Model Written Examination General Knowledge Objective Type Question Paper for who applied 667 Semi Skilled

Posts in HVF, Avadi (013)

HVF, Avadi announced Recruitment for fulling up Semi Skilled vacancies for NCVT completed Fitter, Machinist, Welder, Electrician etc. are will be made Strictly Based on the Merit Position drawn from the Written Test, Trade Test & Oral Test of the candidates. Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi also warned candidates to avoid any unscrupulous elements who may assure appointment in HVF, Avadi by seeking bribe in cash or in kind or any other inducement, and are advised not to fall in their trap. "Success is never achieved by the size of our brain, But, it is always achieved by the size of our tries and thoughts" Here we are given past year model question paper to practice yourself and we wish with hope to All Candidates "ALL THE BEST" (Common Question Paper model for All Trades) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2008 (Technical / Non-Technical) QUESTION PAPER Subject: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE Sr. No.: .............................................. Code: 4.01 / 307 Roll No.: ..........................

Signature of the Invigilator ............................................... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Date: 09.07.2008 Duration: 2 Hours Time: 09:00 Hrs. to 11:00 Hrs. Max. Marks: 50 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers: 1) All Questions are compulsory. 2) Each Questions carries 1 mark. 3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question out of which only one is the most appropriate answer. If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A) . 4) The discarded answer if any, must be crossed properly and supported by initial of the candidate. 5) If a question is answered wrongly or more than one answers are marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question. 6) Use only blue or black ball pen only. Use of Pencil is not allowed. 7) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached. 8) You may do rough work, if required, on the blank sheets.

9) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper.Answer sheet. If name or any other symbolic notation are found marked on the Question paper / Answer sheet, this will render the candidate disqualified. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Continues ...... Q.1. Works Committee has to be constituted in any industrial establishment in which number of employed workmen are: (A) 50 or more (B) 100 or more (C) 200 or more (D) 250 or more Q.2. Industrial Dispute Act 1947 does not apply to following state: (A) Goa (B) Arunachal Pradesh (C) Jammu & Kashmir (D) Sikkim

Q.3. The limit prescribed for deduction of wages including payment of dues for cooperative societies should not exceed: (A) 40 % (B) 50 % (C) 65 % (D) 75 % Q.4. Under the payment of Wages Act, wages does not include: (A) Bonus payable under Bonus Act (B) Contribution to Provident fund (C) Subsistence allowance during suspension (D) Both (B) and (C) Q.5. Which of the following has been stripped of status of planet ? (A) Uranus (B) Neptune (C) Pluto (D) Mars Q.6. Which of the following is not salient feature of our constitution ? (A) Guarantees fundamental duties of citizens (B) Recognises dual citizenship (C) Independent Judiciary (D) Lays down the Directive principles of state policy Q.7. Which of the following is not a fundamental right ? (A) Right to education (B) Right to property (C) Right to constitutional remedies (D) Right to freedom of religion Q.8. Which of the following is non-conventional energy source ? (A) Natural gas (B) Nuclear power (C) Geothermal energy (D) Coal Q.9. Who is the chairman of Rajya Sabha ? (A) Vice President (B) President (C) Chairman of Planning commission (D) Prime Minister Q.10. Who is Vice President of India ? (A) Pratibha Patil (B) Najma Heptullah (C) Rasid Masood (D) Hamid Ansari

Q.11. Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of: (A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin K Q.12. The scheme of constitution and procedure of JCM covers all regular central govt. civil employees except the following: (A) Members of Group A service (B) Employees of union territories (C) Police personnel (D) All of these Q.13. Under what section of Trade Union Act, workers are entitled to protection even if strike is illegal ? (A) Sec. 18 (B) Sec. 20 (C) Sec. 24 (D) Sec. 25 Q.14. Following minimum members of a trade union may apply for registration of the trade union under trade union act: (A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3 Q.15. The term of staff side members of JCM is: (A) 5 years (B) 4 years (C) 3 years (D) 2 years Q.16. Which of the following is not principle of Industrial Disputes Act: (A) Disputes are to be resolved by mutual negotiation (B) Strikes and lock out cannot be resorted during pendency of proceeding before a labour court (C) Resolving disputes by trial of strength (D) Effect an agreement / compromise Q.17. The employer shall not be liable to pay compensation, if the injury does not result in the total or partial disablement of a worker for a period not exceeding: (A) 3 days (B) 5 days (C) 7 days (D) 15 days Q.18. Under payment of wages act, employer can impose fine while fulfilling following conditions except: (A) Fine can be recovered in installments (B) The amount of fine must not exceed 3% of wages (C) Fine cannot be imposed on an employee below 15 years of age (D) Before imposing a fine employee should be given an opportunity of showing causes against fine Q.19. Which of the following facility is contributory: (A) Rest rooms (B) First aid (C) Canteens (D) Recreational facilities

security measures: (A) Pension (B) Gratuity (C) Group Insurance Scheme (D) All of these Q.21. Principles of Natural justice need not be observed in following case: (A) Normal deduction under section 9(2) of payment of wages act

(B) Minor penalties under rule 16 (C) Major penalties under rule 14 (D) Imposition of fine stipulated in payment of wages act Q.22. Under _______ of Constitution of India, No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine under: (A) Article 24 (B) Article 42 (C) Article 43 (D) Article 43 A Q.23. There shall be a provision of creches in every factory where women workers are: (A) 30 or more (B) 50 or more (C) 20 or more (D) 25 or more Q.24. Maximum period of work not exceeding 6 hours without an interval for rest may be permitted by: (A) General Manager (B) DDG / IR (C) Chief Inspector of factories (D) DGOF Q.25. In case of total disablement, loss of earning capacity is: (A) 50 % (B) 75 % (C) 90 % (D) 100 % Q.26. In which year First five year plan was started ? (A) 1950 (B) 1951 (C) 1952 (D) 1955 Q.27. Which of the following state has highest coal reserve ? (A) Orissa (B) Chhatisgarh (C) Jharkhand (D) Madhya Pradesh Q.28. What is full form of REC ? (A) Rural Energy Corporation (B) Rural Energy Council (C) Rural Electrification Corporation (D) Rural Economic Council Q.29. Ozone is situated in which layer of Atmosphere ? (A) Troposphere (B) Lithosphere (C) Thermosphere (D) Stratosphere Q.30. Report of the Sachar Committee is related to: (A) Status of scheduled caste in India (B) Social, economic and educational status of Muslim community (C) Economic status of backward classes in India (D) None of these Q.31. Cryogenic engines are used in: (A) Atomic reactors (B) Rockets (C) Defrost refrigerators (D) Testing of super conductivity Q.32. Threat of Global warming is increasing due to increase in concentration of: (A) Nitrogen (B) Ozone (C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Carbon dioxide Q.33. Air is a? (A) Compound (B) Element (C) Electrolyte (D) Mixture

Q.34. Which of the following is not correctly matched ? (A) White revolution - Dairy (B) Green revolution - Agriculture (C) Blue revolution - Fishery (D) Red revolution - Wool Q.35. Six Sigma concept is related to: (A) Quality control in manufacturing (B) Printing technology (C) Path of satellites (D) Pollution control Q.36. ELISA test is employed to diagnose: (A) Polio virus (B) AIDS (C) TB (D) Cancer Q.37. Kaziranga National Park is famous for: (A) Rhinoceros (B) Tiger (C) Lion (D) Crocodile Q.38. A candidate, to become a member of Rajya Sabha, should not be less than: (A) 21 years of age (B) 25 years of age (C) 30 years of age (D) 32 years of age Q.39. One of the following of an individual workman is not deemed to be an industrial dispute: (A) Discharge (B) Retrenchment (C) Termination (D) VRS Q.40. Under Industrial Dispute Act, no person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract: (A) Within 14 days of giving notice (B) Within 20 days of giving notice (C) Within 30 days of giving notice (D) Within 45 days of giving notice Q.41. The human body is made up of several chemical elements; the element present in the highest proportion (65%) in the body is? (A) Carbon (B) Hydrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Nitrogen Q.42. Rainbow is due to? (A) Absorption of sunlight in minute water droplets (B) Diffusion of sunlight through water droplets (C) Ionisation of water deposits (D) Refraction and reflection of sunlight by water droplets Q.43. The input used by an antenna or cable to a TV set uses frequencies called? (A) IF (B) RF (C) AF (D) SAP Q.44. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by adding? (A) Chlorine (B) Washing soda (C) Potassium permanganate (D) Bleaching powder Q.45. The hardest form of carbon is? (A) Coke (B) Graphite (C) Diamond (D) Charcoal

Q.46. Larger buildings may be supplied with a medium voltage electricity supply, and will required a substation or mini-sub. What is the main item of equipment contained in these? (A) Transformer (B) Transponder (C) Transducer (D) Converter Q.47. LPG consists of mainly? (A) Methane, ethane and hexane (B) Ethane, hexane and nonane (C) Methane, hexane and nonane (D) Methane, butane and propane Q.48. Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named? (A) Haemoglobin (B) Keratin (C) Collagen (D) Myoglobin Q.49. What was the active medium used in the first working laser ever constructed? (A) A diamond block (B) Helium-neon gas (C) A ruby rod (D) Carbon dioxide gas Q.50. The Eleventh five year plan has been named as: (A) Towards East and more inclusive growth (B) Towards infrastructural and agricultural growth (C) Towards rapid educational and economic growth (D) None of these

Note: Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi reserve ALL the rights to Change/Alter the examination question paper model without showing any reason. Prepare yourself in strength of knowledge in your Relevant Trade to select by Merit in semi skilled Jobs.

Model Objective Type Question Paper for Written Examination who applied 667 Semi Skilled Posts in HVF, Avadi (012)
HVF, Avadi announced Recruitment for filling up Semi Skilled vacancies for ITI completed Fitter, Machinist, Welder, Electrician etc. are will be made Strictly Based on the Merit Position drawn from the Written Examination, Trade Test & Personal Interview of the candidates. Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi also warned candidates to avoid any unscrupulous elements who may assure appointment in HVF, Avadi by seeking bribe in cash or in kind or any other inducement, and are advised not to fall in their trap. "Success is never achieved by the size of our brain, But, it is always achieved by the size of our tries and thoughts" Here we are given past year model question paper to practice yourself and we wish with Confidence to All Candidates "ALL THE BEST" (Common Question Paper model for All Trades) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2008 (Technical/Non-Technical) QUESTION PAPER Subject: Metallurgical Engineering Sr. No.: .............................................. Code: 0.17 / 101 Roll No.: ..........................

Signature of the Invigilator ............................................... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Date: 12.08.2008 Duration: 2 Hours Time: 09:00 Hrs. to 11:00 Hrs. Max. Marks: 70 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers: 1) All Questions are compulsory. 2) Each Questions carries 1 mark. 3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question out of which only one is the most appropriate answer. If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A) . 4) The discarded answer if any, must be crossed properly and supported by initial of the candidate. 5) If a question is answered wrongly or more than one answers are marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question. 6) Use only blue or black ball pen only. Use of Pencil is not allowed. 7) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached.

8) You may do rough work, if required, on the blank sheets. 9) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Continues ...... Q.1. 500 millimeters is equal to: (A) 0.0005 Km (B) 0.005 Km (C) 0.05 Km (D) 0.00005 Km Q.2. How much energy will be required to heat one gm of water from 30 deg C to 40 deg C: (A) 10 Kilo Calories (B) 10 Calories (C) 10 Watts (D) 10 Btu Q.3. If A : B = 1 : 2 and B : C = 4 : 5 then the ratio between A : B : C will be: (A) 1 : 2 : 4 (B) 2 : 4 : 5 (C) 3 : 4 : 5 (D) 4 : 5 : 6 Q.4. One solder is made of 45% of tin & 55% of lead, what will be the quantity of tin & lead in 28 kg of solder: (A) 12 & 16 Kg (B) 15.4 & 12.6 Kg (C) 12.6 & 15.4 Kg (D) 16 & 12 Kg Q.5. Angstrom is a unit of: (A) Length (B) Sound level (C) Force (D) Power Q.6. Aluminium billets are heated for extrusion at: (A) 100 ? 250 deg C (B) 250 ? 350 deg C (C) 350 ? 450 deg C (D) 450 ? 500 deg C Q.7. Where does the points (2, 3) and (3, 4) lie respectively in X-Y co-ordinate system ? (A) 1st & 4th quadrant (B) 2nd & 4th quadrant (C) 1st & 2nd quadrant (D) 3rd & 4th quadrant Q.8. After simplification of ( 3 / 4 ) + ( 2 / 5 ) ( 7 / 20 ), we will get: (A) 19 / 40 (B) 9 / 20 (C) 4 / 5 (D) 17 / 20 Q.9. Convert 0.485 into percentage: (A) 0.485 % (B) 4.85 % (C) 48.5 % (D) 485 % Q.10. From the following two equations, the value of X & Y will be respectively: X+3Y=8 2 X + 5 Y = 12 (A) ? 4, 4 (B) 3.5, 1 (C) 1, 2 (D) 2, 2 Q.11. In SG Iron, graphite will be in the form of: (A) Flakes (B) Spheroids (C) Hexagonal shape (D) Square shape Q.12. Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 30, 36, 48 & 60 will be: (A) 480 (B) 640 (C) 720 (D) 960 Q.13. The square of 4.5 will be: (A) 9 (B) 22.25 (C) 21.25 (D) 20.25

Q.14. With increase in carbon percentage, the toughness of mild steel: (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Changes randomly Q.15. During induction hardening, the depth of hardening is controlled by: (A) Current (B) Voltage (C) Frequency (D) Phase angle Q.16. In steel, corrosion resistance is due to: (A) Manganese (B) Vanadium (C) Chromium (D) Cobalt Q.17. Which of the following statement is not true ? (A) The quantity of matter which a substance contains is its mass (B) The mass varies from place to place (C) The unit of mass is gm (D) The mass is measured by a common Tarazu Q.18. Which is a suitable material for heavier duty bearings: (A) White metal (B) Phosphor bronze (C) Monel metal (D) nimonic alloys Q.19. Izode impact is used for determining: (A) Toughness of material (B) Ductility (C) Fatigue strength (D) None of these Q.20. One mile is equal to _____ Kms: (A) 1.609 Km (B) 0.88 Km (C) 1.33 Km (D) 3 Kms Q.21. Water gas is also called: (A) Blue gas (B) Red gas (C) Yellow gas (D) None of these Q.22. Temperature 113 deg F is equal to: (A) 60 deg C (B) 45 deg C (C) 55 deg C (D) 40 deg C Q.23. Thermal efficiency of the furnaces can be improved by: (A) Waste heat recovery from flue gas (B) Minimising heat losses from the furnace walls (C) Maintaining proper draught (D) All of the above Q.24. Metals at high temperature have less: (A) UTS (B) Yield strength (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these Q.25. Pine oil used in Froth floatation act as a: (A) Collector (B) Modifier (C) Frother (D) None of these Q.26. Isobaric process means a constant: (A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) Volume (D) None of these Q.27. Brass is an alloy of:

(A) Nickel & Iron (B) Copper, Tin & Zinc (C) Copper & Zinc (D) Copper & Tin Q.28. The diameter of the ball used in Brinel Hardness (BHN) for soft material is: (A) 5 mm (B) 10 mm (C) 20 mm (D) 15 mm Q.29. Rockwell hardness test is useful only for: (A) Hard metals (B) Soft metals (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these Q.30. Brinells & Vickers hardness values are almost identical upto a hardness of: (A) 60 (B) 130 (C) 235 (D) 300 Q.31. An alloy of aluminium and __________ is called Hindalium: (A) Magnesium (B) Silver (C) Manganese (D) Nickel Q.32. An example of shaft furnace is: (A) L.D. Converter (B) Glass melting tank (C) Blast furnace (D) Soaking pit Q.33. If fuel and air are mixed ahead of the burner, it is called a ________ burner: (A) Premix (B) Outside mixing type (C) Rotary (D) Diffusion Q.34. Which of the following is an ore of Aluminium: (A) Bauxite (B) Hemetite (C) Cuprite (D) None of these Q.35. Extrusion process is used for producing: (A) Rods (B) Tubes (C) Channels (D) All of these Q.36. Ageing heat treatment in Aluminium: (A) Increase strength (B) Decrease strength (C) No effect (D) None of these Q.37. Which one of this is not case hardening: (A) Carburising (B) Nitriding (C) Homogenising (D) Carbonitriding Q.38. Common known high speed steel is: (A) 18 : 4 : 1 (B) 14 : 8 : 2 (C) 18 : 4 : 2 (D) 16 : 4 : 2 Q.39. To measure 1400oC temperature, the following thermocouple is used: (A) Copper - Constantan (B) Aluminium - Chromel (C) Platinum Platinum rhodium (D) None of these Q.40. Full form of LASER is: (A) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation (B) Light Amplification by Simultaneous Emission of Radiation (C) Light Amplification by Stimulated Energy of Rays (D) None of the above Q.41. Boron in steel as alloying element increases:

(A) Corrosion resistance (B) Magnetic quality (C) Depth of hardening (D) Machinability Q.42. Softest phase in Iron Carbon equilibrium diagram is: (A) Cementite (B) Ferrite (C) Pearlite (D) Austenite Q.43. Graphite forming element in cast Iron is: (A) Si (B) Al (C) Ni (D) All of these Q.44. Pearlite is a mixture of: (A) Ferrite & Cementite (B) Martensite & Ferrite (C) Ferrite & Bainite (D) None of these Q.45. Piping is a: (A) Rolling defect (B) Forging defect (C) Casting defect (D) Maching defect Q.46. Cutting ability & Reduction in hardenability of steel is achieved by adding: (A) Ni (B) Co (C) Cr (D) W Q.47. Manganese in alloy steel improves its: (A) Corrosion resistance (B) Cutting ability (C) Abrassive resistance & toughness (D) Creep resistance Q.48. Ability of material to undergo large permanent deformation in compression is called: (A) Ductility (B) Malleability (C) Plasticity (D) None of these Q.49. White metal contains: (A) 75 % Cu & 25 % Zn (B) 75 % Cu & 25 % Sn (C) 75 % Cu & 25 % Ni (D) 75 % Ni & 25 % Zn Q.50. The teeth of spur gear is hardened by: (A) Cold working (B) Quenching (C) Induction hardening (D) Dispersion hardening Q.51. Iron obtained from the blast furnace is: (A) Cast Iron (B) Wrought Iron (C) Pig Iron (D) Nodular Iron Q.52. In ultrasonic testing, the frequency required to investigate coarse grained material is: (A) Low frequency (B) High frequency (C) Medium frequency (D) Either low or higher frequency Q.53. Refining of Aluminium is done by: (A) Zone refining (B) Hoopes process (C) Harris process (D) None of these Q.54. The case hardening achieved by nitriding is approximately: (A) 150 VPN (B) 1150 VPN (C) 550 VPN (D) 2500 VPN Q.55. TIG welding is useful in welding of: (A) Stainless steel (B) Aluminium (C) Cast Iron (D) Titanium

Q.56. Cupola is used for melting: (A) Steel (B) Cast Iron (C) Copper (D) Aluminium Q.57. Steel glasses are made by: (A) Forging (B) Deep drawing (C) Machining (D) None of these Q.58. Orange feel effect is due to: (A) Fine grain (B) Large grain (C) Fine elongated grain (D) None of these Q.59. Patenting heat treatment is used in: (A) Rolling (B) Wire drawing (C) Extrusion (D) Forging Q.60. Main function of riser is: (A) For escape of hot gases (B) To feed the metal to the casting (C) To help flow of metal towards the mould cavity (D) None of these Q.61. Which is solid-solid transformation: (A) Cutectic (B) Peritectic (C) Eutectoid (D) None of these Q.62. Presence of Arsenic in copper greatly reduces its: (A) Electrical conductivity (B) Tenacity & hardness (C) Malleability & ductility (D) None of these Q.63. Ore of zinc is: (A) Galena (B) Azurite (C) Calamine (D) Cerussite Q.64. Ideal silicon content in pig iron used for basic process of steel making is: (A) 0.01 % (B) 0.5 % (C) 1.5 % (D) 2 % Q.65. 18 / 8 stainless steel is a: (A) High alloy steel (B) Medium alloy steel (C) Low alloy steel (D) None of these Q.66. A skin pass is given to steel sheet in a rolling: (A) To make the surface smooth (B) To impart ductility (C) To achieve close tolerance (D) None of these Q.67. Basic refractory is: (A) Fire clay (B) Silica (C) Chrome magnasite (D) None of these Q.68. In Arc welding, if d = electrode rod diameter, the length of the Arc should be: (A) d (B) 0.5 d (C) 2 d (D) 2.5 d Q.69. Melting point of pure copper is:

(A) 1981o F (B) 1600o F (C) 500o F (D) None of these Q.70. Oxygen to acetylene ratio in oxidising flame is: (A) 1 : 1 (B) 1.5 : 1 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 2.5 : 1 Note: Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi reserve ALL the rights to Change/Alter the examination question paper model without showing any reason. Prepare yourself in strength of knowledge in your Relevant Trade to select by Merit in semi skilled Jobs.

Sample Objective Type Question Paper - Written Test model for HVF, Avadi Recruitment of Semi Skilled Posts in Various ITI Trades (010)
In HVF, Avadi, announced Recruitment to select Semi Skilled vacancies for NCVT completed Fitter, Machinist, Welder, Fitter Electronics, Electrician, Blacksmith, Examiner, Painter are will be made Strictly Based on the Merit Position drawn from the Written Examination, Trade Test & Personal Interview of the candidates. Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi also warned candidates to avoid any unscrupulous elements who may assure appointment in HVF, Avadi by seeking bribe in cash or in kind or any other inducement, and are advised not to fall in their trap. "Success is never achieved by the size of our brain, But, it is always achieved by the size of our tries and thoughts" Here we are given past year model question paper to practice yourself and we wish with hope to All Candidates "ALL THE BEST" (Common Question Paper model for All Trades) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2007 For the Post of Chargeman (Tech/Non-Tech) QUESTION PAPER Subject: General Knowledge Sr. No.: .............................................. Code: 7.46 / 111 Roll No.: ..........................

Signature of the Invigilator ............................................... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Date: 18.04.2007 Duration: 2 Hours

Time: 09:00 Hrs. to 11:00 Hrs. Max. Marks: 50 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers: 1) All Questions are compulsory. 2) Each Questions carries 1 mark. 3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question out of which only one is the most appropriate answer. If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A). 4) The discarded answer if any, must be crossed properly and supported by initial of the candidate. 5) If a question is answered wrongly or more than one answers are marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question. 6) Use only blue or black ball pen only. Use of Pencil is not allowed. 7) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached. 8) You may do rough work, if required, on the blank sheets. 9) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Continues ......

Q.1. What are the Gurjarrs caste in Rajasthan fighting for ? (A) for SC status (B) for OBC status (C) for ST status (D) None of these Q.2. If you wish to increase the amount of current in a resistor from 120 mA to 160 mA by changing the 24 V source, what should the new voltage setting be? (A) 8 V (B) 320 V (C) 3.2 V (D) 32 V Q.3. What is expansion of UNICEF ? (A) United Nations International ChildrensEmergency Fund (B) Union of National Integrity, Cultural & Educational Fund (C) United Nations International Cultural & Economical Fund (D) None of these

Q.4. BARC is situated at: (A) Chennai (B) Trombay (C) Bangalore (D) Hyderabad Q.5. RTI Act received the assent of President of India on: (A) 15th June 2005 (B) 19th June 2005 (C) 14th Jan 2006 (D) 30th Dec 2006 Q.6. RTI Act extends to the whole of India except: (A) Sikkim (B) Goa, Daman & Diu (C) Andaman & Nicobar (D) Jammu & Kashmir Q.7. PIO under RTI Act means: (A) Public Information Officer (B) Personnel Information Officer (C) Private Investigating Officer (D) Public Investigating Officer

Q.8. RTI Act came into force on: (A) 15th Dec 2005 (B) 12th Jan 2006 (C) 12th Oct 2005 (D) 18th July 2006 Q.9.In a Y-Y source/load configuration, the? (A) phase current, the line current, and the load current are all equal in each phase (B) hase current, the line current, and the load current are 120 out of phase (C) phase current and the line current are in phase, and both are 120 out of phase with the load current (D) line current and the load current are in phase, and both are out of phase with the phase current Q.10.The part of a bevel protractor, which comes in contact with the inclined surface while measuring, is the? (A) Stock (B) Dial (C) Disc (D)Blade Q.11. The Thevenin equivalent voltage is? (A) equal to the source voltage (B) the same as the load voltage (C) the open circuit voltage (D) none of the above Q.12 The point angle of a drill suitable for drilling thin plates is? (A) 90 deg (B) 120 deg (C) 180 deg (D) None of above Q.13. Who was the first President of India: (A) Dr. Sarbopalli Radha Krishnan (B) Fakaruddin Ali Ahmed (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (D) N. Sanjiva Reddy Q.14. Who won Miss Universe 2007 pageant ? (A) Miss Puja Gupta (B) Miss Riyo Mori (C) Miss Allena Hanoi (D) Miss Patricia Mair Q.15. Constitution of India was adopted and enacted on: (A) 26th Jan 1947 (B) 26th Jan 1948 (C) 26th Jan 1949 (D) 26th Jan 1950 Q.16. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 relates to which aspect of the constitutional provision: (A) Fundamental Rights & Directive principles (B) Equality before law (C) Creation of new state (D) Duty & responsibility of state Q.17. Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits employment of children in factories, etc. below the age of: (A) 18 years (B) 22 years (C) 14 years (D) 12 years Q 18. If two currents are in the same direction at any instant of time in a given branch of a circuit, the net current at that instant? (A) is zero (B) is the sum of the two currents (C) is the difference between the two currents (D) cannot be determined

Q.19. Which article gives special status to the state of Jammu and Kashmir in the Constitution?

Q.20. The following is considered the symbol of Justice: (A) Spring balance (B) Beam balance (C) Hydraulic balance (D) Pneumatic balance Q.21. 14.A certain transformer has a turns ratio of 1 and a 0.85 coefficient of coupling. When 2 V ac is applied to the primary, the secondary voltage is? (A) 1.7 V (B) 0.85 V (C) 1 V (D) 0 V Q.22. 150th Anniversary of Armed Uprising (Sepoy Mutiny) in Indian Army against the British Emperor was celebrated in: (A) April 2007 (B) May 2007 (C) Aug. 2006 (D) Aug. 2007 Q.23. When did The Workmens Compensation Act came into force ? (A) 15th March 1922 (B) 28th Dec 1923 (C) 5th March 1923 (D) 1st July 1924 Q.24. What is the restriction on number of times of medical examination of a worker under Workmens Compensation Act in the first month following the accident ? (A) 1 time (B) 2 times (C) 3 times (D) 4 times Q.25. Workmens Compensation Act, 1923 does not liable the employer to pay compensation if the accident is attributed to: (A) The workmen under influence of drinks or drugs (B) The workmen has mental worry (C) The workmen is suffering from some disease (D) The tools & equipments with which the workmen is working is/are defective Q.26. The Workmens Compensation is admissible: (A) If accident occurs during working hours (B) If accident occurs while carrying out work (C) Whether or not negligence is involved (D) None of these Q.27. Voltage is measured in? (A) volts (B) farads (C) watts (D) ohms Q.28. Eight-tenths coulomb passes a point in 4 s. The current in amperes is? (A) 1.6 A (B) 16 A (C) 2 A (D) 0.2 A Q.29. Within how many days an appeal shall be made in the High Court against an order awarding compensation by Commissioner ? (A) 15 days (B) 30 days (C) 60 days (D) 75 days Q.30. Indicate percentage loss of earning capacity due to partial or permanent disablement for loss of thumb:

(A) 10 % (B) 20 % (C) 30 % (D) 40 % Q.31. Indicate percentage loss of earning capacity due to absolute deafness: (A) 50 % (B) 60 % (C) 90 % (D) 100 % Q.32. Ozone layer in the atmosphere protects from: (A) Ultra violet rays (B) Infra red rays (C) Heat (D) Poisonous gases Q.33. The formation of Works Committee is the provision under the following Act: (A) Factories Act, 1948 (B) Workmens Compensation Act, 1923 (C) Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 (D) Payment of Wages Act, 1936 Q.34. Following legal establishment decide the legality & justifiability of a strike: (A) Industrial Tribunal (B) High Court (C) Central Administrative Tribunal (D) Session Court Q.35. What is the object of payment of Wages Act ? (A) To decide the amount of wages (B) To avoid unnecessary delay in the payment of wages and prevent unauthorised deductions from the wages (C) To review the wages of Workmen time to time and ensure payment without faulty deduction (D) To fix up overtime wages, bonus time to time Q.36. Under the provision of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 an employer has to be paid wages for a period not longer than: (A) 7 days (B) 14 days (C) 21 days (D) One month Q.37. Who is the Chairman of Planning Commission ? (A) Dr. Soli Sorabjee (B) Dr. Manmohan Singh (C) Shri Montek S. Ahluwala (D) None of these Q.38. Which one of the following is not a renewable energy ? (A) Fuel Cell (B) Wind Energy (C) Petroleum (D) Ocean Energy Q.39. The current five years plan period is the ________ plan: (A) 10th (B) 11th (C) 12th (D) 13th Q.40. What kVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load current of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 kV? (A) 4 kVA (B) 0.25 kVA (C) 16 kVA (D)8 kVA Q.41. 36th Amendment Act associate Sikkim in the Union of India in the year: (A) 1975 (B) 1971 (C) 1978 (D) 1980

Q.42. State can notify to suspend the provision of Factories Act, 1948 except Section 67 during public emergency, at a time, for a period not exceeding: (A) 6 months (B) 1 month (C) 4 months (D) 3 months Q.43. What is the restriction of working hours in a factory under Factories Act ? (A) 43 Hrs. (B) 48 Hrs. (C) 51 Hrs. (D) 54 Hrs. Q.44. What is the maximum working hours per day within the provision of weekly restriction ? (A) 9 Hrs. (B) 8 Hrs. (C) 8 Hrs. (D) 10 Hrs. Q.45. An accident requiring sending of notice to appropriate authority should essentially prevent from working for a period of: (A) 24 Hrs. (B) 48 Hrs. (C) 72 Hrs. (D) 96 Hrs. Q.46. Who is the present Chief Justice of India ? (A) Justice P.N. Bhagwati (B) Justice A.N. Roy (C) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan (D) None of these Q.47. Whom the Executive Power of the Union of India vested upon ? (A) Comptroller & Auditor General of India (B) Solicitor General of India (C) Attorney General of India (D) President of India Q.48. Who is the present Solicitor General of India ? (A) Harish N. Salve (B) Santosh Hegde (C) A.D. Giri (D) None of these Q.49. What is SEZ ? (A) Special Eco-friendly Zoo (B) Special Economic Zone (C) Standard Eco Zip (D) Special Educational Zone Q.50. The provision for non-discrimination in matters of public employment is based on: (A) Religion only (B) Religion, race, caste, sex, descent or any of them (C) Caste only (D) Religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them

Note: Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi reserve ALL the rights to Change/Alter the examination question paper model without showing any reason. Prepare yourself in strength of knowledge in your Relevant Trade to select by Merit in semi skilled Jobs.

HVF, Avadi Recruitment Board given order to filling up Semi Skilled Vacancies by ITI NCVT completed Welder,Fitter,Machinist,Electrician trades etc. - Sample Objective Type Question Paper for Written Test (009)
In Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi, Chennai Recruitment Board invited applications to filling up the following ITI NCVT completed Fitter, Machinist, Welder, Fitter Electronics, Electrician, Blacksmith, Examiner, Painter Trades for Semi Skilled vacancies. Recruitment will be made Strictly Based on the Merit Position drawn from the Written Examination, Trade Test & Oral Test of the candidates. Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi also warned candidates to avoid any unscrupulous elements who may assure appointment in HVF, Avadi by seeking bribe in cash or in kind or any other inducement, and are advised not to fall in their trap. "Success is never achieved by the size of our brain, But, it is always achieved by the size of our tries and thoughts"

Here we are given past year model question paper to practice yourself and we wish with Confidence to All Candidates "ALL THE BEST"

(Common Question Paper model for All Trades) Limited Departmental Competitive Examination - 2006 For the Post of Technician (Semi Skilled) QUESTION PAPER Subject: GENERAL ENGINEERING Sr. No.: .............................................. Code: 1.92 / 223 Roll No.: ..........................

Signature of the Invigilator ............................................... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Date: 04.07.2006 Duration: 2 Hours Time: 09:00 Hrs. to 11:00 Hrs. Max. Marks: 50 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers: 1) All Questions are compulsory. 2) Each Questions carries 1 mark. 3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question out of which only one is the most appropriate answer. If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A). 4) If a question is answered wrongly or more than one answers are marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question. 4) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached. 5) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper. --------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Continues ......

Q.1. How much energy will be required to heat one gm of water from 30 deg C to 40 deg C: (A) 10 Kilo Calories (B) 10 Calories (C) 10 Watts (D) 10 Btu Q.2. The result obtained by dividing 0.18 by 0.09 will be: (A) 0.2 (B) 0.02 (C) 2 (D) 20

Q.3. If A : B = 1 : 2 and B : C = 4 : 5 then the ratio between A : B : C will be: (A) 1 : 2 : 4 (B) 2 : 4 : 5 (C) 3 : 4 : 5 (D) 4 : 5 : 6 Q.4. A metallic alloy consists of 3 metals X, Y & Z and have proportionate weight ratio of 3 : 4 : 5. What will be the weight of metal Y if the total weight of alloy is 300 Kg. (A) 75 Kg (B) 125 Kg (C) 75 Kg (D) None of these Q.5. One solder is made of 45% of tin & 55% of lead, what will be the quantity of tin & lead in 28 kg of solder: (A) 12 & 16 Kg (B) 15.4 & 12.6 Kg (C) 12.6 & 15.4 Kg (D) 16 & 12 Kg Q.6. After simplification of ( 3 / 4 ) + ( 2 / 5 ) ( 7 / 20 ), we will get: (A) 19 / 40 (B) 9 / 20 (C) 4 / 5 (D) 17 / 20 Q.7. Convert 0.485 into percentage: (A) 0.485 % (B) 4.85 % (C) 48.5 % (D) 485 % Q.8. From the following two equations, the value of X & Y will be respectively: X+3Y=8 2 X + 5 Y = 12 (A) ? 4, 4 (B) 3.5, 1 (C) 1, 2 (D) 2, 2 Q.9. The co-ordinates of four points are given below. Which point is lying in 4th quadrant: (A) ( 5, 6 ) (B) (? 5, 6) (C) (5, ? 6) (D) (? 5, ? 6) Q.10.The slip gauge used to prevent the exposed faces of a slip pack from damage is called? (A)Tolerance (B) Center offset (C) Wrong alignment (D) None of these Q.11. Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 30, 36, 48 & 60 will be: (A) 480 (B) 640 (C) 720 (D) 960 Q.12. The square of 4.5 will be: (A) 9 (B) 22.25 (C) 21.25 (D) 20.25 Q.13. Area of 4 walls is given by:

(A) l . b . h (B) ( l + b ) h (C) 2 h ( l + b ) (D) h ( l + b ) / 2 Q.14. Which of the following statement is not true ? (A) The quantity of matter which a substance contains is its mass (B) The mass varies from place to place (C) The unit of mass is gm (D) The mass is measured by a common Tarazu Q.15. Water in an overhead tank is an example of: (A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these Q.16. One mile is equal to _____ Kms: (A) 1.609 Km (B) 0.88 Km (C) 1.33 Km (D) 3 Kms Q.17. 4th root of 16 will be: (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 256 (D) 2 Q.18. The helical angle determines? (A) Rake angle (B) Cutting angle (C) Lip angle (D) Chew angle Q.19. Area of the parallelogram is given by: (A) length x breadth (B) 2 (length + breadth) (C) base x height (D) None of these Q.20. Ohms law is given by: (A) V = I / R (B) V = R / I (C) I = R / V (D) V = I . R Q.21. Thermal efficiency of the furnaces can be improved by: (A) Waste heat recovery from flue gas (B) Minimising heat losses from the furnace walls (C) Maintaining proper draught (D) All of the above Q.22. Brass is an alloy of: (A) Nickel & Iron (B) Copper, Tin & Zinc (C) Copper & Zinc (D) Copper & Tin Q.23. The diameter of the ball used in Brinel Hardness (BHN (A) 5 mm (B) 10 mm (C) 20 mm (D) 15 mm Q.24. Rockwell hardness test is useful only for: (A) Hard metals (B) Soft metal (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these Q.25. Extrusion process is used for producing: (A) Rods (B) Tubes (C) Channels (D) All of these Q.26. Duralumin is an alloy of: (A) Aluminium & Ni & Mn (B) Aluminium & Copper & Manganese (C) Aluminium & Zinc (D)

Aluminium & Si Q.27. In vicker hardness testing indentor is: (A) 5 mm ball (B) 10 mm ball (C) Square based pyramid (D) Diamond ball Q.28. To measure 1400oC temperature, the following thermocouple is used: (A) Copper - Constant (B) Aluminium - Chromel (C) Platinum - Platinumrhodium (D) None of these Q.29. The teeth of spur gear is hardened by: (A) Cold working (B) Quenching (C) Induction hardening (D) Dispersion hardening Q.30. In ultrasonic testing, the frequency required to investigate coarse grained material is: (A) Low frequency (B) High frequency (C) Medium frequency (D) Either low or higher frequency Q.31. TIG welding is useful in welding of: (A) Stainless steel (B) Aluminium (C) Cast Iron (D) Titanium Q.32. At what temperature deg C & deg F are equal: (A) 0 deg (B) ? 40 deg (C) 32 deg (D) None of these Q.33. The unit of calorific value is: (A) K Cal / kg (B) K Cal (C) Calories (D) None of these Q.34. Steel glasses are made by: (A) Forging (B) Deep drawing (C) Machining (D) None of these Q.35. Patenting heat treatment is used in: (A) Rolling (B) Wire drawing (C) Extrusion (D) Forging Q.36. Main function of riser is: (A) For escape of hot gases (B) To feed the metal to the casting (C) To help flow of metal towards the mould cavity (D) None of these Q.37. Basic refractory is: (A) Fire clay (B) Silica (C) Chrome magnasite (D) None of these Q.38. Magnetic particle inspection is suitable for checking surface defect of: (A) Non-ferromagnetic items (B) Ferromagnetic items (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these Q.39. Melting point of pure copper is: (A) 1981 deg F (B) 1600 deg F (C) 500 deg F (D) None of these

Q.40. Anodising is the process of creating: (A) Chromium oxide layer on the surface (B) Aluminium oxide layer on the surface (C) Zinc oxide layer on the surface (D) None of these Q.41. Izode impact is used for determining: (A) Toughness of material (B) Ductility (C) Fatigue strength (D) None of these Q.42. Boron in steel as alloying element increases: (A) Corrosion resistance (B) Magnetic quality (C) Depth of hardening (D) Machinability Q.43. Nickel as alloying element in steel increases: (A) Strength (B) Toughness (C) Resistance to heat (D) All of these Q.44. Cast iron is an alloy of: (A) Iron & Carbon (B) Iron & Nickel (C) Iron, Carbon & Silicon (D) Iron & Silicon Q.45. Small precision castings are generally made by: (A) Centrifugal process (B) Shell moulding (C) Lost wax (D) Die casting Q.46. The luster of a metal is due to: (A) Its high density (B) Its high polishing (C) Its chemical inertness (D) Presence of free electrons Q.47. Lowest hardness is obtained in steel by: (A) Hardening (B) Annealing (C) Normalising (D) None of these Q.48. Carbon is present in the form of graphite flakes in: (A) Grey Cast Iron (B) White Cast Iron (C) Malleable Cast Iron (D) None of these Q.49. Etching solution used for steel & cast iron is: (A) Picral (B) 50% NH4OH solution (C) Nital (D) 1% HF in water Q.50. Solder is an alloy of tin and: (A) Lead (B) Antimony (C) Copper (D) Nickel Q.51. Aluminium metal is refined by the following process: (A) Baeyers process (B) Hoops process (C) Halls process (D) None of these Q.52. Cupola is used for producing: (A) Pig Iron (B) Cast Iron (C) Wrought Iron (D) All of these Q.53. Melting point of Aluminium is: (A) 800 deg C (B) 720 deg C (C) 660 deg C (D) None of these

Q.54. Temperature generated in Arc welding is in the order of: (A) 1500 deg C (B) 2500 deg C (C) 5500 deg C (D) 8500 deg C Q.55. Aluminimum & its alloy find application in aerospace industry because of its: (A) Cheap availability (B) Brightness (C) High strength to weight ratio (D) Softness Q.56. Fluorescent dye penetrant test is used for detecting: (A) Surface cracks (B) Internal defects (C) Structural characteristics (D) Flaws in magnetic material only Q.57. Load applied in Rockwell hardness test scale 'C' is: (A) 50 Kg (B) 100 Kg (C) 150 Kg (D) 3000 Kg Q.58. Which is an acidic refractory: (A) Magnesite (B) Dolomite (C) Fire clay (D) Chrome Magnesite Q.59. Anodising is given to items of: (A) Aluminium (B) Copper (C) Steel (D) All of these Q.60. For Induction hardening of the surface of the component, the frequency used is: (A) Low frequency (B) High frequency (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Very high frequency Q.61. Impact strength of a material is a measure of its: (A) Hardness (B) Toughness (C) Elasticity (D) None of these Q.62. Orsat's apparatus is used for checking the content of: (A) Iron (B) Sodium (C) Carbon (D) None of these Q.63. The size of a sine bar is specified by the? (A) Length (B) Weight (C) Maximum angle of setting (D) Measurement of width Q.64. Hardening of steel is always followed by: (A) Annealing (B) Normalising (C) Carburising (D) Tempering Q.65.The type of jig used for location from a bore is the? (A) Post jig (B) Drill jig (C) Solid jig (D) Box jig Q.66. In SG Iron, graphite will be in the form of: (A) Flakes (B) Spheroids (C) Hexagonal shape (D) Square shape Q.67. Which one of this is not case hardening: (A) Carburising (B) Nitriding (C) Homogenising (D) Carbonitriding Q.68. Melting point of pure Iron is: (A) 900 deg C (B) 660 deg C (C) 1550 deg C (D) None of these

Q.69. Common known high speed steel is: (A) 18 : 4 : 1 (B) 14 : 8 : 2 (C) 18 : 4 : 2 (D) 16 : 4 : 2 Q.70. Softest phase in Iron Carbon equilibrium diagram: (A) Cementite (B) Ferrite (C) Pearlite (D) Austenite Q.71. Graphite forming element in cast Iron: (A) Si (B) Al (C) Ni (D) All of these Q.72. Pearlite is a mixture of: (A) Ferrite & Cementite (B) Martensite & Ferrite (C) Ferrite & Bainite (D) None of these Q.73. Manganese in alloy steel improves its: (A) Corrossion resistance (B) Cutting ability (C) Abrassive resistance & toughness (D) Creep resistance Q.74. Ability of material to undergo large permanent deformation in compression is called: (A) Ductility (B) Malleability (C) Plasticity (D) None of these Q.75. Iron alloyed with carbon in percentage greater than 2% is called: (A) Steel (B) Mild Steel (C) High Carbon Steel (D) Cast Iron Q.76. With increase in carbon percentage, the toughness of mild steel: (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains same (D) Changes randomly Q.77. Cast iron has high _____ strength: (A) Tensile (B) Compressive (C) Shear (D) Fatigue Q.78. Which is a suitable material for heavier duty bearings: (A) White metal (B) Phosphor bronze (C) Monel metal (D) nimonic alloys Q.79. Which is the high melting point ( > 2000 deg C ) non ferrous metal: (A) Tungsten (B) Berellium (C) Uranium (D) Germanium Q.80. Which of the following has the poorest weldability: (A) Low carbon steel (B) Mild steel (C) Wrought iron (D) High-carbon steel Note: Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi reserve ALL the rights to Change/Alter the examination question paper model without showing any reason. Prepare yourself in strength of knowledge in your Relevant Trade to select by Merit in semi skilled Jobs.

HVF, Avadi, Govt. of India Recruit Semi Skilled Posts in Various Trades (ITI / NCVT completed Fitter,Machinist,Welder,Fitter Electronics,Electrician, Blacksmith,Examiner, Painter) - Model Qus & Ans for Written Examination (005)
In Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi, Chennai given Open Market Recruitment to select Semi Skilled vacancies for NCVT completed Fitter, Machinist, Welder, Fitter Electronics, Electrician, Blacksmith, Examiner, Painter are will be made Strictly Based on the Merit Position drawn from the Written Test, Trade Test & Oral Interview of the candidates. Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi also warned candidates to avoid any unscrupulous elements who may assure appointment in HVF, Avadi by seeking bribe in cash or in kind or any other inducement, and are advised not to fall in their trap.

Cont.............. [2005 Sample Q & A for All ITI Trades (Fitter,Machinist,Welder,Electrician etc.) ] QUESTION PAPER Subject: Sr. No.: .............................................. Code: 4.01 / 127 Roll No.: ..........................

Signature of the Invigilator ............................................... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Date: 11.04.2005 Duration: 2 Hours Time: 09:00 Hrs. to 11:00 Hrs. Max. Marks: 120 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers: 1) All Questions are compulsory. 2) Each Questions carries 1 mark. 3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question out of which only one is the most appropriate answer. If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A) . 4) If a question is answered wrongly or more than one answers are marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question. 4) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached. 5) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Cont.............. 71.The unit of energy in MKS system is? A.Joules B.Watts C.Power

D.Force Ans: C 72.The sum of two number is 25 and their difference is 13. Find their product? A.204 B.114 C.315 D.325 Ans: B 73.Metals selected for making worse should have? A.More hardness B.More brittleness C.More malleability D.More ductility Ans: D 74.To which king belongs the Lion capitol at Sarnath? A.Chandragupta B.Ashoka C.Kanishka D.Harsha Ans: B 75.3251 + 587 + 369 - ? = 3007 A.1250 B.1300 C.1375 D.1200 E.None of these Ans: D 76.In order to convert fractional inches into decimal inches? A.Look on a metric conversion chart B.Divide the numerator (top number) by the denominator (bottom number) C.Check the engineer's scale D.All of the above Ans: B 77.Some traditional board drafters preferred the drafting machine over the parallel straight edge because it could be used without the need for? A.Circle templates B.Triangles C.Technical pens D.Lettering guides Ans: B

78.The ozone layer restricts A.Visible light B.Infrared radiation C.X-rays and gamma rays D.Ultraviolet radiation Ans: D 79.Which of the following is not a leap year? A.700 B.800 C.1200 D.2000 Ans: A 80.The ratio of ultimate stress to working stress is? A.Modulus of elasticity B.Factor of safety C.Chane in length D.Tensile load Ans: B 81.Which of the following countries is not a member of a SAARC? A.Sri Lanka B.Myanmar C.Maldives D.Bhutan Ans: B 82.Under the Government of India, Provincial Legislatures consisted of two chambers, except in the case of? A.Assam B.Bihar C.Madras D.Punjab Ans: D 83.The Parliament can restrict or abrogate by law, fundamental rights with respect to? A.The members of the armed forces B.The forces charged with the maintenance of public order C.The persons employed in any bureau or other organization established by the state for purpose of intelligence D.All of the above Ans: D 84.3, 5, 7, 12, 17, 19?

A.19 B.17 C.5 D.12 Ans: D 85.A half-moon protractor is divided into how many degrees? A.360 B.180 C.270 D.310 Ans: B 86. Bronze is an alloy of? A.Copper-Zinc B.Copper-Tin C.Copper-Lead D.Copper and Tungsten Ans: B 87.The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock when the time is 8.30, is? A.80 B.75 C.60 D.105 Ans: B 88.Who is known as 'Indian Bismarck'? A.Kamaraj B.Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel C.Nehru D.Rajaji Ans: B 89.The largest part of our hydrosphere is? A.Atlantic Ocean B.Indian Ocean C.Pacific ocean D.Antarctica ocean Ans: C 90.Who invented Electric Generator? A.Sir Alexander Graham Bell B.Michael Faraday C.Alfred B. Nobel D.Thomas Alva Edison

Ans: B 91.In a 100 m race, A can beat B by 25 m and B can beat C by 4 m. In the same race, A can beat C by? A.21 m B.26 m C.28 m D.29 m Ans: C 92.Coral reefs in India can be found in? A.The coast of Orissa B.Waltair C.Rameshwaram D.Trivandrum Ans: C 93.A man has some hens and cows. If the number of heads be 48 and the number of feet equals 140, then the number of hens will be? A.22 B.23 C.24 D.26 Ans: D 94.A bag contains 6 black and 8 white balls. One ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ball drawn is white? A.3/4 B.4/7 C.1/8 D.3/7 Ans: B 95.Three candidates contested an election and received 1136, 7636 and 11628 votes respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning candidate get? A.57% B.60% C.65% D.90% Ans: A 96.If log 27 = 1.431, then the value of log 9 is? A.0.934 B.0.945 C.0.954 D.0.958

Ans: C 97.617 + 6.017 + 0.617 + 6.0017 = ? A.6.2963 B.62.965 C.629.6357 D.None of these 98.The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased by 20% is? A.40% B.42% C.44% D.46% Ans: C 99.The average weight of A, B and C is 45 kg. If the average weight of A and B be 40 kg and that of B and C be 43 kg, then the weight of B is? A.17 kg B.20 kg C.26 kg D.31 kg Ans: D 100.A civil engineer working on a bridge design would probably rely on his .......... scale for checking printed drawings? A.Engineer's B.Metric C.Architect's D.None of the above Ans: A 101.Oxygen in our blood is transported by a protein named? A. Hemoglobin B.Keratin C.Collagen D.Myoglobin Ans: A 102.When is the World Population Day observed? A.May 31 B.October 4 C.December 10 D.July 11 Ans: D 103.The Homolographic projection has the correct representation of?

A.Shape B.Area C.Baring D.Distance Ans: B 104.Who invented the Ball Point Pen? A.Biro Brothers B.Waterman Brothers C.Bicc Brothers D.Write Brothers Ans: A 105.Entomology is the science that studies? A.Behavior of human beings B.Insects C.The origin and history of technical and scientific terms D.The formation of rocks Ans: B 106.Mass quantity is called as? A.Newton B.Vector C.Scalar D.Dyne Ans: C 107.Which of the following is not associated with the UNO? A.ILO B.WHO C.ASEAN D.All of the above Ans: C 108.Who was known as Iron man of India? A.Govind Ballabh Pant B.Jawaharlal Nehru C.Subhas Chandra Bose D.Sardar Vallabai Patel Ans: D 109.What Galileo invented? A.Barometer B.Pendulum clock C.Microscope D.Thermometer

Ans: D 110.The intersecting lines drawn on maps and globes are? A.latitudes B.longitudes C.geographic grids D.None of the above Ans: C 111.Capacity of doing work is? A.Power B.Newton C.Energy D.Joules Ans: C 112.Traditional drafters need to be able to create several different line widths because? A.Different line widths convey different information B.The line width has to do with how dark it appear in the finished drawing C.They seem to transmit better in a fax machine D.It makes no difference Ans: A 113.The density of water is? A.5 B.2 C.1 D.7 Ans: C 114.Unit of frictional force in SI unis is? A.Newton B.Watts C.Power D.None of above Ans: A 115.Several of the tools used in traditional drafting include the following? A.Parallel straight edge B.45 degree triangle C.Circle template D.All of the above Ans: D 116.He is mathematician and astronomer of the 12th century. His name is associated with India's seventh satellite. He is?

A.Aryabhatta B.Bhaskara I C.Bhaskara II D.None of the above Ans: C 117.Acceleration quantity is? A.Speed B.Scalar C.Vector D.None of above Ans: C 118.The first step in creating a traditional technical drawing is to? A.Draw a series of guide lines B.Set up the miter line C.Align the paper so that it will be positioned square to the parallel bar D.Sharpen the leads in the technical pens Ans: C 119.Files are made of? A.High carbon steel B.High speed steel C.Low carbon steel D.Mild steel Ans: A 120.A line drawn with a long section, short dash, and another long section is a? A.Hidden feature B.Center of a circle C.Center axis of a hidden cylinder D.Center of a radius Ans: C

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(2005 Sample Theory Q & A for Electrician) QUESTION PAPER Subject: Electrical Sr. No.: .............................................. Code: 3.13 / 041 Roll No.: ..........................

Signature of the Invigilator ............................................... -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Date: 13.04.2005 Duration: 2 Hours Time: 09:00 Hrs. to 11:00 Hrs. Max. Marks: 120 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Instructions: Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your answers: 1) All Questions are compulsory. 2) Each Questions carries 1 mark. 3) There are four alternatives - (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question out of which only one is the most appropriate answer. If (A) is correct, round on the correct alternative like (A) . 4) If a question is answered wrongly or more than one answers are marked, 0.25 marks will be deducted for each such question. 4) No sheet from the Question Paper / Answer Book should be detached. 5) Please DO NOT repeat DO NOT write your name anywhere on the Question Paper. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------1.The number of micro amperes in 2 milli amperes is? A.2 A B.20 A C.200 A D.2,000 A Ans: D 2.If the diameter of a conductor of 10 ohms is doubled, its new resistance would be? A.20 ohms B.5 ohms C.40 ohms

D.2.5 ohms Ans: D 3.What amount of current will flow through resistance of 10 ohms when it is connected across a potential difference of 20 volts? A.30 amperes B.5 amperes C.10 amperes D.2 amperes Ans: D 4.Resistance is measured in? A.henries B.ohms C.hertz D.watts Ans: B 5.Eighteen thousand watts is the same as? A.18 mW B.18 MW C.18 kW D.18 W Ans: C 6.An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source. The resistance of the heating element is approximately? A.385 ohms B.38.5ohms C.3.1 ohms D.31 ohms Ans: D 7.If an incandescent lamp of 80 ohms resistance takes a current of 0.75 ampere, what voltage is required to light it? A.45 volts B.60 volts c.23 volts D.None of these Ans: B 8.The current through a flashlight bulb is 40 mA and the total battery voltage is 4.5 V. The resistance of the bulb is approximately? A.112 ohms B.11.2 ohms C.1.2 ohms

D.18 ohms Ans: A 9.Materials with lots of free electrons are called? A.conductors B.insulators C.semiconductors D.filters Ans: A 10.A thermistor is a type of? A.switch B.resistor C.battery D.power supply Ans: B 11.If three wires of 3 ohms, 9 ohms and 5 ohms respectively are connected in series, what their resultant resistance? A.10 ohms B.12 ohms C.17 ohms D.5 ohms Ans: C 12.If you used 600 W of power for 60 h, you have used? A.36 kWh B.3.6 kWh C.10 kWh D.1 kWh Ans: A 13.The turns ratio of a transformer having 200 primary turns and 1,200 secondary turns is? A.6 B.24 C.1.66 D.66 Ans: A 14.A constant load power means a uniform conversion of? A.mechanical to electrical energy B.electrical to mechanical energy C.current to voltage D.voltage to current Ans: B

15.If the peak value of a sine wave is 30 V, the rms value is? A.19.08 V B.7.07 V C.0.707 V D.23.10 V Ans: D 16.When converting 7,000 nA to microamperes, the result is? A.0.007 A B.0.7 A C.700 A D.7 A Ans: D 17.Approximately how many milliamperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V source and 6.8 k ohms of resistance? A.27.2 mA B.59 mA C.5.9 mA D.590 mA Ans: C 18.Twelve volts are applied across a resistor. A current of 3 mA is measured. What is the value of the resistor? A.4 ohms B.400 ohms C.4 kohms D.4.4 ohms Ans: C 19.The minimum resistance value for a blue, gray, red, silver resistor is? A.612 ohms B.6,120 ohms C.6,800 ohms D.6,460 ohms Ans: B 20.A two-terminal variable resistor is known as a? A.potentiometer B.thermistor C.rheostat D.wiper Ans: C 21.In 0.025 W, there are? A.25 kW

B.0.00025 mW C.2,500 W D.25 mW Ans: D 22.How many watt-hours represent 65 W used for 18 h? A.11.7 Wh B.1,170 Wh C.11,700 Wh D.117,000 Wh Ans: B 23.If a transformer has 50 turns in the primary winding and 10 turns in the secondary winding, what is the reflective resistance if the secondary load resistance is 250 ohms? A.250 ohms B.25 ohms C.6,250 ohms D.62,500 ohms Ans: C 24.Referring to Problem 18, if all phase currents are 3 A, the line current magnitudes are? A.3 A B.1 A C.9 A D.18 A Ans: A 25.A sine wave of 15 kHz is changing at a faster rate than a sine wave with a frequency of? B.12 kHz C.18 kHz D.1.3 MHz Ans: B 26.The number of millivolts in 0.06 kilovolts is? A.600 V B.6,000 mV C.60,000 mV D.600,000 mV Ans: C 27.How much resistance is required to limit the current from a 12 V battery to 3.6 mA? A.3.3 k ohms B.33 k ohms C.2.2 k ohms D.22 k ohms Ans: A

28.You are measuring the current in a circuit that is operated on an 18 V battery. The ammeter reads 40 mA. Later you notice the current has dropped to 20 mA. How much has the voltage changed? A.9 V B.900 mV C.0 V D.18 V Ans: A 29.Four amperes of current are measured through a 24 ohms resistor connected across a voltage source. How much voltage does the source produce? A.960 V B.9.6 V C.96 V D.8 V Ans: C 30.Current flows in a circuit when? A.a switch is opened B.a switch is closed C.the switch is either open or closed D.there is no voltage Ans: B 31.Electrons in the outer orbit are called? A.nuclei B.valences C.waves D.shells Ans: B 32.A material that does not allow current under normal conditions is a(n)? A.insulator B.conductor C.semiconductor D.valence Ans: A 33.If it takes 400 ms to use 12,000 J of energy, the power is? A.30 kW B.30 W C.3 W D.300 kW Ans: A

34.A certain transformer has 400 turns in the primary winding and 2,000 turns in the secondary winding. The turns ratio is? A.0.2 B.0.4 C.5 D.25 Ans: C 35.Referring to Problem 3, power consumption is? A.16 W B.160 mW C.160 W D.3,459 W Ans: C 36.Two series resistors are connected to an ac source. If there are 7.5 V rms across one resistor and 4.2 V rms across the other, the peak source voltage is? A.16.54 V B.1.65 V C.10.60 V D.5.93 V Ans: A 37.The average value of a 12 V peak sine wave over one complete cycle is? A.0 V B.1.27 V C.7.64 V D.6.37 V Ans: A 38.When converting 0.16 mA to microamperes, the result is? A.16 A B.160 A C.1,600 A D.0.0016 A Ans: B 39.The formula to find I when the values of V and R are known is? A.I = VR B.I = R/V C.V = IR D.I = V/R Ans: D 40.A resistance of 3.3 M ohms is connected across a 500 V source. The resulting current is approximately?

A.15.1 A B.151 A C.66 mA D.660 mA Ans: B Mark following statements as True or False:41.A sawtooth wave has a period of 10 ms. Its frequency is 100 Hz. Ans: True 42.When converting 1,600 kilohms to megohms, the result is 160 megohms. Ans: False 43.A current of 200 A through a 6.8 k ohms resistor produces a voltage drop of 1.36 V. Ans: True 44.A power supply produces a 0.6 W output with an input of 0.7 W. Its percentage of efficiency is 85.7%. Ans: True 45.15.Seven thousand volts can be expressed as 7 MV. Ans: False Fill in the blanks:46.The unit of electrical charge is the ................ Ans: coulomb 47.The ........... of an 8 ohm resistance is 125 mS. Ans: conductance 48.In ............ kW, there are 40,000 W. Ans: 40 49.The Norton equivalent current is the ............... current. Ans: Short circuit 50.The maximum resistance value for a brown, red, yellow, gold resistor is ............. ohms? Ans: 126,000

51.Which of the following is not an electrical quantity? A.voltage B.current C.distance

D.power Ans: C 52.A resistor is connected across a 50 V source. What is the current in the resistor if the color code is red, orange, orange, silver? A.2 mA B.2.2 mA C.214 mA D.21.4 mA Ans: B 53.How much current is produced by a voltage of 18 kV across a 15 k ohms resistance? A.1.2 A B.12 A C.120 mA D.12 mA Ans: A 54.Which of the following is not a type of energy source? A.generator B.rheostat C.solar cell D.battery Ans: B 55.When the pointer of an analog ohmmeter reads close to zero, the resistor being measured is? A.overheated B.shorted C.open D.reversed Ans: B 56.The turns ratio required to match an 80 ohms source to a 320 ohms load is? A.80 B.20 C.4 D.2 Ans: C 57.The primary coil of a transformer is connected to a 60 V ac source. The secondary coil is connected to a 330 ohms load. The turns ratio is 3:1. What is the secondary voltage? A.2 V B.20 V C.180 V D.18 V Ans: B

58.In a Y-connected circuit, the magnitude of each line current is? A.one-third the phase current B.three times the corresponding phase current C.equal to the corresponding phase current D.zero Ans: C 59.When a sine wave has a frequency of 100 Hz in 12 s it goes through? A.1/100 cycle B.12 cycles C.120 cycles D.1,200 cycles Ans: D 60.In order to get maximum power transfer from a capacitive source, the load must? A.have a capacitive reactance equal to circuit resistance B.have an impedance that is the complex conjugate of the source impedance C.be as capacitive as it is inductive D.none of the above Ans: B 61.Fourteen milliamperes can be expressed as? A.14 MA B.14 A C.14 kA D.14 mA Ans: D 62.If 750 A is flowing through 11 k ohms of resistance, what is the voltage drop across the resistor? A.8.25 V B.82.5 V C.14.6 V D.146 V Ans: 2 63.How much voltage is needed to produce 2.5 A of current through a 200 ohms resistor? A.50 V B.500 V C.80 V D.8 V Ans: B 64.When there is 12 mA of current through a 1.2 k ohms resistor, the voltage across the resistor is?

A.14.4 V B.1.4 V C.100 V D.10 V Ans: A 65.How much resistance is needed to draw 17.6 mA from a 12 volt source? A.212 ohms B.6.8 kohms C.68 ohms D.680 ohms Ans: D 66.When placed close together, two positively charged materials will? A.attract B.become neutral C.become negative D.repel Ans: D 67.The colored bands for a 4,700 ohm resistor with a ten percent tolerance are? A.yellow, violet, red, gold B.yellow, violet, orange, gold C.yellow, violet, red, silver D.orange, violet, red, silver Ans: C 68.A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how many kilowatt-hours of energy does it consume? A.20.16 kWh B.201.6 kWh C.2.01 kWh D.8.4 kWh Ans: B 69.When the turns ratio of a transformer is 20 and the primary ac voltage is 12 V, the secondary voltage is? A.12 V B.120 V C.240 V D.2,400 V Ans: C 70.In a certain loaded transformer, the secondary voltage is one-fourth the primary voltage. The secondary current is? A.one-fourth the primary current

B.four times the primary current C.equal to the primary current D.one-fourth the primary current and equal to the primary current Ans: B

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