Ready for delivery

CLAT 2011/LLB ENTRANCE

SELF STUDY KIT
Fully revised
NOW WITH
CLAT
SOLVED PAPERS [2008-2010]
About 20,000 questions and answers
About 100sets GK CAPSULES
MOCK TESTS WITH ANSWERS
RANK MAKING POINTS ON EACH SUBJECT
45 SETS PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS (SOLVED)
FROM ALL MAJOR LAW SCHOOLS
About 3000 pages (A4 SIZE) of materials
 Call 09847155223/09447133228
PRICE….5000/-(Full kit-soft copy)
45 sets previous solved papers ….3000/-
for SAMPLE MATERIALS....pls write to
clatkit@gmail.com
 CLAT 2011
SELF STUDY KIT
SET-1

About 2500 questions and answers on

Legal Aptitude
Rank making points on LEGAL APTITUDE &
Constitution of India
Questions Based on Assertion &Reasons
LEGAL TERMS
LEGAL MAXIMS
OFFENCES AND PUNISHMENTS
JURISDICTION AND SEAT OF HIGH COURTS

LAWEXAMS.IN
09847155223
www.lawexams.in
www.answeringlaw.com
Warning: do not circulate this materials: which will defeat your
chances
 SET-1- LEGAL GK

1.In which of the following Case, the Supreme court upheld reservations in
excess of 50 per cent on the rationale that panchayats in scheduled areas
warrant exceptional treatment?
(a) Union of India Vs Rakesh Kumar
(b) Nagaraj Vs union of India
(c) Unnikrishnan Vs union of India
(d) None of the above

2.When a person is bound to prove the existence of any fact, it is said that
…………………lies on that person.
(a) presumption
(b) evidence
(c) burden of proof
(d)None of the above

3.Which of the following Attorney-General of India , had the rare honour

of being called upon to address the Parliament regarding the powers of the
Election Commission on August 5, 1993?
(a) Soli Sorabji
(b) Milan Banerji
(c) Parasaran
(d)None of the above

4.Which of the following authority granted permissions to some foreign

law firms to establish their place of business in India (liaison office) under
Section 29 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973, which is recently
quashed by the Mumbai High Court?
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Bar council of India
(c)Union Law Ministry
(d) Supreme Court of India

5. The Supreme Court in the case of Khazia Mohammed Muzammil (2010)

has made it mandatory to obtain police verification prior to appointments
in
(a) Civil service
(b) Police service
(c) Judicial Service
(d) None of the above

6. Who among the following author conferred with the Law Day Award
2009 for her book on Cyber laws titled 'Cyber laws In the Information
Technology Age'?
(a) Rodney Ryder
(b) Apar Gupta
(c) Karnika Seth
(d)None of the above

7.Which of the following former attorney General of India had the

privilege of being a Law Officer during the times of five different Prime
Ministers?
(a) Soli Sorabji
(b) Milan Banerji
(c) Parasaran
(d)None of the above

8. "Law is not made by Judge alone, but by Judge and Company". The
above observation is made by
(a) William Brennan
(b) Lord Atkin
(c) Blackburn
(d)None of the above

9.“Judges should be of stern stuff and tough fibre, unbending before

power, economic or political, and they must uphold the core principle of
the rule of law which says, “Be you ever so high, the law is above you.”.
The above observations in S.P.Gupta’s Case was med by
(a) Chandrachud.J
(b) Chinnappa Reddy.J
(c) Bhagavathy.J
(d) None of the above

10. The nature of the relationship between the Supreme Court and High
Courts is explained by the Supreme Court in
(a) Judges Transfer Case
(b) Bank Nationalization Case
(c) Tirupati Balaji Devolopers Pvt Ltd Vs State of Bihar
(d)None of the above

11.Which of the following Case is an example of a successful Public

Interest Litigation?
(a) Shiram Food & Fertilizer case ;
(b) M.C Mehta v. Union of India
(c) Parmanand Katara v. Union of India
(d) All the above

12. Following the 26/11 Mumbai attack in 2008, the government had
amended the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act and increased the pre-
charge detention period of an accused to
(a) 100 days
(b) 120 days
(c) 180 days
(d) 150 days

13. Which of the following state government recently approved

reintroduction of the provision of anticipatory bail, which was abolished
34 years ago?
(a) AP
(b) UP
(c) MP
(d)HP
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------About 2500
questions and answers on LEGAL APTITUTUDE ALONE

250 RANK MAKING QUESTIONS ON LEGAL

APTITUDE
 1. The high court having jurisdiction over largest number of states- Guwahati High Court
2. A written statement in the name of a person by whom it is voluntarily signed and sworn to is
called - Affidavit
3. In civil action, the standard of proof is- on balance of probabilities
4. An insolvent person is: Bankrupt
5. What is the legal meaning of the word "Battery"? Striking of another person
6. "Interpretation of statutes" falls under which jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India? Appellate
jurisdiction
7. When a person speaks slanderously about God or Religion, it is called- Blasphemy
8. Laws made by the executive for administrative convenience are called- Byelaw
9. The rule of evidence which forbids a person from denying the truth of some statement formerly
made by him – Estoppel
10. A mode of transfer of property including mortgage, lease, etc., but excluding will-
Conveyencing
11. When a widow remarries, her children are considered the children of her new husband. This can
be best stated by the term- De juro
12. Apart from Jammu and Kashmir, which of the following States has a special protection,
notwithstanding anything contained in the Constitution in certain matters? Nagaland
13. An order of a Court pronounced on the hearing of a suit is called- Decree
14. Who is the successor to the authority that was functioning as the Privy council before the coming
into being of the Constitution of India? Supreme Court
15. Bye-law making power granted to the executive by the Legislature is called- Delegated
legislation

RANK MAKING POINTS- CONSTITUTION OF

INDIA
(It took 2yrs, 11 Months and 18 Days, Nearly 3 yrs to complete the Constitution)

The word constitution is derived from the Latin word ‘Constituere’, con-together
stature-to make to stand. Constitution means bringing together fundamental Principles, which
makes a system of Govt: to stand
The cabinet Mission Plan laid down the procedure for framing the constitution in
1946. A constituent Assembly was formed and doctor Sachidanand Sinha was elected as the first
chairman or pro-term chairman of the constituent Assembly. He died after 8 months Dr.
Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent chairman of constituent Assembly. On the 29th
August 1947 a drafting committee was constituted under the chairmanship of Dr.B.R.Ambedkar.
The other members of the committee were Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyer, K.M.Munshi,
Muhammad Sedullah, M.Madhava Rao and B.P.Khaithan. The Constitutional advisor to the
drafting committee was Dr.B.M.Rao. The draft was completed in February 1948. Constitution of
India was finally adopted in November 1926, 1949 and came into price on January 26, 1950
Salient Features of Indian Constitution
The constitution of India is the lengthiest written constitution in the world. The original
constitution had 395 Articles (444), 22 parts (24) and 8 schedules (12).
1. Flexible and Rigid constitution
The constitution of India can neither be considered flexible like that of British
constitution rigid like that of constitution of USA. Our constitution has accomplished a
combination of rigidity and flexibility.
Article 368 of the constitution provides for amendment of the constitution. According to
Article 368, there are some provisions, which can be easily amended by simple majority certain
other provisions can be amended only by 2/3rd majority. There are still other provisions, which
not only require 2/3rd majority but also require rectification (approval) by majority of the states.
2. Establishment of a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, democratic, Republic
The preamble of the constitution declares India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular,
democratic Republic. The word sovereign emphasizes that India is no more dependent on any
outside authority. The words socialist and secular have been inserted in the Preamble by 42nd
amendment,1976 .Preamble was amended only once .The term socialism has no definite meaning.
In general it means some form of ownership and distribution by the state .The term secularism
means state has no religion of its own as religion of the state and non- interference of state in
religious matters. It treats all religions equally. The term democracy means the rulers are elected
by the people and are responsible to them. The term ‘Republic’ signifies that there shall be an
elected head of the state.
3.Combination of Unitary and federal feature
According to Article X-1 of the constitution of India. India is a union of states. India is a
centralized federation- center has a strong control over the states. The parliament can change the
boundaries of the states, create new states, appoint Governor’s etc. The center can declare
emergency in the states. So we can say that India is Quasi-federal state.
4. Parliamentary System of Government
In India both at the center and the states there is parliamentary system of Government.
The president is the constitutional head and the real power is in the council of ministers headed
by the Parliamentary System.
5. Fundamental Rights
The incorporation of a formal declaration of fundamental rights in Part-III of the
constitution is a distinguished feature. The state cannot make a law, which takes away the
fundamental rights of a citizen. They are prohibitions against the state. Fundamental Rights are
not absolute. They are subject to reasonable restrictions imposed by the state.
Part-III of the constitution is known as Magna Carta (1215) of Indian constitution. There
are 5 types of writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
They are: -
1. Habeas corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Quo-Warranto
5. Certiorari
Article 12-35 deals with fundamental Rights. Article 14-18 Right to equality, Article 19-22 Right
to freedom. Article 23 and 24 right against exploitation. Article 25-28 Right to freedom of
Religion. Article 29-30 deals with Right to cultural and educational Rights of minorities. Article
31-35 constitutional Remedies
Supremacy of the Constitution: -
Constitution of the country is the permanent law and no law can be enacted in violation
of the constitution.

500 OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ON

CONSTITUTION OF INDIA
1. The source of India's sovereignty lies in the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) People of India
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
2. Which Article authorises the Parliament to form new States, and alter areas, boundaries or
names of existing States?
(a) Article 2
(b) Article 3
(c) Article 6
(d) Article 8
3. The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak.
This phenomenon is known as
(a) yielding the floor
(b) crossing the floor.
(c) anti-defection
(d) decoram
4. All-India Services come under Article:
(a) 310
(b) 312
(c) 316
(d) 319
5. What is the duration of 'zero hour' in Lok Sabha?
(a) 15 minutes
(b) Half-an-hour
(c) One hour
(d) Not specified.
6. The State which bas the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in Lok
Sabha is
(a) Bihar.
(b) Gujarat.
(c) Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Madhya Pradesh.
7. Which of the following Constitutional posts is enjoyed for a fixed term?
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor
8. Which of the following exercises, the most profound influence, in framing the Indian
Constitution?
(a) British Constitution
(b) US Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935.
9. From which Constitution was the Concept of a Five Year Plan borrowed into the Indian
Constitution?
a) USA
b) USSR
c) UK
d) Ireland
10. The words 'secular' and 'socialist' were added to the Indian Constitution in 1975 by
amending the
a) Preamble
b) Directive Principles
c) Fundamental Rights
d) All of the above

200Rank making points -Constitution of India

1. The act through which British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India
Company ---- Government of India Act, 1858.
2. The act that gave opportunities to the non-official and native elements in Indian society to take
part in the work of the Government ----- Indian Councils Act, 1892.
3. The act that provided, for the first time, for separate representation of the Muslim Community -
---- the Indian Councils Act 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms).
4. The report which led to the enactment of the Government of India Act 1919 - ---Montagu-
Chelmsford Report.
5. The main features of the system introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 were:- ------
(i) Dyarchy in the Provinces, (ii) Relaxation of Central control over the Provinces and (iii) The
Indian Legislature was made more representative.
6. The act which made the Indian legislature, for the first time, bicameral----- the Government of
India Act, 1919.
7. The Communal Award that prescribed separate electorates for the Muslims was issued by ------
amsay MacDonald, the British Prime Minister, on August 4, 1932.
8. The act which provided separate representation not only for the Muslims, but also for the
Sikhs, the Europeans, Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians ---- Government of India Act, 1935.
9. The Constitution of India was adopted on - -------26th November, 1949.
10. The bulk of the Constitution became operative on ------26th January, 1950, which date is
referred to in the Constitution as its Date of Commencement.

Questions Based on Assertion-Reason

(CONSTITUTION OF INDIA)
Directions: In the questions given below are two statements labeled as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). In the context of the two statements, which of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion (A) :- Assertion (A): The Preamble of the Constitution starts with 'We, the people of
India'
Reason (R): It implies that the Constitution is created by the entire nation. Ans. (b)
2. Assertion (A):- The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and 30 other Judges.
Reason (R):- The Judges of the Supreme Court draw such salaries and allowances as are
specified in the second schedule of the Constitution. Ans. (c)

3. Assertion (A):- Under Article 141, the decision of the Supreme Court is binding on all courts
within the territory of India.
Reason (R):- The Supreme Court is bound by its earlier decisions. Ans. (c)

4. Assertion (A):- The President is a part of the legislature.

Reason (R):- A bill passed by the Houses of Parliament cannot become a law without the
assent of the President . Ans. (a)

500 LEGAL TERMS and maxims

1. Abettor - A person who is found guilty of aiding and abetting .In criminal law an
abettor is an instigator who promotes a crime to be committed.
2. Abduction - The wrongful taking away of a person
3. Abate - To end
4. Abscond - Escape from legal procedure
5. Accident - An unexpected incident
6. Accessory - One who is helpful to a crime or who is a partner in a crime.
7. Accomplice - A conscious associate in a crime.
8. Accused - One who is charged with a crime
9. Adjourn - sine -die - Postpone without fixing a date.
10. Adopt - To take into one’s own family by legal process.

CLAT /LLB ENTRANCE

SELF STUDY KIT
 ENGLISH
&
LEGAL REASONING

ENGLISH
 Glossary of English Grammar Terms

Active Voice
In the active voice, the subject of the verb does the action (eg They killed the President).
See also Passive Voice.

Adjective
A word like big, red, easy, French etc. An adjective describes a noun or pronoun.

Adverb
A word like slowly, quietly, well, often etc. An adverb modifies a verb.

Article
The "indefinite" articles are a and an. The "definite article" is the.

Auxiliary Verb
A verb that is used with a main verb. Be, do and have are auxiliary verbs. Can, may, must
etc are modal auxiliary verbs.

Clause
A group of words containing a subject and its verb (for example: It was late when he
arrived).

..
.
.
.
.
.
.

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. The Sun……..at six this morning.
(a) raised (b) rose
(c) arose (d) aroused
2.Every, Shakespearean hero has an internal……. in his character
(a) defect (b) Weakness
(c) fault (d) flaw

3. I cannot consent……. this proposal.

(a) to (b) for .
(c) with (d) in
4. This book is, a useful ……. to our library.
(a) discovery (b) asset
(c) addition (d) arrival,
5. Once you suspect a person of double dealing, you ought to keep him at arm's…….
(a) distance (b) length
 (c) aim (d) width
6.1n large cities people are cut …….. from nature.
(a) away (b) off
(c) out (d) down
7.They are refugees in need of ………….
(a) restoration (b) rehabilitation
(c) recapitulation (d) renovation
8. If Tom had studied hard, he ………the examination
(a) will pass (b) shall pass
(c) would have-passed (d) shall have passed
9., The situation in the riot-torn district is now………….
(a) natural (b) neutral.
(c) normal (d) national
10. If' I……….. his address, I could write to him.
(a) knew (b) had known
(c) know (d) will know
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
. PREPOSITIONS

1. Raju must hold discussion……..you……. that matter shortly.

(a) about, for (b) with, for (c) about, in (d) with, about

2. Please place the book………the desk.

(a) upon (b) on (c) in (d) over

3. …….four weeks, he did not venture……..the safety of his ha even once.

(a) with in, for (b) for, beyond (c) for, over (d) over, for

4. …….cover of darkness, the enemy crept……. the hill.

(a) in, over (b) in, along (c) under, up (d) through, up

5. Rapid progress………… science has amazed everyone.

(a) in (b) of (c) about (d) with

6. …….the house tops the kite flew until it got lost……. the cloud
(a) by, in (b) from, in (c) on, among (d) over, among

7. We set…………a box at the opera.

(a) into (b) on (c) in (d) under

8. You must dispense……..her services.

(a) of (b) in (c) at (d) with

9. You must attend……….the class.

(a) on (b) with (c) in (d) to

10. Mr. Patel, their cashier is working………a small salary.

(a) for (b) at (c) on (d) in
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
.
. Here in the following questions , there are four alternatives are there & you have to choose
the one which can be substituted for the given words or sentence .
Q:1 Life history of a person written by another
(a) Autobiography (b) Biography
(c) Bibliography (d) Memoir
Q:2 One who forcibly seizes control of a bus or an aircraft
(a) Pirate (b) swindler
(c) Hijacker (d) none of these
Q:3 A government by the nobles
(a) Democracy (b) Bureaucracy
(c) Autocracy (d) Aristocracy
Q:4 A person who has no money to pay his debts
(a) Debtor (b) Pauper
(c) Beggar (d) Insolvent
Q:5 A small house with all room on one floor
(a) Bungalow (b) Cottage
(c) Flat (d) Castle
.
.
.
.
.
.

.
. COMPREHENSION

Direction : Read the following passages carefully and then answer the questions that are
based on what is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage. 1

Aristotle's attitude to law and equity was not simply a theoretical fiction. There is evidence that it
both shaped legal practice and, even more clearly, built on an already developed and developing
tradition of Athenian legal thought. We have of course, almost no records of the actual outcomes
of jury trials, and no record at all of the deliberation, as each juror cast a separate vote after
hearing the various arguments, apparently without much mutual consultation. We do, however,
have many examples of persuasive speeches delivered to juries. And because the orator's
reputation rested on his ability to persuade a jury of average citizens, chosen by lot, we can rely
on these speeches for evidence of widespread popular beliefs about legal and ethical concepts.
These -speeches show the orators relying on a concept of law and even of justice that is very
much like the one that Aristotle renders explicit and systematic. Thus litigants frequently call for
justice tailored 'to the circumstances of their own case, and they frequently use the expression ta
dikaia ("those things that are just") in that sense. And they often proceed as if the written law is
understood to be a set of guidelines with gaps, to be filled in, or corrected, by equity
argumentation. In this process, frequent appeal is made to the juror's sense of fairness, as if, once
the particular circumstances of the case are understood, they can be expected to see that justice
consists in an equitable determination.
1. The above passage suggests that
(A) It is not wrong to make a simple contrast between justice and equity.
(B) We have to choose between justice and equity and the rule of law as understandings of
what justice demands.
(C) Law and equity, according to Aristotle's standards, are inter-woven in legal
practice.
(D) None of the above.

Passage 2

How do you react to the term `pars-psychology'? Does it fill you with excitement? Or does it give
you a sense of vague discomfort when confronted with something which does not have its basis in
the faculty of reason? Para-psychology or pars-normal is a branch of psychology which deals
with phenomenon which are beyond the realm of the five senses. Experiments show that the
human mind can operate from another plane, the faculty of intuition. We have all experienced at
some time or the other that gut feeling is invariably correct. There is no rational explanation as to
why you feel what you do but there it is. It would be a rare person who has never felt a sense of
foreboding or a sense of relation which was justified later as some information unfolded itself and
one could connect the feelings with the fact. It is usually a hindsight which tells you that what
you experienced was an intuitive flash. Your unconscious mind is constantly giving you
messages. You meet a person and you like or dislike him/her for no apparent reason. You hear a
telephone ring and you know who is calling. You receive a letter and you know what it contains.
All these are instances of intuition in which reason has no role. Some rationalists have tried to
explain such instances as coincidences but there is too much evidence to the contrary.
Russia is a pioneer in conducting research in the area of intuition. They have conducted several
experiments under laboratory test conditions to understand this faculty. In her prize winning
book, Psychic Discoveries Beyond the Iron, Curtain Shroider records an experiment that was
conducted on rabbits. A mother rabbit was kept on a boat connected to a monitor which recorded
her respiration, pulse, heartbeat and blood pressure. Her six babies were taken under water in a
submarine and killed one by one at every 20 minutes interval. It was discovered that the mother
rabbit showed signs of distress every 20 minutes corresponding exactly with the killing of the
babies.
Several experiments are conducted involving human beings too to prove the validity of intuition.
The faculty of intuition is present in all species. In some human beings it is more acute and they
can tune in to this faculty more easily. Kit Pedlar in his book, Mind OverMatter, says that the
mind is capable of going beyond the limitation of time, space and matter.
There are various phenomena that can happen when intuition comes into play. They are
precognition, telepathy and clairvoyance and they are all parts of extra sensory perception.
Precognition is knowing the future events. Nostradamus, the 16th century French astrologer,
predicted events right up to the 21st century. He had foretold in quatrains about the World Wars,
the rise and fall of Hitler, the alliance of the superpowers of America and Russia, the killing of
Kennedy, the rise of Khomeini, the earthquake of San Francisco, etc. More than 70 per cent of his
predictions have been proved correct. How could a man in the 16th century predict things four
centuries away? He has also made predictions for the coming years. Unfortunately, they are
dismal. According to Nostradamus, the last decade of the 20th century will be filled with global
disasters and natural calamities. There will be famine, earthquakes and a nuclear holocaust. There
will also be a rise in corruption, crime rates, anarchy, racial hatred, divisions and destruction. The
only thing that can save mankind is the emergence of a world teacher who will unite the world
and direct a movement towards spirituality. We have experienced that a lot of this is true. There is
already a shift towards spirituality. In India too there have been various seers who have predicted
events much before they actually happened. Our shastras abound in such examples.
Telepathy is also very interesting. It means mental communication. People who are sensitive
make good receivers or senders of telepathic signals. Hasn't it so happened that you've thought of
a person and he/she calls? Or you need something desperately and someone gives it to you as a
gift? However, when people are bound by ties of love and blood and are in tune with each other,
they experience this much more. Take this example. During the Second World War, the Germans
had bombarded a passenger ship. All the passengers and the crew were declared dead. But despite
the official declaration, a wife of one of the men on the ship could not accept the verdict that her
husband was dead. She felt very strongly that he was alive, in great pain and asking for help. She
pursued the matter relentlessly against all odds and discovered that it was possible that there
might have been some survivors. The next step was to find out where the ship could have
reached. After pinpointing two islands she flew down there to find her husband alive in a native
hospital. He was delirious and constantly asking for her. He was in great pain for his leg had been
amputated. They were united.
1. As per the author
(a) there is no difference between telepathy and precognition.
(b) telepathy is common place.
(c) precognition needs extra-ordinary intuition capabilities.
(d) none of these.
2. As per the passage,
(a) some traces of para-psychology are always found in all humans.
(b) para-psychology needs special faculties.
(c) para-psychology can be rationalised.
(d) none of these.
3. As per the passage, the faculty of intuition is
(a) equally developed in all human beings.
(b) equally developed in all living beings.
(c) present in all living beings.
(d) always futuristic.
4. For telepathy to be successful
(a) the communicating minds need not be human.
(b) the communicating minds need to be very sensitive.
(c) the communicating minds need to be logical.
(d) none of these.
5. Gut feeling is
(a) always correct.
(b) invariably correct.
(c) never correct.
(d) cannot be said.
 LEGAL REASONING
Indian Penal Code
Lord Macauly drafted the IPC in the year 1869. It is divided into 23
chapters and 511 sections.
The First Law Commission was appointed in India in 1835. The
commission has four members. Lord T.B.Macaulay was the Chairman of
the First Law Commission. The Commission was directed to prepare a draft
of penal code for India. The commision prepared the draft and submitted it
to the Government in 1837. This draft was enacted into law in 1860 by the
Legislative Council. It received the assent of the Governor General on 6th
October, 1860. By this enactment Muslim Criminal law was completely
abolished and a uniform penal law for India was introduced.
The fundamental principle of penal liability is contained in the maxim"
actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea". The maxim means an act does
notamount to a crime unless.! done with a guilty intention,., In other words
the act alone does not amount to guilt, it must be accompanied by a guilty
mind. The intent and the act must both concur to constitute the crime. Thus
there are two essential conditions of criminal liability. They are :-
(1) Actus reus; and (2) Mens rea
(1) Actus reus (Result of human conduct)
Actus reus is the first essential element or ingredient of a crime. An act is
any event which is subject to the control of human will. An act is a
concious movement. It is the conduct which results from the operation of
will. "Actus reus" refers to the result of human
conduct which the law seeks to prevent. If any human conduct (actus) is not
prohibited by law, the act or conduct will not be termed as a crime. A
person who comfits such an act is not liable for a crime. Any movement of
the body which is not a consequence of the determination of the will is not
an act. Thus involuntary actions will not become criminal act. If a
somnambulist sets. fire to a house during his sleepwalk, he will not be
liable under criminal law.
Actus reus may be negative or positive.
X' shoots 'Y' and kills him. It is a positive actus reus.
The mother of a child does not feed the child and causes the death of the
child by starvation. The actus reus is negative. Thus, actus reus in this
illustration is omission to act.
In order to be liable for crime the act or omission should be one prohibited
by law. The following illustrations will make the point more clear.
(i) 'A:,who is having sufficient means, failed to help a starving man. The
 man dies due to starvation. A is not criminally liable since his ommision is
not prohibited by law.
(ii) 'N, who knows swimming , failed to save the life a drowining child and
the child died as a result of the omission. The omission is not prohibited by
law and 'A' is not liable for,crime. If 'A' was a coastguard the omission to
act would have been a crime.
(iii) A is a Jail warden. He failed, to supply food to the prisoners in the jail
and several prisoners died due to starvation. 'N is liable for murder as he
violated a prohibitted omission.
(iv) 'A' shoots 'B' and resulted in the death of 'B'. 'A' is liable for murder
since he violated a prohibited act.
(11) Mens rea (Guilty Mind)
A prohibited act will become a crime when it is accompanied by a certain
state of mind. There must be a mind at fault beforeany crime can be
committed. An act or omission alone is not sufficient to constitute a crime.
The act or omission should have followed by an evil intent. Thus we may
say,
A crime = A prohibited actor omission + guilty mind.
In England and India the general rule relating to criminal liability is that "an act is
not a crime unless it is done with guilty mind". This general general principle of
common law is contained in the maxim: " actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea".
There are certain enactments which define offences without mentioning the
necessity of mens rea. In those statutes offences are defined in absolute terms. The
Opium Act,1878
(It has been repealed by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances
Act,1985), the Foreign Ex-
change Regulation Act, 1947, the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the
Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act,1985 etc., are examples of such
enactments.
When an offence is defined in absolute terms ie., without mentioning the necessity
of mens rea, the question that would normally arise is:
Whether the courts can read in between lines the necessary mens rea?.
In former times it was thought that the legislature was not competent to over-ride
the established rules of common law. According to this view, even if the necessity
of mens rea. is not expressly mentioned in a particular statute, the judges should
read in between lines the necessary mens rea. In other words the necessity of mens
rea should be taken as granted. Thus even if the offence is defined without
mentioning the necessity of mens rea, the courts used to acquit the accused in the
absence of guilty mind. But the present view is that when the legislature defines an
offence in absolute terms the courts cannot read in between lines the. necessary
mens rea.
In State of Maharashtra v. M.H.George (AIR 1965 SC 722), the accused was
prosecuted for bringing gold into India in violation of the statutory prohibition.
Section 8(1) of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act,1947 prohibits a person from
bringing gold into India without special or general permission of the Reserve Bank
of India. The Reserve Bank of India by a Notification issued on August 25;1948
granted a general permission to bring gold from places outside the territory of
India for transit to another country. But by a subsequent Notification dated
November 8, 1962, it was made clear that the person bringing gold for trasnit
should make a declaration in the "manifest" of the aircarft.
The accused was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss plane which left
Zurich on27-11-1962. The plane-landed at the airport in Bombay on 28 th
November, 1962. On a search in the plane, 34 kilos of gold bars were found in the
possession of the accused,
who was still sitting in the plane. He had not made the declaration in the
"manifest" of the aircraft. The accused was prosecuted for bringing gold into India
in violation of the statutory prohibition.
The Presidency Magistrate sentenced him to rigourous imprisonment for one year.
On appeal the High Court of Bombay acquitted the accused for the reason that the
accused had no mens rea as he had brought gold into India for mere transit to
Manila. The State of harashtra appealed before the Supreme Court of India. The
Supreme Court set aide the judgement of acquittal of the.Bombay High Court and
restored the conviction of the accused.
Jurisdiction of IPC
There are 2 types of jurisdiction
1.Territorial
2.Extra Territorial
Territorial
In the territory of India IPC is applicable to every person irrespective
of nationality. It includes jurisdiction over sea up to 12 nautical miles.
Extra Territorial
IPC is applicable to Indian citizens who committed wrongs in
foreign countries. IPC is applicable to Indian ships and Indian aircrafts.
PROBLEM:- X' is a citizen of India. He commits a murder in England.
Whether he can be tried a convicted for murder in India?
Ans: 'X' being an Indian -citizen, can be tried and convicted in any place in India
in whirl he may be found. By s. 188 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
previous sanction of the Central Government is.to be obtained.
If a foreigner commits an offence under the Code on any ship or aircraft registered
in India, he may be tried and convicted in any place in India at which he may be
found. B virtue of section 188 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, previous
sanction of Central Government is to be obtained.
(2) 'X', a foreigner commits murder on board a ship registered in India while
the ship was lying in territorial waters of England. Can 'X' be tried and
convicted in .India for murder.?
Ans: X can be tried and convicted in India .
206 LEGAL REASONING PROBLEMS
Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle, followed by a factual
situation. Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate
answer among the alternatives given

1. PRINCIPLE :- Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some

special offences.
Facts:-Rameshwar keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom
he invited to a party and to whom he wishes to give it. Unknown to Rmeshwar, his
only son takes the halua and dies. In this case
(a).Rameshwar is liable for the murder.
(b)He is not liable for murder since t is a preparation alone.
(c) He is liable for culpable homicide

2. PRINCIPLE:- Every member of unlawful assembly guilty of offence committed

in prosecution of common object:-

FACT:-A, -along with eight others went to a near village to beat some of his
enemies. In this fight A was injured. The members of the opposite party ran away.
Thereafter A's friends followed the opponents and killed one of them.

(a) A and his companions are liable to be punished for the murder.
(b) Only A is liable ,others are liable for minor offences only
(c) No one is liable since they exercised the private defence

(3) PRINCIPLE- Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to
that person, or to any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in
fear to deliver to any property or valuable security, or anything signed or sealed
which may be converted into a valuable security, commits "extortion".

FACTS:- A threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning B unless B gives

Rs.5 lakhS. A induces B to give money.
(a) A is guilty of defamation
(b) A is guilty of extortion
(c ) A is not guilty since it is a preparation only.
4. PRINCIPLE:-Nothing which is not intended to cause death, is an offence by
reason of any harm which it may cause, or be intended by the doer to cause, or be
known by the doer to be likely to cause, to any person for whose benefit it is done
in good faith, and who has given a consent, whether express or implied, to suffer
that harm, or to take the risk of that harm
FACTS:- A fake doctor operated on a man for internal piles by cutting them out
with an ordinary knife. The man died of haemorrahage.
(a)Doctor is guilty of murder
(b)Doctor is not guilty
(c) Doctor is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder
He exercised his right of private defence under a mistake of fact. He was under the
belief that A and B were fighting. He is justified in exercising his right of private
defence.

(5) PRINCIPLE:-Whoever dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use

any movable property, shall be punished with imprisonment of either description
for a term which may extend to two years, or with fine, or with both.

FACTS:- A finds a diamond ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. He sells it

immediately to a jeweller.

(a) A is guilty of Criminal Misappropriation.

(b) A is not guilty of Criminal Misappropriation
(c) A is guilty of cheating

(6) PRINCIPLE:- voluntary drunkenness is not a Defence under ss.85 and 86 of

the Code FACTS:- A has in his possession a bottle of poisonous lotion for external
application and a bottle of medicine for internal use. A in a drunken condition
gives to his child an ounce of the poisonous lotion to drink as result of which the
child died. Is A guilty of any offence?
(a)A is guilty of' death caused by rash and negligent act.
(b)A is guilty of murder
(c A is not guilty since he is in a drunken state.

A cannot take 'drunkenness' as a defence as voluntary drunkenness is not a

Defence under ss.85 and 86 of the Code.

(7) PRINCIPLE:- Attempt to murder is punishable under S.307 IPC but

preparation is not an offence.
FACTS:- A mixes sugar, thinking that it was poison in the tea meant for B with an
intention to cause his death. What offence, if any, has been committed by A?
(a) A is not liable to be punished for any offence. 'A' has done only preparation,
for the commission of crime,
(b) A is liable for attempt to murder
© He is guilty of criminal conspiracy

(8)PRINCIPLE:- By virtue of s. 330 of the Code, if a person voluntarily causes

hurt for the purpose of extorting confession from the sufferer or any information
which may lead to the detection of an offence, he shall be punishable with
imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years
and shall also be liable to fine

FACTS:- X, a police officer tortures Y, to tell him where the stolen property was
kept by him. Has A committed any offence?

(a) X is not liable since he is discharging his duty.

(b) X is liable since the custodial torture is not part of duty
(c) X is not liable since the torture was to extract confession.

(9) PRINCIPLE-"Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person's use or

enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or
enjoyment, envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account
surrounding situation."

FACTS-Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started

a typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who
could not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.
(a) Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his
house
(b) Pavan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jeevan's
delicate nature
(c) Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else
other than Jeevan
(d) None of the above.

Using the standards of a reasonable man, the sound of typing cannot be said as
disturbing and hence it is a reasonable one.

(10) PRINCIPLE:- Whoever wrongfully restrains any person in such a manner as

to prevent that person from proceedings beyond certain circumscribing limits, is
said "wrongfully to confine" that person.
FACTS:-A places men with fire arms at the outlets of a building, and tells B that
he will fire at B, if B attempts to leave the building.
(a) A is guilty of wrongful restraints
(b) A is guilty of wrongful confinement
(c ) A is not guilty since it is a preparation only.
 CLAT /LLB ENTRANCE
SELF STUDY KIT

LOGICAL REASONING
MATHEMATICS
MODEL TEST PAPER
&
MORE GK
 LOGICAL REASONING
LOGIC:- The science of thought
The word 'Logic' is derived from the Greek noun 'logos' meaning ‘the word expressing thought'.
Thus, LOGIC is the 'science of thought as expressed in language'. The questions on logic are to be solved
based on the information given without any concern of the formal validity or truth of the statements i.e.
conclusion should follow directly from the statements given not based on the correctness of it.
LOGICAL REASONING
In Logic, any statement is termed as the Proposition. Thus, a Proposition is a statement expressing certain
relation between two or more terms, analogous to a sentence in grammar. Hence logical reasoning is the
process of arriving at a logical inference from a hypothesis through reasoning
Parts of a statement or proposition:-
A Proposition consists of three parts

1 Subject is that about which something is said.

2 Predicate is the part of the Proposition denoting that which is affirmed or denied about the
subject.

3 Copula Copula is that part of the Proposition which denotes the relation between the Subject
and the Predicate.

Eg:- Examine the proposition – Indians are cultured

Indians are cultured

Subject Copula Predicate

The Consider the Proposition, ‘Man is cultured'.

Here information is given about the Indians. So 'Indians' is the Subject. `Cultured' is the quality affirmed
for this Subject. So it is the Predicate.
`are' denotes the relation between the Subject and the Predicate. So, it is the Copula.
Types of propositions or statements
`Propositions' can be classified into four types
a) Universal Proposition : Universal propositions either fully include the
subject or fully exclude it. Examples are:
All books are papers.
No box is square-shaped.
Usually, universal propositions begin with "All", "Every",
"Any" etc. or "No", "None of the", "Not a single" etc.
www.lawexams.in

A proposition of the form "All S are P" is called a universal positive

proposition while a proposition of the form "No S is P" is called a
universal negative proposition. Further, a universal positive proposition is
usually denoted by the letter 'A' while a universal negative proposition is
 usually denoted by the letter 'E'.
Universal Positive Proposition (denoted by A)
Universal Negative Proposition (denoted by E)
b) Particular Proposition Particular proposition: Particular propositions
either only partly include or only partly exclude the subject while making a
statement. Examples are:
. e.g. Some people are intelligent.
Some dogs are not wild.

Here, the subject term 'Some people' is used not for all but only for some men and similarly the predicate
term 'foolish' is affirmed for a part of subject class. So, both are unaffirmed

Usually, particular propositions have relational clauses like

"some", "many", "quite a few" etc. or"some not", "not many",
"very little" etc.

A proposition of the form "Some S are P" is called a particular

positive proposition while a proposition of the form "Some S are not P" is
called a particular negative proposition. Further, a particular positive
proposition is denoted by the letter "I" while a particular negative
proposition is denoted by the letter 'O'.

Particular Positive Proposition (denoted by I)

Particular Negative Proposition (denoted by O)

These facts can be summarized as follows

Proposition Type
(a) (A) affirms subject only. All S is P.
(b) (E) affirms subject and predicate both. No S is P.
(c) (I) affirms, neither. Some S is P.
(d) (O) affirms predicate only. Some S is not P.

Type of Proposition Universal Particular

Positive A Format: All S are I Format: Some S are
Negative E Format: No S are O Format: Some S
P. are not P'
The Euler's circles or Venn diagrams
There is a pictorial way of representing the propositions, formulated
by Euler, an ancient mathematician. Suppose that the proposition is trying
www.lawexams.in
to relate the subject (S) with the predicate (P). Then there are four
ways in which the relation could be made according to the four
propositions:
Type-A Type-E
SYLLOGISM :
In Logic, we have to deal with a particular type, termed as Syllogism. In Syllogism, a conclusion has
to be drawn from two propositions, referred to as the Premises.
Example : 1. All roses are flowers.
2. All flowers are beautiful.
3. All roses are beautiful.
Clearly, the propositions 1 and 2 are the Premises and the proposition 3, which follows from the first two
propositions, is called the Conclusion.
Term : A TERM is a word or a combination of words, which by itself can be used as a subject or predicate
of a proposition.

Syllogism is concerned with three TERMS :

TERM What is Represented by

Major Term It is the predicate of the conclusion P
Minor Term It is the subject of the conclusion S
Middle term It is the term common to both the premises M

Example: Premises 1. All dogs are animals.

2. Tiger is a dog.
Conclusion: Tiger is an animal.

'animal' is the predicate of the conclusion and so, it is the Major Term, P.
`Tiger' is the subject of the conclusion and so, it is the Minor Term, S.
`Dog' is the term common to both the premises and so, it is the Middle Term, M.
Major Premise: - the major premise is that in which 'the middle term is the subject Minor Premise: - the
minor premise is that in which the middle term is the predicate.

www.lawexams.in
EXAMINATION QUESTIONS – FORMAT-1

A typical question of syllogism as asked in the competitive examination

is being provided below.
Directions: In the following type of questions, two statements are being
provided followed by two conclusions A and B. You have to study the two
statements and then decide whether, from those two statements,
a) Only A follows
b) Only B follows
c) Both A and B follow
d) Either A or B follows
e) Neither A nor B follows.
1. Statements: 1) All pine trees are coniferous.
2) All coniferous are beautiful.
Conclusions: A) All pine trees are beautiful.
 B) Some beautiful are pine trees.
2. Statements: 1) All smart are vociferous.
2) No vociferous is introvert.
Conclusions: A) Some smart are introvert.
B) Some vociferous are not smart.
Rules for deriving the conclusions

The major rules for deriving conclusions or deductive inference in syllogism are
enumerated below with examples :
1. A syllogism must have three and only three terms viz: the major term i.e. the predicate,
the minor term i.e. the subject and the middle term i.e. the copola or verb.
No inference can be drawn if there are more than three terms.

2. The conclusion does not contain the middle term.

Example :- Statements : (i) All planets are satellites
(ii) All satellites are meteors.
Conclusion: (a) All meteors are satellites.
(b) All satellites are planets.
Sol. As the middle term 'satellites' appears, no conclusion follows.

3. If both the propositions are affirmative, the conclusion would be affirmative.

Example :-Statements (i) All flowers are buds.
(ii) All buds are branches.
Conclusions: (a) All flowers are branches.
(b) Some buds are not flowers.
Sol. Since both the premises are affirmative,
conclusion (a) which is affirmative, follows.
4. If the major premises be affirmative, the conclusion must be particular.
Example :
Statements : (i) All engineers are managers.
(ii) Some field officers are engineers.
Conclusions: (a) Some field officers are managers.
(b) All managers are field officers.
Sol. The first premises contain the middle term engineers as the subject. It is the
major premises and also affirmative. Hence the conclusion must be
particular. Conclusion (a) follows. (Conclusion is not particular and,
therefore, does not follow).
5. If one premises is particular, the conclusion should also be particular.
Example :
Statements : (i) Some girls are dancers.
(ii) All dancers are actresses.
Conclusions: (a) Some girls are actresses. (b) All actresses are dancers.
Sol. Conclusion (a) which is particular follows.
CLAT 2010/LLB ENTRANCE
SELF STUDY KIT

CURRENT AFFAIRS
OBJECTIVE GK
GK CAPSULES
 CURRENT AFFAIRS

SET-1 ( 100 QUESTIONS EACH)

1. Name the Supreme Court Judge who withdraw from the bench hearing the case
between Ambani brothers saying that his daughter is associated with law firm
AZB & Partners, which has been an advisor to one of the parties in the case
(a) Justice Arijith Pasayat
(b) Justice Markandeya Katju
(c) Justice R.V.Raveendran
(d) Justice K.G.Balakrishnan

2. The Liberhan Commission report is tabled on Parliament on

(a) 24.09.09
(b)24.10.2009
(c)24.11.2009
(d)1.11.09
SET-2

1. The death sentence of which of the following condemned prisoner was

commuted to life imprisonment under Article 72 of the Constitution of India on
November 23, 2009.

a) Afsal Guru
b) R.Govinda Swamy
c) Dhananjay Chatterji
d) None of the above

2. Indian law firm which gained international recognition as "Highly commended

law firm of the year in Asia Pacific region" at the 2009 World leaders international
IP awards.
 a) Y.J.Trivedi and co.
b) J.Sagar Associates
c) AZB Partners
d) None of the above

SET-3
1.Who among the following become the first sitting judge to make public his
assets,?
(a) Justice Kannan
(b)Justice Basant
(c)Justice Ravindra Bhatt
(d)None of these

2.Who among the following is recently elected as the third female judge in the
Supreme Court of USA?
(a)Rosalyn Higgins
(b)Sonia Sotomayer
(c) Asha rose Migiro
(d) None of the above

SET-4

1.Recently Law Commission of India has recommended the setting up of

….……regional Benches of supreme Court of India apart from Delhi.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 2

2. International conference of Jurists on global terror was held in November

2009 at?

(a) Ryadh
(b) New Delhi
(c) Doha
(d) None of these
 SET-5

1. Which of the following High Court pronounced the controversial judgment

legalizing same sex relationships?
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Karnataka
(d) Delhi

2. Who is the Union Minister for communication and information technology?

(a) Dayanidhi Maran
(b) Kanimozhi
(c) A.Raja
(d) Sacin Pilot

3. The new Member of Parliament from Amaravti, Rajendra Shekhavat is the son
of ….
(a) Sahrad Pawar
(b) Pratibha Patil
(c) Vilas Rao deshmukh
(d) none of the above
SET - 6
1. Name the first women to win Nobel Prize for Economics?
a) Elinar Ostrom
b) Herta Mullaer
c) Hillary mandal
d) None of these

2. Who wrote the Controversial book “ To the last bullet” ?

a) Vinita Kamte
b) Kavita Karkare
c) Rakesh Mariya
d) None of the above

3. Competition Commission of India become operational from ……

a) October 20,2009
b) June 20,2009
c) May 20,2009
d) January1, 2010
 OBJECTIVE GK
HISTORY
1. Who wrote ‘Chilapadikaram’?
(a) Ilanko Adikal
(b) Kalidas
(c) Panini
(d) Kamba
2. Who coined the slogan “ Dilli Chalo”
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Gopala Krishna Gokhale
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) B.R.Ambedkar
3. Who was known as “Deasbandhu”?
(a) Sardar Patel
(b) C.R.Das
(c) Subhash Chandra Bose
(d) B.R.Ambedkar
4. Who presented the first Budget in Independent India?
(a) Morarji Desia
(b) R.K.Shanmukham Shetty
(c) Abdul Kalam Azad
(d) K.C.Neogi
5. The title “ SARDAR” was given to Patel by
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Motilal Nehru

GENERAL SCIENCE
1. Aspirin can be found in many household medicines. But what is it chemically?
a) Paracetamol
b) Acetylsalicylic acid
c) Acetaminophen
d) Ibuprofen
2. Scientist associated with the success of Green Revolution is
(a) J.C. Bose,
(b) V.R. Rao,
(c) S.S. Bahtnagar,
(d) Norman Borlaug.
3. Acoustics is the study of
 (a) heat,
(b) magnetis
(c) light,
(d) sound.
INDIAN ECONOMY

14. In our country, which of the following affects poverty line the most ?
(a) Production quantum
(b) Per capita income
(c) Quantum of gold reserves
(d) Level of prices.
15. RBI has handed over the responsibility for the provision and supervision of finance for
agriculture to
(a) SIDBI
(b) NABARD
(c) EXIM Bank
(d) UTI
16. The Indian Income Tax is
(a) progressive
(b) direct
(c) income - elastic
(d) all the above
17. Companies pay Corporate Tax on their
(a) production:
(b) sales proceeds.
(c) income.
(d) investment.
18. RBI has handed over responsibility to EXIM Bank to provide finance to
(a) industrial sector
(b) agricultural sector
(c) foreign trade sector

UN AND OTHER INTERNATIONAL ORGANISATIONS

1. Which government established a Committee to study the plan for the formation of League of
Nations :
(A) British Government
(B) American Government
(C) French Government
(D) German Government
2. Which institution is often termed as "a Child of War" :
(A) UN
(B) League of Nations
(C) SAARC
(D) WHO
3. When was the League of Nations formed :
(A) 5th January, 1920
(B) 8th January, 1920
(C) 10th January, 1920
(D) 15th January, 1920
4. Which Conference adopted the United Nations Charter on 26th January, 1945 :
(A) London Conference
(B) Tokyo Conference
(C) San Francisco Conference
(D) None of the above
5. When was "The United Nations Declaration" signed :
(A) 1st January, 1942
(B) 1st October, 1945
(C) 1st November, 1946
(D) 1st December, 1949
6. Which countries made a joint draft known as "Hirst-Millar Draft", for the League of Nations :
(A) India and America
(B) British Government and India
(C) America and Britain
(D) None of the above

ABOUT 5000 Q and A on GK

only
CLAT 2011/LLB ENTRANCE
SELF STUDY KIT
45 SETS OF FULLY SOLVED PAPERS-
CLAT 2010
CLAT 2009
CLAT 2008
NLSU 1988-2007
NALSAR 1998-1007
NUJS 2000-2007
NLU,NUALS,etc
 Common Law Admission Test, 2010
(Held on 2-5-2010)

This Booklet contains 200 objective questions. Each question carries one
mark. Every question contains four choices of answers. Select the most
appropriate answer and shade the corresponding oval in the O.M.R. sheet
with HB pencil only.
Answer all the questions.

English

Directions--(Q. 1 to 3) Substitute the Bold phrases with any of the given

choices to express the opposite meaning in the sentences in following
questions—

1. She always praises everything I say—

(A) picks holes in (B) dislikes (C) rebukes (D) picks holes to

2. He often says how wonderful his school is ?

(A) says he is unworthy (B) appreciates (C) runs up (D) runs down

3. She said I was the best boss they'd ever had. It was obvious she was
praising me sincerely.
(A) not appreciating me (B) befooling me
(C) buttering me up (D) disliking me
 CLAT 2008
Held on 11.5.2008
QUESTION PAPER
SECTION - I: ENGLISH
PART - A

Instructions: Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that
follow and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR
answer sheet.. Example.- If the appropriate answer is (a), shade the appropriate
oval on the OMR sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total. 10 marks)

MY LOVE OF NATURE, goes right back to my childhood, to the times when I -

stayed on, my grandparents' farm in Suffolk. My father was in the armed forces, so
we were always moving and didn't have a home base for any length of time, but I
loved going there. I think it was my grandmother who encouraged me more than
anyone: she taught me the names of wild flowers and got me interested in looking
at the countryside, so it seemed obvious to go on to do Zoology at University.

I didn't get my first camera until after I'd graduated, when I was due to go diving
in Norway and needed a method of recording the sea creatures I would find there.
My father didn't know anything about photography, but he bought me an Exacta,
which was really quite a good camera for the time, and I went off to take my first
pictures of sea anemones and starfish. I became keen very quickly, and learned
how to develop and print; obviously I didn't have much money in those days, so I
did more black and white photography than colour, but it was all still using the
camera very much as a tool to record what I found both by diving and on the
shore. I had no ambition at all to be a photographer then, or even for some years
afterwards.

Unlike many of the wildlife photographers of the time, I trained as a scientist and
therefore my way of expressing myself is very different. I've tried from the
beginning to produce pictures which are -always biologically correct. There are
people who will alter things deliberately: you don't pick up sea creatures from the
middle of the shore and take them down to attractive pools at the bottom of the
shore without knowing you're doing it. In so doing you're actually falsifying the
sort of seaweeds they live on and so on, which may seem unimportant, but it is
actually changing the natural surroundings to make them prettier. Unfortunately,
many of the people who select pictures are looking for attractive images and, at
the end of the day, whether it's truthful or not doesn't really matter to them.

It's important to think about the animal first, and there are many occasions when
I've not taken a picture because it would have been too disturbing. Nothing is so
important that you have to get that shot; of course, there are cases when it would
be very sad if you didn't, but it's not the end of the world. There can be a lot of
ignorance in people's behaviour towards wild animals and it's a problem that more
and more people are going to wild places: while some animals may get used to
cars, they won't get used to people suddenly rushing up to them. The sheer
pressure of people, coupled with the fact that there are increasingly fewer places
where no-one else has photographed, means that over the years, life has become
much more difficult for the professional wildlife photographer.

Nevertheless, wildlife photographs play a very important part in educating people

about what is out there and what needs conserving. Although photography can be
an enjoyable pastime, as it is to many people, it is also something that plays a very
important part in educating young and old alike. Of the qualities it takes to make a
good wildlife photographer, patience is perhaps the most obvious - you just have
to be prepared to sit it out. I'm actually more patient now because I write more
than ever before, and as long as I've got a bit of paper and a pencil, I don't feel I'm
wasting my time. And because I photograph such a wide range of things, even if
the main target doesn't appear I can probably find something else to concentrate on
instead.

1. The writer decided to go to university and study Zoology because

(a) she wanted to improve her life in the countryside
(b) she was persuaded to do so by her grandmother
(c) she was keen on the natural world
(d) she wanted to stop moving around all the time
2. Why did she get her first camera ?
(a) she needed to be able to look back at what she had seen
(b) she wanted to find out if she enjoyed photography
(c) her father thought it was a good idea for her to have one
(d) she wanted to learn how to use one and develop her own prints
3. She did more black and white photography than colour because
(a) she did not like colour photograph
(b) she did not have a good camera
(c) she wanted quality photograph
(d) she didn't have much money in those days
4. How is she different from some of the other wildlife photographers she
meets ?
(a) she tries to make her photographs as attractive as possible
(b) she takes photographs which record accurate natural conditions
 (c) she likes to photograph plants as well as wildlife
(d) she knows the best places to find wildlife
5. Which does 'them' refer to in the 7"' line in paragraph 3?
(a) sea creatures
(b) attractive pools
(c) seaweeds
(d) natural surroundings
6. What the writer means by 'ignorance in people's behaviour' is
(a) altering things deliberately
(b) people suddenly rushing up to animals
(c) people taking photographs of wild animals
(d) people not thinking about the animals in the first place
7. The writer now finds it more difficult to photograph wild animals
because
(a) there are fewer of them
(b) they have become more nervous of people
(c) it is harder to find suitable places
(d) they have become frightened of cars
8. Wildlife photography is important because it can make people realise that
(a) photography is an enjoyable hobby
(b) we learn little about wildlife at school
(c) it is worthwhile visiting the countryside
(d) wildlife photographs educate people about wild animals
9. Why is she more patient now ?
(a) she does other things while waiting
(b) she has got used to waiting
(c) she can concentrate better than she used to
(d) she knows the result will be worth it
10. Which of the following describes the writer?
(a) poud(b)sensitive (c) aggressive (d) disannointed
PART - B
Instructions: Three of the four words given below are spelt wrongly. Select the
word that is spelt correctly and shade the appropriate answer in the space
provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks : Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)
11. (a) acquintence (b) acquaintence (c) acquaintance(d) acquintance
12. (a) neglegense (b) neglegence (c) negligance (d) negligence
13. (a) grevance (b) greivance (c) grievance(d) grievence
14. (a) heirarchical (b) hierarchical c)hierarchical d)heirarchical
15. (a) garanter (b) garantor (c)guaranter (d) guarantor

EXPLANATORY ANSWERS
SECTION - II: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

41. In Ashok Kumar Thakur Vs Union of India and others ( 2008(6)SCC 1) the Supreme Court SC
uphold 27 Per Cent OBC quota and excluded 'creamy layer'. The five-judge constitution bench headed by
Chief Justice K. G. Balakrishnan unanimously held that "creamy layer" must be excluded from the socially
and educationally backward classes (SEBCs) and there should be a periodic review after five years on
continuing with the quota. The Bench upheld the validity of the Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act 2005
empowering the Centre to come out with the special law for OBC reservation in educational institutions of
higher learning. The Bench held that the exclusion of minority educational institutions from the ambit of
the Act was not violative of the Constitution as "they are a separate class and their rights are protected by
other constitutional provisions". "Creamy Layer" is to be excluded from SEBCs. The identification of
SEBCs will not be complete and without the exclusion of "creamy layer" such identification may not be
valid under Article 15(1) of the Constitution. "Creamy Layer" principle is not applicable to Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

42. Hedge fund is a type of investment fund where the managers are allowed to use riskier trading
techniques to try to gain a higher return on investment. For example, hedge funds are allowed to use short
selling, which other mutual funds are unable to do. Because of the higher risk involved in a hedge fund,
only wealthy individuals and companies are generally allowed investing and there is often a minimum
investment.

43. Balance of payments, (or BOP) measures the payments that flow between any individual
country and all other countries. It is used to summarize all international economic transactions
for that country during a specific time period, usually a year. The BOP is determined by the
country's exports and imports of goods, services, and financial capital, as well as
financial transfers. It reflects all payments and liabilities to foreigners (debits) and all
payments and obligations received from foreigners (credits). Balance of payments is one of
the major indicators of a country's status in international trade, with net capital outflow.
44. In February 2008, the Kosovo declared Kosovo's independence from Serbia. As of 16
January 2009, its independence is recognized by 54 UN member states
45. Morarji Desai has presented a record number of ten Budgets. He was the finance minister
from 1959 to 1964 and also from 1967 to 1970. He presented five annual and one interim
Budget during his first stint, and three final and one interim in his second term. In 1964 and in
1968 -- both leap years -- Desai presented the Budget on February 29, his birthday. R K
Shanmukhan Chetty, who served as the finance minister in Jawaharlal Nehru's Cabinet
between 1947 and 1949, presented the first Budget of independent India on November 26,
1947.
46. The Finance Commission is a Constitutional body set up every five years to make
recommendations relating to the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union
and the States, the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the
States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and the measures needed to augment the
Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats and the
Municipalities. In addition, any other matter may be referred to the Commission by the
President in the interests of sound finance. The recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance
Commission will cover the period of five years from Ist April, 2010 to 31st March 2015.
The Commission is expected to make available its report by 31st October, 2009
 Ready for delivery

CLAT 2011/LLB ENTRANCE

SELF STUDY KIT
Fully revised
NOW WITH
CLAT
SOLVED PAPERS
About 20,000 questions and answers
About 100sets GK CAPSULES
MOCK TESTS WITH ANSWERS
RANK MAKING POINTS ON EACH SUBJECT
45 SETS PREVIOUS QUESTION PAPERS (SOLVED)
FROM ALL MAJOR LAW SCHOOLS

About 3000 pages (A4 SIZE) of materials

 Call 09847155223
for SAMPLE MATERIALS....pls write to
clatkit@gmail.com