BUS100: Sample Final, Chaps 11-16

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ NOTE: There are 70 questions here. There will only be 50 on the exam. These were taken straight from the test bank provided by the textbook publisher, so if you see something that looks wrong, it probably is. 1. Help wanted ads, public and private employment agencies, and college placement bureaus are all ________ sources that human resource managers can use in the recruiting efforts. A. secondary B. passive C. back-up D. external 2. Blue-collar and clerical workers who punch a time clock typically are paid a(n): A. commission. B. salary. C. hourly wage. D. piecework rate. 3. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description of the impact the Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA) has had on businesses? A. ADA has had no real impact, since most businesses have always been sensitive to the needs of disabled workers. B. Most firms have found that the structural changes needed to comply with ADA requirements have been very difficult and expensive to implement. C. Most firms are finding that the cultural changes required by ADA are more difficult to implement than the structural changes. D. Businesses have found that even with the changes required by ADA, disabled workers are simply not capable of handling most types of jobs. 4. According to the material in the "Reaching Beyond Our Borders" box for Chapter 11, which of the following statements about working with employees from different countries is most accurate? A. The increasingly global nature of markets and the impact of television, movies and the Internet on people's attitudes and perceptions have largely eliminated cultural differences between foreign and domestic workers. B. U.S. human resource managers should sensitize themselves and their organizations to cultural and business practices of other nations and adapt their procedures to reflect these differences. C. U.S. laws require American firms to hire, train, and pay employees in other countries the same way their U.S. employees are hired, trained and paid. D. More often than not, American firms have found that cultural differences in other nations are so great that it is more efficient to staff key positions in foreign facilities with American workers rather than hire foreign workers.

5. Humphrey Communications uses a flextime plan. In their system, all employees must be on the job from 10:00 a.m. until 2:00 p.m. These hours are referred to as the: A. core time. B. mandatory attendance time. C. shared facilities time. D. compressed time. 6. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964: A. gives all citizens over the age of 18 the right to vote regardless of race, religion, sex, or creed. B. prohibits firms from using employment testing as a means of selecting employees and determining which employees should be promoted. C. requires all firms with over 100 employees to have an affirmative action plan. D. prohibits discrimination based on race, religion, sex, creed, or national origin in matters such as hiring, firing, training, and compensation. 7. ___________ is done in schools where employees are taught on equipment similar to that used on the job. A. Vestibule training B. Orienteering C. Apprenticeship training D. Mentoring 8. Evan McConnell is angry and upset because he was passed over for a promotion even though he believes he was the most qualified candidate. He heard through the company grapevine the promotion went to a female because the firm was afraid of possible action by the EEOC if they did not select a female. What Evan is experiencing is known as: A. reverse discrimination. B. double indemnity. C. de facto discrimination. D. compensatory discrimination. 9. ____________ introduces new employees to the organization, their fellow workers, their supervisors, and to the policies, practices, and objectives of the firm. A. Vestibule training B. Employee initiation C. Employee orientation D. Job specification 10. The ultimate resource of a firm is its: A. business plan. B. marketing mix. C. capital budget. D. employees.

11. Which of the following workers would be the best example of a contingent worker? A. an assembly line worker who belongs to a union and has 17 years of seniority B. a worker hired to help work at a manufacturing plant for a few weeks during the firm's peak production season C. an elementary school teacher who just received tenure D. an electrical engineer who frequently travels out of the country to the various manufacturing facilities owned and operated by his firm 12. For many types of service organizations such as hospitals, banks and airlines, the primary cost of operations is: A. establishing and maintaining a presence on the Internet. B. insurance and legal expenses. C. coping with obsolescence that results from the rapid pace of technological change. D. compensation of labor. 13. An assessment of elder care needs in the United States suggests that: A. most firms have done a better job in responding to the need for elder care than they have in dealing with the need for child care. B. employees who must care for elderly parents are often in positions that are more critical to the firm's success than workers with concerns about child care. C. although an increasing number of employees must find ways to care for elderly parents, fewer firms will need to offer elder care than child care because the federal government already provides a great deal of assistance to the elderly. D. while an issue for some workers, at the present time elder care is not a high profile item for most businesses. 14. In recent years some unions have granted concessions and given up benefits secured in earlier contract negotiations in an attempt to save jobs. These concessions are called: A. injunctions. B. givebacks. C. buyouts. D. disbenefits. 15. Union shops are illegal in the state of North Carolina. This means that North Carolina: A. is violating federal law. B. has passed a right-to-work law. C. allows firms to use yellow-dog contracts. D. is taking advantage of a loophole in the National Labor Relations Act. 16. __________ are workplaces with undesirable, and often unsafe and oppressive working conditions. A. Treadmills B. Flopshops C. Steamshops D. Sweatshops

17. Antonio received specific training to become an electrician. He belongs to a union with other skilled electricians. Antonio belongs to a(n): A. industrial union. B. craft union. C. open union. D. company union. 18. Today, women earn approximately ________ of what men earn, though the disparity varies considerably by profession and the level of education. A. 86% B. 80% C. 76% D. 57% 19. Bob believes that management is treating him unfairly because of his efforts to organize a vote for union representation. Which organization should Bob contact to report his concerns? A. Federal Board of Labor Rights B. National Labor Relations Board C. Federal Trade Commission D. Federal Commission on Unfair Labor Practices 20. The Labor-Management Relations Act (or Taft-Hartley Act) can be best described as a law which: A. gave unions much more power and led to a rapid rise in union membership. B. gave employees the right to serve on the board of directors of their company, thus encouraging a more equitable treatment of workers. C. eliminated the need for unions in many industries by providing workers with widespread rights and protection against unfair labor practices by employers. D. placed limitations on union activities and gave more power to management in dealing with unions. 21. ____________ is the process by which a group of workers take away a union's right to represent them. A. Disqualification B. Decertification C. Impeachment D. Disenfranchisement 22. John belongs to a labor union. He believes a few key people run the union by meeting secretly and making decisions without informing other members or allowing them to fully participate in the meetings. If John's suspicions are correct, the union is violating provisions of the __________ Act. A. Landrum-Griffin B. Fair Labor Standards C. Taft-Hartley D. Wagner

23. Critics of labor unions argue that unions are no longer needed to protect workers from abusive and unfair treatment because: A. the widespread use of ESOPs has given most workers control over their workplace. B. supply and demand conditions in labor markets now favor labor rather than management. C. laws and modern management attitudes minimize the possibility of unsafe working conditions and unfair treatment of workers found in earlier eras. D. most of the firms that treated workers poorly have moved their operations to foreign countries. 24. Labor unions formed before the Civil War were established: A. to achieve some short-range goal and then disbanded. B. to achieve a long-range foundation for the craft. C. to teach the craft to new workers. D. to achieve notoriety for the members. 25. By employing a relationship marketing strategy, Jocelyn found success as an entrepreneur. The goal of this strategy is to: A. use radio and television advertising to attract new customers. B. work closely with existing customers to better satisfy their wants and needs. C. target large market segments of potential customers by working closely with a variety of suppliers. D. communicate to buyers the advantages offered by your firm's low prices and standardized products. 26. One factor that influences the consumer decision-making process is __________, which refers to the set of values, attitudes, and ways of doing things passed from one generation to another in a given society. A. cognitive dissonance B. the legal environment C. group behavior D. culture 27. The __________ is based on three elements: (1) a customer orientation, (2) a service orientation, and (3) a profit orientation. A. mercantile philosophy B. hierarchy of needs C. relationship approach to marketing D. marketing concept 28. __________ consists of all the techniques sellers use to persuade consumers to buy their goods and services. A. Advertising B. Promotion C. Pre-selling D. Closing

29. Which of the following refers to the process of dividing the total market into several groups with similar characteristics? market: A. partitioning B. segmentation C. differentiation D. discrimination 30. The two major types of markets are the: A. primary market and the secondary market. B. B2B market and the C2C market. C. consumer market and the business-to-business market. D. target market and the niche market. 31. After years of using a mass marketing strategy, Digital Print Shops has responded to new competition from national chain stores by focusing on small market segments that have been ignored by their larger competitors. Digital believes that by offering these market segments personalized customer services it can attract a loyal group of customers willing to pay premium prices. Digital's strategy to improve profits is known as: A. environmental scanning. B. niche marketing. C. micro-marketing. D. respondent change. 32. Which of the following statements about the distinction between consumer goods and industrial goods is the most accurate? A. The same product can be classified as either a consumer good or an industrial good, depending upon its end use. B. Industrial goods tend to have a useful life of several years and can be depreciated while consumer goods typically last less than a year. C. Consumer goods are typically more expensive than industrial goods. D. Industrial goods are custom made to the specifications of the buyer, while the all consumer goods are massproduced. 33. As a marketing manager for a retailer of lighting products, Lucinda will likely be involved in which of the following? A. setting a price for the light fixtures her firm produces B. deciding the best way to hire new employees to produce the lights C. developing ideas for new ways to produce the lights D. determining the best way to finance the purchase of new production equipment

34. Hideki has just been transferred from a position in his firm where he dealt with the consumer market to a new job dealing with buyers in the B2B market. Which of the following correctly identifies a key difference Hideki is likely to observe between consumer markets and business-to-business markets? A. Businesses focus on developing wants and needs in consumer markets, while firms work to satisfy the existing needs of the B2B market. B. Relationship marketing tends to be much more important in consumer markets than in the business-tobusiness markets. C. Buyers in the business-to-business markets tend to be more rational than buyers in consumer markets. D. Business-to-business markets make greater use of marketing intermediaries such as wholesalers and retailers than do consumer markets. 35. During the ________ era, the prevalent business philosophy turned from an emphasis on production to an emphasis on selling. A. production B. selling C. marketing D. customer relationship 36. Which of the following tasks would be included in the marketing mix? A. evaluating various distribution alternatives to determine the best way to get the product to the consumer B. examining various sources of funds to determine the best way to finance an expansion of the organization's production facilities C. assigning tasks to specific workers on an assembly line D. developing financial statements based on the recorded transactions of the firm during a specific time period 37. Which of the following is a characteristic of the decline stage of the product life cycle? A. falling sales B. price reductions C. many new firms entering the market D. increasing profits 38. Karen is a collector of fine art, particularly paintings. She has been looking for an original Lady Molly painting for months and has said that she is willing to go to extraordinary efforts to acquire this painting for her collection. Clearly this painting represents a __________ good for Karen. A. shopping B. specialty C. unsought D. luxury

39. Anheuser-Busch Companies, Inc. has been given the exclusive right to the name Budweiser and is legally protected from others using this name by the __________ they hold. A. licensing agreement B. brand name C. copyright D. trademark 40. Kathy works as a manager at Fantastic Fabricators. The innovative staff at the company is regularly encouraged to suggest ideas for new products. Since Cathy works in product screening, she: A. gives the final approval for the commercialization of new products. B. reduces the number of new products being worked on at any one time. C. market tests the product ideas that originate with the staff. D. develops the concept testing to establish the personnel required for each new project. 41. What does a break-even point of 100 units mean? A. The firm must sell 100 units to maximize its profits. B. Fixed costs plus variable costs equals 100 units. C. By producing 100 units, the firm can ensure that variable costs completely cancel its fixed costs. D. If the firm sells 100 units, its total revenues will equal its total costs. 42. Which of the following refers to how quickly or easily a given brand name comes to mind when a product category is mentioned? A. brand equity B. brand loyalty C. brand awareness D. brand insistence 43. The evaluation of packaging as a marketing function indicates that: A. the package is less important as the Internet provides consumers with easily obtained information. B. packaging carries more of the promotional burden of the product. C. consumers are influenced less by packaging. D. the primary purpose of packaging is to limit the product liability of businesses. 44. A __________ is a name, symbol, or design (or combination of these) that identifies the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and distinguishes them from those of competitors. A. trademark B. brand C. logo D. copyright

45. The number of units of a product that must be sold for total revenue to equal total costs is called the: A. equilibrium volume. B. balanced quantity. C. contribution margin. D. break-even point. 46. Soprano Manufacturing acquired several pieces of expensive heavy machinery it intends to use in its operations. As an industrial good, this heavy machinery represents: A. an installation. B. accessory equipment. C. an intermediate good. D. a shopping good. 47. The strategy of first determining what the market is willing to pay, then subtracting a desired profit margin to determine a desired cost of production is called: A. cost-based pricing. B. target costing. C. penetration pricing. D. skimming pricing. 48. Barker Brothers Pens utilizes a strategy of low prices to attract customers and discourage competition. This represents a _______ strategy. A. high-low B. bundling C. skimming D. penetration 49. __________ brings raw materials, packaging, other goods and services, and information from suppliers to producers. A. Freight forwarding B. Inbound logistics C. Materials handling D. Supply side logistics 50. Mall owners like to have __________ located along the walkways of their malls, because they create a marketplace type of atmosphere. A. cartels B. storettes C. kiosks D. minimarts

51. Kidder Manufacturing wants to ship a large quantity of its goods across the country. They have contacted Wayback Shipping, Inc. to find out what the shipment would cost. Wayback has shown Kidder how it can arrange to use a combination of barges, trains, and trucks to complete the shipment at a low cost. Wayback's strategy is an example of: A. on-line shipping. B. intermodal shipping. C. supply chain shipping. D. multilevel distribution. 52. About __________ of the cost of things we buy are marketing costs that go to pay for distribution costs of intermediaries. A. 25 percent B. 30 percent C. 75 percent D. 90 percent 53. Placing ads in newspapers and having knowledgeable salespeople to answer customers' questions are ways marketing intermediaries can provide: A. form utility. B. possession utility. C. time utility. D. information utility. 54. ____________ put many small shipments together to create a single large shipment that can be transported more cost-efficiently to the final destination. A. Containerized shippers B. Freight consolidators C. Mixed merchandisers D. Freight forwarders 55. Currently, in the United States the greatest volume of goods and services is shipped by: A. trucks and vans. B. pipelines. C. rail. D. water. 56. Those organizations that assist in the movement of goods and services from producer to industrial and consumer users are known as: A. directed marketers. B. distributive specialists. C. marketing intermediaries. D. supplementary marketers.

57. The types of utility commonly provided by marketing intermediaries include: A. product, price, place, and promotion. B. time, place, possession, information, and service. C. retailing, wholesaling, brokering, and financing. D. cost, value, flexibility, use, and resale. 58. A(n) ______________ distribution strategy uses only one retail outlet in a given geographic area. A. selective B. restrictive C. exclusive D. solitary 59. The Hispanic and Asian populations in the U.S. are growing rapidly. To effectively reach these groups marketers should: A. maintain a consistent approach for all consumers regardless of differences in national origin. B. use advertising as a way of integrating immigrants into the U.S. culture. C. develop custom-designed promotions for all viable market opportunities. D. avoid using newspapers and radio advertising and concentrate instead on television and the Internet. 60. The strategy of directing advertising and sales promotion toward consumers to stimulate them to request the products from their local retailers is called a: A. pull strategy. B. segmentation strategy. C. push strategy. D. product placement strategy. 61. Professor Beenthere shared with his students the wonderful experience he had at a local Asian restaurant. He described the location in relation to campus and encouraged his students to give it a try. The professor's comments represent: A. word-of-mouth promotion. B. public relations. C. sampling. D. viral promotion. 62. __________ changes the relationship between buyers and sellers from a monologue to a dialogue in which information is shared to create mutually beneficial exchanges. A. Advertising B. A push strategy C. Interactive promotion D. Public relations

63. Lenora just finished writing a news release regarding a new product developed by her firm. She intends to email the message to local radio stations and newspapers in hopes that they will find the information newsworthy and run a story about the product. Lenora's efforts represent the firm's: A. public relations. B. institutional advertising. C. secondary advertising. D. interactive marketing. 64. In B2C sales the salesperson does not have to do much: A. follow up. B. closing. C. qualifying. D. approach. 65. Infomercials provide the opportunity for: A. the product to sell itself. B. product placement to occur. C. the use of outdoor advertising. D. the promotional mix to be avoided. 66. Which of the following represents a disadvantage of outdoor advertising? A. low selectivity of audience B. poor coverage of local markets C. low visibility of message D. high cost 67. Woodson Productions gives young adults free tickets to concerts it promotes if they agree to go into an Internet chat room and share their positive experience. The free tickets Woodson provides represent: A. a push strategy. B. market teasers. C. a pull strategy. D. swag. 68. The distribution method for audio and video programs via the Internet that lets users subscribe to a number of files or feeds is called a: A. webcast. B. podcast. C. blog. D. filecast.

69. The effectiveness of magazine advertising is reduced by its: A. inflexibility. B. inability to target specific markets. C. brief life span. D. higher total cost, relative to television advertising. 70. At a recent sporting event, a local beer distributor gave free beverage mugs to all adults with a paid admission. This is an example of: A. market segmentation. B. sampling. C. publicity. D. sales promotion.

BUS100 Sample Final Chaps 11-16 2 Key

1. (p. 292, figure 11.3) D 2. (p. 303, figure 11.5) C 3. (p. 313) C 4. (p. 306, Reaching Beyond Our Borders box) B 5. (p. 306-307) A 6. (p. 311) D 7. (p. 298) A 8. (p. 312) A 9. (p. 297) C 10. (p. 288) D 11. (p. 295) B 12. (p. 302) D 13. (p. 342) B 14. (p. 333) B 15. (p. 329, figure 12.5) B 16. (p. 323) D 17. (p. 323) B 18. (p. 338) B 19. (p. 325) B 20. (p. 325, figure 12.1) D 21. (p. 325-326, figure 12.2) B 22. (p. 325, figure 12.1) A 23. (p. 323) C 24. (p. 323) A 25. (p. 365) B 26. (p. 366) D 27. (p. 351) D

28. (p. 355-356) B 29. (p. 362) B 30. (p. 361) C 31. (p. 364) B 32. (p. 361) A 33. (p. 352) A 34. (p. 368) C 35. (p. 350) B 36. (p. 355) A 37. (p. 391, figure 14.6) A 38. (p. 381) B 39. (p. 385) D 40. (p. 388) B 41. (p. 393) D 42. (p. 386) C 43. (p. 384) B 44. (p. 385) B 45. (p. 393) D 46. (p. 382) A 47. (p. 393) B 48. (p. 394) D 49. (p. 419) B 50. (p. 414-415) C 51. (p. 422) B 52. (p. 407, figure 15.3) C 53. (p. 408-409) D 54. (p. 421) D 55. (p. 420) C 56. (p. 404) C

57. (p. 408-409) B 58. (p. 412) C 59. (p. 438) C 60. (p. 448-449) A 61. (p. 445) A 62. (p. 437) C 63. (p. 442-443) A 64. (p. 441) C 65. (p. 435) A 66. (p. 434, figure 16.5) A 67. (p. 446) D 68. (p. 447) B 69. (p. 434, figure 16.5) A 70. (p. 443-444; figure 16.8) D