combination of correct statements is :
a) 2,4 a) 1,3
b) 2,3 b) 1,4
c) 1,3 c) 2,3
d) 1,4 d) 2,4

71.2.7.0 (5155) 71.2.7.0 (5160)

During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the aircraft tends :
increasing tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the a) to descend
glide path2- flies below the gilde path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a b) to climb
decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is : c) not to change its trajectory
a) 2,4. d) to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
b) 2,3.
c) 1,3.
71.2.7.0 (5161)
d) 1,4.
One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it :
a) can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal planes
71.2.7.0 (5156) b) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the vertical plane
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with an c) occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the horizontal plane
increasing head wind.In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above d) can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
the glide path2- flies below theglide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a
decreasing true airspeedThe combination of correct statements is :
71.2.7.0 (5162)
a) 1,3.
Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first to change its value when
b) 1,4.
penetrating a windshear ?
c) 2,3.
a) Indicated airspeed.
d) 2,4.
b) Pitch angle.
c) Vertical speed.
71.2.7.0 (5157) d) Groundspeed.
During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to windshear with a decreasing
tail wind. In the absence of a pilot action, the aircraft :1- flies above the glide
71.2.7.0 (5163)
path2- flies below the glide path3- has an increasing true airspeed4- has a
While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of a transport aircraft
decreasing true airspeedthe combination of correct statements is :
notices a fast and high increase in the indicated airspeed without any change in
a) 1,3.
the preselected engine and attitude parameters. The preceding crews had reported
b) 1,4.
the occurrence of windshears in final phase. you must :
c) 2,3.
a) maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive speed deviation,
d) 2,4.
monitor the speed evolution.
b) reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.

429
c) take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back to glide path from above. a) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a short
d) reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs and try a precision landing. distance
b) a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
c) a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
71.2.7.0 (5164)
d) a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction over a large distance
While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs you about the presence of
a ""microburst"". You will expect to encounter:
a) windshears (vertical and horizontal). 71.2.8.0 (5170)
b) wake turbulence . In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off aircraft:
c) supercooled water. a) The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
d) convection motion of air mass. b) The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
c) The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
d) The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
71.2.7.0 (5165)
If you encounter a ""microburst"" just after taking-off, at the beginning you will
have:1 - a head wind2 - a strong rear wind3 - better climb performances4 - a 71.2.8.0 (5171)
diminution of climb gradient5 - an important thrust dropThe combination In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds at :
regrouping all the correct statements is : a) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric
a) 1,3 pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
b) 2,4 b) low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
c) 1,4 decreases by a few hectopascals.
d) 4,5 c) high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
increases by a few hectopascals.
d) low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and the atmospheric pressure
71.2.7.0 (5166)
decreases by a few hectopascals.
Windshear may be described as a change in wind direction and/or speed in space,
including updraughts and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear the
amount of control action that is required is : 71.2.8.0 (5172)
a) substantial The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the generating aircraft is :
b) small a) Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
c) medium b) Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
d) null c) Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration
d) Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration
71.2.7.0 (5167)
In the ""worst case"" scenario of recovery from the effects of a microburst, having 71.2.8.0 (5173)
increased to full go-around power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a larger aircraft, the pilot should
necessary to : manoeuver :
a) increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold at slightly below a) Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
this angle b) Above and downwind from the larger aircraft
b) climb away at Vat + 20 kt c) Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
c) reduce speed to V2 and hold d) Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
d) slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of climb
71.2.8.0 (5174)
71.2.7.0 (5168) The wake turbulence is the most severe when the aircraft is :1. slow2. heavy3. in a
An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while making its way towards clean configuration4. flying with a high thrustThe combination of correct
the centre of a microburst may expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a statement is:
windshear of : a) 1, 2, 3
a) 80 kt. b) 1, 4
b) 40 kt. c) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 60 kt. d) 2, 3, 4
d) 20 kt.
71.2.8.0 (5175)
71.2.7.0 (5169) The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
Wind shear is: a) high weight and low speed
430
b) high weight and high speed you adopt a path, whenever possible :
c) low weight and low speed a) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left of and above its
d) low weight and high speed path.
b) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right of and under its path.
c) identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
71.2.8.0 (5176)
d) distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path.
The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the result of:1. An
aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).2. The engines action (propellers rotation
or engine gas exhausts).3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the landing 71.2.8.0 (5182)
gear, of the flaps, etc.).The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake created by a wide-body
a) 1. aircraft during take-off is about:
b) 3. a) 3 minutes.
c) 2 and 3. b) 30 seconds.
d) 1, 2 and 3. c) 1 minute.
d) 10 minutes.
71.2.8.0 (5177)
Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence appear as soon as the 71.2.8.0 (5183)
following is established : The wake turbulence:
a) lift a) starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's wheels touch the
b) drag ground.
c) spin up b) starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and stops as soon as it has come to
d) lift destruction a stop at landing.
c) starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the ground and stops when it
crosses this height before landing.
71.2.8.0 (5178)
d) starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when rectracting the drag devices.
Wake turbulence risk is highest :
a) when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a closely situated parallel
runway with a light crosswind. 71.2.8.0 (5184)
b) if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at the same runway with heavy An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
crosswind. a) generating lift.
c) following a preceding aircraft at high speed. b) flying at high speed.
d) when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust just prior to take off. c) using a high engine R.P.M.
d) flying with its gear and flaps extended.
71.2.8.0 (5179)
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar 71.2.8.0 (5185)
separation distance if a heavy aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ? a) from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
a) 7.4 km (4 NM) b) clockwise.
b) 9.3 km (5 NM) c) counterclockwise.
c) 11.1 km (6 NM) d) from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
d) 3.7 km (2 NM)
71.2.8.0 (5186)
71.2.8.0 (5180) When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just landed, you should take-
When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the right off :
side, you adopt a path, whenever possible : a) beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
a) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the right of and above its b) in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down.
path. c) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down and on the wind side of the
b) distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left of and under its path. runway .
c) identical to the one of the preceding airplane. d) at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the ground and on the underwind
d) different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it and under its path. side of the runway .

71.2.8.0 (5181) 71.2.8.0 (5187)

When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind coming from the left side, For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar
431
separation distance and minimum time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 b) 1 MIN
kg and more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy aeroplane on the c) 2 MIN
approach to the same runway ? d) 4 MIN
a) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
b) 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
71.2.8.0 (5193)
c) 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
d) 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
of 3 minutes shall be applied :
a) to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part
71.2.8.0 (5188) of parallel runway separated by less 760 m
For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the ICAO minimum radar b) to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft arrival when operating on a
separation time if a light aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium runway with a desplaced landing threshold
aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg) on the approach to c) to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft departure when operating on a
landing ? runway with a desplaced landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected to cross
a) 3 minutes d) Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a missed approach and the LIGHT
b) 4 minutes aircraft utilizing an opposite-direction runway for take-off
c) 5 minutess
d) 2 minutes
71.2.8.0 (5194)
According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima of 2
71.2.8.0 (5189) minutes shall be applied to :
In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, which letter should be a) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
entered into a flight plan to denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than b) MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from an intermediate part of a parallel
136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg : separated by less than 760 m
a) M c) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an intermediate part of the same
b) H runway
c) L d) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
d) S
71.2.8.0 (5195)
71.2.8.0 (5190) In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM and a LIGHT aircraft are
For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the minimum separation using the same runway, or parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in
time that is permitted when a light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied a wake turbulence radar
from an intermediate part of the same runway ? separation minima of :
a) 3 minutes a) 5 NM
b) 4 minutes b) 4 NM
c) 5 minutes c) 3 NM
d) 2 minutes d) 2 NM

71.2.8.0 (5191) 71.2.8.0 (5196)

Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :
a) a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the same runway, a
light crosswind condition exist and all high-lift devices are being used.
b) when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has landed with a strong crosswind
on a long runway.
c) during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.
d) a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll rate rolling manoeuvres over the
runway.
According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-radar separation minima
of 3 minutes shall be applied to :
a) LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
b) LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a parallel runway separated by
less than 760 m. (using whole runway)
c) LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when aircraft are using the same
runway
d) MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft

71.2.8.0 (5192) 71.2.8.0 (5197)

When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, the wake turbulence According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence radar separation minima of
non-radar minimum time approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO), 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be applied when a :
shall be : a) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less
a) 3 MIN than 300 m (1 000.ft)

432
b) LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m d) the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is operating at the time of the
(1 000 ft) unlawful interference
c) HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300 m
(1 000 ft)
71.2.9.0 (5203)
d) MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the same altitude or less than 300
Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures for the safety of passengers
n (1 000 ft)
and crew of an aircraft which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference until
their journey can be continued ? The :
71.2.8.0 (5198) a) contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence separation minima shall be b) J.A.A.
based on a grouping of aircraft types into three categories according to the c) Commander of the aircraft
maximum certificated take-off mass.Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of : d) aeroplane's operator
a) 136 000 Kg or more
b) 135 000 Kg or more
71.2.9.0 (5204)
c) less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg
What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which
d) 146 000 Kg or more
is being subjected to unlawful interference :
a) code 7500
71.2.9.0 (5199) b) code 7600
What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft that is subject to unlawful c) code 7700
interference (hijacked) is : d) code 2000
a) 7500
b) 7600
71.2.9.0 (5205)
c) 7700
The flight deck door should be capable of being :
d) 7800
a) locked from within the compartment
b) directly locked from outside the compartment
71.2.9.0 (5200) c) remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment
In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a bomb on board a pressurized d) remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment
aircraft and disregarding any fuel considerations:
a) you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude or
71.2.9.0 (5206)
the safety altitude if higher and take preventive steps by putting yourself in a
According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial transport passenger airplane is
landing approach configuration.
equipped with a door in the flight crew compartment area, this door must include:
b) you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety altitude.
a) a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
c) you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need the use of pressurization.
b) a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the cockpit.
d) you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated cabin altitude and keep the
c) distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the access area (in case of a blocked
airplane in a clean configuration until the final approach.
door).
d) a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as possible of the pressure in the
71.2.9.0 (5201) cockpit in case of a depressurization in the compartment area.
In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are known to be on board an
aircraft, the State of the country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of
71.2.9.0 (5207)
unlawful interference must immediately notify the :
In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :
a) State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and ICAO
a) 7500
b) State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A.
b) 7600
c) State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO
c) 7700
d) State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator only
d) 2000

71.2.9.0 (5202)
71.2.10.0 (5208)
Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aeroplane, to whom the
The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts fastened,
commander should submit a report of the act to :
a) head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh.
a) both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the operator
b) head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front of you.
b) the local authority only
c) head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.
c) the Autority of the State of the operator only
d) cross the arm in front of the face.

433
71.2.10.0 (5209) shown by actual demonstration that the maximum seating capacity, including the
An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe approach, it is necessary to : required number of crew members, can be evacuated from the aeroplane to the
a) increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift by deteriorating the ground in :
boundary layer a) 90 seconds
b) reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be very slippery on landing b) 132 seconds
c) maintain the normal approach speed up to landing c) 120 seconds
d) carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid exposing too much lifting surface to d) 60 seconds
the rain
71.2.10.0 (5215)
71.2.10.0 (5210) The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
Following an emergency landing which will need an escape from the aircraft, you a) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no
will:1 - remain on the runway,2 - clear the runway using the first available injuries on board or on the surface
taxiway,3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to maintain the electrical b) a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
power supply on,4 - turn off all systems.The combination regrouping all the correct c) a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft
statements is: and its occupants
a) 1,4. d) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on
b) 1,3. board
c) 2,3.
d) 2,4.
71.2.11.0 (5216)
A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel jettisoning system in
71.2.10.0 (5211) order to reduce the aircraft weight in an emergency :
The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in the travelling direction, in a) unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements : 2.7% in approach
case of an emergency landing are: 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,2. configuration with 1 engine inoperative and 3.2% in landing configuration with all
head resting against the back of the front seat,3. forearms on the armrests,4. seat engines operative
belt very tightly fastened,5. head resting on the forearms.The combination b) until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing and landing gear constraints
regrouping all the correct statements is: at landing touchdown
a) 1, 4, 5 c) in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in less than 15 minutes after
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 activation of the jettisoning system
c) 2, 3, 4 d) in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the effective runway length
d) 2, 4, 5
71.2.11.0 (5217)
71.2.10.0 (5212) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be better to do so:
Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterize: a) in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
a) a fast depressurization. b) in a holding stack, after control clearance.
b) a slow depressurization. c) under flight level 50 (FL50).
c) an electrical fire. d) during final phase of approach.
d) a plastic fire.
71.2.11.0 (5218)
71.2.10.0 (5213) In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be capable of jettisoning
In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :1. evacuate women and children sufficient fuel to meet the precise climb and discontinued approach requirements :
first.2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.3. prevent passenger a) 15 minutes
movements which may impede the airplane's flotation ability.4. ensure the b) 30 minutes
complete evacuation of the airplane.The combination regrouping all the correct c) 60 minutes
statements is: d) 90 minutes
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3
71.2.11.0 (5219)
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
From the following list :1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from
d) 1, 4
fire hazard2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane3. Fuel fumes do
not enter any part of the aeroplane4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely
71.2.10.0 (5214) affect the controllability of the aeroplane.Which of the above are requirements
For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than 44 passengers, it must be that must be shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :

434
a) 1,2,3 and 4 c) AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
b) 1,3 and 4 d) air carrier certificate.
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3
71.2.12.0 (5226)
(For this question use annex 071-9199A)Considering the two holds of an aircraft
71.2.12.0 (5220) :Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate freight pallets or luggage
Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or containers.You are asked to load :2 pallets of live animals marked ""AVI""2
materials in question are defined as such by: luggage containers marked ""BAG""1 mortal remains marked ""HUM""1 pallet of
a) The ICAO document entitled ""Technical Instructions for the safe transport of food product marked ""EAT""1 pallet of radioactive materials marked ""RRY""1
dangerous goods by air"". pallet of toxic materials marked ""RHF""The locations still vacant shall be marked
b) The UNO document entitled ""Dangerous Goods Regulations"". ""XXX""According to the table of compatibility of special freight and hazardous
c) The directives of the Community Union. materials given in the appendix, the most operational distribution in the holds shall
d) The IATA document entitled ""Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods be :
by air"". a) Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRYHold 2 : AVI - AVI - BAG - EAT
b) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHFHold 2 : BAG - AVI - AVI - HUM
c) Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVI - AVIHold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHF
71.2.12.0 (5221)
d) Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUMHold 2 : AVI - AVI - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked)
Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not
prohibited?
a) The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods. 71.2.12.0 (5227)
b) The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items. ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) Appendix 18 is a document
c) The operator. dealing with :
d) It is not specified. a) the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
b) the air transport of live animals
c) the noise pollution of aircraft
71.2.12.0 (5222)
d) the technical operational use of aircraft
A list of dangerous goods, which may not be transported by air, can be found in :
a) the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous goods by air.
b) Annex 18 to the Chicago convention. 71.2.12.0 (5228)
c) Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention. In the hazardous materials transportation act, the freight compliance with the
d) the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods. regulatory arrangements is the responsibility of the :
a) sender.
b) captain.
71.2.12.0 (5223)
c) station manager.
The dangerous goods transport document, if required, shall be drawn up by :
d) aerodrome manager.
a) the shipper.
b) the operator.
c) the captain. 71.2.12.0 (5229)
d) the handling agent. The information concerning dangerous products that passengers may carry, are
listed in the :
a) ICAO document named ""Technical safety instructions for the air transportation
71.2.12.0 (5224)
of dangerous products""
In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry hazardous materials on board a
b) aircraft's flight manual.
public transport airplane, they must be accompanied with a :
c) IATA document ""Dangerous products transportation"".
a) transport document for hazardous materials.
d) JAR-OPS documentation.
b) representative of the company owning the materials.
c) specialized handling employee.
d) system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal increase in temperature. 71.2.12.0 (5230)
A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:1. on himself/herself2. in his/her
hand luggage3. in his/her checked luggageThe combination regrouping all the
71.2.12.0 (5225)
correct statements is:
The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of
a) 1
hazardous materials are specified in the :
b) 1, 2, 3
a) operation manual.
c) 1, 2
b) flight manual.
d) 2, 3

435
71.2.12.0 (5231) b) aircraft's weight.
In addition to the languages required by the State of Origin, what language should c) strength of the headwind.
be set for the markings related to dangerous goods : d) amount of the lift off speed.
a) English
b) French
71.2.13.0 (5238)
c) Spanish
If airworthiness documents do not shown any additionnal correction factor for
d) English, French or Spanish
landing performance determination on a wet runway, the landing distance shall be
increased by:
71.2.12.0 (5232) a) 15%.
From the following list :1. Fire extinguishers2. Portable oxygen supplies3. First-aid b) 20%.
kits4. Passenger meals5. Alcoholic beveragesWhich are classed as Dangerous c) 10%.
Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with relevant JAR's d) 5%.
for operating reasons :
a) 1,2 and 3 only
71.2.13.0 (5239)
b) 1,2 and 5 only
For a given aircraft and runway contamination, increased pressure altitude will:
c) 3,4 and 5 only
a) increases the hydroplaning speed.
d) 2,3 and 4 only
b) decreases the hydroplaning speed.
c) maintains the hydroplaning speed.
71.2.12.0 (5233) d) maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.
The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:
a) air carrier certificate.
71.2.13.0 (5240)
b) registration certificate.
Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is covered with a thin film of
c) airworthiness certificate.
water and:
d) insurance certificate.
a) is very smooth and dirty.
b) is very smooth and clean.
71.2.12.0 (5234) c) is rough textured.
(For this question use appendix )If a packet is marked with the label shown in the d) the tyre treads are not in a good state.
appendix it is :
a) a toxic material or gas
71.2.13.0 (5241)
b) a corpse
The touch down areas located at both ends of the runways are typical for the
c) an infectious material
appearance of:
d) an explosive material
a) viscous hydroplaning.
b) dynamic hydroplaning.
71.2.12.0 (5235) c) rubber reversion hydroplaning.
Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that: d) rubber steaming hydroplaning.
a) the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
b) national aviation administration permission has been granted
71.2.13.0 (5242)
c) government permission has been granted
A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be:
d) no passenger is carried on the same flight
a) contaminated.
b) wet.
71.2.12.0 (5236) c) flooded.
(For this question use appendix )For the two labels represented in the appendix, d) damp.
the principal and secondary risks are respectively:
a) toxic material, corrosive
71.2.13.0 (5243)
b) corrosive material, toxic
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:1. it is covered with a quantity
c) corrosive material, infectious
of water or loose or slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3 mm of
d) infectious material, corrosive
water.2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify its colour but does
not give it a shiny appearance.3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to
71.2.13.0 (5237) make it reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of water.4. it bears
The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends primarily on the : stagnant sheets of water.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) depth of the standing water on the runway. a) 1, 3
436
b) 1, 2, 3 a) 1 and 2.
c) 1, 2 b) 1 and 4.
d) 4 c) 2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5244)
In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain :1. you increase your 71.2.13.0 (5249)
approach speed,2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the wheels For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
with the runway and immediately land your nose gear,3. you decrease your hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
approach speed,4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,5. you land as grooves.2- speed is greater than 96 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the
smoothly as possible,6. you brake energically.The combination regrouping all the depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 127 kt.The combination
correct statements is : regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1, 2, 4 a) 1 and 2.
b) 3, 5 b) 1 and 4.
c) 2, 3, 4 c) 2 and 3.
d) 1, 4, 5, 6 d) 3 and 4.

71.2.13.0 (5245) 71.2.13.0 (5250)

The braking efficiency is a piece of information presenting itself in the form of a : For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
a) combination of the terms: poor, medium, good. hydroplaning as soon as :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
b) percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %. grooves.2- speed is greater than 132 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the
c) zero followed by two decimals. depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 117 kt.The combination
d) letter falling between A and E. regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5246)
c) 2 and 3.
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
d) 3 and 4.
hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves.2- speed is greater than 123 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the
depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 95 kt.The combination 71.2.13.0 (5251)
regrouping all the correct statements is: The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is :
a) 1 and 2. a) 24 hours
b) 1 and 4. b) 12 hours
c) 3 and 4. c) 6 hours
d) 2 and 3. d) 3 hours

71.2.13.0 (5247) 71.2.13.0 (5252)

For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves.2- speed is greater than 114 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the
depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 83 kt.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is :
a) 1 and 2.
b) 1 and 4.
c) 2 and 3.
d) 3 and 4.
71.2.13.0 (5248)
For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is a risk of dynamic
hydroplaning as soon as the :1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre
grooves.2- speed is greater than 104 kt.3- water height is equal to the half of the
depth of the tyre grooves.4- speed is greater than 96 kt.The combination
regrouping all the correct statements i :
Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an aeroplane's mainwheel tyre
pressure is 206 psi., the approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
a) 129 kt
b) 114 kt
c) 100 kt
d) 80 kt
71.2.13.0 (5253)
Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a runway in metres. If this is
less than the published length, how is this reported :
a) in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a SNOWTAM
b) it is not reported
c) by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the lenght in metres
d) as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as the final item of a SNOWTAM

437
71.2.13.0 (5254) c) (I) increase, (II) decrease.
A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a SNOWTAM is : d) (I) increase, (II) decrease.
a) poor
b) unreliable
81.1.1.1 (5260)
c) medium
The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are:
d) good
a) (I) kg / m3, (II) N.
b) (I) kg / m², (II) kg.
71.2.13.0 (5255) c) (I) N / m3, (II) N.
In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: d) (I) N / kg, (II) kg.
a) its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not give it a shiny
appearance.
81.1.1.1 (5261)
b) surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance.
The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic pressure q are:
c) it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm.
a) (I) N / m², (II) N / m².
d) it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.
b) (I) N / m3, (II) kg / m².
c) (I) kg / m, (II) N / m².
71.2.13.0 (5256) d) (I) N / m, (II) kg.
Your flight manual does not include specific supplementary information on landing
distances on wet runways and the service bulletins or weather reports indicate
81.1.1.1 (5262)
that the runway may be wet at the estimated time of arrival. The required landing
Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force (F),
distance on a dry runway must be increased by:
acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
a) 15%
a) F=m. a
b) 18%
b) m=F.a
c) 20%
c) a=F. m
d) 17,60%
d) F=m / a

71.2.13.0 (5257)
81.1.1.1 (5263)
In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated when more than 25 % of
The static pressure is acting:
the required runway surface is covered with the one of the following elements:1. a
a) in all directions.
water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny appearance to the runway.2. a water
b) only in direction of the flow.
film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to more than 3 mm of water.3. compacted
c) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
snow (a solid mass which may not be compacted further).4. ice, including wet
d) only in the direction of the total pressure.
ice.5. moist grass.The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4 81.1.1.1 (5264)
c) 1, 3, 4 Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the stream in the tube is V. An
d) 1, 3, 4, 5 increase of temperature of the stream at constant value of V will:
a) decrease the mass flow.
b) increase the mass flow.
71.2.13.0 (5258)
c) not affect the mass flow.
The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 bars. The speed at which
d) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.
the hydroplaning phenomenon will appear is approximately:
a) 112 kt
b) 56 kt 81.1.1.1 (5265)
c) 87 kt Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's theorem is correct?
d) 145 kt a) The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
b) The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
c) The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is zero.
81.1.1.1 (5259)
d) The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the streamlines converge, in
this part of the pattern, the static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... :
a) (I) decrease, (II) increase. 81.1.1.1 (5266)
b) (I) increase, (II) increase. In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines converge the static
pressure will :

438
a) decrease. 81.1.1.1 (5273)
b) increase. The difference between IAS and TAS will:
c) not change. a) decrease at decreasing altitude.
d) increase initially, then decrease. b) increase at decreasing temperature.
c) increase at increasing air density.
d) decrease at increasing speed.
81.1.1.1 (5267)
Bernoulli's equation can be written as:(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and
q=dynamic pressure) 81.1.1.1 (5274)
a) pt = ps + q What is the unit of measurement for power ?
b) pt = ps - q a) Nm/s
c) pt = q - ps b) kgm/s²
d) pt = ps / q c) Pa/m²
d) N/m
81.1.1.1 (5268)
The unit of density is: 81.1.1.1 (5275)
a) kg/m³ The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed in the SI-system as :
b) psi a) Newton
c) kg/cm² b) Pascal
d) Bar c) Joule
d) Watt
81.1.1.1 (5269)
The unit of measurement of pressure is: 81.1.1.1 (5276)
a) psi The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is increasing, the speed of the
b) kg/m³ subsonic and incompressible flow inside is
c) lb/gal a) decreasing.
d) kg/dm² b) not changing.
c) increasing.
d) sonic.
81.1.1.1 (5270)
The total pressure is:
a) static pressure plus the dynamic pressure. 81.1.1.1 (5277)
b) static pressure minus the dynamic pressure. If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density (rho) if
c) ½ rho V² the cross sectional area of a tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and
d) can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream. incompressible flow)
a) rho1 = rho2
b) rho1 < rho2
81.1.1.1 (5271)
c) rho1 > rho2
The (subsonic) static pressure:
d) The density depends on the change of the tube area.
a) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
b) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
c) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero. 81.1.1.1 (5278)
d) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases. Bernoulli's equation can be written as :(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q
= dynamic pressure)
a) pt - q = ps
81.1.1.1 (5272)
b) pt = ps - q
The true airspeed (TAS) is:
c) pt + ps = q
a) lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions and altitudes below
d) pt = q - ps
sea level.
b) higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane.
c) equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level. 81.1.1.1 (5279)
d) lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the aeroplane. Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a sub-sonic airflow are
correct?1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are
equal.2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the throat are equal.
a) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
439
b) 1 and 2 are correct. b) bottom surface and the horizontal
c) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect. c) bottom surface and the relative airflow.
d) 1 and 2 are incorrect. d) bottom surface and the chord line.

81.1.1.3 (5280) 81.1.1.4 (5287)

The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the chord line of an aerofoil is: The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is the angle between :
a) angle of attack. a) the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.
b) glide path angle. b) the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
c) climb path angle. c) the fuselage core line and the free stream direction.
d) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis. d) the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.

81.1.1.3 (5281) 81.1.1.4 (5288)

Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch moment when Cl=0 is: The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the chord line is the:
a) negative (pitch-down). a) angle of incidence.
b) equal to zero. b) glide path angle.
c) infinite c) angle of attack.
d) positive (pitch-up). d) climb path angle.

81.1.1.3 (5282) 81.1.1.4 (5289)

On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which Cl=0 is: The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is defined as:
a) zero a) the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative
b) equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack. wind/airflow.
c) positive (pitch-up) b) the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon.
d) negative (pitch-down) c) the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing
d) the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
81.1.1.3 (5283)
Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the: 81.1.1.4 (5290)
a) relative wind/airflow. Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of attack?
b) chord line. a) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
c) horizon. b) for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal to 0
d) longitudinal axis. c) for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
d) for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0
81.1.1.3 (5284)
The correct drag formula is: 81.1.1.4 (5291)
a) D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:
b) D= CD 2 RHO V² S a) % chord.
c) D= CD 1/2 RHO V S b) camber.
d) D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S c) meters.
d) degrees cross section tail angle.
81.1.1.3 (5285)
Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively parallel to the 81.1.1.4 (5292)
a) relative wind/airflow. ""A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway between the upper and
b) chord line. lower surface of a aerofoil"". This definition is applicable for :
c) longitudinal axis. a) the camber line
d) horizon. b) the chord line
c) the mean aerodynamic chord line
d) the upper camber line
81.1.1.4 (5286)
The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of an aerofoil is the angle
between the: 81.1.1.4 (5293)
a) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow. The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the angle between :

440
a) The undisturbed airflow and the chordline. 81.1.2.2 (5300)
b) The local airflow and the mean camberline. Which statement is correct?
c) The local airflow and the chordline. a) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing's profile
d) The undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline. moves downwards.
b) The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading edge where the airflow splits up.
c) The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.
81.1.1.5 (5294)
d) The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the centre of pressure is not.
The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of any planform is
a) the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift
b) the chord of a large rectangular wing 81.1.2.4 (5301)
c) the average chord of the actual aeroplane The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
d) the wing area divided by the wing span a) the centre of pressure.
b) the c.g. location.
c) the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
81.1.1.5 (5295)
d) the suction point of the wing.
The aspect ratio of the wing:
a) is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord.
b) is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord. 81.1.2.4 (5302)
c) is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span. The location of the centre of pressure of a positive cambered wing at increasing
d) is the ratio between chord and root chord. angle of attack will:
a) shift forward.
b) not shift.
81.1.1.5 (5296)
c) shift aft.
Dihedral of the wing is:
d) shift in spanwise direction.
a) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.
b) the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.
c) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the vertical axis. 81.1.2.5 (5303)
d) the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the horizon. Lift is generated when:
a) a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards.
b) the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered.
81.1.2.0 (5297)
c) an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream.
(For this question use annex 081-6253A)How are the speeds (shown in the figure)
d) a certain mass of air is retarded.
at point 1 and point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
a) V1 = 0 and V2 > V
b) V1 < V2 and V2 < V 81.1.2.5 (5304)
c) V1 = 0 and V2 = V The lift force, acting on an aerofoil :
d) V1 > V2 and V2 < V a) is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
b) increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
c) is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
81.1.2.0 (5298)
d) is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a positive angle of attack. At which
location will the highest flow velocities occur ?
a) Upper side 81.1.2.7 (5305)
b) Lower side On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic airflow, at low angle of
c) In front of the stagnation point attack, when the angle of attack is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a
d) In the stagnation point conventional transport aeroplane) :
a) move forward.
b) move aft.
81.1.2.2 (5299)
c) remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.
With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will move (I) ...and the point
d) remain unaffected.
of lowest pressure will move (II) ...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
a) (I) down, (II) forward.
b) (I) up, (II) aft. 81.1.3.1 (5306)
c) (I) down, (II) aft. The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil intersects with the vertical axis
d) (I) up, (II) forward. of the Cl - alpha graph:
a) above the origin.
b) in the origin.
441
c) below the origin. 81.1.3.2 (5313)
d) nowhere. A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream velocity increases by a factor
4. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
a) 16 .
81.1.3.1 (5307)
b) 4 .
The lift formula is:
c) 8 .
a) L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S
d) 12 .
b) L= W
c) L= CL 2 RHO V² S
d) L= n W 81.1.3.2 (5314)
A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of the airstream decreases to
half of the original value. The aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor :
81.1.3.1 (5308)
a) 2 .
The terms ""q"" and ""S"" in the lift formula are:
b) 4 .
a) dynamic pressure and the area of the wing
c) 8 .
b) square root of surface and wing loading
d) 1.4 .
c) static pressure and wing surface area
d) static pressure and dynamic pressure
81.1.3.2 (5315)
Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at normal angle of attack:
81.1.3.1 (5309)
a) CL is much greater than CD
The critical angle of attack:
b) CL has approximately the same value as CD
a) remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
c) CL is lower than CD
b) increases if the CG is moved forward
d) CL is much lower than CD
c) decreases if the CG is moved aft
d) changes with an increase in gross weight
81.1.3.2 (5316)
The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation between :
81.1.3.1 (5310)
a) CL and CD
An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal flight at the same angle of
b) TAS and stall speed
attack at two different altitudes. (all other factors of importance being constant,
c) Angle of attack and CL
assume ISA conditions and no compressibility effects)
d) CD and angle of attack
a) the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
b) the TAS at both altitudes is the same
c) the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determined 81.1.3.2 (5317)
d) the TAS at the higher altitude is lower The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:
a) depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross section.
b) are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.
81.1.3.1 (5311)
c) are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack.
(For this question use annex 081-6261A)Which point shown in the figure
d) vary linearly with the angle of attack.
corresponds with CL for minimum horizontal flight speed?
a) Point d
b) Point a 81.1.3.2 (5318)
c) Point b The aerofoil polar is:
d) Point c a) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient.
b) a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the angle of attack.
c) the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.
81.1.3.2 (5312)
d) a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given as a function of the chord.
The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends amongst
others on:
a) The airstream velocity. 81.1.3.2 (5319)
b) The specific mass of the body. The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a factor 3.
c) The weight of the body. The shape will not alter. The aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
d) The c.g. location of the body. a) 3 .
b) 9 .
c) 6 .
d) 1.5 .
442
81.1.3.2 (5320) a) decrease.
Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the following effect on the drag of b) increase.
an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant) : c) remain the same.
a) The drag increases. d) increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
b) This has no effect.
c) The drag decreases.
81.1.4.2 (5327)
d) The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight at
constant weight varies linearly with:
81.1.3.2 (5321) a) 1/V²
Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on the drag of an aeroplane b) V²
(angle of attack, OAT and TAS are constant): c) V
a) The drag increases. d) 1/V
b) This has no effect.
c) The drag decreases.
81.1.4.2 (5328)
d) The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by:
a) aeroplane weight.
81.1.3.2 (5322) b) aeroplane wing location.
Which statement is correct? The lift to drag ratio provides directly the c) angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line.
a) glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind. d) engine thrust.
b) glide distance from a given altitude.
c) distance for horizontal flight.
81.1.4.2 (5329)
d) distance for climb up to a certain altitude.
Which of the following will reduce induced drag?
a) Elliptical lift distribution.
81.1.4.1 (5323) b) Low aspect ratio.
The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between the air pressure on top c) Flying at high angles of attack.
and beneath the wing and its direction of movement goes from : d) Extending the flaps.
a) beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
b) the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge
81.1.4.2 (5330)
c) beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
Induced drag is created by the:
d) the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
a) spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices.
b) interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage.
81.1.4.1 (5324) c) separation of the boundary layer over the wing.
Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is correct? d) propeller wash blowing across the wing.
a) The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a component in wing root
direction, the flow at the underside of the wing in wing tip direction.
81.1.4.2 (5331)
b) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's wing on induced drag?
c) The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing, both deviate in wing tip
a) It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is reduced.
direction.
b) It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal area.
d) The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at increasing angle of attack.
c) It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag.
d) It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater downwash.
81.1.4.1 (5325)
Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest local profile lift coefficient
81.1.4.2 (5332)
at the wingroot ?
Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced drag? (all
a) Rectangular.
other relevant factors constant)
b) Elliptical.
a) Elliptical.
c) Tapered.
b) Rectangular.
d) Positive angle of sweep.
c) Tapered.
d) Circular.
81.1.4.2 (5326)
If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level flight, the magnitude of
tip vortices will eventually : (flap span less than wing span)
443
81.1.4.2 (5333) 81.1.4.2 (5340)
Induced drag may be reduced by: Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect on the induced drag ?
a) an increase in aspect ratio a) Wing tip
b) an increase in the taper ratio of the wing b) Engine cowling
c) a decrease of the aspect ratio c) Wing root junction
d) the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil d) Landing gear

81.1.4.2 (5334) 81.1.4.2 (5341)

The induced drag:
a) increases as the lift coefficient increases.
b) increases as the aspect ratio increases.
c) has no relation to the lift coefficient.
d) increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
The induced angle of attack is the result of:
a) downwash due to tip vortices.
b) a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.
c) downwash due to flow separation.
d) change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.

81.1.4.2 (5335) 81.1.4.2 (5342)

The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is: The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with:
a) a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag a) CL²
b) there is no relationship b) CL
c) induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value c) square root (CL)
d) an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag d) CLmax

81.1.4.2 (5336) 81.1.5.0 (5343)

A high aspect ratio wing produces: (For this question use annex 081-6239A)Which one of the bodies in motion (all
a) a decrease in induced drag bodies have the same cross section area) will have lowest drag?
b) less sensitivity to gust effects a) Body c
c) a decrease in stall speed b) Body a
d) an increase in induced drag c) Body b
d) Body d
81.1.4.2 (5337)
Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag (CDi) is the ratio of : 81.1.5.1 (5344)
a) CL² and AR (aspect ratio) The interference drag is created as a result of
b) CL and CD a) interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage).
c) CL and b (wing span) b) downwash behind the wing.
d) CL²and S (wing surface) c) separation of the induced vortex.
d) the addition of induced and parasite drag.
81.1.4.2 (5338)
High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio, has the effect of : 81.1.5.2 (5345)
a) Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies
b) Increasing lift and critical angle of attack linearly with the:
c) Increasing lift and drag a) square of the speed.
d) Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack b) speed.
c) angle of attack.
d) square of the angle of attack.
81.1.4.2 (5339)
Winglets
a) decrease the induced drag. 81.1.5.2 (5346)
b) decrease the static lateral stability. In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag alter with increasing
c) increase the manoeuvrability. speed?
d) create an elliptical lift distribution. a) (1) decreases and (2) increases.
b) (1) increases and (2) increases.
c) (1) decreases and (2) decreases.
d) (1) increases and (2) decreases.
444
81.1.5.3 (5347) c) 01-Fev
An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1. The d) 02-Jan
induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the following
factors:
81.1.5.5 (5353)
a) (i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4
(For this question use annex 081-6249A)Which line represents the total drag line
b) (i) 1/4 (ii) 2
of an aeroplane?
c) (i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16
a) Line c
d) (i) 4 (ii) 1/2
b) Line a
c) Line b
81.1.5.3 (5348) d) Line d
What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed changes ?
a) induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced drag decreases with
81.1.5.6 (5354)
decreasing weight
The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
b) induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced drag decreases with increasing
a) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
weight
b) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
c) induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced drag increases with decreasing
c) induced drag is equal to zero.
weight
d) induced drag is lowest.
d) induced drag increases with decreasing speed and induced drag increases with increasing
weight
81.1.6.0 (5355)
What will happen in ground effect ?
81.1.5.3 (5349)
a) the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
(For this question use annex 081-6250A)The diagram shows the parameter X
b) the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
versus TAS. If a horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows
c) an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices
a) the induced drag.
d) a significant increase in thrust required
b) the total drag.
c) the lift force.
d) the parasite drag. 81.1.6.0 (5356)
If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect
a) the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
81.1.5.5 (5350)
b) the effective angle of attack is decreased.
How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from stalling speed (VS) to
c) the induced angle of attack is increased.
maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight and level flight at constant weight?
d) drag and lift are reduced.
a) Decreasing, then increasing.
b) Decreasing.
c) Increasing. 81.1.6.4 (5357)
d) Increasing, then decreasing. Floating due to ground effect during an approach to land will occur :
a) when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing span above the
surface
81.1.5.5 (5351)
b) when the height is less than twice the length of the wing span above the surface
Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-drag ratio in straight and
c) when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
level flight is correct?
d) at a speed approaching the stall
a) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
b) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
c) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases. 81.1.6.4 (5358)
d) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aircraft Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance :
weight. a) increases.
b) decreases.
c) does not change.
81.1.5.5 (5352)
d) increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio between induced drag Di
and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp=
a) 01-Jan 81.1.7.1 (5359)
b) It varies between aeroplane types. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled. The
change in lift coefficient will be:

445
a) x 0.25 c) (1) increases (2) increases.
b) x 2.0 d) (1) increases (2) decreases.
c) x 0.5
d) x 4.0
81.1.8.1 (5366)
Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1) wing and of a strongly
81.1.7.1 (5360) swept back wing (2) will:
When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 times its basic stalling a) (1) move aft, (2) move forward.
speed, the coefficient of lift as a percentage of the maximum lift coefficient b) (1) move aft, (2) move aft.
(CLmax) would be: c) (1) not move (2) move forward.
a) 59%. d) (1) move aft, (2) not move.
b) 130%.
c) 169%.
81.1.8.1 (5367)
d) 77%.
Which of the following statements about the stall of a straight wing aeroplane is
correct?
81.1.8.1 (5361) a) Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nose-down tendency.
Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct? b) Buffeting is the result of flow separation on the tail plane.
a) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar c) The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash, due to flow separation.
boundary layer. d) The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.
b) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
c) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.
81.1.8.1 (5368)
d) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.
Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary layer :
a) friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
81.1.8.1 (5362) b) friction drag will be equal in both types of layers
Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow separation normally start at c) friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
high angles of attack? d) separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer
a) upper side trailing edge.
b) upper side leading edge.
81.1.8.1 (5369)
c) lower side trailing edge.
After the transition point between the laminar and turbulent boundary layer
d) lower side leading edge.
a) the mean speed and friction drag increases
b) the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases
81.1.8.1 (5363) c) the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases
The boundary layer of a wing is caused by: d) the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases
a) a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream
velocity, due to friction.
81.1.8.1 (5370)
b) the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change in velocity close to the
c) a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
surface?
d) suction at the upper wing side.
a) Turbulent boundary layer
b) Laminar boundary layer
81.1.8.1 (5364) c) No difference
A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which: d) Transition boundary layer
a) no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
b) the vortices are weak.
81.1.8.2 (5371)
c) the velocity is constant.
The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
d) the temperature varies constantly.
a) 1.41
b) 1.07
81.1.8.1 (5365) c) 1.30
Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1) and drag (2) in the stall d) 2.00
change as follows :
a) (1) decreases (2) increases.
81.1.8.2 (5372)
b) (1) decreases (2) decreases.
In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will be:

446
a) n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight. 81.1.8.2 (5379)
b) n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross weight of 6850 Ibs. What is
c) n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. the stall speed when the weight is 5000 Ibs ?
d) n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight. a) 67 KCAS
b) 91 KCAS
c) 78 KCAS
81.1.8.2 (5373)
d) 57 KCAS
A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant altitude in significant
turbulence. Which type of stall can occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
a) Accelerated stall. 81.1.8.2 (5380)
b) Low speed stall. An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n=1. In a turn with a load
c) Shock stall. factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
d) Deep stall. a) 141 kt
b) 282 kt
c) 70 kt
81.1.8.2 (5374)
d) 200 kt
Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed (IAS)?
a) decreasing weight.
b) increasing altitude. 81.1.8.2 (5381)
c) increasing air density. The following factors increase stall speed :
d) increasing load factor. a) an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in thrust.
b) a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c .g. shift.
c) increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
81.1.8.2 (5375)
d) a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.
Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal steady turns. Further data
are:A:W= 1500 kgBank= 20°TAS= 130 ktB:W= 1500 kgBank= 20°TAS= 200
ktWhich of the following statements is correct? 81.1.8.2 (5382)
a) The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long as....
b) The load factor A is larger than the load factor B. a) the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.
c) The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B. b) the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
d) The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B. c) the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
d) there is a nose-down attitude.
81.1.8.2 (5376)
Increase of wing loading will: 81.1.8.2 (5383)
a) increase the stall speeds. The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of importance being constant)
b) decrease the minimum gliding angle. a) pulling up from a dive.
c) increase CLmax. b) weight decreases.
d) decrease take off speeds. c) minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.
d) spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
81.1.8.2 (5377)
The stall speed : 81.1.8.2 (5384)
a) increases with an increased weight By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a horizontal
b) decreases with an increased weight coordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° ?
c) does not depend on weight a) 19%
d) increases with the length of the wingspan b) 31%
c) 41%
d) 52%
81.1.8.2 (5378)
When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall speed :
a) increases with the square root of load factor 81.1.8.2 (5385)
b) increases with flap extension An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady level flight. When the
c) decreases with increasing bank angle aeroplane is flying a level turn with a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
d) increases with the load factor squared a) 122 kt.
b) 141 kt.

447
c) 82 kt. 81.1.8.4 (5392)
d) 150 kt. The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single engined aeroplane is:
a) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for angle of bank with
rudder.
81.1.8.2 (5386)
b) full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correction for angle of bank with stick.
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
c) idle power and stick roll-neutral nose-down and no other corrections.
a) May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will increase during icing
d) idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nose-down tendency.
conditions and will increase when the c.g. moves forward
b) May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher altitude and due to the slip stream
from a propellor on an engine located forward of the wing 81.1.8.4 (5393)
c) Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase when the c.g. moves aft Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given configuration, the airspeed at
d) Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and increased bank angle in a turn which stick shaker will be triggered is:
a) greater than VS.
b) 1.20 VS.
81.1.8.2 (5387)
c) 1.30 VS.
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
d) 1.12 VS.
a) Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. location
b) Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due to the slip stream from a
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing 81.1.8.4 (5394)
c) Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an aft c.g. location The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the location
d) Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not increase due to the bank angle of the
in a turn a) stagnation point.
b) centre of lift.
c) transition region.
81.1.8.2 (5388)
d) centre of gravity.
The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the following factors:
a) May increase during turbulence and will always increase when banking in a turn
b) Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. location 81.1.8.5 (5395)
c) Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and due to the slip stream from a On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the ""pitch up"" phenomenon:
propeller on an engine located forward of the wing a) is caused by wingtip stall.
d) Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and more flaps b) never occurs, since a swept wing is a ""remedy"" to pitch up.
c) is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
d) is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
81.1.8.3 (5389)
A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:
a) improve the low speed characteristics. 81.1.8.5 (5396)
b) improve the high speed characteristics. Low speed pitch up is caused by the:
c) increase the critical Mach Number. a) spanwise flow on a swept back wing.
d) improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap. b) spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.
c) wing tip vortex.
d) Mach trim system.
81.1.8.4 (5390)
Which of the following are used as stall warning devices?
a) Stick shaker and stallstrip . 81.1.8.5 (5397)
b) Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator. The most important problem of ice accretion on an aeroplane during flight is:
c) Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator. a) reduction in CLmax.
d) Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip. b) increase in weight.
c) increase in drag.
d) blocking of control surfaces.
81.1.8.4 (5391)
The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by the change
of the: 81.1.8.5 (5398)
a) stagnation point. The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the aerodynamic characteristics of
b) centre of pressure. an aeroplane are:
c) centre of gravity. a) decrease of CLmax and increase of drag.
d) point of lowest pressure. b) decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag.

448
c) increase of CLmax and increase of drag. a) Excessive wing drop and deep stall.
d) increase of CLmax and decrease of drag. b) pitch down and yaw.
c) pitch down and minor wing drop.
d) pitch down and increase in speed.
81.1.8.5 (5399)
Which of the following statements about stall speed is correct ?
a) Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. 81.1.8.5 (5406)
b) Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the stall speed. Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of attack?
c) Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed.. a) Deep stall.
d) Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall speed. b) Shock stall.
c) Accelerated stall.
d) Low speed stall.
81.1.8.5 (5400)
Which of the following statements about the spin is correct?
a) During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the neutral position. 81.1.8.5 (5407)
b) An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the wing root. Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a super stall?
c) In the spin, airspeed continuously increases. a) A T-tail.
d) Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never enter a spin. b) A canard wing.
c) Swept wings.
d) A low horizontal tail.
81.1.8.5 (5401)
During an erect spin recovery:
a) the ailerons are held in the neutral position. 81.1.8.5 (5408)
b) the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a stall is due to the
c) the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank. a) wing tip stalling first.
d) the control stick is pulled to the most aft position. b) aft movement of the centre of gravity.
c) forward movement of the centre of gravity.
d) wing root stalling first.
81.1.8.5 (5402)
Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for deep stall?
a) Swept back wings and a T-tail. 81.1.8.5 (5409)
b) Straight wings and a T-tail. One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling characteristics. At the
c) Swept back wings and wing mounted engines. stall :
d) Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines a) tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
b) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment
c) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
81.1.8.5 (5403)
d) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment
A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the wing contacts the horizontal
tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be:
a) nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response. 81.1.9.0 (5410)
b) nose down tendency. Trailing edge flap extension will:
c) increase sensitivity of elevator inputs. a) decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
d) tendency to increase speed after initial stall. b) increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLmax.
c) decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
d) increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLmax.
81.1.8.5 (5404)
The function of the stick pusher is:
a) to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain value of angle of 81.1.9.0 (5411)
attack. Which of the following series of configurations has an increasing critical angle of
b) to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker. attack ?
c) to vibrate the controls. a) flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.
d) to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall. b) clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.
c) slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended.
d) slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.
81.1.8.5 (5405)
Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with dangerous stall characteristics.
Dangerous stall characteristics include:

449
81.1.9.0 (5412) c) zero.
An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with slats and/or leading edge d) dependent on c.g. location.
(L.E.) flaps. One possible efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the
wings is:
81.1.9.1 (5418)
a) Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: slats
Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift augmentation devices, will produce:
b) Wing roots: slatsWing tips: L.E. flaps
a) a nose-down pitching moment.
c) Wing roots: slatsWing tips: no devices
b) no pitching moment.
d) Wing roots: L.E. flapsWing tips: no devices
c) a nose-up pitching moment.
d) a force which reduces drag.
81.1.9.0 (5413)
An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats can be
81.1.9.1 (5419)
selected too. Which of the above selections will produce the greatest negative
On a wing fitted with a ""fowler"" type trailing edge flap, the ""Full extended""
influence on the CL/CD ratio?
position will produce:
a) Flaps from 30° to 45°.
a) an increase in wing area and camber.
b) The slats.
b) an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.
c) Flaps from 0° to 15°.
c) an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.
d) Flaps from 15° to 30°.
d) an increase in wing area only.

81.1.9.0 (5414)
81.1.9.1 (5420)
After take-off the slats (when installed) are always retracted later than the flaps.
When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at constant IAS, the lift
Why ?
coefficient will eventually :
a) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively
a) remain the same.
less drag.
b) increase.
b) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED.
c) decrease.
c) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared to the FLAPS
d) first increase and then decrease.
EXTENDED situation.
d) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less drag.
81.1.9.1 (5421)
When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:
81.1.9.0 (5415)
a) increase.
Which statement is correct?
b) decrease.
a) Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the maximum glide
c) remain the same.
distance also reduces.
d) vary as the square of IAS.
b) Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the minimum rate of descent to
decrease.
c) Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only the TAS has to 81.1.9.1 (5422)
be taken into account. What is the most effective flap system?
d) Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but increases a) Fowler flap.
the minimum descent angle. b) Split flap.
c) Plain flap.
d) Single slotted flap.
81.1.9.1 (5416)
The trailing edge flaps when extended :
a) worsen the best angle of glide 81.1.9.1 (5423)
b) increase the zero lift angle of attack Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:
c) significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift a) move aft, then turn down.
d) significantly lower the drag b) turn down, then move aft.
c) just move aft.
d) just turn down.
81.1.9.1 (5417)
When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight, the change in pitch
moment will be: 81.1.9.1 (5424)
a) nose down. A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:
b) nose up. a) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the boundary layer.

450
b) decreasing the skin friction. 81.1.9.1 (5431)
c) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil. During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts
d) increasing the critical angle of attack. to (all other factors of importance being constant)
a) sink suddenly.
b) bank.
81.1.9.1 (5425)
c) climb.
In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst the
d) yaw.
flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack will:
a) increase.
b) decrease. 81.1.9.1 (5432)
c) remain constant. During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of attack the aeroplane starts
d) increase or decrease depending on type of flap. to (all other factors of importance being constant)
a) climb.
b) bank.
81.1.9.1 (5426)
c) sink suddenly.
Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight will increase the :
d) yaw.
a) maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
b) lift coefficient and the drag.
c) stall speed. 81.1.9.1 (5433)
d) lift and the drag. Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum angle of attack for the flaps
down configuration is
a) smaller.
81.1.9.1 (5427)
b) larger.
During flap down selection in a continuous straight and level flight at constant IAS
c) unchanged.
and weight:
d) smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.
a) the centre of pressure moves aft.
b) the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase.
c) the stall speed increases. 81.1.9.2 (5434)
d) the total boundary layer becomes laminar. Deflection of leading edge flaps will:
a) increase critical angle of attack.
b) decrease CLmax.
81.1.9.1 (5428)
c) decrease drag.
(For this question use annex 081-6269A)Which type of flap is shown in the
d) not affect critical angle of attack.
picture?
a) Fowler flap
b) Double slotted flap 81.1.9.2 (5435)
c) Plain flap Slat extension will:
d) Split flap a) increase critical angle of attack.
b) reduce tip vortices.
c) create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.
81.1.9.1 (5429)
d) decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside of the wing.
(For this question use annex 081-6270A)Which type of flap is shown in the
picture?
a) Split flap 81.1.9.2 (5436)
b) Single slotted flap Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
c) Fowler flap slats is correct?
d) Plain flap a) Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
b) Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
c) Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
81.1.9.1 (5430)
d) Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
A plain flap will increase CLmax by
a) increasing the camber of the aerofoil.
b) increasing angle of attack. 81.1.9.2 (5437)
c) boundary layer control. What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ?
d) centre of lift movement. a) extend automatically when a certain value of angle of atttack is exceeded.
b) provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off.
c) ensures that the slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the
451
""ground"" position. c) Slotted flap
d) assist the ailerons during rolling. d) Slot or slat

81.1.9.2 (5438) 81.1.9.2 (5444)

The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of the wing
is to:
a) cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer.
b) allow space for vibration of the slat.
c) reduce the wing loading.
d) slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing.
A slat will
a) increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to a higher angle of
attack.
b) increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow around the sharp leading edge.
c) increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the wing.
d) provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the wing.

81.1.9.2 (5439) 81.1.9.3 (5445)

A deployed slat will: Vortex generators:
a) increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak from the fixed part a) transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. b) change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
b) increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction peak on the fixed part of the c) reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.
wing, so that the stall is postponed to higher angles of attack. d) take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.
c) decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the suction peak on the slat, so that
CLmax is reached at lower angles of attack.
81.1.10.1 (5446)
d) increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the effective angle of attack, so that
Spoiler deflection causes :
CLmax is reached at higher angles of attack.
a) an increase in drag and decrease in lift
b) an increase in lift and drag
81.1.9.2 (5440) c) an increase in lift only
What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of : d) decrease in lift and drag
a) slats
b) flaps
81.1.10.1 (5447)
c) spoilers
Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:
d) fuselage mounted speed-brakes
a) CD is increased and CL is decreased.
b) only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected).
81.1.9.2 (5441) c) both CL and CD are increased.
The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to fly at a d) CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.
slower speed because :
a) it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
81.1.10.1 (5448)
b) the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
When ""spoilers"" are used as speed brakes:
c) it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air
a) at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
d) it changes the camber of the wing
b) CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
c) they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
81.1.9.2 (5442) d) at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
(For this question use annex 081-6271A)The high lift device shown in the figure is
a
81.1.11.1 (5449)
a) Slat
There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and turbulent. One important
b) Fowler flap
advantage the turbulent boundary layer has over the laminar type is that :
c) Slotted flap
a) it has less tendency to separate from the surface
d) Krueger flap
b) it is thinner
c) skin friction drag is less
81.1.9.2 (5443) d) energy is less
(For this question use annex 081-6272A)The high lift device shown in the figure
below is a
81.1.12.1 (5450)
a) Krueger flap
In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on the wing
b) Fowler flap
leading edge most critical?

452
a) The last part of the rotation. a) temperature of the air.
b) The take-off run. b) density of the air.
c) During climb with all engines operating. c) pressure of the air.
d) All phases of the take-off are equally critical. d) humidity of the air.

81.2.1.0 (5451) 81.2.1.2 (5458)

The formula for the Mach Number is:(a= speed of sound) An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350. What is the
a) M= TAS / a effect on true airspeed ?
b) M= a / TAS a) It increases as temperature increases
c) M= TAS*a b) It decreases as pressure increases
d) M= IAS / a c) It decreases as altitude decreases
d) It remains constant
81.2.1.0 (5452)
The Mach number: 81.2.1.3 (5459)
a) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to determine the:
b) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level. a) Mach Number.
c) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound. b) EAS.
d) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises. c) TAS.
d) IAS.
81.2.1.1 (5453)
Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will: 81.2.2.0 (5460)
a) decrease. A normal shock wave:
b) first increase, then decrease. a) can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic flight.
c) increase. b) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the temperature drops suddenly.
d) remain constant. c) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure drops suddenly.
d) is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal to the surface.
81.2.1.1 (5454)
The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts. The speed of sound is: 81.2.2.0 (5461)
a) 500 kts Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ?
b) 320 kts a) The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic
c) 480 kts b) The airflow changes direction
d) 600 kts c) The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic
d) The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil
81.2.1.1 (5455)
Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct ? 81.2.2.0 (5462)
a) Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock
b) Increases always if the density of the air decreases. wave has a
c) Is independent of altitude. a) higher compression.
d) Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade. b) higher expansion.
c) smaller compression.
d) smaller expansion.
81.2.1.2 (5456)
If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the standard
troposphere the Mach Number will: 81.2.2.0 (5463)
a) increase. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a normal shock
b) decrease. wave has a
c) not change. a) higher loss in total pressure.
d) increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane. b) higher total pressure.
c) higher total temperature.
d) lower static temperature.
81.2.1.2 (5457)
The speed of sound is affected by the:

453
81.2.2.0 (5464) 81.2.2.1 (5471)
The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to M = 1.3 is called the When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will
a) transonic range. a) increase.
b) supersonic range. b) decrease.
c) hypersonic range. c) stay constant.
d) subsonic range. d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

81.2.2.1 (5465) 81.2.2.1 (5472)

Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which: When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will
a) somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally. a) increase.
b) Mach buffet occurs. b) decrease.
c) shockstall occurs. c) stay constant.
d) the critical angle of attack is reached. d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again

81.2.2.1 (5466) 81.2.2.1 (5473)

When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the first When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of sound is
shockwaves will occur: a) increased.
a) at the wing root segment, upperside. b) not affected
b) on the underside of the wing. c) decreased.
c) somewhere on the fin. d) decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again
d) somewhere on the hoizontal tail.
81.2.2.1 (5474)
81.2.2.1 (5467) Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave will appear
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach Number, which at the
produces the first evidence of : a) upper side of the wing.
a) local sonic flow. b) lower side of the wing.
b) buffet. c) leading edge of the wing.
c) shock wave. d) trailing edge of the wing.
d) supersonic flow.
81.2.2.1 (5475)
81.2.2.1 (5468) Critical Mach-number is the :
Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is correct? a) highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the aeroplane.
a) The temperature increases. b) speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the aircraaeroplane Mach number
b) The pressure decreases. < 1).
c) The temperature decreases. c) speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of the aeroplane.
d) The velocity increases. d) highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for operation (MMO).

81.2.2.1 (5469) 81.2.2.1 (5476)

The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free stream airfoil Mach The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the fact that
number at which: a) kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.
a) sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper side of the aerofoil. b) the speed reduction is too high.
b) the maximum operating temperature is reached. c) the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.
c) a shock-wave appears on the upper surface. d) the friction in the boundary layer is higher.
d) a ""supersonic bell"" appears on the upper surface.
81.2.2.2 (5477)
81.2.2.1 (5470) Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of attack will produce the
When the air has passed through a normal shock wave the Mach number is lowest Mcrit values?
a) less than 1. a) (1) thick and (2) large.
b) lower than before but still greater than 1. b) (1) thick and (2) small.
c) equal to 1. c) (1) thin and (2) large.
d) higher than before. d) (1) thin and (2) small.
454
81.2.2.2 (5478) 81.2.2.2 (5485)
In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly determined by: The critical Mach number can be increased by
a) the Mach Number. a) sweepback of the wings.
b) the TAS. b) positive dihedral of the wings.
c) the IAS. c) a T-tail.
d) the CAS. d) an increase in wing aspect ratio.

81.2.2.2 (5479) 81.2.2.2 (5486)

Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at Mach Numbers below the Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' contoured fuselage. This is done to
critical Mach Number? a) apply area rule.
a) Dutch roll. b) increase the strength of the wing root junction.
b) Tuck under. c) fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
c) Mach buffet. d) improve the low speed characteristics.
d) Shock stall.
81.2.2.2 (5487)
81.2.2.2 (5480) The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the
The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be increased by: a) wave drag.
a) sweep back of the wings. b) skin friction drag.
b) vortex generators. c) induced drag.
c) control deflection d) form drag.
d) dihedral of the wings.
81.2.2.2 (5488)
81.2.2.2 (5481) When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back wing of the same wing area
In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight and wing loading, the swept back wing has the advantage of :
because: a) Higher critical Mach number
a) aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing. b) Greater strength
b) behind the shock wave pressure is lower. c) Increased longitudinal stability
c) aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward. d) Lower stalling speed
d) aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.
81.2.2.2 (5489)
81.2.2.2 (5482) What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at constant IAS ?
Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are: a) Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.
a) thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing. b) Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.
b) thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing. c) Mcrit decreases.
c) positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the wing. d) Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.
d) thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
81.2.2.2 (5490)
81.2.2.2 (5483) What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on Mcrit at n=1, when flying at
If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with increasing Mach number the shock constant IAS ? The value of Mcrit:
wave on the upper side of the wing a) increases.
a) moves into trailing edge direction. b) remains constant.
b) moves into leading edge direction. c) is independent of the angle of attack.
c) stays all the time at the same position. d) decreases.
d) disappears.
81.2.2.3 (5491)
81.2.2.2 (5484) How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
To increase the critical Mach number a conventional aerofoil should a) It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to
a) have a low thickness to chord ratio. compressibility effects.
b) have a large camber. b) It remains constant.
c) be used with a high angle of attack. c) It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
d) have a large leading edge radius.
455
d) It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to c) expansion waves on the wing upper side.
compressibility effects. d) a shift of the centre of gravity.

81.2.2.3 (5492) 81.2.2.6 (5499)

Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest angle of attack? ""Tuck under"" is caused by (i) which movement of the centre of pressure of the
a) shockstall. wing and (ii) which change of the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
b) high-speed stall. a) (i) aft (ii) decreasing
c) low-speed stall. b) (i) forward (ii) decreasing
d) deep stall. c) (i) aft (ii) increasing
d) (i) forward (ii) increasing
81.2.2.3 (5493)
At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS): 81.2.2.6 (5500)
a) increases The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing aeroplane may be : (assume
b) decreases no corrective devices, straight and level flight)
c) remains the same a) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.
d) decreases until the tropopause b) an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.
c) engine unbalance and buffeting.
d) buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.
81.2.2.5 (5494)
Shock stall is:
a) separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave. 81.2.2.6 (5501)
b) separation of the flow behind the bow wave. The Mach trim system will:
c) separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high Mach Numbers. a) adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.
d) separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high Mach Numbers. b) keep the Mach Number automatically constant.
c) pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach Number.
d) adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number.
81.2.2.5 (5495)
Which of the following flight phenomena can only happen at Mach Numbers above
the critical Mach Number? 81.2.2.6 (5502)
a) Mach buffet. The Mach trim system will prevent:
b) Dutch roll. a) tuck under.
c) Speed instability. b) dutch roll.
d) Elevator stall. c) buffeting.
d) shock stall.
81.2.2.5 (5496)
Shock induced separation results in 81.2.2.6 (5503)
a) decreasing lift. When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range with increasing Mach
b) constant lift. Number the centre of the pressure of the wing will move aft. This requires:
c) increasing lift. a) a pitch up input of the stabilizer.
d) decreasing drag. b) a stability augmentation system.
c) much more thrust from the engine.
d) a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.
81.2.2.5 (5497)
In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall due to the
a) separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves. 81.2.2.6 (5504)
b) attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the wing. Tuck under will happen
c) first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the wing. a) only above the critical Mach number.
d) appearance of the bow wave. b) only at the critical Mach number.
c) only below the critical Mach number.
d) above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.
81.2.2.5 (5498)
The high speed buffet is induced by
a) boundary layer separation due to shock waves. 81.2.2.6 (5505)
b) boundary layer control. The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to minimize

456
the adverse effects of : a) increases during a descent with a constant IAS.
a) changes in the position of centre of pressure b) is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.
b) increased drag due to shock wave formation c) decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
c) uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting d) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
d) compressibility effects on the stabilizer
81.2.3.1 (5512)
81.2.2.7 (5506) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
(For this question use annex 081-1331A)An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is a) decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.
turning at FL 350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its flight Mach b) increase the critical Mach Number.
range between low-speed buffeting and high-speed buffeting goes from: c) decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.
a) M= 0.69 to M higher than 0.84 d) increase the magnitude of the shock wave.
b) M= 0.72 to M higher than 0.84
c) M= 0.65 to M higher than 0.84
81.2.3.1 (5513)
d) M= 0.74 to M= 0.84
Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:
a) decrease wave drag.
81.2.2.7 (5507) b) increase wave drag.
What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart? c) increase critical Mach Number.
a) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and Mach Buffet occur at d) decrease critical Mach Number.
different weights and altitudes.
b) The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes.
81.2.3.1 (5514)
c) The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes.
Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will
d) The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and shock-stall occur at different
a) decrease the shock wave induced separation.
weights and altitudes.
b) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
c) decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential velocity of the swept wing.
81.2.2.7 (5508) d) increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by a minimum acceptable
loadfactor because exceeding that altitude:
81.3.1.0 (5515)
a) turbulence may induce Mach buffet.
How will the density and temperature change in a supersonic flow from a position
b) turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.
in front of a shock wave to behind it ?
c) a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load factor.
a) Density will increase, temperature will increase.
d) Mach buffet will occur immediately.
b) Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
c) Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
81.2.2.7 (5509) d) Density will decrease, temperature will decrease.
Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach number than the 'buffet-onset'
Mach number?
81.3.1.0 (5516)
a) No, this is not acceptable
At what speed does the front of a shock wave move across the earth's surface?
b) Yes, this causes no problems.
a) The ground speed of the aeroplane.
c) Yes, but only during approach.
b) The speed of sound at ground level.
d) Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.
c) The speed of sound at flight level.
d) The true air speed of the aeroplane.
81.2.2.7 (5510)
A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-number, that provides a
81.3.1.1 (5517)
buffet margin of 0.3g incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4g
In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:
incremental the pilot must :
a) in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.
a) fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number
b) outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.
b) extend the flaps to the first selection
c) in front of the aeroplane.
c) fly at a higher Mach-number
d) very weak and negligible.
d) fly at a larger angle of attack

81.3.1.1 (5518)
81.2.2.7 (5511)
The bow wave will appear first at:
The buffet margin :
457
a) M= 1.0 81.3.1.3 (5525)
b) M= Mcrit Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in a supersonic flow ?1- The
c) M= 0.6 density in front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.2- The pressure in
d) M= 1.3 front of an expansion wave is higher than behind.
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
b) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
81.3.1.1 (5519)
c) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the shock
d) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
wave angles will
a) decrease.
b) increase. 81.3.1.3 (5526)
c) stay constant. Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in supersonic flow ?1. The
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again. temperature in front of an expansion wave is higher than the temperature behind
it.2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher than the speed behind it.
a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
81.3.1.3 (5520)
b) 1 and 2 are correct.
When air has passed an expansion wave, the static pressure is:
c) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
a) decreased.
d) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
b) decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.
c) increased.
d) unchanged. 81.3.1.4 (5527)
On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic
speeds, the aerodynamic centre :
81.3.1.3 (5521)
a) shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the local speed of sound will
b) shifts aft by about 10%.
a) decrease.
c) remains unchanged.
b) increase.
d) slightly shifts forward.
c) stay constant.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
81.3.1.4 (5528)
If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the centre of
81.3.1.3 (5522)
pressure will move:
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the Mach number will
a) to the mid chord position.
a) increase.
b) forward.
b) decrease.
c) to a position near the leading edge.
c) stay constant.
d) to a position near the trailing edge.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.

81.3.1.4 (5529)
81.3.1.3 (5523)
The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the acceleration through the
When the air is passing through an expansion wave the static temperature will
transonic flight regime will:
a) decrease.
a) increase the static longitudinal stability.
b) increase.
b) decrease the longitudinal stability.
c) stay constant.
c) increase the static lateral stability.
d) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
d) decrease the static lateral stability.

81.3.1.3 (5524)
81.3.1.4 (5530)
In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock wave a high efficiency (low
In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is:
loss in total pressure) can be obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is
a) rectangular.
a) small but still supersonic.
b) irregular.
b) high (supersonic).
c) triangular.
c) lower than 1.
d) the same as in subsonic flight.
d) exactly 1.

81.3.1.4 (5531)
If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic speed the
458
centre of lift will move c) downwards.
a) aft to the mid chord. d) upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.
b) aft to the trailing edge.
c) forward to the leading edge.
81.4.2.2 (5538)
d) forward to the mid chord.
In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines mounted below the low wings)
the thrust is suddenly increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to
81.3.1.5 (5532) maintain the pitching moment zero ?
The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach Number a) Down.
is due to: b) Up.
a) wave drag. c) No elevator movement will required because the thrust line of the engines remains
b) increased angle of attack. unchanged.
c) increased interference drag. d) It depends on the position of the centre of gravity.
d) increased skin friction.
81.4.3.1 (5539)
81.4.1.1 (5533) Which of the following statements is correct?
If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not zero, an aeroplane: a) Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about
a) would experience an angular acceleration about that axis. the relevant axis.
b) would be difficult to control. b) Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically satble about the relevant axis.
c) would fly a path with a constant curvature. c) Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from original equilibrium condition, the
d) would not be affected because the situation is normal. aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.
d) A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.
81.4.1.2 (5534)
In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in straight and level flight 81.4.3.1 (5540)
have the highest value ? Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once it has been displaced the :
a) Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust. a) initial tendency to move is towards its equilibrium position.
b) Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust. b) initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position.
c) Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust. c) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of decreasing amplitude.
d) Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust. d) tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of increasing amplitude.

81.4.1.2 (5535) 81.4.3.1 (5541)

If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate about: After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral
a) the centre of gravity. axis at a constant amplitude. The aeroplane is:
b) the neutral point of the aeroplane. a) Statically stable - Dynamically neutral
c) the aerodynamic centre of the wing. b) Statically unstable - Dynamically stable
d) the centre of pressure of the wing. c) Statically stable - Dynamically unstable
d) Statically unstable - Dynamically neutral
81.4.2.1 (5536)
When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of pressure of 81.4.3.1 (5542)
the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the Which one of the following statements about the dynamic stability of a
tailplane will be: conventional aeroplane about the lateral axis is correct?
a) downwards. a) Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.
b) upwards. b) Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.
c) zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium. c) Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.
d) downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity. d) An aft C.G. position shortens the period time of the phugoid.

81.4.2.1 (5537) 81.4.3.1 (5543)

An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of pressure of the wing can The ""short period mode"" is an:
only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: a) oscillation about the lateral axis.
a) upwards. b) oscillation about the vertical axis.
b) zero. c) oscillation about the longitudinal axis.
d) unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot.
459
81.4.3.1 (5544) 81.4.3.5 (5551)
An aeroplane that has positive static stability: The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst others limited by the:
a) can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable. a) minimum value of the stick force per g.
b) is always dynamically stable. b) maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
c) is never dynamically stable. c) maximum elevator deflection.
d) is always dynamically unstable. d) too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.

81.4.3.1 (5545) 81.4.3.5 (5552)

A statically unstable aeroplane is: A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to:
a) never dynamically stable. a) an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick force per g, Fe/g).
b) always dynamically stable. b) a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off.
c) sometimes dynamically stable. c) an increasing static longitudinal stability.
d) sometimes dynamically unstable. d) a better recovery performance in the spin.

81.4.3.1 (5546) 81.4.3.7 (5553)

One of the requirements for dynamic stability is:
a) positive static stability.
b) a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim.
c) a small C.G. range.
d) effective elevator.
81.4.3.2 (5547)
The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:
a) C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.
b) speed is low.
c) C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.
d) flaps are down.
81.4.3.3 (5548)
Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the:
a) centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b) centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.
c) wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.
d) aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.
81.4.3.4 (5549)
The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
a) pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.
b) change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant.
c) aerodynamic forces are constant.
d) the aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.
81.4.3.5 (5550)
For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:
a) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
b) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
c) at the neutral point of the aeroplane.
d) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.
In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the degree of positive camber
of the aerofoil?
a) No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a constant pitch down
moment coefficient, independent of angle of attack.
b) Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at increasing angle of attack.
c) Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at increasing angle of attack.
d) Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at increasing angle of attack.
81.4.3.7 (5554)
Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to the static
longitudinal stability ?
a) The horizontal tailplane.
b) The engine.
c) The fuselage.
d) The wing.
81.4.3.9 (5555)
During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the maximum elevator up deflection
is normally required when the flaps are:
a) fully down and the C.G. is fully forward.
b) up and the C.G. is fully forward.
c) fully down and the C.G. is fully aft.
d) up and the C.G. is fully aft.
81.4.3.11 (5556)
The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the neutral point in a fixed location.
Speed changes cause a departure from the trimmed position. Which of the
following statements about the stick force stability is correct?
a) Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on the stick force than
increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed.
b) Increase of speed generates pull forces.
c) Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
d) Stick force stability is not affected by trim.

81.4.3.11 (5557)
""Tuck under"" is:
460
a) the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the transonic flight c) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices (stability
regime. augmentation) in case of an unacceptable value.
b) the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the transonic flight regime. d) If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally speaking this is not a problem for
c) shaking of the control column at high Mach Number. control of an aeroplane.
d) the tendency to nose down when the control column is pulled back.
81.4.3.15 (5564)
81.4.3.11 (5558) The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The load factor in
""Tuck under"" may happen at: straight and level flight is 1. The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the
a) high Mach numbers. load factor of 2.5 is:
b) low Mach numbers. a) 225 N.
c) all Mach numbers. b) 375 N.
d) only at low altitudes. c) 450 N.
d) 150 N.
81.4.3.11 (5559)
Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct? 81.4.4.2 (5565)
a) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing An aeroplane has static directional stability, in a side-slip to the right, initially the:
aeroplane above a certain Mach number. a) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.
b) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close to b) right wing tends to go down.
MMO. c) nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.
c) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at high d) nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.
Mach numbers.
d) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch-up.
81.4.4.4 (5566)
The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional stability is as follows:
81.4.3.11 (5560) a) Stabilizing effect
In case the Mach trimmer fails: b) No effect
a) the Mach number must be limited. c) Destabilizing dihedral effect
b) try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft. d) Negative dihedral effect
c) the speed must be kept constant.
d) the aeroplane weight must be limited.
81.4.5.5 (5567)
The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:
81.4.3.11 (5561) a) Positive dihedral effect
A Machtrimmer: b) Negative dihedral effect
a) corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach Numbers. c) Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading
b) increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers. d) Zero dihedral effect
c) is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach Numbers.
d) has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed (IAS) curve for a fully
81.4.5.5 (5568)
hydraulic controlled aeroplane.
Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each increase static lateral
stability ?
81.4.3.14 (5562) a) High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.
The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre stability are positively affected b) Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.
by: c) Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.
a) (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position. d) Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.
b) (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
c) (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position.
81.4.5.5 (5569)
d) (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim.
Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static lateral stability of an
aeroplane?
81.4.3.14 (5563) a) Anhedral.
Which statement about stick force per g is correct? b) Dihedral.
a) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to assure c) High wing.
acceptable control characteristics. d) Increased wing span.
b) The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.
461
81.4.5.5 (5570) 81.4.6.3 (5576)
The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as follows : Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to ""Dutch roll""?
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional) a) Yaw damper.
a) 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive b) Roll spoilers.
b) 1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negative c) Spoiler mixer.
c) 1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positive d) Rudder limiter.
d) 1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative
81.4.6.3 (5577)
81.4.5.5 (5571) Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw damper ?
Dihedral of the wing: a) Dutch roll.
a) increases the static lateral stability. b) Tuck under.
b) is the only way to increase the static lateral stability. c) Spiral dive.
c) is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings. d) Buffeting.
d) decreases the static lateral stability.
81.4.6.3 (5578)
81.4.5.5 (5572) What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?
Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at constant speed and side slip a) An increased static lateral stability.
angle, where the geometric dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ? b) An increased static directional stability.
a) the required lateral control force increases. c) A forward movement of the centre of gravity.
b) the required lateral control force decreases. d) An increased anhedral.
c) the required lateral control force does not change.
d) the stick force per g decreases.
81.4.6.4 (5579)
With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static lateral stability (1) and the
81.4.5.6 (5573) dynamic lateral/directional stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:
Which of the following statements about dihedral is correct? a) (1) increase (2) decrease.
a) The ""effective dihedral"" of an aeroplane component means the contribution of b) (1) increase (2) increase.
that component to the static lateral stability. c) (1) decrease (2) decrease.
b) Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line and the lateral axis of the d) (1) decrease (2) increase.
aeroplane.
c) Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral stability.
81.5.1.1 (5580)
d) Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns.
Rotation about the lateral axis is called :
a) pitching.
81.4.6.2 (5574) b) rolling.
Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional stability is c) yawing.
correct? d) slipping.
a) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static
lateral stability, will be prone to spiral dive. (spiral instability)
81.5.1.1 (5581)
b) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of
Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
each other because they take place about different axis.
a) longitudinal axis.
c) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
b) vertical axis.
stability, will be prone to ""Dutch roll"".
c) lateral axis.
d) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.
d) wing axis.

81.4.6.2 (5575)
81.5.2.0 (5582)
Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when :
What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal stability of a shift of the
a) the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is
centre of gravity to a more aft location and on the required control deflection for a
relatively weak.
certain pitch up or down?
b) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.
a) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is
c) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
smaller.
d) the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.
b) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is smaller.

462
c) The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required control deflection is larger. 81.5.4.1 (5589)
d) The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required control deflection is larger. Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously as
a) ailerons and flaps.
b) ailerons and elevator.
81.5.2.4 (5583)
c) flaps and speed brakes.
The centre of gravity moving aft will:
d) flaps and elevator.
a) increase the elevator up effectiveness.
b) decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
c) not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness. 81.5.4.1 (5590)
d) increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness, depending on wing location. When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ?
a) Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value.
b) Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain value..
81.5.2.4 (5584)
c) Landing gear retracted.
In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most forward allowable position of the
d) Landing gear extended.
centre of gravity could be limited by the:
a) elevator capability, elevator control forces.
b) engine thrust, engine location. 81.5.4.3 (5591)
c) trim system, trim tab surface. During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended, the roll spoiler function
d) wing surface, stabilizer surface. induces a spoiler deflection:
a) downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the downgoing wing.
b) upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the downgoing wing.
81.5.2.4 (5585)
c) on the upgoing wing only.
When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre
d) on the downgoing wing only.
with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
a) larger.
b) smaller. 81.5.4.5 (5592)
c) unchanged. Differential aileron deflection:
d) dependent on trim position. a) equals the drag of the right and left aileron.
b) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
c) increases the CLmax.
81.5.3.2 (5586)
d) is required to achieve the required roll-rate.
An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the fuselage, in comparison to
a location beneath the wing, is :
a) less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes. 81.5.4.5 (5593)
b) easier maintenance of the engines. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn is:
c) a wing which is less sensitive to flutter. a) Left aileron: 5° upRight aileron: 2° down
d) lighter wing construction. b) Left aileron: 2° upRight aileron: 5° down
c) Left aileron: 5° downRight aileron: 2° up
d) Left aileron: 2° downRight aileron: 5° up
81.5.3.3 (5587)
What happens during an engine failure with two similar aeroplanes with wing
mounted engines, one of them with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating 81.5.4.5 (5594)
propellers: How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from a turn ?
a) More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane. a) Differential aileron deflection
b) The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of left or right engine failure. b) Horn-balanced controls
c) The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes. c) Anti-balanced rudder control
d) Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane. d) Servo tabs

81.5.4.1 (5588) 81.5.4.5 (5595)

A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons is cruising at its One method to compensate adverse yaw is a
normal cruise Mach number. In this case a) differential aileron.
a) only the inboard ailerons are active. b) balance tab.
b) only the outboard aileron are active. c) antibalance tab.
c) the inboard and outboard ailerons are active. d) balance panel.
d) only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.

463
81.5.4.5 (5596) 81.5.6.1 (5603)
Which of the following statements concerning control is correct? A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:
a) In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger a) to decrease stick forces.
upward than downward maximum deflection. b) to prevent flutter.
b) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab. c) to obtain mass balancing.
c) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing. d) to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the aeroplane.
d) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.
81.5.6.1 (5604)
81.5.4.5 (5597) Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo tab, is
Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection? correct ?
a) Adverse yaw. a) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
b) Aileron reversal. b) The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab.
c) Sensitivity for spiral dive. c) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
d) Turn co-ordination. d) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.

81.5.5.0 (5598) 81.5.6.1 (5605)

If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this causes: Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
a) a roll to port (left). a) seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn
b) a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing. balance
c) an increase in lift on the port (left) wing. b) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a control
d) a roll to starboard (right). surface
c) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance
d) Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder
81.5.5.0 (5599)
Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?
a) Rolling and yawing. 81.5.6.1 (5606)
b) Pitching and yawing. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:
c) Pitching and rolling. a) servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge
d) Pitching and adverse yaw. of control surface.
b) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
c) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
81.5.6.1 (5600)
d) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
Which statement is correct about a spring tab ?
a) At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab
b) At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab 81.5.6.2 (5607)
c) At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.
d) Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g a) stabilizer position, static pressure.
b) elevator deflection, static pressure.
c) stabilizer position, total pressure.
81.5.6.1 (5601)
d) 1994-08-01 0:00
Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual reversion of fully powered
flight controls ?
a) Servo tab 81.5.6.2 (5608)
b) Spring tab When power assisted controls are used for pitch control, this:
c) Balance tab a) ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.
d) Anti-balance tab b) makes trimming superfluous.
c) makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces meaningless.
d) can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.
81.5.6.1 (5602)
An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What will happen when only the
elevator jams during flight ? 81.5.7.1 (5609)
a) Pitch control reverses direction. When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing, these
b) Pitch control has been lost. weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:
c) The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab. a) in front of the hinge.
d) The pitch control forces double. b) below the hinge.
464
c) above the hinge. b) the structure weighs less
d) behind the hinge. c) it leads to greater stability in flight
d) the system's complexity is reduced
81.5.8.0 (5610)
What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal 81.5.8.3 (5616)
stabilizer of a power assisted aeroplane, which is in trim ? What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabilizer jammed in
a) The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position the cruise flight position ?
of the centre of gravity. a) choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flapsetting for
b) The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position) is always zero. landing.
c) At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is deflected b) choose a lower landing speed than normal.
downward. c) if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.
d) The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining d) use the Mach trimmer until after landing.
flare capability.
81.5.8.3 (5617)
81.5.8.0 (5611) Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is correct, during take-off at the
How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane change, when trimming for maximum allowable forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable
speed increase ? Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the maximum allowable AND
a) Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an upward deflected trim (Aeroplane Noise Down) position.
tab a) The rotation will require extra stick force.
b) The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected trim tab b) If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, the take off warning system
c) The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a movable horizontal stabiliser will be activated.
d) The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change c) Early nose wheel raising will take place.
d) Nothing special will happen.
81.5.8.2 (5612)
In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls are fitted with 81.5.8.3 (5618)
an adjustable stabilizer instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because : Which statement about the trim position is true related to centre of gravity and
a) effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes adjustable stabiliser position ?
b) the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all a) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is lower than
c) mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
d) trim tab deflection increases Mcrit b) Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with centre of gravity location, the
need for stabiliser adjustment is dependent on flap position only.
c) A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading edge is higher than compared
81.5.8.2 (5613)
with a tail heavy aeroplane.
How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, when the trim is used during a
d) At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is adjusted maximum Nose Down to
speed decrease ?
obtain maximum elevator authority at take off rotation.
a) The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a downwards deflected
trimtab.
b) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a trimmable horizontal stabiliser. 81.6.1.0 (5619)
c) Nothing changes in the exterior view. ""Flutter"" may be caused by:
d) The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an upwards deflected trimtab. a) distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing increasing vibration
in the resonance frequency.
b) low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
81.5.8.3 (5614)
c) roll control reversal.
If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator presents:
d) high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
a) nose-down.
b) neutral.
c) nose-up. 81.6.1.1 (5620)
d) nose-left. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant Mach
Number with constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
a) VMO.
81.5.8.3 (5615)
b) VNE.
One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system compared with a fixed stabilizer
c) VD.
system is that:
d) MMO.
a) it is a more powerful means of trimming
465
81.6.1.1 (5621) pressure.
VMO : d) It will collapse if a turn is made.
a) should be not greater than VC.
b) should be chosen in between VC and VD
81.6.2.1 (5628)
c) is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.
What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane in the manoeuvring
d) is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35 000 ft.
diagram?
a) 2.5
81.6.1.2 (5622) b) 1.5
A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and constant c) 3.75
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is: d) 6
a) MMO.
b) VMO.
81.6.2.1 (5629)
c) VA.
VA is:
d) MD.
a) the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.
b) the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
81.6.1.2 (5623) c) the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.
Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ? d) the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.
a) At constant IAS the Mach number increases
b) At constant IAS the TAS decreases
81.6.2.1 (5630)
c) At constant Mach number the IAS increases
Load factor is :
d) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
a) Lift/Weight
b) Weight/Lift
81.6.2.1 (5624) c) 1/Bank angle
The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA (EAS) for a large transport d) Wing loading
aeroplane can be expressed in the following formula:(SQRT= square root)
a) VA= VS SQRT(2.5)
81.6.2.1 (5631)
b) VS= VA SQRT(2.5)
For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is :
c) VS= VA SQRT(3.75)
a) the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at
d) Va= VA SQRT(3.75)
MTOW.
b) the maximum speed in smooth air
81.6.2.1 (5625) c) the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without
By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the aeroplane's weight decreases by exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor
19%? d) just another symbol for the rough air speed
a) 10% lower.
b) 4.36% lower.
81.6.2.1 (5632)
c) no change
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet transport aeroplane with
d) 19% lower.
flaps extended is:
a) 2.0
81.6.2.1 (5626) b) 1.5
Which load factor determines VA? c) 2.5
a) manoeuvring limit load factor. d) 3.75
b) manoeuvring ultimate load factor.
c) gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.
81.6.2.1 (5633)
d) manoeuvring flap limit load factor.
The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the utility
category in the clean configuration is:
81.6.2.1 (5627) a) 4.4
What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just exceeding VA ? b) 2.5
a) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards c) 3.8
b) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards. d) 6.0
c) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic

466
81.6.3.0 (5634) b) 66 ft/sec and VD.
Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an aeroplane is correct (all c) 65 ft/sec at all speeds.
other factors of importance being constant) ?1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the d) 55 ft/sec and VB.
wing will increase the gust load factor.2. Increasing the speed will increase the
gust load factor.
81.6.3.1 (5640)
a) 1 and 2 are correct.
The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and manoeuvre) diagrams is
b) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
created by the speed:
c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
a) VD
d) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
b) VC
c) Vflutter
81.6.3.0 (5635) d) VMO
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a stall and the margin
81.6.3.1 (5641)
to the structural limitations
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase
b) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is possible to reduce the speed and
in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust instantly
increase the margins to the structural limits
changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The load factor will be :
c) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall speed will be reduced and the
a) 1.45
risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased
b) 0.9
d) Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the centre of pressure will move aft
c) 0.45
which will increase the margins to the structural limits
d) 1.9

81.6.3.1 (5636)
81.6.3.1 (5642)
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42, increase
Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other relevant factors being
in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly
constant)
changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will be :
a) Vertical gusts
a) 1.71
b) Increased aeroplane mass
b) 0.74
c) Increased air density
c) 1.49
d) Rearward CG location
d) 2.49

81.6.3.2 (5643)
81.6.3.1 (5637)
What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to turbulence :
The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase
a) swept wings
of angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust instantly
b) straight wings
changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will be :
c) wing dihedral
a) 2.13
d) winglets
b) 1.09
c) 2.0
d) 3.18 81.6.3.2 (5644)
Which statement is correct about the gust load on an aeroplane (IAS and all other
factors of importance remaining constant) ?1. the gust load increases, when the
81.6.3.1 (5638)
weight decreases.2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases.
The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated by the following three
a) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
vertical speed in ft/s (clean configuration) :
b) 1 and 2 are correct.
a) 25, 50, 66
c) 1 and 2 are incorrect.
b) 15, 56, 65
d) 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
c) 25, 55, 75
d) 35, 55, 66
81.7.1.0 (5645)
The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle between blade chord line and:
81.6.3.1 (5639)
a) Local air speed vector.
Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural strength in gust (clean
b) Direction of propeller axis.
configuration) ?
c) Aeroplane heading.
a) 50 ft/sec and VC.
d) Principal direction of propeller blade.
467
81.7.1.1 (5646)
Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is correct?
a) geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a propeller blade element is
travelling in forward direction in one propeller revolution
b) Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller axis
c) Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line and propeller vertical plane
d) Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow separation at some parts of
propeller blade occurs.
81.7.1.2 (5647)
Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?
a) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio
of that segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the true airspeed of the
aeroplane.
b) Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is dependent on the ratio of that
segment 's speed in the plane of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.
c) To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
d) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.
81.7.1.3 (5648)
Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance than fixed-pitch
propellers because they:
a) produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed range.
b) have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch propeller.
c) produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch propeller.
d) have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.
81.7.1.3 (5649)
If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide
with idle power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
b) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
c) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
81.7.1.3 (5650)
Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter in medium horizontal
turbulence?
a) Yes slightly.
b) Yes strongly.
c) No.
d) Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.
81.7.1.3 (5651)
Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is correct?
a) The blade angle increases with increasing speed.
b) The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.
c) The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.
d) The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.
81.7.1.3 (5652)
The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch propeller is increased when :
a) RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
b) velocity and RPM increase
c) forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing
d) velocity and RPM decrease
81.7.1.3 (5653)
If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS
the lift to drag ratio will
a) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
81.7.1.3 (5654)
If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with idle-power at constant IAS
the lift to drag ratio will
a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
81.7.1.4 (5655)
For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle of attack of each blade,
measured at the reference section:
a) is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.
b) decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical engine RPM).
c) is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine RPM).
d) is always positive during idling descent.
81.7.1.4 (5656)
Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:
a) usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft power.
b) the thrust and the maximum thrust.
c) the usable (power available) power and the maximum power.
d) the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.
81.7.2.1 (5657)
If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller during a glide with idle
power and constant speed, the propeller pitch will:
a) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
b) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
c) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
d) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
81.7.2.1 (5658)
An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller and a non rotating (2)
propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct?
a) (1) is larger than (2).
b) (1) is equal to (2).
468
c) (2) is larger than (1). a) yaw the aeroplane to the left.
d) impossible to say which one is largest. b) roll the aeroplane to the left.
c) yaw the aeroplane to the right.
d) roll the aeroplane to the right.
81.7.2.1 (5659)
When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position:
a) the drag of the propeller is then minimal. 81.8.1.2 (5666)
b) the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM. The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle
c) the windmilling RPM is the maximum. (gamma) is approximately:
d) the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine. a) Wcos.gamma.
b) W(1-sin.gamma).
c) W(1-tan.gamma).
81.7.3.3 (5660)
d) W/cos.gamma.
Increasing the number of propeller blades will:
a) increase the maximum absorption of power.
b) increase the propeller efficiency. 81.8.1.3 (5667)
c) increase the noise level at maximum power. An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 kts IAS and 1000 feet/min
d) decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power. vertical speed. In this condition:
a) weight is greater than lift
b) lift is equal to weight
81.7.3.3 (5661)
c) lift is less than drag
Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the number of propeller blades ?
d) drag is less than the combined forces that move the aeroplane forward
a) decrease propeller efficiency
b) Increased noise
c) Less power can be absorbed by the propeller 81.8.1.4 (5668)
d) Higher tip-speed What factors determine the distance travelled over the ground of an aeroplane in a
glide ?
a) The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of attack
81.7.4.1 (5662)
b) The wind and the aeroplane's mass
A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The torque effect in the take-off
c) The wind and CLmax
will:
d) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the
a) roll the aeroplane to the left.
weight
b) pitch the aeroplane nose down.
c) roll the aeroplane to the right.
d) pitch the aeroplane nose up. 81.8.1.4 (5669)
What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS) for minimum sink rate
(VR/Dmin) and best glide angle (VBest glide) at a given altitude?
81.7.4.2 (5663)
a) VR/Dmin < VBest glide
Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by:
b) VR/Dmin = VBest glide
a) pitching and yawing.
c) VR/Dmin > VBest glide
b) pitching and rolling.
d) VR/Dmin > VBest glide or VR/Dmin < VBest glide depending on the type of aeroplane.
c) increasing RPM and yawing.
d) increasing RPM and rolling.
81.8.1.4 (5670)
Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag (subsonic) ?
81.7.4.4 (5664)
a) The gliding angle is minimum.
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect
b) The CL/CD ratio is minimum.
is mainly induced by:
c) Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
a) high angles of attack.
d) Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.
b) high speed.
c) large angles of yaw.
d) large angles of climb. 81.8.1.4 (5671)
Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a
glide ?
81.7.4.4 (5665)
a) tailwind
A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The asymmetric thrust effect
b) headwind
in the climb will:

469
c) increase of aeroplane weight 81.8.1.5 (5678)
d) decrease of aeroplane weight What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross weight of 50
000 N, in a horizontal coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ?
a) 70 000 N
81.8.1.5 (5672)
b) 60 000 N
A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining airspeed and holding
c) 50 000 N
altitude. In such a case, the pilot has to:
d) 80 000 N
a) increase thrust and angle of attack.
b) increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
c) increase thrust and decrease angle of attack. 81.8.2.1 (5679)
d) increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged. Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a left engine
failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings
level ?
81.8.1.5 (5673)
a) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.
An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank angle of
b) turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
45°. Its turning radius is equal to:(given: g= 10 m/s²)
c) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
a) 2381 metres.
d) turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.
b) 4743 metres.
c) 9000 metres.
d) 3354 metres. 81.8.2.9 (5680)
Which of the following statements is correct ?I When the critical engine fails
during take-off the speed VMCL can be limiting.II The speed VMCL is always
81.8.1.5 (5674)
limited by maximum rudder deflection.
By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady level turn at 45° angle of
a) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
bank, compared to straight and level flight?
b) I is correct, II is correct
a) 41%.
c) I is correct, II is incorrect
b) 19%.
d) I is incorrect, II is correct
c) 31%.
d) 52%.
81.8.2.9 (5681)
I is incorrect, II is correct
81.8.1.5 (5675)
a) I is correct, II is correct
A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt TAS. A more heavy
b) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
aeroplane at the same bank and the same speed will:
c) I is correct, II is incorrect
a) turn at the same turn radius.
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
b) turn at a bigger turn radius.
c) turn at a smaller turn radius.
d) turn at a higher turn rate. 81.8.2.9 (5682)
I is correct, II is correct
a) I is incorrect, II is incorrect
81.8.1.5 (5676)
b) I is correct, II is incorrect
The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:
c) I is incorrect, II is correct
a) TAS.
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
b) weight.
c) load factor.
d) wind. 81.8.2.10 (5683)
Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering disconnected?
a) Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet and/or slippery
81.8.1.5 (5677)
runways.
The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator is left of neutral. To
b) Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative after an engine has failed.
coordinate the turn:
c) Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after the nosewheel has already
a) more right bank is required.
been lifted off the ground.
b) more right rudder is required.
d) Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of VMCG.
c) less right bank is required.
d) a higher turn rate is required.
81.8.2.11 (5684)
decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.
470
a) decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the IAS decreases with TAS b) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to a specific
constant and decreasing density station or stations.
b) increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required c) A transmission of messages relating to en-route weather information which may affect the
rudder force safety of aircraft operations that is not addressed to a specific station or stations.
c) increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the density d) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
decreases
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
91.1.2.0 (5691)
Which abbreviation is used for the term ""control zone""?
81.8.3.3 (5685) a) CTR.
(For this question use annex 081-6262A)Which point marks the value for minimum b) CZ.
sink rate? c) CTZ.
a) Point c d) CTA.
b) Point a
c) Point b
91.1.2.0 (5692)
d) Point d
What does the abbreviation ""AFIS"" mean?
a) Aerodrome flight information service.
81.8.3.3 (5686) b) Automatic flight information service.
(For this question use annex 081-6263A)Which point in the diagram gives the best c) Aeronautical flight information system.
glide condition? d) Aerodrome flashing identification signal.
a) Point b
b) Point a
91.1.2.0 (5693)
c) Point c
What does the abbreviation ""FIR"" mean?
d) Point d
a) Flight information region.
b) Flight information required.
81.8.3.3 (5687) c) Flow information received.
(For this question use annex 081-6264A)Which point in the diagram gives the d) Flight information radar.
lowest speed in horizontal flight?
a) Point d
91.1.2.0 (5694)
b) Point a
What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?
c) Point b
a) Sunrise to sunset.
d) Point c
b) Sunset to sunrise.
c) No specific working hours.
81.8.3.3 (5688) d) Continuous day and night service.
From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can read:
a) the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient.
91.1.2.0 (5695)
b) the minimum drag and the maximum lift.
What does the abbreviation ""HX"" mean?
c) the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.
a) No specific working hours.
d) the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag.
b) Sunrise to sunset.
c) Sunset to sunrise.
81.8.3.3 (5689) d) Continuous day and night service.
(CL/CD)max
a) CLmax
91.1.2.0 (5696)
b) (CL/CD^2)max
Which abbreviation is used for ""Co-ordinated universal time""?
c) (CL^3/CD^2)max
a) UTC.
d) 1998-10-05 0:00
b) CUT.
c) GMT.
91.1.1.0 (5690) d) COUT.
What does the term ""blind transmission"" mean?
a) A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-
91.1.3.0 (5697)
way communication cannot be established but it is believed that the called station
What does QTE mean?
is able to receive the transmission.
471
a) True bearing from the station. a) QDM.
b) Magnetic bearing from the station. b) QDR.
c) True heading to the station (no wind). c) QNE.
d) Magnetic heading to the station. d) QTE.

91.1.3.0 (5698) 91.1.4.0 (5705)

What is the Q-code for ""true bearing from the station""? A message concerning aircraft parts and material urgently required is:
a) QTE a) A flight regularity message.
b) QDR b) An urgency message.
c) QDM c) A flight safety message.
d) QFE d) A flight security message.

91.1.3.0 (5699) 91.1.4.0 (5706)

What does QDR mean? Flight safety messages are:
a) Magnetic bearing from the station a) Air traffic control messages.
b) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind) b) Operation messages concerning non-routine landings.
c) True bearing from the station c) Messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a vessel, any other vehicle or a person.
d) True heading to the station d) Messages relating to direction finding.

91.1.3.0 (5700) 91.1.4.0 (5707)

What is the Q-code for ""magnetic bearing from the station""? A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger,
a) QDR requiring immediate assistance is called:
b) QTE a) Distress message.
c) QDM b) Flight safety message.
d) QFE c) Urgency message.
d) Class B message.
91.1.3.0 (5701)
If you are requested to report your height, to which Q-code-setting would you 91.1.4.0 (5708)
refer ? Which of the messages listed below shall not be handled by the aeronautical
a) QFE mobile service?
b) QNH a) Radio teletype messages.
c) QDM b) Meteorological messages.
d) QBI c) Flight safety messages.
d) Urgency messages.
91.1.3.0 (5702)
Which Q-code is used to report altitude ? 91.1.4.0 (5709)
a) QNH The message to an aeronautical ground station ""please call a taxi-cab for us. We
b) QFE will arrive at 1045"" is:
c) QFF a) An unauthorized message.
d) QNJ b) A flight regularity message.
c) A flight safety messages.
d) An urgency message.
91.1.3.0 (5703)
What does QDM mean?
a) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind) 91.1.4.0 (5710)
b) Magnetic bearing from the station The priority of the instruction ""taxi to runway 05"" is:
c) True heading to the station (no wind) a) Same as ""line-up runway 07 and wait"".
d) True bearing from the station b) Greater than ""transmit for QDM"".
c) Greater than ""caution, construction work left of taxiway"".
d) Less than ""cleared to land"".
91.1.3.0 (5704)
What is the Q-code for ""magnetic heading to the station (no wind)?

472
91.1.4.0 (5711) c) Hotel Bravo India Yankee Charlie
The message addressed to an Area Control Center ""request radar vectors to d) Hotel Bravo India Victor Charlie
circumnavigate adverse weather"" is:
a) A flight safety message.
91.2.2.0 (5718)
b) A meteorological message.
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 3500 when indicating an
c) An urgency message.
altitude or an height ?
d) A message relating to direction finding.
a) three thousand five hundred
b) three five zero zero
91.1.4.0 (5712) c) three five hundred
Air traffic control messages (clearances, instructions, etc.) belong to the category d) three five double zero
of:
a) Flight safety messages.
91.2.2.0 (5719)
b) Class B messages.
What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as a QNH ?
c) Flight regularity messages.
a) QNH one zero zero one
d) Service messages.
b) QNH one double ""O"" one
c) QNH one thousand and one
91.1.4.0 (5713) d) QNH one double zero one
The clearance : ""cleared for immediate take-off runway 03"" is:
a) A flight safety message.
91.2.2.0 (5720)
b) An urgency message.
During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point :
c) An unauthorized message.
a) The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.
d) A flight regularity message.
b) The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
c) The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
91.1.4.0 (5714) d) The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service
is:
91.2.3.0 (5721)
a) Distress message, urgency message, direction finding message.
When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
b) Direction finding message, distress message, urgency message.
a) Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)
c) Distress message, flight safety message, urgency message.
b) Local time (LT), 24-hour clock
d) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight regularity message.
c) Local time (LT) A.M. and P.M.
d) No specific system, as only the minutes are normally required
91.1.4.0 (5715)
The order of priority of the following messages in the aeronautical mobile service
91.2.3.0 (5722)
is:
The time is 9:20 A.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is
a) Flight safety message, meteorological message, flight regularity message.
no possibility of confusion about the hour ?
b) Meteorological message, direction finding message, flight safety message.
a) Two zero.
c) Flight regularity message, distress message, meteorological message.
b) Twenty.
d) Flight safety message, direction finding message, urgency message.
c) Two zero this hour.
d) Nine twenty A.M.
91.1.4.0 (5716)
The priority of the pilot's message ""request QDM"" is:
91.2.4.0 (5723)
a) Greater than ""turn left heading...""
My message will be more effective and understandable if I :
b) Less than ""request climb to flight level...""
a) Maintain the speaking volume at a constant level
c) Less than ""descend to flight level...""
b) Use the words twice method
d) Same as ""latest QNH 1018"".
c) Stress the end of message
d) Stress every beginning of message
91.2.1.0 (5717)
What is the correct way of spelling out HB-JYC in a radio message?
91.2.4.0 (5724)
a) Hotel Bravo Juliett Yankee Charlie
What is meant by good microphone technique ?
b) Hotel Bravo Juliett India Kilo
a) Use a normal conversation tone, speak clearly and distinctly.

473
b) Speak very loudly into the microphone. a) Turn left to leave the runway
c) Keep the microphone far away since it improveds the readability. b) Give way to aircraft from the left
d) Make large use of hesitation sounds as ""er"". c) Clear the runway immediately
d) Hold position on the left side of the runway
91.2.5.0 (5725)
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say:""I understand your message and 91.2.5.0 (5732)
will comply with it"": What does the phrase ""Go ahead"" mean:
a) Wilco a) Proceed with your message
b) Roger b) Taxi on
c) Will comply with your instruction c) Pass me the following information...
d) OK, will do it d) Yes

91.2.5.0 (5726) 91.2.5.0 (5733)

Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""Yes"": What does the phrase ""Roger"" mean:
a) Affirm a) I have received all of your last transmission
b) Yes b) A direct answer in the affirmative
c) Roger c) A direct answer in the negative
d) Affirmative d) Cleared for take-off or cleared to land

91.2.5.0 (5727) 91.2.5.0 (5734)

How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he is prepared for take-off: Which of these statements best describes the meaning of the phrase ""Standby"" ?
a) Ready for departure or ready a) Wait and I will call you
b) Ready for take-off b) Continue on present heading and listen out
c) Ready to line-up c) Select STANDBY on the SSR transponder
d) Ready to go d) Permission granted for action proposed

91.2.5.0 (5728) 91.2.5.0 (5735)

Which of these phrases is used to inform the control tower that a pilot perform a What does the phrase ""Read back"" mean:
missed approach: a) Repeat all, or the specified part, of this message back to me exactly as received
a) Going around b) Let me know that you have received and understood this message
b) Overshooting c) Did you correctly receive this message?
c) Will make another approach d) Check and confirm with originator
d) Pulling up
91.2.5.0 (5736)
91.2.5.0 (5729) Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""I should like to know..."" or ""I
What does the instruction ""Go around"" mean ? wish to obtain...""?
a) Carry out a missed approach a) Request
b) Overtake the aircraft ahead b) Report
c) Make a 360° turn c) Acknowledge
d) Proceed with your message d) Confirm

91.2.5.0 (5730) 91.2.5.0 (5737)

What does the instruction ""Orbit right"" mean ? Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""Pass me the following
a) Make 360° turns to the right information..."":
b) Turn right to avoid other traffic a) Report
c) Right-hand circuits are in use b) Request
d) Leave the runway to the right c) Say again
d) Check
91.2.5.0 (5731)
What does the instruction ""Vacate left"" mean ?

474
91.2.5.0 (5738) c) FLIGHT CENTRE
Which phrase shall be used to confirm that a message has been repeated correctly: d) CONTROL
a) Correct
b) That is right
91.2.6.0 (5745)
c) Affirm
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing surface
d) That is affirmative
movement control of aircraft on the manoeuvring area:
a) GROUND
91.2.5.0 (5739) b) APPROACH
Which phrase shall be used if you want to say: ""An error has been made in this c) TOWER
transmission (or message indicated). The correct version is ..."": d) CONTROL
a) QNH 1017, correction QNH 1016
b) QNH 1017, negative QNH 1016
91.2.6.0 (5746)
c) QNH 1017, negative 1016
When may the name of the location or the call sign suffix in the call sign of an
d) QNH 1017, negative I say again 1016
aeronautical station be omitted ?
a) When satisfactory communication has been established and provided it will not
91.2.5.0 (5740) be confusing to do so
Which phrase shall be used if the repetition of an entire message is required: b) Never
a) Say again c) Only after the aeronautical station has used the abbreviated call sign
b) Repeat your message d) In dense traffic during rush hours
c) What was your message?
d) Repeat your last transmission
91.2.7.0 (5747)
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct:
91.2.5.0 (5741) a) X-BC
Which phraseology is to be used to ask the control tower for permission to taxi on b) XY-BC
a runway in the direction opposite to that in use ? c) ABC
a) ""Request backtrack on runway"". d) BC
b) ""Clearance to backtrack"".
c) ""To enter back runway"".
91.2.7.0 (5748)
d) ""Backtrack clearance"".
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of Cherokee XY-ABC is correct:
a) Cherokee BC
91.2.5.0 (5742) b) Cherokee XY-BC
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say :""Wait and i will call you""? c) Cherokee X-BC
a) Standby. d) Cherokee X-ABC
b) Go ahead.
c) Roger.
91.2.7.0 (5749)
d) Wilco.
When is an aircraft station allowed to use its abbreviated call sign ?
a) After it has been addressed in this manner by the aeronautical ground station
91.2.6.0 (5743) b) Only after satisfactory communication has been established
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating c) Provided no confusion is likely to result
aerodrome control service: d) In dense traffic
a) TOWER
b) CONTROL
91.2.8.0 (5750)
c) AERODROME
How should aircraft XY-ABC call Stephenville TOWER on initial call ?
d) APRON
a) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC
b) Stephenville TOWER X-BC
91.2.6.0 (5744) c) Stephenville XY-ABC
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing flight d) TOWER XY-ABC
information service:
a) INFORMATION
91.2.8.0 (5751)
b) FLIGHT INFORMATION CENTRE
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to contact Stephenville TOWER on frequency

475
118.7. What is the correct response to indicate that it will follow this instruction ? speed instructions
a) 118.7 X-BC d) Time check, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, level instructions, SSR codes
b) Will change to TOWER X-BC
c) Changing over X-BC
91.2.10.0 (5758)
d) Stephenville TOWER X-BC
Shall an ATC route clearance always be read back:
a) Yes, unless authorized otherwise by ATS authority concerned
91.2.8.0 (5752) b) No, if the ATC route clearance is transmitted in a published form (e.g. Standard Instrument
Aircraft X-BC has been instructed to listen on ATIS frequency 123.25, on which Departure Route/SID)
information are being broadcast. What is the correct response to indicate that it c) No, if the communication channel is overloaded
will follow this instruction ? d) No, if the content of the ATC clearance is clear and no confusion is likely to arise
a) Monitoring 123.25 X-BC
b) Changing to 123.25 X-BC
91.2.10.0 (5759)
c) Will contact 123.25 X-BC
An aircraft is instructed to hold short of the runway-in-use. What is the correct
d) Checking 123.25 X-BC
phraseology to indicate it will follow this instruction ?
a) Holding short
91.2.8.0 (5753) b) Roger
What is the correct way to transmit and read back frequency 120.375 MHz (VHF c) Will stop before
channel separated by 25 KHz): d) Wilco
a) One two zero decimal three seven
b) One twenty decimal three seven
91.2.10.0 (5760)
c) One two zero decimal three seven five
Cherokee XY-ABC receives the following instruction: ""X-BC climb straight ahead
d) One two zero three seven
until 2500 feet before turning right, wind 270 degrees 6 knots, cleared for take-
off"".What is the correct read back:
91.2.9.0 (5754) a) Straight ahead, at 2500 feet right turn, cleared for take-off, X-BC
Aircraft XY-ABC is making a test transmission with Stephenville TOWER on b) Wilco, cleared for take-off, X-BC
frequency 118.7. What is the correct phrasing for this transmission: c) Right turn after 2500, roger, X-BC
a) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC radio check 118.7 d) Straight ahead, 2500 feet right turn, wind west 6 knots, cleared for take-off, X-BC
b) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC preflight check
c) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC signal check
91.2.10.0 (5761)
d) Stephenville TOWER XY-ABC frequency check
How should a pilot terminate the read-back of an ATC clearance ?
a) With his own aircraft call sign
91.2.9.0 (5755) b) With the word ""wilco""
On the readability scale what does ""Readability 3"" mean: c) With the ATC ground station call sign
a) Readable but with difficulty d) With the word ""roger""
b) No problem to understand
c) Loud and clear
91.2.11.0 (5762)
d) Unreadable
An aircraft is flying north-east at 2500 feet.TOWER requests heading and level.
What is the correct response:
91.2.9.0 (5756) a) Heading 045 at 2500 feet
On the readability scale what does ""Readability 5"" mean: b) Heading north-east at level 25
a) Perfectly readable c) Heading 45 at 2500 feet
b) Unreadable d) 045 and 2500
c) Problem to understand
d) Readable but with difficulty
91.2.11.0 (5763)
What does the phrase ""Squawk 1234"" mean:
91.2.10.0 (5757) a) Select code 1234 on the SSR transponder
Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ? b) Give a short count for DF (direction finder)
a) Runway-in-use, altimeter settings, SSR codes, level instructions, heading and c) Make a test transmission on 123.4 MHz
speed instructions d) Standby on frequency 123.4 MHz
b) Runway-in-use, visibility, surface wind, heading instructions, altimeter settings
c) Surface wind, visibility, ground temperature, runway-in-use, altimeter settings, heading and
476
91.2.11.0 (5764) c) Less than 50%
RADAR informs aircraft X-BC: ""X-BC identified"". What does this mean: d) No clouds but poor ground visibility
a) Radar identification has been achieved
b) X-BC is not visible on the radar screen
91.3.1.0 (5771)
c) X-BC should perform an identification turn
When the term ""CAVOK"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR),
d) X-BC should operate the IDENT-button
the values of visibility and clouds are:
a) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 5000 feet/GND
91.2.11.0 (5765) b) Visibility 10 km or more, no clouds below 1500 feet/GND
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:""X-BC squawk ident"". What does this mean: c) Visibility more than 8 km, no clouds below 3000 feet/GND
a) X-BC shall operate the IDENT button d) Visibility more than 5000 m, no clouds below 1500 m/GND
b) Radar identification has been achieved by correlating an observed radar blip with aircraft
XY-ABC
91.3.1.0 (5772)
c) X-BC should perform an identification turn of at least 020 degrees
How is the visibility in an aviation routine weather report (METAR) expressed in
d) X-BC shall reselect his assigned mode and code
plain language:
a) Up to 5000 m in metres, above in kilometres
91.2.11.0 (5766) b) Up to 1500 m in metres, above in kilometres
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC:""X-BC squawk standby "". What does this mean? c) In feet and nautical miles
a) X-BC is requested to switch to standby position d) In nautical miles only
b) X-BC is requested to standby on the frequency
c) X-BC is requested to standby for radar vectors
91.3.1.0 (5773)
d) X-BC is requested to standby as the radar controller is busy
What is the correct way of expressing visibility ?
a) Visibility 1200 metres
91.2.11.0 (5767) b) Visibility 1200 feet
RADAR instructs aircraft X-BC: ""X-BC recycle 1015"". What does this mean: c) Visibility 1.2 nautical miles
a) X-BC is requested to reselect SSR code 1015 d) Visibility 1.2 kilometres
b) X-BC is requested to set new code 1015
c) X-BC has been identified by SSR code 1015
91.3.1.0 (5774)
d) X-BC has been identified at 10:15 (UTC)
When the term ""Scattered"" is used in an aviation routine weather report
(METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is:
91.2.11.0 (5768) a) Half or less than half (3 or 4 octas)
How shall a pilot inform a radar control unit that the aircraft is not equipped with b) More than half but less than overcast (5 to 7 octas)
transponder: c) Sky entirely covered (8 octas)
a) Negative transponder d) No clouds below 5000 feet/GND
b) No SSR
c) Transponder not available
91.3.2.0 (5775)
d) Negative squawk
What is normally used for ATIS broadcasts ?
a) Discrete VHF frequency or/and VOR
91.3.1.0 (5769) b) Voice channel of an ILS
When the term ""Broken"" is used in an aviation routine weather report (METAR), c) NDB frequencies
the amount of clouds covering the sky is: d) DME voice channel
a) 5 to 7 octas
b) 1 to 4 octas
91.3.2.0 (5776)
c) 8 octas below 10000 feet
How can aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports be obtained
d) No clouds below 5000 feet
by aircraft in flight:
a) VOLMET
91.3.1.0 (5770) b) ATIS
When the term ""Overcast"" is used in an aviation routine weather report c) AFIS
(METAR), the amount of clouds covering the sky is: d) SIGMET
a) 100%
b) 50% or more

477
91.3.2.0 (5777) c) ""How do you read?""
Which information can aircraft in flight obtain by VOLMET: d) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
a) Aviation routine weather reports (METAR) of specific airports
b) SPECI and TAF
91.4.0.0 (5784)
c) SIGMET
In the event that a pilot is required to make a blind transmission, this should be
d) Runway reports
made:
a) Twice on the designated frequency
91.4.0.0 (5778) b) Only once on the designated frequency
What is the transponder code for radio communication failure: c) On the emergency frequency only
a) 7600 d) During VFR flights only
b) 6700
c) 7500
91.4.0.0 (5785)
d) 7700
When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase ""Transmitting blind due to
receiver failure"" during an en-route flight, the aircraft station shall also:
91.4.0.0 (5779) a) Advise the time of its next intended transmission
An aircraft is squawking 7600. This indicates: b) Join base leg when approaching the airfield for landing
a) It is unable to establish communication due to radio equipment failure c) Land at the nearest airfield/airport
b) It is diverting to the alternate aerodrome d) Return to the airport of departure
c) It is requesting immediate level change
d) It is about to make a forced landing
91.4.0.0 (5786)
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft station squawk 7600 ?
91.4.0.0 (5780) a) In case of radio communication failure
An aircraft station fails to establish radio contact with an aeronautical station on b) When entering bad weather areas
the designated frequency. What action is required by the pilot: c) When approaching a prohibited area
a) Attempt to establish contact with the station on an alternative frequency d) When flying over desert areas
b) Continue the flight to the destination airport without any communication
c) Return to the airport of departure
91.4.0.0 (5787)
d) Land at the nearest airport without an ATC unit
When shall the pilot of an aircraft experiencing communications failure keep a
watch for instructions passed by visual signals ?
91.4.0.0 (5781) a) When the aircraft is forming part of the aerodrome traffic at a controlled
What action is required by the pilot of an aircraft station if he/she is unable to aerodrome
establish radio contact with an aeronautical station ? b) When flying VFR above clouds
a) Try to establish communication with other aircraft or aeronautical stations c) When the aircraft is entering the traffic pattern of an uncontrolled airport
b) Divert to the alternate airport d) When entering a FIR during an IFR flight
c) Squawk mode A code 7500
d) Land at the nearest aerodrome appropriate to the route of flight
91.5.1.0 (5788)
An aircraft in state of emergency shall squawk:
91.4.0.0 (5782) a) 7700
A message preceded by the phrase ""Transmitting blind due receiver failure"" shall b) 6700
be transmitted: c) 7600
a) On the frequency presently in use d) 7500
b) On the regional guard frequency
c) On the international emergency frequency
91.5.1.0 (5789)
d) On all available aeronautical stations
Under which of the following circumstances shall an aircraft squawk 7700 ?
a) In distress
91.4.0.0 (5783) b) When following a SID
If all attempts to establish radio contact with a ground station fail, the pilot of an c) When flying within controlled airspace
aeroplane shall transmit messages preceded by the phrase: d) When passing the transition level
a) ""Transmitting blind""
b) ""Read you one, read you one""

478
91.5.1.0 (5790) 91.5.2.0 (5796)
Distress is defined as: An urgency message shall be preceded by the radiotelephony urgency signal:
a) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and a) PAN PAN, spoken three times
requiring immediate assistance b) URGENCY,spoken three times
b) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or of a person on board, but which does not c) MAYDAY, spoken three times
require immediate assistance d) ALERFA, spoken three times
c) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an
ILS approach
91.5.2.0 (5797)
d) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
Which frequency shall be used for the first transmission of an urgency call:
immediate assistance
a) The air-ground frequency in use at the time
b) The international emergency frequency
91.5.1.0 (5791) c) The regional guard frequency
An aircraft in distress shall send the following signal by radiotelephony: d) Any frequency at pilot's discretion
a) MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b) DETRESFA, DETRESFA, DETRESFA
91.6.0.0 (5798)
c) PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
Which is the frequency band containing frequencies of the Aeronautical Mobile
d) URGENCY, URGENCY, URGENCY
Service?
a) 118.000 - 136.975 MHZ
91.5.1.0 (5792) b) 108.000 - 117.975 MHz
The frequency used for the first transmission of a ""MAYDAY"" call shall be: c) 1810 - 2850 KHz
a) The frequency currently in use d) 11650 - 13200 KHz
b) The distress frequency 121.5 MHz
c) Any other international emergency frequency
91.6.0.0 (5799)
d) Any frequency at pilot's discretion
Which phenomena will normally influence the reception of VHF transmission ?
a) Level of aircraft and terrain elevations
91.5.1.0 (5793) b) The ionosphere
The distress message shall contain as many as possible of the following elements/ c) Electrical discharges as they happen frequently in thunderstorms
details: d) Day- and night effect
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of distress, pilot's intention, present position, level and
heading
91.6.0.0 (5800)
b) Aircraft call sign, route of flight, destination airport
Under which of the following circumstances may you expect a solid reception of
c) Aircraft call sign, aerodrome of departure, position and level
theTOWER frequency 118.2 MHz:
d) Aircraft call sign, present position, assistance required
a) Aircraft at high level in the vicinity of the ground station
b) Aircraft at low level but far away from the ground station
91.5.1.0 (5794) c) Aircraft at low level, far away from the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
Which of the following frequencies is an international emergency frequency: d) Aircraft at low level, in the vicinity of the ground station, in the radio shadow zone of a hill
a) 121.500 MHz
b) 122.500 MHz
91.6.0.0 (5801)
c) 6500 KHz
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over
d) 121.050 MHz
flat terrain at flight level 50:
a) About 85 NM
91.5.2.0 (5795) b) About 8 NM
Urgency is defined as: c) About 15 NM
a) A condition concerning the safety of an aircraft other vehicles or of a person on d) About 150 NM
board, but which does not require immediate assistance
b) A condition concerning the safety of a person on board or within sight and requiring
91.6.0.0 (5802)
immediate assistance
Which is the maximum distance at which you might expect solid VHF contact over
c) A condition concerning the attitude of an aircraft when intercepting the localizer during an
flat terrain at flight level 100:
ILS approach
a) About 120 NM
d) A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring
b) About 300 NM
immediate assistance

479
c) About 30 NM aerodrome, will commence the instrument approach procedure for a landing
d) About 12 NM c) The time at which an arriving aircraft expects to arrive over the appropriate designated
navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome
d) The holding time over the radio facility from which the instrument approach procedure for a
91.6.0.0 (5803)
landing will be initiated
To which frequency bands do the frequencies 118.000 - 136.975 MHz of the
Aeronautical Mobile Service belong ?
a) Very high frequency 92.1.1.0 (5809)
b) Very low frequency When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term
c) Low frequency ""Visual approach"" ?
d) Medium frequency a) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach
procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to
terrain
91.6.0.0 (5804)
b) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
Which is the frequency separation between consecutive frequencies in the VHF
c) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the
band:
aerodrome of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
a) 25 KHz
d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
b) 50 KHz
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach
c) 75 KHz
d) 250 KHz
92.1.1.0 (5810)
What does the term ""clearance limit"" mean:
91.6.0.0 (5805)
a) The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control clearance
What are the propagation characteristics of VHF:
b) The time of expiry of an air traffic control clearance
a) Practically straight-line similar to light waves
c) The time at which an aircraft is given an air traffic control clearance
b) The waves are reflected at the ionosphere at the height of about 100 km and reach the
d) The time after which an air traffic control clearance will be automatically cancelled if the
earth surface in the form of sky-waves
flight has not been commenced
c) The waves travel along the surface of the earth and penetrate into valleys in a way that
topographical obstacles have no influence
d) Similar to short waves with practically no atmospheric disturbance 92.1.1.0 (5811)
An ""Automatic Terminal Information Service"" provides:
a) Routine information to arriving and departing aircraft by means of continuous
92.1.1.0 (5806)
and repetitive broadcast .
What does the term ""broadcast"" mean?
b) Information concerning en-route weather phenomena which may effect the safety of
a) A transmission of information relating to air navigation that is not addressed to
aircraft operation.
a specific station or stations.
c) Current meteorological and operational information essential for the safety of the air
b) A radiotelephony transmission from ground station to aircraft in flight.
navigation within a FIR.
c) A transmission where no reply is required from the receiving station.
d) Weather reports relating a specific number of aerodromes located within a flight
d) A transmission containing meteorological and operational information to aircraft engaged in
information region (FIR).
flights over remote and oceanic areas out of range of VHF ground stations.

92.1.1.0 (5812)
92.1.1.0 (5807)
What does the term ""way point"" mean:
What does the term ""air-ground communication"" mean?
a) A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or the
a) Two-way communication between aircraft and stations or locations on the
flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
surface of the earth
b) A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation
b) One-way communication from aircraft to stations or locations on the surface of the earth
system
c) One-way communication from stations or locations on the surface of the earth
c) A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
d) Any communication from aircraft to ground station requiring handling by the Aeronautical
d) A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international airport
Fixed Telecommunication Network (AFTN)

92.1.2.0 (5813)
92.1.1.0 (5808)
What does the abbreviation ""IMC"" mean?
What does the term ""Expected Approach Time"" mean:
a) Instrument meteorological conditions.
a) The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will
b) In most cases.
leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing
b) The time at which an arriving aircraft, upon reaching the radio aid serving the destination
480
c) International meteorological channel. c) A system in which radiotelephony communication between two stations can take place in
d) In meteorological conditions. both directions simultaneously
d) A system provided for direct exchange of information between air traffic services (ATS)
units
92.1.2.0 (5814)
What does the abbreviation ""H24"" mean?
a) Continuous day and night service. 92.1.2.0 (5821)
b) Sunrise to sunset. What does the abbreviation ""SSR"" mean:
c) Sunset to sunrise. a) Secondary surveillance radar
d) No specific working hours. b) Search and surveillance radar
c) Surface strength of runway
d) Standard snow report
92.1.2.0 (5815)
What does the abbreviation ""AIS"" mean?
a) Aeronautical information service. 92.1.2.0 (5822)
b) Aerodrome identification signal-area. What does the abbrevation ""RNAV"" mean:
c) Airport information system. a) Area navigation
d) Aerodrome information service. b) Radar aided navigation
c) Route navigation
d) Radio navigation
92.1.2.0 (5816)
What does the abbreviation ""SAR"" mean?
a) Search and rescue. 92.1.2.0 (5823)
b) Surveillance airport radar. What does the abbreviation ""RVR"" mean:
c) Standard arrival route. a) Runway visual range
d) Secondary altimeter responder. b) Radar vectors requested
c) Runway visibility report
d) Recleared via route...
92.1.2.0 (5817)
What does the abbreviation ""ATIS"" mean?
a) Automatic terminal information service. 92.1.3.0 (5824)
b) Airport terminal information service. QFE is the RTF Q-code to indicate:
c) Automatic terminal information system. a) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
d) Air traffic information service. b) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest fixed obstacle located on the surface of
an aerodrome.
c) The atmospheric pressure corrected to the aircraft cockpit height.
92.1.2.0 (5818)
d) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain the flight level reference datum.
What does the abbrevation ""INS"" mean:
a) Inertial navigation system
b) Instrument navigation system 92.1.3.0 (5825)
c) International NOTAM system QNH is the Q-code to indicate:
d) International navigation service a) The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
b) The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).
c) The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).
92.1.2.0 (5819)
d) The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an
What does the abbrevation ""MLS"" mean:
aerodrome.
a) Microwave landing system
b) Minimum safe level
c) Mean sea level 92.2.2.0 (5826)
d) Minimum sector level What is the correct way of transmitting the number 118.1 to indicate a frequency ?
a) one one eight decimal one
b) one eighteen one
92.1.2.0 (5820)
c) one one eight one
What does ""SELCAL"" mean:
d) one one eight point one
a) A system which permits the selective calling of individual aircraft over
radiotelephone channels linking a ground station with the aircraft
b) A system in which radiotelephony communication can be established between aircraft only

481
92.2.2.0 (5827) b) Never, it is used only by the control tower
What is the correct way of transmitting the number 13.500 to indicate an altitude c) To inform TOWER when ready for departure
or cloud height ? d) Only when the aircraft has already moved onto the active runway
a) one three thousand five hundred
b) one three five hundred
92.2.5.0 (5834)
c) one three five zero zero
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he has to abandon the take-off
d) thirteen thousand five hundred
manoeuvre:
a) Stopping
92.2.2.0 (5828) b) Abandoning take-off
During radar vectoring, the controller asks the pilot of XY-ABC to turn on to c) Aborting take-off
heading 360°. The correct read back of this instruction is : d) Cancelling take-off
a) Heading three six zero, X-BC.
b) Heading north, X-BC.
92.2.5.0 (5835)
c) Heading three hundred sixty, X-BC.
What is the correct way for the pilot to acknowledge that ATIS Information Golf
d) A read back is not necessary as XY-ABC has been identified
has been received:
a) Information Golf
92.2.3.0 (5829) b) Weather Golf received
The time is 4:15 P.M. What is the correct way of transmitting this time if there is c) We have the Information
any possibility of confusion about the hour ? d) We have the ATIS Golf
a) One six one five
b) Four fifteen P.M.
92.2.5.0 (5836)
c) Sixteen fifteen
What does the phrase ""Verify"" mean:
d) Four fifteen in the afternoon
a) Check and confirm with originator
b) Repeat your last transmission
92.2.4.0 (5830) c) Read back VDF bearing
Before transmitting the pilot should...: d) Consider that transmission as not sent
a) Listen out on the frequency to ensure no interference with another station
already transmitting will occur.
92.2.5.0 (5837)
b) Make sure that the aircraft is levelled off.
What does the word ""Monitor"" mean:
c) Always write the message and read it during the transmission.
a) Listen out on (frequency).
d) Make sure that the emergency frequency is tuned in at the same time.
b) Wait and I will call you
c) Establish radio contact with...
92.2.4.0 (5831) d) Examine a system or procedure
What is the consequence of a microphone button stuck on transmit (switched
""on"") ?
92.2.5.0 (5838)
a) The frequency can not be used by others.
What does the instruction:""Fastair 345 standby 118.9 for TOWER"" mean:
b) None.
a) Fastair 345 should listen on frequency 118.9 on which TOWER will initiate
c) Other stations will have to use the ""words twice"" technique.
further communications
d) Readability will improve for all stations.
b) Fastair 345 should change frequency to 118.9, on which aerodrome data are being
broadcast
92.2.5.0 (5832) c) Fastair 345 should contact TOWER on 118.9
Which of these phrases is used if you want to communicate that a message: d) Fastair 345 should standby on the current frequency
""Consider that transmission as not sent"":
a) Disregard
92.2.5.0 (5839)
b) Cancel my last message
Fastair 345 has been instructed to contact Stephenville ARRIVAL on frequency
c) Forget it
118.0. What is the correct way to indicate it will follow this instruction:
d) My last transmission is cancelled
a) 118.0 Fastair 345
b) Changing over Fastair 345
92.2.5.0 (5833) c) Changing to ARRIVAL Fastair 345
When shall the phrase ""Take-off"" be used by a pilot : d) Stephenville ARRIVAL Fastair 345
a) To acknowledge take-off clearance only
482
92.2.5.0 (5840) c) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
Which phraseology shall a pilot use if he receives an instruction from ATC which he d) Repeat all of your last transmission.
cannot carry out:
a) Unable to comply
92.2.5.0 (5847)
b) Negative instruction
What does the word ""approved"" mean ?
c) Impossible to make it
a) Permission for proposed action granted.
d) Disregard
b) That is correct.
c) Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified.
92.2.5.0 (5841) d) I repeat for clarity or emphasis.
Which phrase should a pilot use to inform ATC that he is initiating a missed
approach procedure:
92.2.5.0 (5848)
a) Going around
Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate a separation between portions of a
b) Missed approach
message ?
c) Pulling up
a) Break.
d) Overshooting
b) Stop.
c) I say again.
92.2.5.0 (5842) d) Over.
What does the word ""report"" mean ?
a) Pass me the following information.
92.2.5.0 (5849)
b) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.
What does the word ""cancel"" mean ?
c) Say again.
a) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
d) Examine a system or procedure.
b) A change has been made to your last clearance.
c) Wait and I will call you.
92.2.5.0 (5843) d) Consider that transmission as not sent.
Which word or phrase shall be used if you want to say : ""Reduce your rate of
speech"" ?
92.2.5.0 (5850)
a) Speak slower.
What does the word ""check"" mean ?
b) Words twice.
a) Examine a system or procedure.
c) Repeat.
b) Confirm your last transmission.
d) Say again.
c) Read back my last instruction.
d) I understand your message.
92.2.5.0 (5844)
What does the word ""wilco"" mean ?
92.2.5.0 (5851)
a) I understand your message and will comply with it.
Which word or phrase shall be used when giving authorization to proceed under
b) I have received all of your last transmission.
specified conditions ?
c) I read you five.
a) Cleared.
d) As communication is difficult, I will call you later.
b) Go ahead.
c) Approved.
92.2.5.0 (5845) d) I say again : proceed.
What does the phrase ""break break"" mean ?
a) It indicates the separation between messages transmitted to different aircraft in
92.2.5.0 (5852)
a very busy environment.
Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a
b) It indicates the separation between portions of a message transmitted to an aircraft station.
message, clearance, instruction, etc ?
c) The exchange of transmissions is ended and no response is expected.
a) Confirm.
d) My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.
b) Correct.
c) Acknowledge.
92.2.5.0 (5846) d) Verify.
What does the word ""acknowledge"" mean ?
a) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
92.2.5.0 (5853)
b) Pass me the following information.
What does the word ""contact"" mean ?

483
a) Establish radio contact with ... . a) That is not correct.
b) Radar contact established . b) Consider that transmission as not sent.
c) Listen out on (frequency) . c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
d) That is correct . d) I say again.

92.2.5.0 (5854) 92.2.5.0 (5861)

Which word or phrase shall be used in order to repeat for clarity or emphasis ? Which word or phrase shall be used to indicate that a change has been made to
a) I say again . your last clearance and this new clearance supersedes your previous clearance or
b) Confirm . part thereof ?
c) Read back . a) Recleared.
d) Verify . b) Cleared.
c) Approved.
d) Break break.
92.2.5.0 (5855)
What does the word ""correct"" mean ?
a) That is correct. 92.2.5.0 (5862)
b) An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is ... . What does the word ""recleared"" mean ?
c) Permission for proposed action not granted. a) A change has been made to your last clearance.
d) Negative, the correct version is ... . b) Permission for proposed action granted.
c) An error has been made in my last transmission.
d) Consider that transmission as not sent.
92.2.5.0 (5856)
Which word shall be used to indicate that an error has been made in a transmission
or message ? 92.2.5.0 (5863)
a) Correction. Which phrase shall be used if you want to say : ''Communication is difficult. Please
b) Correct. send every word or group of words twice'' ?
c) Negative. a) Words twice
d) Disregard. b) Say again, say again
c) Repeat twice
d) Message second time
92.2.5.0 (5857)
What does the word ""disregard"" mean ?
a) Consider that transmission as not sent. 92.2.5.0 (5864)
b) An error has been made in this transmission. To indicate that he is no longer occupying the active runway a pilot shall report to
c) Annul the previously transmitted clearance. the controller :
d) Wait and I will call you. a) Runway vacated.
b) Runway cleared.
c) Runway free.
92.2.5.0 (5858)
d) Clear of runway.
What phrase shall be used when asking for the readability of a transmission ?
a) How do you read ?
b) Read back . 92.2.6.0 (5865)
c) Report readability . What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station providing
d) Read you loud and clear . approach control (no radar service) ?
a) APPROACH
b) ARRIVAL
92.2.5.0 (5859)
c) RADAR
What does the word ""negative"" mean ?
d) CONTROL
a) Permission not granted.
b) Proposed action granted.
c) Disregard last instruction. 92.2.6.0 (5866)
d) Consider that transmission as not sent. What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating area
control centre (no radar):
a) ...CONTROL
92.2.5.0 (5860)
b) ...CENTRE
What does the word ""negative"" mean ?

484
c) ...APPROACH 92.2.7.0 (5873)
d) ...RADAR When shall an aircraft in the heavy-wake-turbulence category include the word
""Heavy"" immediately after its call sign e.g. Fastair 345 heavy:
a) In the initial call to the aerodrome control tower and the approach control unit
92.2.6.0 (5867)
b) Never
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating
c) In all calls
approach control radar departures:
d) In all calls to the aerodrome tower and the approach control unit
a) ...DEPARTURE
b) ...CONTROL
c) ...RADAR 92.2.9.0 (5874)
d) ...APPROACH Which of the following calls is a ""general call"" ?
a) ALL STATIONS Stephenville CONTROL.
b) YX-ABC, YX-BCD, YX-CDE Stephenville CONTROL.
92.2.6.0 (5868)
c) YX-DEF Stephenville CONTROL.
What is the radiotelephony call sign for the aeronautical station indicating
d) YX-EFG, YX-FGH over.
approach control radar arrivals:
a) ...ARRIVAL
b) ...APPROACH 92.2.9.0 (5875)
c) ...RADAR Must a ""general call"" be acknowledged""?
d) ...DIRECTOR a) No.
b) Yes, but only from the station first called.
c) Yes, from all stations in the sequence they have been adressed.
92.2.6.0 (5869)
d) Yes, from all stations in a random sequence.
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station providing
radar service (in general) ?
a) RADAR. 92.2.9.0 (5876)
b) CONTROL. What is meant by the phrase ""readability 2""?
c) RADAR-CONTROL. a) Readable now and then.
d) RADAR-SERVICE. b) Readable.
c) Unreadable.
d) Readable but with difficulty.
92.2.6.0 (5870)
What is the radiotelephony call sign suffix for the aeronautical station indicating
clearance delivery ? 92.2.9.0 (5877)
a) DELIVERY. On the readability scale what does ""readability 1"" mean ?
b) CLEARANCE. a) Unreadable.
c) CLEARANCE DELIVERY. b) Readable.
d) RADIO. c) Perfectly readable.
d) Readable but with difficulty.
92.2.7.0 (5871)
What, if any, is the abbreviated call sign of Fastair 2345 ? 92.2.9.0 (5878)
a) No abbreviated form What is meant by the phrase "" readibility 4""?
b) Fastair 345 a) Readable.
c) Fastair 45 b) Readable now and then.
d) 2345 c) Perfectly readable.
d) Readable but with difficulty.
92.2.7.0 (5872)
What is the correct call sign of Fastair 345 in the initial call to the aerodrome 92.2.9.0 (5879)
control tower and the approach control unit, if the aircraft has a maximum take-off When an aeronautical station broadcasts information to more than one station, the
weight of more than 136 tonnes: call starts with :
a) Fastair 345 heavy a) ""All stations""
b) Heavy Fastair 345 b) ""General broadcast""
c) Fastair 345 c) ""Message to all aircraft on this frequency""
d) Fastair 345 widebody d) ""Please listen""

485
92.2.10.0 (5880) c) On regional guard frequencies only
Which elements of instructions or information shall always be read back ? d) During IFR flights only
a) SSR code, QNH, take-off clearance, speed instructions
b) QNH, weather information, runway-in-use
92.3.0.0 (5887)
c) ATC clearance, speed instructions, runway state information
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is
d) QNH, SSR code, approach aid serviceability
assumed to:
a) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival
92.2.10.0 (5881) b) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace
Which of the following messages sent by ATC to an aircraft in flight must be read c) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome
back?1 - ""descend to (altitude) 3.000 feet""2 - ""wind 240°, 15 knots, gusts 30 d) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case
knots""3 - ""turn right heading 210""4 - ""reduce speed to 160 knots""5 -
""squawk 1723""6 - ""braking action poor""
92.3.0.0 (5888)
a) 1, 3, 4, 5
An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The
b) all
aircraft is assumed to :
c) 1, 2, 3, 5
a) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) Return to the aerodrome of departure
c) Land at the alternate aerodrome
92.2.12.0 (5882) d) Land at the destination aerodrome
What shall the pilot's readback be for ""climb to 2500 feet"":
a) Climbing to two thousand five hundred feet
92.3.0.0 (5889)
b) Up to two thousand five hundred
An aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC is
c) Climbing to two point five
assumed to:
d) Climbing to two thousand five hundred
a) Proceed in accordance with the current flight plan to the designated navigation
aid serving the destination aerodrome
92.2.12.0 (5883) b) Proceed to an area from where the flight can be continued according to the visual flight
ATC clears Fastair 345 to descend from FL 100 to FL 80. What is the correct rules
readback by the pilot: c) Divert to the most suitable aerodrome according to the route of flight
a) Leaving flight level 100 descending to flight level 80, Fastair 345 d) Execute a VMC approach at the nearest suitable aerodrome
b) Descending to 80, Fastair 345
c) Down to flight level 80, Fastair 345
92.3.0.0 (5890)
d) Leaving 100 to 80, Fastair 345
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
hold over the designated navigation aid serving the destination aerodrome:
92.2.12.0 (5884) a) Until the expected approach time last received and acknowledged
Which elements of a position report cannot be omitted ? b) Under no circumstances
a) Aircraft identification, position, time c) 5 minutes in any case
b) Aircraft identification, position, time, level d) 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged
c) Aircraft identification, position, level
d) Aircraft identification, position, next position
92.3.0.0 (5891)
An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
92.2.12.0 (5885) commence descent over the designated navigation aid serving the destination
What shall the pilot's readback be for""Climb to FL 280"": aerodrome (no EAT received):
a) Climbing to flight level two eight zero a) At, or as close to, the ETA resulting from the current flight plan
b) Climbing to flight level two eighty b) 5 minutes after the last expected approach time acknowledged
c) Climbing two eight zero c) Immediately after reaching in any case
d) Climbing to two eighty d) After 3 minutes, if an expected approach time is not acknowledged

92.3.0.0 (5886) 92.3.0.0 (5892)

Blind transmission shall be made: An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to
a) On the designated frequency (frequency in use) land, if possible, within:
b) To all available aeronautical stations a) 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later
b) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure
486
c) 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT aircraft assigned exclusively to medical transportation
d) 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer b) The aircraft has a sick passenger on board and requests priority to land
c) The aircraft has an urgent need of medical care upon landing at destination airport
d) The phrase/signal is inadmissible in radiotelephony
92.3.0.0 (5893)
Within the European Region, an aircraft experiencing radio communication failure
on an IFR departure has to squawk 7600 and: 92.4.1.0 (5899)
a) Maintain the level last assigned by the ATC for a period of 3 minutes and then A message concerning a protected medical transport operated by aircraft assigned
climb in accordance with the flight plan exclusively to medical transportation shall be preceded by the signal:
b) Climb immediately to the cruising level indicated in the flight plan a) PAN PAN MEDICAL
c) Land at the departure aerodrome in any case b) MEDICAL TRANSPORT
d) Maintain the altitude last assigned by ATC for a period of 5 minutes and then continue in c) PROTECTED TRANSPORT
accordance with the flight plan d) PAN PAN TRANSPORT

92.3.0.0 (5894) 92.4.2.0 (5900)

A departing aircraft experiencing radio communication failure on an IFR flight The frequency 121.500 MHz is designated as:
under radar vectors has to: a) An international emergency frequency
a) Squawk 7600 and thereafter return to the route indicated in the current flight b) A frequency for air-to-air communication
plan in the most direct manner c) A regional UHF frequency
b) Squawk 7600 and maintain the heading last assigned by ATC for a period of 3 minutes and d) An airline operation frequency
then return to the flight path in accordance with the current flight plan
c) Squawk 7600, maintain present heading for 1 minute and thereafter return to the route
92.4.2.0 (5901)
indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates to the ground station that:
d) Squawk 7600 and thereafter, regardless of any limitation instructed by ATC, return to the
a) The aircraft is in distress
route indicated in the current flight plan on the shortest way
b) The aircraft is being hijacked
c) The aircraft's transceiver is unserviceable
92.3.0.0 (5895) d) There is a sick passenger on board
In case of a SSR transponder failure occuring after departure of an IFR flight, the
pilot shall:
92.4.2.0 (5902)
a) Inform the competent ATC unit immediately
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken word MAYDAY MAYDAY
b) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome for repair
MAYDAY means:
c) Squawk 7600
a) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required
d) Continue the flight in VMC
b) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a ship, aircraft
or vehicle
92.3.0.0 (5896) c) The aircraft has a message to transmit concerning adverse weather conditions along its
In case the transponder fails before the departure for an IFR flight, the pilot shall: route of flight
a) Obtain prior permission by ATC to conduct the flight d) The aircraft is forced to perform a fuel dumping procedure
b) Inform FIS for relay to AIS
c) Insert under item 18 of the flight plan ""transponder unserviceable""
92.4.2.0 (5903)
d) Inform ATC after departure
The distress signal and the distress message to be sent by an aircraft in distress be
on:
92.3.0.0 (5897) a) The air-ground frequency in use at the time
The expression "" transmitting blind due to receiver failure"" implies that no b) The emergency frequency in any case
answer is expected. It shall be used by: c) The regional guard frequency
a) An aircraft station being aware of receiver failure d) The FIS frequency designated for the airspace concerned
b) An aircraft station doing blind transmissions at a ""non-towered"" airfield
c) A radar controller performing a PAR or SRE final approach.
92.4.2.0 (5904)
d) A ground station broadcasting information to all listening stations.
When an aircraft station receives the call ""ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR,
stop transmitting MAYDAY"" it is requested :
92.4.1.0 (5898) a) Not to interfere with the distress communication.
What do the spoken words '' PAN PAN MEDICAL '' mean ? b) To continue normal communication on the frequency in use.
a) The message which follows concerns a protected medical transport operated by
487
c) To assist Stephenville RADAR in handling the distress traffic. 92.4.3.0 (5911)
d) To leave the frequency in use. On hearing an urgency message a pilot shall:
a) Monitor the frequency to ensure assistance if required
b) Acknowledge the message immediately
92.4.2.0 (5905)
c) Impose radio silence on the frequency in use
When an aircraft station receives the call ""ALL STATIONS Stephenville RADAR,
d) Change the frequency, because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use
distress traffic ended"" it is requested :
a) To resume normal communication with Stephenville RADAR.
b) To impose silence to other stations in its vicinity. 92.4.3.0 (5912)
c) Acknowledge receipt of this message. Which of the following statements is correct ?
d) Discontinue communication with Stephenville RADAR. a) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications,
except distress
b) The urgency communications have priority over all the other communications
92.4.2.0 (5906)
c) There is no difference regarding priority between distress communications and urgency
Which of the following messages shall a station in control of distress use to impose
communications
silence ?
d) ATC clearances have the same priority as urgency communications
a) Stop transmitting, MAYDAY
b) Stop transmitting, DISTRESS
c) Stop transmitting, EMERGENCY 92.4.3.0 (5913)
d) All stations in this frequency, MAYDAY traffic The urgency message to be sent by an aircraft reporting an urgency condition shall
contain at least the following elements/details :
a) Aircraft call sign, nature of the urgency condition, pilot's intention, present
92.4.2.0 (5907)
position, level and heading
The distress communication and silence conditions shall be terminated by
b) Aircraft call sign, destination airport, ETA at destination, route of flight
transmitting a message. Which words shall this message include ?
c) Name of the station addressed, present position, assistance required
a) Distress traffic ended
d) Aircraft identification, aerodrome of departure, level and heading
b) Emergency communication finished
c) MAYDAY traffic ended
d) Disregard distress communication, OUT 92.5.1.0 (5914)
When transmitting runway visual range (RVR) for runway 16 ATC will use the
following phrase:
92.4.2.0 (5908)
a) RVR runway 16 touchdown ... metres, mid-point ... metres, stop end ... metres
When an aircraft is no longer in distress, it shall transmit a message cancelling the
b) The values of the transmissometer are: ... metres and ... metres
distress condition. Which words shall this message include ?
c) RVR at the beginning of runway 16 is ... metres
a) ... cancel distress
d) RVR runway 16 ... metres diagonal ... metres diagonal ... metres
b) ... MAYDAY, resuming normal operations
c) ... MAYDAY cancelled
d) ... distress condition terminated 92.5.1.0 (5915)
What does ""Friction coefficient 45"" in a runway report mean:
a) Braking action good
92.4.2.0 (5909)
b) Braking action medium
Radio silence can be imposed by an aeronautical station in case of :
c) Braking action poor
a) Distress traffic.
d) Braking action not measurable
b) Urgency communication.
c) Overload of the frequency.
d) Technical difficulties. 92.5.1.0 (5916)
What does ""Friction coefficient 20"" in a runway report mean:
a) Braking action poor
92.4.3.0 (5910)
b) Braking action medium
A signal sent by radiotelephony consisting of the spoken words PAN PAN, PAN
c) Braking action good
PAN, PAN PAN means:
d) Braking action unreliable
a) The aircraft has a very urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of a
ship, aircraft or other vehicle, but immediate assistance is not required
b) Imminent danger threatens the aircraft and immediate assistance is required 92.5.1.0 (5917)
c) The aircraft is diverting from the route cleared because of a thunderstorm and asks for Under what runway conditions is the braking action reported to be ""Unreliable"":
immediate reclearance a) Runway covered with wet snow and slush
d) An aircraft on final approach is starting the missed approach procedure b) Runway covered with ice
488
c) Runway covered with dry snow
d) Runway conditions normal

92.5.1.0 (5918)
If you are requested to ""Report flight conditions"", what does that mean:
a) Indicate whether you are flying in IMC or in VMC
b) Indicate weather conditions as wind, visibility, temperature
c) Indicate if visibility is sufficient for landing
d) Indicate whether you are flying IFR or VFR

489