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Module 7 Maintenance Practices

Raju Poulose

Kuwait Airways

Module 7

2 Safety Precautions Aircraft and Workshop 1. A CO2 extinguisher is used on solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires solid, liquid and electrical fires solid and liquid fires 2. Fire on landing gear brake should be extinguished with carbon dioxide extinguisher water extinguisher dry powder extinguisher 3. Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound with tin and silver tin and copper copper and silver 4. Neither oil nor grease should be used as a lubricant on couplings or pipelines carrying Oxygen Nitrogen Kerosene 5. The colour of CO2 type fire extinguisher is red green black 6. Before 1997 CO2 was colour coded black. Now the cylinders are red with black top. It is unlikely (but possible) that the question has been updated. Hot metal fires would be extinguished with foam

Risk assessments should only be carried out on all tasks and processes that are performed tasks using hazardous chemicals tasks carried out above the height of 6 foot

7.

Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire? Water BCF CO2

8.

In an oxygen system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it

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3 causes anoxia begins to overheat blocks the oxygen system regulator At low pressure, air can mix with the oxygen. The moisture in the air freezes as the gas expands on exit of the system and blocks the regulator

9. You are involved with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What type of extinguishant should you use to deal with the fire? CO2 Dry asbestos wool and chalk powder Chemical foam 10. What is the colour of a powder extinguisher? Red Blue Green 11. If an oxygen cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI the diluter stick will stick the oxygen will degrade and cause anoxia condensation will cause corrosion 12. Which type of fire extinguishers can be used in the cabin? C.T.C. water or B.C.F. M.B. 13. After working with epoxy resins, how is natural oil returned to the skin? Acetone/lanolin mixture Epoxy removing cream Refatting cream 14. The minimum 'no smoking' zone around an aircraft when refuelling is 15m 10m 6m 15. Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an electrical shock the next step should be check for pulse and start cardiac massage if necessary Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7 Acetone is used to remove epoxy resin, but it dries the skin, so it is mixed with lanolin to prevent this (same mixture as nail varnish remover).

4 seek assistance immediately check for breathing and start AR if necessary 16. What can cause dermatitis? Not wearing eye protection when using solvents Washing hands in solvents Inhalation of paint fumes 17. If there is an electrical fire, what are the safe procedures? Fight the fire Call fire service and fight the fire (if possible) Evacuate 18. When mixing acid and water it does not matter which way the two are mixed the acid should always be added to the water the water should always be added to the acid 19. An aircraft should not be refueled when the APU is running within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating within 30 metres (100 feet) of radar operating 20. What is the colour of a BCF fire extinguisher? Green Blue Red 21. The most appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft wheel and brake fire would be water carbon dioxide dry powder 22. Which type of extinguisher can be used for an electric fire? Foam CO2 Water

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5 23. A dry powder extinguisher is coloured green blue red Workshop Practices 1. One quart is how much in millilitres? 946 ml 952 ml 1000 ml 2. On a hollow tube where would a small indentation normally be unacceptable? In the mid 1/3 section Nowhere on the tube is an indentation acceptable In either of the outer 1/3 portion of the tube 3. What type of grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill bit on? A fine wheel A coarse wheel A green wheel 4. When using a reamer use no lubricant use the same lubricant as was used on the drill bit use lard oil 5. How many teeth per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for cutting hard metal? 36 26 54 6. How many strokes per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting thick metal? 60 50 30 Blades are available 18 - 32 TPI. Greatest TPI is for hard metals. A Green Grit (Silicon Carbide) wheel is used for Tungsten Carbide bit tools (Non-steel). For HSS you need a fine Grey Aluminium Oxide wheel.

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6 7. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from damage by the sling by using a suitably shaped sling using spreader bars and packing fabricating alternative lifting points 8. Gas bottles for CO2, air and acetylene are coloured green, grey, maroon grey, maroon, green black, grey, maroon 9. To drill a 1/4 inch hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure would be to centre drill to centre punch to drill 1/4 inch hole direct 10. In a torque wrench of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E = 3 in, the desired torque value is 300 lbs.in. the dial should read 240 lb.ins. 280 lb.ins. 375 lb.ins. 11. When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or slotted nut on an undrilled new bolt the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split pin the bolt should be pre-drilled and the torque increased if necessary to allow the split pin to be fitted the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if necessary, to allow the split pin to be fitted 12. A reamer with spiral flutes is removed clockwise straight anticlockwise 13. The difference between high and low limits of a size for a dimension is known as the deviation fit Requried torque =12x300/12+3 =240.

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7 tolerance 14. Rubber components should be stored in a well lit room in warm and humid conditions in a cool dark area 15. When comparing the machining techniques for stainless steel sheet material to those for aluminium alloy sheet, it is normally considered good practice to drill the stainless steel at a higher speed with less pressure applied to the drill lower speed with more pressure applied to the drill lower speed with less pressure applied to the drill 16. When drilling stainless steel, the drill used should have an included angle of 90 and turn at a low speed 118 and turn at a high speed 140 and turn at a low speed 17. When stop drilling a crack, what is the typical drill size used? 0.025 inch 0.250 inch 0.125 inch 18. When degreasing aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is available, a suitable alternative is M.E.K. dilute sulphuric acid white spirit and naphtha 19. A grinding wheel is normally refaced by holding a hard wood scraper against the rotating wheel dressing with a special tool grinding through using another grinding wheel 20. When checking a torque wrench 15 inches long, the load required to give torque of 120 lbs.in. is 6 lbs 8 lbs

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8 10 lbs 21. How would you check the setting of an adjustable reamer? External calipers Ring gauge Dial test indicator and 'V' blocks 22. What is the specified lubricant for drilling brass? None Paraffin Lard oil 23. In the Limit System, the term 'allowance' is the hole diameter variation shaft diameter variation difference between shaft and hole diameters 24. Which is correct concerning the use of a file? The terms `double-cut` and `second-cut` have the same meaning in reference to files A smoother finish can be obtained by using a double-cut file than by using a single-cut file Apply pressure on the forward stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals such as lead or aluminium 25. Which procedure is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled hole to the correct size? Turn the reamer in the cutting direction when enlarging the hole and in the opposite direction to remove from the hole Apply considerable pressure on the reamer when starting the cut and reduce the pressure when finishing the cut Turn the reamer only in the cutting direction 26. Of what tolerance is the following an example? 1 in. + 0.002 - 0.001 Bilateral Multilateral Unilateral 27. How should a scraper be finally sharpened? By draw filing On an oil-stone

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9 On a grindstone 28. How is a D.T.I. initially set up? The needle zeroed, then the plunger fully extended The gauge plunger should be partly depressed and the needle zeroed The gauge plunger should be fully extended and the needle zeroed 29. Nickel alloy chisels should be sharpened on a grindstone on an oilstone by filing 30. What type of lubricant should be used when drilling aluminium? Paraffin None Vegetable oil 31. How are spring dividers sharpened? By filing the outside of the points By grinding the inside of the points By stoning the outside of the points 32. What would be the result of an insufficient clearance angle on a twist drill? It would tend to pull through the hole It would produce an oversize hole It would cut slowly, if at all 33. A tolerance given on a dimension is indicated by the prefix TOL with the permitted tolerance by a plus and minus sign preceding the permitted tolerance by enclosing the permitted tolerance within a triangle 34. How much material should be allowed for reaming? 0.001 in. 0.003 in. 0.010 in.

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10 35. After cutting a 3/8 inch BSF internal thread and stud, it is found that the stud is too large. How is a fit achieved? Remove the male thread crests with a fine emery cloth Grind a taper on the end of the bolt Re-adjust the die and re-cut the male thread 36. You have reamed out a hole in a piece of titanium. How should you remove the reamer safely to prevent unnecessary damage? Remove it, but in the same rotation as if cutting Allow the reamer to pass right through the hole Anti-clockwise 37. Why are some components torque loaded? To ensure that their elastic limit is not exceeded To ensure that they are tightened to their yield point To ensure they do not vibrate loose 38. When using a reamer, in which direction should it be turned? Clockwise when cutting and anti-clockwise when removing Anti-clockwise when Cutting and removing Clockwise when cutting and removing 39. Draw filing produces a fine finish a coarse finish a mottled finish 40. A safe edge of a file is used against a finished surface against a rough unfinished surface to give a fine polished finish to a smooth surface 41. What is the minimum number of hacksaw blade teeth that should be in contact with the material being cut? 4 3 2

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11 42. When reading a blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches + 0.005 - 0.002. Which statement is true? The minimum acceptable size is 4.385 inches The maximum acceptable size is 4.385 inches The maximum acceptable size is 4.389 inches 43. Chalk when used with a fine file produces a finer finish a milled type surface a ground type surface 44. When using a hand file correctly, the downward pressure should be used only on the forward and return stroke on the forward stroke on a return stroke 45. The size of the nibs of vernier calipers can be ascertained by using the standard of 0.693 inches noting the dimension engraved on the instrument measuring the steel rule 46. A shaft dimension given as 1.225 inches +/- 0.003 inches followed by 'MMC' should be manufactured to what size? 1.225 inches 1.228 inches 1.222 inches 47. 2 microns is 0.002 inch 0.000 002 inch 0.002 mm 48. The edge or surface of a part from which dimensions are measured from is called the water line reference plane datum 49. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cables Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

12 the clamps must be no more than 1 metre apart avoid distortion to the co-axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant distortion of the outer sheath is allowed providing the inner cable is not affected 50. If a test or inspection instrument has no calibration data supplied by the manufacturer, you would use the calibration data provided by the British Standards Quality Assurance documentation referring to calibration of instrumentation and test equipment CAAIPs the Maintenance Manual 51. Why are test or inspection instruments regularly calibrated and certified? To ensure they are being used regularly To ensure they will perform within the required limits of operation To ensure they can handle the range of measurements required of them 52. Who is responsible for ensuring that weight and balance instrumentation is serviceable before use? The manufacturer of the equipment The person responsible for carrying out the weight and balance procedure An engineer holding a license in the instrument category 53. At which frequency is the calibration of frequently used crimping tools carried out? Annually Every 1000 crimps Bi-annually 54. When using the trepanning tool, the hole to be drilled should be 1/32 inch larger than the guide pin same diameter as the guide pin 1/32 inch smaller than the guide pin 55. When using a strip-board, the tracks on a PCB are etched after fitment and soldering of components before component fitment after fitment but before soldering the components 56. A 'light drive' fit for a 3/8 inch diameter bolt has a maximum allowance of

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13 0.005 inch 0.0025 inch 0.0006 inch 57. The intervals for calibration of test equipment are as specified in EASA Part-145 are every year are different from one appliance to another 58. What drill angle is used to drill titanium? 105-120 degrees 90-100 degrees 130-140 degrees 59. When tightening a nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is independent of whether the threads are wet or dry the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance from the point of application to the centre of the bolt inversely proportional to the force applied to the spanner 60. The UK standard of limits and fits is BS308 BS4500 BS8888 61. When using a Pacific tensiometer the correct tension is found by reading dial, provided the correct riser is used for the cable diameter comparing reading to chart provided adding reading to riser number 62. What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat shrink sleeve? At the rated temperature 100C above rated temperature 100C below rated temperature Rated temperature is the normal working temperature of the heat-shrink material. The shrink at approximately 100C above that The Pacific Tensiometer is NOT a direct reading type.

63. Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is not required

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14 done once a year carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operator 64. When drilling light alloy no lubricant is required use the specified lubricant lard oil should be used 65. The picture shows a torque wrench with an extension. To apply a torque of 350 lb.in. the reading on the dial should be

245 lb.in. 350 lb.in. 280 lb.in. 66. Reaming light alloy tube is done with hard base lubricant the same oil and lubrication as used for cutting no lubricant 67. Tolerance is the allowable error due to faulty workmanship and tools difference between worn and new tools the difference between a hole and shaft size 68. What should be done if a tool is found not to be working to its calibrated requirements? It should be removed from service, marked as unserviceable and sent away for overhaul A mechanic should adjust it to restore it to the correct operation It should be placed back into stores and kept in service until the next calibration is due 69. When carrying out soldering to an end termination and a wire, you should tin neither the wire or the termination as tinning is not required

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15 both the end of the wire and the termination only the end of the wire 70. Run-out of a rod is measured using DTI, surface plate and V-blocks vernier and V-blocks micrometer and V-blocks 71. How would you mark a defect on an exhaust system? Chalk Pencil Special zinc/copper tipped marking tool 72. Which of the following is the most appropriate filing technique? Even pressure forward and backwards Pressure backwards, relieve pressure forwards Pressure forwards, relieve pressure backwards 73. Stubborn pins in file teeth should be removed by using file card pricking out with sharp point tapping file gently on workbench 74. When using low tungsten hacksaw blades it is recommended to use 60 strokes per minute 50 stroke per minute 40 strokes per minute 75. Units of torque are lbs.ft and lbs.in Lbs and Kg lbs/ft2 and lbs/in2 76. The calibration of a piece of test equipment is suspect. Your actions would be remove from service and annotate accordingly note and rectify later calibrate/rectify immediately

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16 77. What should you check before using a set of V blocks? It doesn't matter That both blocks have the same identification stamps The calibration date Tools 1. A drill and wire size gauge has how many pre drilled holes? 1 - 50 10 - 60 10 - 50 2. How many strokes per minute should generally be used with a hacksaw? 55 30 60 3. What type of drill would you use on carbon fibre? Tungsten carbide Diamond tipped Carborundum 4. A micro-shaver is used to mill the rivet head after forming cut rivets to length prior to forming trim the shank diameter prior to forming 5. How many teeth per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade? 64 32 16 6. What is the normal cutting angle of a drill? 12 130 59 7. When using a moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount of current flows through the

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17 bushes shunt coil 8. When using the old style vernier caliper for taking internal measurements add the nib measurements subtract the nib measurements the nib size has no relevance and can be ignored 9. To carry out an insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts you would use a 500 volt megger a 250 volt megger a 115 volt megger 10. The normal drill angles are cutting angle 12, web angle 130 and clearance angle 130 cutting angle 130, web angle 59 and clearance angle 12 cutting angle 59, web angle 130 and clearance angle 12 11. The abbreviation 'A/F' means Associated Fine American Fine Across Flats 12. A rivet shaver is used to mill the tail after setting mill the tail after cutting mill the head flush 13. A drill and wire gauge has holes numbered 1 to 80 10 to 60 1 to 50 14. A 250 volt megger should not be used on electronic equipment in fuel tanks the megger should be twice the voltage of the system under test

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18 on radio aerials 15. If the leads of a megger are held apart the spring will return the needle to infinity the spring will return the needle to the zero stop if the handle was turned the meter would read infinity 16. One megohm is equal to 1,000 ohms 100,000 ohms 1,000,000 ohms 17. Reamers are used to drill accurate holes to make holes oversize enlarge holes to accurate dimensions 18. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is the number of teeth on the blade its length the number of teeth per inch 19. The web angle of a normal twist drill is 130 5 12 20. The leads of a bonding tester have critical lengths and the resistance of the leads is accounted for are interchangeable, one 60 foot long having two prongs and a 6 foot one with a single prong are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot lengths but can be varied due to wear 21. Expanding reamers are used to ream tapered holes ream holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades ream holes in metal that has been heated

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19 22. The main scale on a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into inches, tenths and twentieths inches, tenths and thousandths inches, tenths and fortieths 23. The vernier height gauge uses the same principle as the vernier caliper micrometer bevel protractor 24. One revolution of the thimble of the English micrometer produces a linear movement of the spindle of 0.001 inch 0.040 inch 0.025 inch 25. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread is 0.02 mm 1.0 mm 0.5 mm 26. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where the required value falls in the middle of the range at the top end of the range at the bottom end of the range 27. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is an ammeter a high tension circuit tester a low reading ohmmeter 28. If all three prongs on a bonding tester were shorted together, the metre would read zero FSD off-scale high 29. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is

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20 0.025 inches 0.050 inches 0.0001 inches 30. The vernier scale on an English 49/50 caliper is divided into 50 equal divisions 49 equal divisions 40 equal divisions 31. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided into 40 equal divisions 25 equal divisions 50 equal divisions 32. The measuring capacity of a Vernier Caliper is the length of the graduated scale the length of the graduated scale less the length of the vernier scale the length of the graduated scale plus the width of the nibs 33. Vee-blocks are manufactured in sets of three and identified for use as a set as single items and may be paired with any other vee-block in sets of two and identified for use as a set 34. The metric micrometer reading shown is

13.37 mm 13.87 mm 10.337 mm 35. A ketts saw is used because Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

21 its low torque allows single handed use it is available both pneumatic and electric it can cut thicker metal than is required by most repair schemes 36. The gears used in a pistol windy are gears in a gearbox gyrator type gears spur gears 37. What type of gear is used in a pneumatic gun drill? vane type gears used for toughness spur gears helical gears 38. Cross cut files cut in both directions cut on the forward stroke only cut on the backward stroke only 39. The correct size spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in. threaded hexagon headed bolt is 5/16 in A/F 1/4 in A/F 1/2 in A/F 40. The length of the Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is 0.6 in 1.2 in 2.45 in 41. What is used to measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion repair? Dial Test Indicator Straight edge and slip gauges Vernier caliper 42. Vacu-blast beads re-used on an aluminium-alloy component, after being used on an steel component will be ineffective in abrasion

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22 cause clogging of the vacu-blast machine cause corrosion to the component 43. The main scale on a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into inches, tenths and fortieths inches, tenths and twentieths inches, tenths and thousandths 44. Centre punches are made of high carbon steel with the tip hardened and tempered case hardened mild steel high carbon steel hardened and tempered 45. What type of flutes should be used in a reamer for cutting titanium? Tapered flutes Straight flutes Spiral flutes 46. The depth micrometer reading shown is

0.336 ins. 0.361 ins. 0.261 ins. 47. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for soft metals? 90 degrees 118 degrees 65 degrees 48. What should the point angle of a drill be if it is to be used for drilling titanium (drill size below 1/4 inch diameter)?

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23 90 to 105 105 to 120 90 49. How are pin punches classified? By type and diameter of the small end By overall length and type By length and diameter of the small end 50. How are spring dividers classified? The diameter of a circle scribed with the legs at 600 The diameter of the largest circle that can be scribed The length of the legs 51. The purpose of a taper tap is to produce a fine thread form a tapered thread start a thread 52. Why is the Vee cut in the base of a scribing block? to allow the scribing block to be used on the edge of the marking off table to trap any dirt that may be adhering to the surface of the marking off table to reduce the contact area with the marking off table and reduce friction 53. An inside micrometers normal measurement range is in. to 10in 2in. to 10in 2in. to 12in 54. What is the purpose of Target Points on a Vernier caliper? To enable spring dividers to be accurately set For scribing lines inside tubes To zero the caliper 55. Die Nuts are used to form external threads clean up damaged threads

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24 form internal threads 56. A Dial Test Indicator may be used for checking dimensions to within 0.125'' checking a round bar for bow checking any known depth 57. Which cut of a file should be used on mild steel? Second cut Single cut Double cut Material removal is greater with Double Cut, and should NOT be used with soft metals

58. Which of the following statements is correct? To cut an aluminium block use a fine hacksaw blade To cut thin mild steel plate use a coarse blade To cut thin sheet metal use a fine blade 59. A power meter indicates that a circuit has a power of 4 kW. Separate readings of the voltage and current are 400 V and 20 A respectively. The Power factor is 20 2 60. What is a key-seat rule used for? Marking lines which are parallel to a true edge Providing a positive driving force Marking lines parallel to an axis of a round bar 61. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed in series with the shunt in series with the circuit in parallel with the circuit 62. A 3 bit multimeter will indicate readings up-to 9999 1999 999 PF = TP/AP TP = 4,000 AP = 20 x 400 = 8000 4000/8000 = 1/2

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25 63. The resolution a bevel protractor can be read to is 50' 5' 1 64. If an English micrometer is showing 4 main divisions, 3 sub-divisions and the 25th thimble division was in line, what would the reading be? 0.475 in. 0.175 in. 0.555 in. 65. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would be indicated by a reading of zero resistance a negative resistance infinite resistance 66. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater than 1 ohm 0.05 ohms 0.5 ohms 67. Torque loading is determined by multiplying the tangent force applied at the free end of the spanner by the distance moved by the point of application by its distance of application from the axis of the bolt by the dia. of the bolt and the distance of its point of application 68. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source? An ammeter A voltmeter An ohmmeter 69. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is RMS values peak values Average values 70. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the Common socket? Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

26 Black Green Red 71. The Vernier scale of a Bevel Protractor is shown below. What is the reading?

63 15' 86 15' 38 45' 72. Three point micrometers are for measuring external dimensions linear dimensions internal dimensions 73. When is a coarse hacksaw blade used? When cutting ferrous metals only When cutting material of thick cross section When cutting material of thin cross section 74. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing the meter in series with the power source parallel with the component series with the component 75. Which of the following reamers would you use in a hole having a keyway?

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27 Spiral fluted reamer Expanding reamer Parallel reamer 76. What is the purpose of a Morse taper on large sizes of twist drills? To give a positive drive when fitted into a tapered chuck To ensure that the drill is fitted correctly To allow the drills to be fitted to a drilling machine 77. What should be the included angle of a twist drill for hard metal? 90 degrees 118 degrees 100 degrees 78. The threads per inch on the spindle of an English micrometer are 40 t.p.i. 50 t.p.i. 25 t.p.i 79. The spring loaded ratchet attached to the spindle of a standard external micrometer produces a pre-set feel during use a smooth free run during use a means for controlling thread binding 80. The purpose of the land on a twist drill is to to allow clearance for swarf present the cutting edge at the required angle reduce friction 81. The name given to the moving scale on the Vernier caliper is the main scale the vernier scale the curso 82. What is the reading of the Vernier caliper scale in inches shown below?

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28

1.8016 1.816 0.1816 83. What does the cut of a file refer to? Grade Number of teeth per inch Arrangement of the teeth 84. Why are teeth of hacksaw blades off-set? To provide clearance for non-cutting part of the blade To allow a quick cutting positive action To provide greater strength 85. How are files classified? By length, grade and material By length, grade, cut and section By length, grade, cut, section and material 86. Hammers are classified by shape of head and length of shaft weight and type of head weight and length of shaft 87. What does the term 'second cut' indicate as applied to hand files? The section of the file The grade of the file A reconditioned file 88. What comprises a full set of BA taps?

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29 A taper, second and plug tap A taper and plug tap A taper and second tap 89. The teeth on a hacksaw blade should point away from the handle should point towards the handle does not matter which way they point 90. What is the clearance angle on a normal twist drill? 12 degrees 130 degrees 59 degrees 91. When tapping blind holes a set of three taps is used a single tap is used a set of two taps is used 92. On a torque wrench the torque loading is the tangential application of the force plus the perpendicular distance to the centre of the bolt the tangential application of the force times the perpendicular distance to the centre of the bolt the tangential application of the force divided by the perpendicular distance to the centre of the bolt 93. Surface Plates are used only on surface tables for filing flat surfaces for marking out work and testing flat surfaces 94. The main scale of a Metric Vernier Caliper is calibrated in millimetres micro-meters millimetres and half millimetres

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30 95. For a drill to cut properly it is essential that the point angle be the same on each side, for general use the angle is 130 12 59 96. When using a bench grinding machine the wheel rotates from the top down towards the work piece from the bottom upwards past the work piece either direction as selected on starting the machine 97. The thimble of an English micrometer is divided into 40 equal divisions 50 equal divisions 25 equal divisions 98. The reading on the inch micrometer scale shown is

0.483 ins 4.758 ins 0.488 ins 99. The pitch of the screw thread on an English micrometer is 0.050 in 0.001 in 0.025 in 100. An avometer can measure alternating current because it has a bridge rectifier circuit moving iron moving coil 101. Taper reamers are classified by

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31 the diameter of the small end a type number (1 to 10) the diameter of the large end 102. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. How would you verify this without disconnecting the circuit? Measure the millivolt drop across the connection with a millivolt meter Measure the resistance with an ohmmeter Measure the resistance with a 250 volt megger 103. How would you measure continuity of a coaxial cable? With a safety ohmmeter With a reflectometer With a 250 volt megger 104. On a long coaxial cable how would you check for discontinuities and shorts in situ? Safety ohmmeter Time Domain Reflectometer Continuity tester 105. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedure? The damaged leads and the tester should be returned to the manufacturer for repair and calibration Provided that the damage is situated close to the end of the leads the cable may be shortened A new lead may be manufactured using the correct current rated cable 106. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what instrument would you use? A multimeter A high resistance insulation tester A lamp and battery 107. Taper pins are classified by length and taper length and diameter of small end length and diameter of large end

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32 108. Live AC circuits are to be checked for open circuits by the use of multimeter set to AC volts ammeter set to amps ohmmeter set to megohms 109. A multiplier resistance is used to extend the working range of the voltmeter ammeter ohmmeter 110. On twist drill chart, small drills have their sizes in fractions, in inches largest numbers smallest numbers 111. The Sine Bar is used to produce angles using slip gauges check accuracy of slip gauges by itself to calculate angles 112. On a vernier micrometer, what will three turns of the barrel represent? 0.075 inch 0.100 inch 0.050 inch 113. How does a windy drill get its power? Spur gears Bevel gears Impeller 114. How are taper reamers classified? Length and diameter of large end Taper and diameter of small end Length, diameter of large end, and diameter of small end 115. An AC voltmeter reads peak to peak value

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33 peak value average value 116. A hydrometer is used to check battery electrolyte density check battery electrolyte specific gravity take humidity reading 117. A pyrometer is a thermometer for use at high temperature foam/granule fire extinguisher pyramid shaped altimeter 118. A hygrometer is used to check battery electrolyte relative density check battery electrolyte specific gravity take humidity reading 119. A 0.625 inch diameter drill is identified by Letter E 5/8 Letter A 120. To measure AC with a moving coil, it is rectified and measures average value is rectified and measures peak value can be directly connected 121. What is a countersink tool used for? To adjust the depth of a countersink To prevent damage to pipework in a blind hole To adjust the angle of a countersink 122. PIDG crimp tools are marked by coloured handles and wire crimp size on tool wire crimp size on tool only coloured handles only

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34 123. When measuring a square waveform with a multimeter, what voltage does it display? Equal to RMS value More than RMS value Less than RMS value 124. If an ammeter reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what would you be required to do to enable it to read 10mA FSD? Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across the coils Place a 9 ohm resistor in series with the meter Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a shunt in parallel with the meter 125. The internal resistance of a voltmeter is high low no more than 0.05 ohms 126. The internal resistance of an ammeter is high 1 ohm low 127. A drill bit of 0.250 inch would be 7/32 and letter G 8/32 and letter E 6/32 and letter F 128. Needle grease points are used on large pivoted joints items with gland seals small pivoted joints 129. A flat chisel being used for aluminium should have a point angle of 55 degrees 30 degrees 65 degrees 130. A mill file can be used for

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35 general purpose corners less than 60 degrees saw sharpening 131. A rawhide mallet is available with copper inserts less expensive than bossing mallet used for giving softer blows than boxwood mallet 132. Tension files can be used to cut in one direction only clog easily can cut in either direction 133. The scale on an ohmmeter is cramped at high resistance cramped at low resistance linear across the range 134. Three revolutions of a 40 T.P.l. micrometer will show 0.03 inch 0.003 inch 0.075 inch 135. To carry out a continuity test you would use an HT circuit tester a low reading ohmmeter ammeter 136. What is the resolution of a standard DTI? 0.020 mm 0.010 mm 0.050 mm 137. In a moving coil meter the deflecting force is provided by a current carrying coil pivoted in a permanent magnet field a soft iron permanent magnet

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36 hairsprings which move the pointer towards full scale 138. The force acting on a meter which returns the pointer to zero is called the turning force controlling force deflecting force 139. The forces acting on a meter which moves the pointer over the scale is called the deflecting force the controlling force the turning force 140. The resistance of an ammeter must be low to prevent volts drop across it low because the ammeter is in parallel with the circuit high to create a large volts drop across it 141. The resistance of a voltmeter must be low to prevent overloading the circuit high so that little current passes through it low to provide a parallel path for the circuit current 142. When operating a grease gun, you clean grease fitting with clean dry cloth beforehand apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi. verify grease fitting can accept grease by hand feel 143. What is the lip clearance of a normal twist drill? 125-135 degrees 135-145 degrees 105-115 degrees 144. What is the included angle of a drill to be used on soft metals? 40 degrees 90 degrees 118 degrees 145. Which is preferred for filing with a double-cut file?

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37 All metals Soft metals Hardened metals Avionic General Test Equipment

1.

When an anodised surface coating is damaged in service, it can be partially restored by a chemical surface treatment a suitable mild cleaner applying a thin coat of zinc chromate primer

2.

During an insulation test recorded with aircraft power supplied to the circuit being tested depend on the ambient conditions during the test always be infinity if the wires have been installed correctly

3. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester - short together the three prongs of both probes and ensure which of the following? The meter reads 0.1 ohm A zero reading A full scale reading is obtained 4. The damping force in a meter assists the pointer to move over the scale prevents oscillation of the pointer returns the pointer to zero 5. When turning the handle on a megger with the probes kept apart the needle moves to zero the needle stays at infinity the needle deflects to infinity 6. How do you prime a dead weight tester? wind handle fully out and pour fluid in the reservoir wind handle fully in and pour fluid in the reservoir Remove the weights and pour fluid into the hole

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38 7. When using a digital meter to test a diode, a correct operation of the diode is indicated by a volt drop of 0.3V to 0.7V 1.5V to 2V 2.5V to 2.8V 8. Continuity of a fibreoptic cable is tested with a light source and optometer calibrated light generator and opto-power meter multimeter 9. What is the problem with using a megger on a piece of equipment containing capacitors Feedback from the capacitors will blow the megger up Impedance in the capacitors will give a false high reading Fluctuating readings will occur while the capacitors charge up 10. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what will the meter read? Zero Infinity Mid scale - it is a ratiometer movement and there is no current flowing in the external circuit 11. What is the primary purpose of bonding aircraft components? To prevent lightning strike damage To provide a circuit return path To ensure all components are of the same electrical potential 12. If the two prongs of a bonding tester are shorted and the single prong lead is in free space, what will be the reading on the scale? 1 ohm Zero Full scale 13. A fuel quantity test set has an externally adjustable capacitor resistor inductor

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39 14. When connecting or disconnecting an electrical appliance the wall socket switch must be off the wall socket switch can be on the appliance must be off 15. When testing an anodised component with an insulation tester take the anodised coating into account when reading results the anodised coating is too thin to make any difference ensure probes penetrate the anodised layer 16. When using a bonding tester ensure prongs do not penetrate anodising layer an anodised component cannot be tested ensure prongs penetrate anodised layer 17. When testing a circuit with suppressors, with a megger, you should disconnect the suppressors because condensers will cause inaccurate readings because of the chokes charging/discharging of capacitors causes fluctuating readings they will cause the megger to burn-out 18. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is 1 megohm 1 ohm 1 kilohm 19. Primary structure bonding should be no more than 1.0 ohm 50 milliohms 0.5 ohms 20. On a Bonding Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and 6ft leads respectively are 1 and 2 2 and 1 2 and 2 21. Circuit tests on aircraft should be carried out in the following order:

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40 continuity, bonding, functional, insulation bonding, continuity, insulation, functional functional, bonding, continuity, insulation 22. On a static leak tester, pressure is released by slowly opening the release knob for 3 minutes an internal balance valve in the tester a bleed valve in the tester 23. When testing thermocouples using a test set the ambient temperature is considered every time is only considered when temperatures of 20C or above never needs to be considered 24. A pressure gauge is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston area is 0.25 sq.in. and the total mass of the mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the pressure gauge is accurate what pressure in pounds per square inch (PSI) will it read? 20psi 200psi 1.25psi 25. When insulation testing a circuit with suppressors, what should you do? Disconnect the suppressors as they will obscure the readings Bridge the suppressor terminals as you may damage them Nothing, the suppressors will not affect the results 26. Bonding lead testers are attached with either of the leads can be connected anywhere a 60 feet lead is connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test lead is connected to check the resistance between selected points a 6 feet test lead is connected to the main earth and a 60 feet lead is connected to check the resistance between selected points 27. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the indicator read? Zero at the centre Full scale right Full scale left

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41 28. The maximum resistance between isolated conducting parts which may be subject to appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth system should be 1 ohm 0.5 ohm 0.5 megohms or 100,000 ohms per square meter or foot Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and Standards 1. What is third angle projection? each view represents the side of the object furthest from the adjacent view each view represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent view each view is at an angle of 30 degrees to the plane of projection 2. Sketches are usually made easier by the use of plain white paper graph paper artists paper 3. What type of diagram shows the wire size required for a particular installation a block diagram a wiring diagram a schematic diagram 4. For sketching purposes, almost all objects are composed of one or some combination of six basic shapes; these include the triangle, cylinder, cube, sphere, cone and circle triangle, plane, circle, line, square and sphere angle, arc, line, plane, square and circle 5. This drawing indicates

a blind tapped hole a countersunk hole a counterbored hole

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42 6. The width of a visible outline on a drawing is 0.5 mm 0.3 mm 0.7 mm 7. What does GA stand for on a drawing? Gradient Axis General assembly General arrangement 8. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by CAA in accordance with the BCARs British Standards Institute SBAC 9. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean

concentricity angularity cylindricity 10. Which pictorial projection shows one face in true elevation and line of depth normally draw at 30 or 45 to the horizontal? Perspective Isometric Oblique 11. If a design amendment is made on a drawing the old issue number is retained, with the amendment date added no change in issue number or date is necessary a new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing 12. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is BS 308 BS 307 BS 8888 Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

43 13. P.C.D. is an abbreviation for Precision Circle Dimension Pitch Cord Diameter Pitch Circle Diameter 14. This represents

relief valve squared shaft bearing on shaft 15. This represents

an external thread an internal thread a counterbored hole 16. Drawing numbers are unique to each drawing changed after each drawing amended after May 28, 1999 the same as serial numbers 17. Hatching lines are usually drawn at: 45 30 60 18. The scale of an engineering drawing is shown as 1:4. This indicates it is drawn four times larger drawn to a quarter Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

44 drawn to scale 19. An orthographic projection usually shows a pictorial view of the object one, three-dimensional view of an object three, two-dimensional views of an object 20. When dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines should be only size dimensions the minimum number of dimensions necessary to enable the component to be manufactured as many dimensions as possible 21. 'PFD' on an engineering drawing would indicate repair and recondition dye penetrant check ultra-sonic test 22. S.W.G. is an abbreviation for Standard Water Gauge Screw Width Gauge Standard Wire Gauge 23. If you are unable to identify a structure 'classification' as either primary or secondary, what action should you adopt? Upgrade it to 'primary' Grade it as 'secondary' Paint it red and stamp it as 'tertiary' 24. What colour is used to indicate a tertiary structure on a diagram or drawing? Green Yellow Red 25. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures? Highly stressed parts but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft Lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc Highly stressed parts and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and loss of life Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

45 26. This symbol found on an engineering drawing would mean

concentricity angularity cylindricity 27. This symbol means

first angle projection second angle projection third angle projection 28. The abbreviation B.A. means British Arrangement British Assembly British Association 29. This tolerance symbol means

angularity diameter position 30. Where are correct layout, dimensioning, numbering and reference procedures for engineering drawing are to be found? BS 1916 BS 308 BS 8888 31. 10:1 on an engineering drawing indicates the drawing is full size

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46 the drawing is ten times full size the drawing is one tenth full size 32. When reading an engineering drawing, this symbol means

profile of a surface profile of a position profile of a line 33. Lines known as short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to indicate hidden detail cutting revolved visible outlines 34. This symbol means

flatness perpendicularity position 35. Any change to a drawing must be accompanied by the new issue number and date requires a new drawing number must be notified to the S.B.A.C. 36. This symbol on a drawing means

washed and packed solution treated and requiring precipitation solution treated and precipitated 37. This symbol means

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47

concentricity dimensionality diameter 38. Break lines are used in sectional drawing where it would be inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw long lengths of the same section to show where components are expected to break 39. An oblique projection has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at 90 is the same as an isometric projection has one view looking directly at one face with the lines representing depth drawn at a constant angle 40. A drawing in which the subassemblies or parts are shown as brought together on the aircraft is called a detail drawing an installation drawing a sectional drawing 41. A thread on a drawing is labeled - 20 UNF - 1B. The thread is internal either external or internal, depending on the application external 42. NTS on a drawing stands for Not To Scale No Tolerance System Not True Scale 43. A hydraulic system schematic drawing would indicate the direction of fluid flow through the system type and quantity of the hydraulic fluid

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48 specific location of the individual components within the aircraft 44. Which statement is true regarding an orthographic projection? It could have as many as eight views One-view, two-view, and three-view drawings are the most common There are always at least two views 45. A line used to show an edge which is not visible is a phantom line hidden line break line 46. One purpose for schematic diagrams is to show the size and shape of components within a system physical location of components within a system functional location of components within a system 47. This type of break line represents

round bar square tube round tube 48. What type of line is normally used in a mechanical drawing or blueprint to represent an edge or object not visible to the viewer? Alternate short and long light dashes Light solid line Medium-weight dashed line 49. A specific measured distance from the datum or some other point identified by the manufacturer, to a point in or on the aircraft is called a specification number zone number station number 50. This electrical symbol represents a

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49

double pole - single throw switch double pole - double throw switch single pole - double throw switch 51. This electrical symbol represents a

iron core inductor variable inductor air core inductor 52. This electrical symbol represents a

Zener diode NPN transistor PNP transistor 53. In a first angle orthographic projection the plan view is placed above the front elevation below the front elevation below the side elevation 54. When a cutting plane on a drawing cuts a web longitudinally, the web is sectioned with different direction of hatch not sectioned sectioned the same as the rest of the view 55. This electrical symbol represents a

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50

push-pull circuit breaker push to reset circuit breaker toggle switch circuit breaker 56. This electrical symbol represents a

fuse light bulb flexible coupling 57. Water Lines are front to rear measurements on the fuselage left and right measurements on the fuselage vertical measurements on the fuselage 58. When a cutting plane goes through a bush and bolt assembly, on the sectioned view both the bush and the bolt will be hatched the bush will be hatched but the bolt will not neither the bush nor the bolt will be hatched 59. This symbol indicates that

machining is required on a particular surface chisels must not be used machining is required on all surfaces 60. This is a diagram of

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51 a voltage divider a potentiometer a voltage regulator 61. Which of the following lines indicate hidden detail on a drawing?

A broken line as shown in 3 A continuous line as shown in 1 A broken line as shown in 2 62. The letter A.F.D. in a circle stamped on a material indicates that it has an across flats diameter bolt been annealed fired and doped been anodic flaw detected 63. Where would Zone 324 be found in ATA 100? Between rear spar of wing and trailing edge of wing Tip of horizontal stabilizer Fwd of the wing rear spar 64. This is a diagram of a

variable resistor rheostat potentiometer 65. The latest drawing is identified by the

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52 amendment number date issue number 66. A geometric tolerance symbol indicating that one edge must be parallel to a datum edge would be shown in which of the following conventions?

Convention A Convention B Convention C Fits and Clearances 1. A press fit requires some sort of driving force the shaft to be shrunk by cooling the hole to be expanded by heat 2. Which of the following shafts would you use to obtain a clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch diameter? 0.752 inch 0.748 inch 750 inch 3. After mechanical removal of corrosion on an aluminium alloy casting, the length of the blended recess should be no more than twenty times the depth no less than ten times the depth no less than twenty times the depth 4. Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge? Allowance Tolerance Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

53 Clearance 5. If there is a positive allowance between the smallest possible hole and the largest possible shaft, the fit is known as a clearance fit an interference fit a transition fit 6. A tolerance is a permitted variation on a dimension to allow for inaccuracy of equipment a permitted difference between new and worn dimensions a required difference in dimension between mating parts to obtain a certain class of fit 7. The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than 10 times its depth 5 times its depth 20 times its depth 8. A transition fit is one in which the shaft is smaller than the hole larger than the hole the same size as the hole 9. The equipment required to carry out a run-out check on a shaft would be a surface plate and a three leg trammel a DTI and 'V' blocks a ball bearing and a micrometer 10. Which of the following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance'? 2 inches + 0.002 2 inches - 0.002 2 inches 0.002 11. What is the maximum bow allowed in a strut? 1 in 500 1 in 600 1 in 200

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54 12. Tolerances are classified in two ways, these are Upper and lower Dimensional and isometric Dimensional and geometric 13. What is the typical acceptable limit of a dent on a frame member? Twice the skin gauge and 0.75 inch diameter One gauge depth and 0.75 inch diameter One and a half times the skin thickness 14. A light drive clearance between 3/4 inch diameter bolt and hole, on a drawing would be shown as 0.005 inches 0.0015 inches 0.0025 inches 15. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is 1:400 1:200 1:600 Electrical Cables and Connectors 1. Radio interference between co-axial cables can be reduced by connecting the earths of the cables together at a common bonding point provide shielding to the earthing connectors connecting the earths of the cables to separate bonding points 2. When a co-axial cable is placed in a wire bundle, the loom should have the co-axial cable on the outside for ease of inspection carefully tied with lacing tape so as not to deform the dielectric. should be tied together tightly using plastic ties (tie-wraps) 3. In a front release connector the pin will be released from rear and extracted from the front released from the front and extracted from the front released from the front and extracted from the rear

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55 4. A diode is commonly used to protect a relay from spikes in the supply. Which of the following would be suitable for this? a Gunn diode a Schottky diode a Zener diode 5. When you change an EGT gauge, you should do test letting new gauge 'soak' for 30 minutes then do test taking ambient temperature into consideration do a test immediately, taking ambient temperature into consideration do a test without considering ambient temperature, as it is already accounted for by the instrument 6. The maximum number of wire splice repairs in a single cable is four three five 7. The crimping tool handle ratchet ensures the jaws fully bottom before handles can be opened the correct crimping tool force is used the jaws fully open before crimping can take place 8. A new contactor has been crimped onto a high amperage wire that you suspect has a high resistance. Use a millivoltmeter across after contacts are closed and it is under steady load Use a millivoltmeter across it before contacts are closed Use a millivoltmeter across it as the contacts are closed 9. An in-line crimp is suspected of having high resistance. How do you check it? Use a safety ohmmeter Use a millivoltmeter with current flowing in the circuit Do a continuity check 10. When checking the earth terminal with a millivolt drop test, typically it is 5 millivolts per 10 amps of current. What is the resistance value? 5 milliohm 50 milliohm

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56 0.5 milliohm 11. When inserting connector pins, they should be inserted first by hand, then fully inserted by the contact inserter tool inserted by hand fully inserted by the contact inserter tool 12. During an insulation test, the minimum resistance in high temperature areas is 10 megohm 0.5 megohm 2 megohm 13. When testing co-axial cable in-situ, to find the location of short circuits, use a continuity tester time delay reflectometer multimeter 14. When testing a 'live' AC circuit, use a shunt AC multimeter galvanometer multimeter set to AC volts 15. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than 3 times the diameter of the wire 5 times the diameter of the wire 10 times the diameter of the wire 16. Glycol deicer fluid in contact with a silver cable can cause corrosion disintegration of the cable insulation a fire 17. With a rear release connector, the pin will be released from the rear and extracted from the front released from the front and extracted from the rear released from the rear and extracted from the rear

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57 18. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is 260C 135C 200C 19. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on? 16 - 14 22 - 18 12 - 10 20. Can the insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool? No Yes by adjusting the pins Yes by turning a knob 21. What gauge of pin would a red plastic insert/extract tool be used on? 22 - 18 16 - 14 12 - 10 22. What cable would you use where temperatures are going to exceed 200C? Tinned copper or aluminium Silver plated copper or aluminium Nickel plated copper or aluminium 23. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire? 15 minutes 5 minutes 50 minutes 24. What gauge of pin would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used on? 16 - 14 22 - 18 12 - 10 25. The insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel-wells should normally be not less than

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58 10 megohms 2 megohms 5 megohms 26. What causes knuckling on older type electrical cables? Excessive pull through forces Applying cable ties too tightly Over-temperature soldering 27. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out a bonding check a continuity check a milli-volt drop test 28. The maximum bonding resistance on an aircraft primary structure should be 0.001 ohms 0.01 ohms 0.05 ohms 29. Before effecting a crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be straightened out tightly twisted twisted lightly in the direction of the lay 30. The number of the dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates that the crimp is properly formed the correct connector has been used the correct tool was used to effect the connection 31. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by varying the torque applied to the handles changing the position of the pins using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations 32. When referring to fuses, HRC means high rupture capacity

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59 hot running capacity high running current 33. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloured blue brown green and yellow 34. A hole is placed in the lowest point of electrical cable conduit to allow for drainage of moisture to allow for pull-through of the cables to secure the conduit to a piece of aircraft structure 35. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is 12 inches 500 mm 3 feet 36. A fire resistant cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard fire for 5 minutes 15 minutes 30 minutes 37. When fitting coaxial cable connectors it is important to not damage any seals fitted fit the correct lock nuts make sure the outer cup is fitted the correct way round 38. When inserting pins into a front release connector the inserting tool should be used with the gap facing which direction? Either direction The centre of the connector The outside of the connector 39. When using a hydraulic crimping tool, after completing the crimping operation, the crimp is formed when the foot pedal force is at maximum the bypass valve opens and the ram returns to neutral Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

60 the bypass valve closes and the ram returns to neutral 40. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 260C is which of the following? Teflon Nylon Nomex 41. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures which may reach 360C is which of the following? Teflon Nomex Nylon 42. What is the minimum bend radius of a loom adequately supported at a terminal block? 3 x diameter 10 x diameter 8 x diameter 43. How are front release pins removed? The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the rear The tool is inserted from the rear and the pin Is removed from the front The tool is inserted from the front and the pin is removed from the front 44. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, how will the capacitance change? Stay the same Decrease Increase 45. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable? 8 x diameter 6 x diameter 10 x diameter 46. What is wet arc tracking? A fault caused by insulation damage A fault caused by 'knuckling through'

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61 A fault caused by hot stamp printing 47. When using a heat shrink gun, what should the temperature of the gun be set to? 100 below the heat shrink temperature 15 below the heat shrink temperature 100 above the heat shrink temperature 48. In an electrical cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E represent? Cable size Circuit function Segment letter 49. On a coaxial cable, cable impedance is not effected by length inversely proportional to length proportional to length 50. A secondary earth is 22 AWG not less than 0.5mm cross sectional area 18 AWG 51. 'E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a system ID code phase indication cable size 52. To prevent wet arc tracking cable grips should be tight cables should not be stretched ensure hot stamp printing is controlled 53. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished when the solder sleeve disappears the solder and insulation have formed the solder has melted 54. When manufacturing an electrical connector the unused holes are

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62 filled with connectors covered with blanks filled with connectors and blanked 55. Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which application? Where the diameter of cable is not important Low frequency interference High frequency interference 56. Forward release electrical connectors are removed by the wire being twisted to the right pulled backwards pushed forwards 57. When crimping wires, the wires should be straight twisted lightly twisted 58. Why are copper wires used in electrical systems? They have a low resistance to current They do not give off a magnetic field They have high permeability 59. When crimping wires, the wire should be beneath the crimp be flush with the crimp extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp 60. 1EF6B22 NMSV, What does the B mean? Segment letter Circuit function Cable number 61. A white/blue insertion-extraction tool would be used on a cable of what size? 22 10

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63 16 62. The value of the insulation resistance of an electric motor compared to its supply leads is smaller greater same 63. According to ATA 100, a symbol code 'X' on a wiring number denotes AC power a ground circuit a warning circuit 64. When securing wire after it leaves an LRU, cable bundle bends should be not less than? minimum radius of five times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle minimum radius of eight times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle minimum radius of three times the outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle 65. When terminating an aluminium cable, what preparations would be carried out before crimping? Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum jelly and zinc oxide Just terminate Degrease stripped cable 66. When splicing a cable with a soldered joint (heat gun), the operation is complete when the solder has melted the rings on the sleeve have shrunk the coloured rings on the sleeve go colourless 67. An in-line splice should be positioned on the outer surface of the loom for easy inspection outside of the loom terminal of the loom 68. A conductor after being crimped. The maximum amount of conductor which protrudes from the terminal end should be 1/32 inch 1/16 inch 1/8 inch Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

64 69. Why is a copper conductor often covered with an alloy coating? To aid joining to dissimilar metals To reduce electrical resistance To increase corrosion resistance 70. Two or more operations should be performed to strip wire with hand operated wire stripper if the total stripping length exceeds 0.75 inch 0.25 in 0.50 in 71. A cable loom should be protected by conduit when fed through the main equipment centre cargo compartment ceiling wheelwell door 72. The size of proper conduit for electrical wires must be 100% larger than the average diameter of wires 75% larger than the maximum diameter of wires 25% larger than the maximum diameter of wires 73. The inspection hole in an electrical pin connector is to check in service connector condition check conductor correctly positioned check insulator correctly positioned 74. The pin removal/insertion tool coloured end is used for both removal/insertion insertion removal 75. An insulation check on a removed cable loom is done by check all wires separately against adjacent wire connecting all other wires together except one being tested connect all wires together and test against aircraft structure 76. Blue metal extract tool would be used with contacts sized

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65 16 12 22 77. During a continuity check ensure all parallel paths are disconnected close all switches in circuit to be tested open all circuit breakers and remove fuses 78. Conduit drain holes in a looped areas are positioned at the top of loop bottom of loop mid position of loop 79. Continuity check is carried out with circuit power energised is carried out with circuit power de-energised can be done with power energised and de-energised 80. After an insulation check close circuit breakers and refit fuses and carry out functional check carry out continuity check carry out bonding check 81. A Silver coated conductor in an unpresurised area is subject to moisture and has a damaged coating would be likely to cause Knuckling Through Wet Arc Tracking Red Plague 82. If bonding strips are found damaged a solder repair can be carried out replace the damaged conductor broken end can be repaired with an in-line splice

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66 Riveting 1. Avdel rivets are closed by a broaching process a tapered mandrel a squeezing process 2. What is the purpose of the Avdel pin tester? To test the tightness of the pin in the rivet To test the tightness of the rivet in the hole To test the shear strength of the pin 3. The standard minimum rivet row spacing is 3D 4D 2 1/4 D 4. The riveting defect in the figure shown is

the dolly was not square the snap was not square too much hammering 5. When countersinking rivet holes in a material a plain countersinking bit should be used the rivet head should stand 1/32 of an inch above the surface a special countersinking bit with a pad to prevent drilling too deep should be used 6. The stems of an Avdel rivet are removed with the riveting tool removed with a taper punch nipped off and milled flush with the head 7. The riveting defect in the figure shown is

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67

an incorrect snap has been used the hole was too small the snap was not square 8. When riveting, the distance from the edge to the rivet (land) should not be less than 2D 1D 4D 9. Regarding riveting, which of the following is correct? Both of the above are correct The length of a round head or flat head is measured from the end of the rivet to underside of rivet head The length of a countersunk rivet (flush head) is measured from the end of the rivet to the top of the countersunk head 10. What is the allowable reaction on a rivet? 2D 1.5D 1D 11. Rivet allowance is the distance the rivet is positioned from the edge of the repair plate the distance between rivets in the same row the amount of material required to form the rivet on installation 12. If treated rivets have not been used within the prescribed time they can be re-treated. What is the maximum number of times that they can be heat-treated? Three times If no more in Stores, as many times as required Twice only 13. If the bearing strength of a metal is greater than the shear strength of the rivet, what will occur?

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68 Rivet will show incorrectly installed Rivet will joggle Rivet will pull through the metal 14. The strength of a riveted joint is determined by pitch and tensile strength of rivet shear strength and pitch of rivet shear strength of rivet and material it is made of 15. In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit? 1/10 1/32 1/16 16. What is the normal spacing between rivets? 3D 2D 4D 17. To replace one 1/8 inch rivet four 1/16 inch rivets would be required three 1/16 inch rivets would be required two 1/16 inch rivets would be required 18. What is the pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F? 20 to 60 lbs per sq. in 60 to 80 lbs per sq. in 40 to 60 lbs per sq. in 19. If the thickness of a single sheet of material, about to be joined by riveting was 1/16 of an inch thick what would be the approximate diameter of the rivets to be used? 1/16 inch 1/8 inch 3/16 inch 20. What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence of a rivet? 2D

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69 5D 4D 21. The minimum rivet pitch is 2 x the rivet diameter 3 x the rivet diameter 2 1/2 x the rivet diameter 22. A repair has a double riveted joint. The shear strength would be 75% 100% 125% 23. Solution treated rivets kept at a temperature of between -15C and -20C are usable for 150 hours 150 minutes 150 days 24. Rivet clearance is the distance between rows of rivets the distance between rivets in the same row the amount that the rivet hole diameter exceeds the rivet diameter 25. The 'grip' of a rivet is the length of rivet left to form the head the thickness of plates which can be fastened the area of the plates held firmly together 26. The strength of a riveted joint compared to that of the original metal is 125% 75% 100% 27. When riveting, a certain clearance must exist between the rivet and the hole in which it is fitted, to allow for shank expansion. If the clearance is too large, what could be the result? Separation of the sheets may occur Sheet may tend to buckle

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70 Indentations by rivet head on the material Pipes and Hoses 1. To prevent corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are supported by rubber cleats, the pipe should be treated over the area of contact with petroleum jelly varnish french chalk 2. To allow for shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses must be 3% longer than the distance between the fittings 2% longer than the distance between the fittings 5% longer than the distance between the fittings 3. A flexible hose that cannot be internally inspected by eye or introscope can be ball tested by suspending from one end at a time to check ball of 90% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight a ball of 98% of bore of end fittings passes freely under own weight a ball of 95% of bore of hose can be pushed through with a metal rod 4. The international marking for a water injection pipeline is a series of dots chevrons squares 5. Repair to aluminium pipe can be done using burnishing if damage is no more than 5% if damage is no more than 10% if damage is surface only 6. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be 1.5 times the working pressure three times the working pressure for five minutes twice the working pressure for two minutes 7. The maximum distance between end fittings to which a straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50 inches. The minimum hose length should be 51 inches

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71 3 inches 51 inches 8. The international marking for an instrument air pipe line is a zig zag line wavy band series of dots 9. The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series of circles squares diamonds 10. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a series of diamonds rectangles dots 11. Hoses are normally pressure tested to maximum working pressure 2 times maximum working pressure 1 times maximum working pressure 12. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceed 0.5 ohm 1 ohm 0.05 ohm 13. Pipe flaring is carried out in the annealed state after normalizing as supplied 14. The length of a hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is taken from the centre of the bore at the nipple extremity the maximum length of the straight portion of hose the extreme overall length

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72 15. Bonding connections between flexible and rigid pipes are achieved by tucking the bonding leads between the flexible and rigid pipes ti-wrapping the bonding lead to the pipes using a corrugated strip 16. A fluid line marker with a skull & crossbones is warning symbol fluid line carries toilet waste radioactive symbol 17. If the outer cover of a flexible hose is found to be cracked it may still be serviceable it is unserviceable since it may have a restricted flow it is unserviceable since it may leak 18. A rigid hydraulic pipe requires shaping. It should be carried out as supplied after annealing after age hardening 19. Rigid pipes are designed with bends to allow for expansion and contraction due to heat and absorb vibration fit to the aircraft structure absorb vibration 20. The 'Lay Line' on a flexible hose is a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any twist in the hose a white line painted the full length of the hose to indicate any stretch in the hose an arrow painted on the hose to show the direction of fluid flow 21. When checking a hose after installation it should be checked for freedom of movement by flexing through the normal operating range plus 15 by flexing +/-15 either side of the neutral position by flexing through the normal operating range only 22. Aluminium alloy pipe used for hydraulics systems is flared as supplied

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73 annealed normalized 23. to? You find a pipe with a flare end fitting of 74. What specification has it been manufactured A.N. A.G.S. S.A.E. 24. The flare angle on an AGS pipe is 32 degrees 90 degrees 45 degrees 25. What would be the results if the tubing is bent without using a tube bender? The inside of the bend will crack Wrinkles will occur on the inside of the bend The outside of the bend will crack 26. Bore tests of flexible hoses are carried out using a suitable ball or bobbin of 85% of the diameter of the end fittings 25% of the diameter of the end fittings 90% of the diameter of the end fittings 27. Fretting corrosion on a braided pipe would mean it was only unserviceable if the corrosion penetrates the braids not necessarily unserviceable unserviceable and should be replaced 28. Identify the parts required to make up a flared-tube fitting? Sleeve and nut Ferrule and nut Body, sleeve and nut Springs 1. What are high-compression springs made of? Hard drawn wire

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74 Forge drawn wire Piano wire 2. The free height of a helical compression spring is affected by change in spring rate wear on the coils loss of elasticity 3. Material used for springs is Low carbon steel or alloy steel with low working stresses Low carbon steel or alloy steel with high working stresses High carbon or alloy steel with low working stresses 4. A wear check on a cylinder head valve spring should include length under load diameter and length length off-load 5. Discolouration of a leaf spring indicates overheating wear no defect, this is normal appearance 6. Springs are manufactured from high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements 7. Springs are made of forged wire hard drawn wire piano wire 8. The load/deflection graph for a constant rate spring is a hyperbola straight line curve

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75 Bearings 1. Thrust bearings transmit thrust loads, thus limiting radial movement thrust loads, thus limiting axial movement radial loads, thus limiting axial movement 2. On inspection a bearing is found to show signs of overheating, what action should be taken? Reject bearing clean up bearing and repack with grease No action required. Some overheating is normal 3. Brinelling of a wheel bearing could be caused by rotation of the outer race in the wheel housing overheating of the brakes heavy landing 4. When rotating a ball bearing by hand, a regular click indicates damage to the balls a cracked ring intergranular corrosion in the outer ring 5. A Hardy Spicer coupling has what type of bearings? Plain bearings Needle bearings Ball Bearings 6. Brinelling of a bearing is indentations in the race surface caused by continual static vibration bluing of the bearing due to overheating shallow smooth depressions caused by the rollers being forced against the cup, due to overtorquing 7. How do you treat a corroded bearing? Re-grease Remove the corroded bearing and replace it No action required as the corrosion will not affect the raceways Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

76 8. False Brinelling of a bearing is a scoring of the race-way surfaces due to ball or roller skidding movement of the outer ring relative to its housing indentations on the race-way due to load transferred through the bearing when static 9. What type of load is a journal load? Centrifugal Radial Axial 10. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned using a soft steel or brass tube drift a copper or aluminium tube drift a steel drift with light blows 11. When checking a ball bearing for corrosion and foreign matter make a strip down inspection oscillate and rotate slowly to listen for roughness rotate at operational speed and check for roughness 12. After cleaning a bearing should be dried with lint free rags left in free air to dry naturally clean, warm, dry compressed air 13. When a bearing has 2 parts and the inner ring and outer ring is installed the inner ring can be removed from its inner shaft for cleaning neither of the practices are allowed the outer ring can be removed from its housing for inspection 14. Needle roller bearings can accept a small amount of misalignment are designed to carry axial loads are susceptible to brinelling. 15. Bearings to be cleaned for further examination should be wiped free of all grease on outer surfaces with the aid of dry compressed air for cages and rolling parts. The bearings should then be soaked in Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

77 white spirit M.E.K. lead free gasoline 16. Graphite greases are used for medium temperature applications low temperature applications high temperature applications 17. Chipping of a ball bearing indicates chattering spalling brinelling 18. If during an engine overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to have magnetised but otherwise have no defects, they cannot be used again are in an acceptable service condition must be degaussed before use 19. On completion of assembly the bearing housing packed fully with grease lightly packed with grease should be examined for end float 20. Graphite prevents seizure and conducts heat. It is normally used in copper based greases sodium based greases lithium based greases 21. Water marks on bearings are indications of bearing insufficiently lubricated intergranular corrosion bearing been run dry 22. Small indentations in the race of a ball bearing indicate brinelling

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78 overtorquing corrosion 23. of Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low carbon steel and a percentage Nickel chrome Chromium Nickel 24. A tapered roller bearing is designed to take both radial and axial loads axial loads only radial loads only 25. Which type of bearing cannot be re-greased? Sealed bearing Shielded bearing Sealed bearing and shielded bearing 26. On inspection a bearing is found to have distortion, what action should be taken? Reject bearing Blend out distortion and re-grease bearing No action required. Some distortion is normal Transmissions 1. Control chains should be fitted in an aircraft with the minimum of slack in the chain so that the chain can be removed easily with as much slack as possible to allow for contraction 2. Backlash is a type of wear associated with rivets bearings gears 3. What tools are used to check for bow in the push-pull control rods? Three point trammel

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79 Three point trammel and straight edge and feeler gauge Straight edge and feeler gauge 4. If a control chain can be lifted away from a tooth, it should be cleaned, re-tensioned and inspected after a period of time rejected as unserviceable removed and an elongation check carried out 5. A chain is removed by removing chain links on an endless chain spring clips nuts and bolts 6. How do you check a chain for elongation? Adjust the end fittings Hang chain up, check sight line and measure Lay flat on a table, apply tensile load and measure 7. The initial lubricant on a new chain should not be removed should be removed and replaced with the approved oil must be replaced with grade altitude grease 8. The three principle dimensions specified for a chain is the diameter of the rollers and the pitch and width across the outside of the plates pitch and chain length the pitch and width between the inner plates 9. Which of the following formulas should be used to calculate the percentage extension of an aircraft control chain? Note: M = Measured length under load in inches X = Number of pitches measured P = Pitch of chain in inches M - (X x P) x 100 / X x P M + (X x X) x 100 / P x M X - (M x P) x 100 / M x P 10. If corrosion is found on a chain clean off the corrosion and if acceptable re-fit the chain Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

80 lubricate the chain replace the chain 11. A chain removed for routine inspection, it must be proof loaded to 150% must be proof loaded to 50% does not need proof loading 12. The distance between the centres of the rollers of a chain is called pitch length crest 13. How do you remove a tight link from a chain which is to be used on an aircraft control system? Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re-assemble the chain If the chain has a tight link, the chain has to be removed from service You may be able to remove the tight link by applying a light tap with a hammer 14. The maximum allowable extension of a chain assembly over a nominal length is 3% 2% 5% 15. After a chain has been cleaned in paraffin it should be hung up to drip dry dried in hot air washed in soapy water then hung to drip dry 16. What fraction of the minimum breaking load should be the proof load for a chain? 1/3 0.1%. 0.1 17. With a serviceable chain not required for use, how should you store it? Carefully coil, lubricate, lay flat and wrap in grease proof paper Lay the chain flat in full length , lubricate and wrap in brown paper to exclude all dirt and moisture Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

81 Clean, lubricate, wrap the chain in grease proof paper and suspend 18. An aircraft control chain is connected using nuts and bolts quick release pins a split link and spring clip 19. To check a chain for articulation it should be run over the finger through 180 and checked for smoothness and kinks move each link individually and check for tightness lay on a flat surface and check for kinks 20. The box unit in a Teleflex control run which is not suitable for heavily loaded controls is called Straight lead Single entry Double entry 21. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permits a positive drive and axial movement a positive and strong drive transmission a positive drive with the gear firmly locked Control Cables 1. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable can be cut by using a chisel on a flat metal surface using a hacksaw with the cable under tension using an oxy-acetylene torch 2. HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by Galvanising cadmium coating zinc plating 3. What is the purpose of an aileron balance cable? Equalizes control cable tension Relieves pilot loads

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82 Allows for hands off flying 4. In aircraft control cables, when a lock is fitted to the control surface it will prevent the control surface and the control column movement it will not prevent the control surface movement but will lock the control column it will prevent the control surface movement but not the control column movement 5. What is the proof loading for cables after swaging? 2/3 minimum breaking strain 50% minimum breaking strain 1/3 minimum breaking strain 6. A flight control cable is replaced if single wires are blended together the protective fluid coating is missing a wire is 20% worn 7. A control cable that has been contaminated with acid should be rejected cleaned, inspected, and reinspected after a period of time cleaned 8. A cable is replaced when each strand is worn to limits if a chemical spillage is suspected when a shiny portion is found 9. The inspection hole in a turnbuckle is to allow the locking wire to pass through for the purpose of locking to ensure that the locknuts are adequately tightened to ensure that the turnbuckle is in safety 10. A balance cable is installed in a control system to correct for wing heaviness allow the aircraft to be flown 'hands off' enable the cable to be tensioned 11. A control cable is proof loaded to ensure that

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83 the end fittings on the cable are secure it will not stretch after fitting in an aircraft it will not break after fitting in an aircraft 12. To correctly tension cables it can help to use a cable with turnbuckles at least every eight feet to have control surface locks in to support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally to take up initial slack by additional pulleys 13. Which flexible control cable is designed for a push-pull action? Push control Pull control Teleflex control 14. A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn greater than 60% 20% 40% 15. British turnbuckles are checked for safety by looking through the hole and checking for threads showing attempting to pass a hardened pin probe through the inspection hole attempting to push locking wire through the hole 16. The check for a cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by seeing that there are no broken wires near the fitting seeing that the cable is still past the safety holes in the swage looking for a shiny surface on the cable near the fitting 17. Large control cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads that can break the locking wire or lease lock nuts. How is this overcome? Duplicating the number of cables to cut down on individual tensile loads A tube is fitted over the turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3 bolts, to prevent independent rotation of any part The cable is kept slightly slack 18. A suspected chemical spillage on a cable, you should replace the cable Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

84 clean the cable and inspect 24 hours later clean, inspect and refit immediately 19. A crimping tool is checked using a go/no-go gauge with a crimped tensile test piece by condition 20. If the turnbuckles in a control system are tightened excessively the result will be the cables will vibrate excessively and cause failure of controls the aircraft will be heavy on controls the cable will break 21. When checking cable tensions you are looking for full and free movement artificial feel free movement only 22. How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer? Use a load meter to apply the correct load Use correct chart and correct riser Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized cables 23. How would you inspect a cable for fraying? Operate the controls and feel for stiffness Run your fingers the full length of the cable Run a rag the full length of the cable 24. The best way to check control cables for broken wires is to examine them visually increase the tension and check with a magnifying glass run a rag along the cable in both directions 25. A 'Reel' used to hold an aircraft cable in storage should have a minimum diameter of at least 25 times that of the cable diameter at least 40 times that of the cable diameter at least 50 times that of the cable diameter

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85 26. What is the purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on a swaged cable? To allow a split pin to be inserted To ensure the cable end passes the inspection hole on drilled through type fittings but leaves the locking wire hole clear To allow trapped air to escape 27. Swaging of a cable end fitting is checked by using a go / no-go gauge on the barrel measuring the length of the barrel before and after swaging looking for cracks on the swage indicating poor swaging 28. Proof testing after cable installation is not required always required sometimes required Material Handling - Sheet metal 1. How are new metal sheets stored? Horizontally above floor level Horizontally Vertically 2. The purpose of a joggle is to make the holes for a rivet line up to act as a tear stopper to produce a flush fit at a metal joint 3. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black. This would indicate the metal is magnesium alloy aluminium duralumin 4. Removal of a scratch from a sheet of metal requires polishing blending burnishing

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86 5. When dimpling a sheet of metal you would require a male and female die an oversized rivet and special reaction block a male die only 6. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from 7075 aluminium alloy 2117 aluminium alloy 2024 aluminium alloy 7. The mold point is the mid point in the thickness of a sheet of metal to which the radius dimension is calculated the centre of curvature of a radiused corner in a metal fabricated component an imaginary point from which real base measurements are provided 8. Relief holes are holes drilled in a battery container to provide drainage holes drilled to stop a crack holes drilled in the corner of a metal box to prevent cracking 9. The 'setback' is the distance from the mold point to the bend tangent line the distance from the edge of the metal to the bend tangent line the distance from the bend tangent line to the setback line 10. Faying surfaces are surfaces that are stressed surfaces that are in contact with each other surfaces that have been treated with anti-corrosion compound 11. In sheet metal bending, how would you measure the bend radius to calculate the bend allowance? Measure to the inside of the bend radius plus half the metal thickness Measure to the outside of the bend radius Measure to the inside of the bend radius 12. When dimpling sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool

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87 adjust the jaws to accommodate different material gauges use a lubricant the jaws are not adjustable 13. Bend radius on sheet metal is outside radius inside radius + thickness inside radius 14. Aircraft skin is joggled to Conform with the 'Area Rule' Provide smooth airflow at faying surfaces Make a frame lighter but stronger 15. Zinc Chromate applied between faying surfaces will improve adhesion thus relieving the amount of riveting necessary inhibit dissimilar metal (electrolytic) corrosion improve bonding between them 16. If a non-ferrous metal being examined by chemical test turns black when caustic soda is applied to the surface, the metal is aluminium duralumin alclad 17. To aid marking out on Fe metals use graphite grease engineer's blue copper sulphate solution 18. The sight line on a sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or box brake is measured and marked one radius from the bend tangent line that is placed under the brake one-half radius from either bend tangent line one radius from either bend tangent line 19. If copper sulphate is used on magnesium alloy it will effervesce to a copper colour Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

88 effervesce to a black colour have no effect 20. If it is necessary to compute a bend allowance problem and bend allowance tables are not available, the neutral axis of the bend can be represented by the actual length of the required material for the bend found by subtracting the stock thickness from the bend radius found by adding approximately one-half of the stock thickness to the bend radius 21. The formula for setback for a 90 bend is (R + T) (R + T) (R + T) 22. Caustic soda placed on the edge of alclad will turn black - white - black white - black - white all white 23. In marking a light alloy a pencil is used to mark the material and all marks removed after bending the scriber must be held at an angle to give a smooth line where bending is required caustic soda is used 24. When assembling metals of different potential, corrosion may be inhibited by application of zinc or chromic acid & assemble while wet nothing - assemble bare zinc or barium chromate & assemble while wet 25. Steel wire brushes or steel wool should be used to clean aluminium sheet be used to clean magnesium alloys never be used on light alloys 26. When a piece of metal is bent, the surface of the metal on the outside of the bend is neither in tension or in compression in tension

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89 in compression 27. The sight line of a bend is at the tangent line half a radius from the tangent line one radius from the tangent line 28. The sharpest bend that can be placed in a piece of metal without critically weakening the part is called the bend allowance minimum radius of bend maximum radius of bend 29. Scribers are used to make centre pop marks for drilling mark guide lines on material produce an accurate finish 30. A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a fabricated sheet metal component is called a relief hole a crack stopper a drain hole 31. Dissimilar metal diffusion bonding gives high strength and stiffness high strength and ductility high strength and brittleness 32. Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by application of sal ammoniac ammonia copper sulphate 33. When drawing lines on aluminium alloy sheet prior to bending a wax pencil should be used a thin coat of zinc chromate primer should be used, ready for pencil lines a scriber should be used

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90 34. After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of immediate refrigeration at a temperature with the range -15C to - 20C is to increase the rate of artificial ageing to suspend natural ageing for a limited period to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue 35. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides high stiffness and high ductility high strength and high ductility high strength and high stiffness

Material Handling - Composite and non-metallic 1. it? In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below 3 - 4 inches 2 - 3 inches 1 - 2 inches 2. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for inspecting for delamination in Redux bonded structure of light aluminium alloys is eddy-current ultrasonic magnetic flow 3. A mechanic has completed a bonded honeycomb repair using the potted compound repair technique. What non-destructive testing method is used to determine the soundness of the repair after the repair has cured? Metallic ring test Eddy current test Ultrasonic test 4. In a composite aircraft the bonding is supplied by a metal cage assembly inside the aircraft supplied by a metal strap which runs the length of the aircraft not required because the aircraft is a good insulator 5. What solvents could you use to clean tools used for fibreglass repairs?

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91 Lead free petrol/kerosene Trichloroethylene or acetone acetone or MEK 6. Glass reinforced panels are bonded by wire mesh bonding strips to conductors special conductive paint 7. Chopped strand mat is a good general purpose mat because it is a stiffer than woven cloth it gives equal properties in all directions it has short fibres 8. How do you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibreglass surfaces? No special treatment is necessary because fibre glass is an insulator The surface is impregnated with copper strips The surface is treated with a special conductive paint 9. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed with ferrous paint polyurethane paint aluminium paint 10. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding we use solvent wipe alkaline etch acid etch 11. Why is an extra layer of fibreglass added to a composite repair? To provide additional flexibility For sacrificial sanding To increase the strength of the repair

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92 Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding 1. What elements is solder made from? Tin and lead only Tin, lead and silver Tin, lead and copper 2. The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are stainless steel and titanium aluminium and magnesium brass and mild steel 3. Silver solder melts within the range 600C - 850C 400C - 550C 200C - 400C 4. A dry joint when soldering is caused by too much flux too large an iron too little heat 5. Plumbers solder is grade B C D 6. The type of flux to be used when soft soldering on aircraft is either active or non-active active non-active 7. Solders are available in two forms: stick solder needing a separate flux and solder in wire form having a rosin core stick solder with a rosin core and solder in a wire form having a rosin core Solder in a wire form needing a separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at all

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93 8. What action is taken when soldering flux residue may have lodged in deep crevices of an assembly? It must be thoroughly rinsed with a weak solution of sulphuric acid and washed in cold water It must be immersed in a weak solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed thoroughly in running water It must be immersed in a weak solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in water 9. A flux is used in soldering to dissolve oxides etch the metal surface for more adhesion prevent solder spikes 10. What solder should be used to solder aluminium? D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder 90% tin and 10% zinc wire flux cored solder 11. Before soldering stainless steel it must be cleaned with emery cloth pickled sand papered 12. A dry joint in soldering is most likely to be caused by wrong solder used components not hot enough flux not used 13. The term 'dry joint' is usually applied to a defect associated with a soldered joint a water tight joint a metal being lightly heated 14. On completion of soldering a non-activated flux must be cleaned off with a selected solvent need not be cleaned off must be cleaned off with an acid solution 15. The operational temperature of soldering irons is Kuwait Airways Module 7

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94 just above the melting point of solder below the melting point of the base metal 60C above the melting point of solder 16. Solder can be used to join some dissimilar metals only copper based metals similar metals only 17. The oxyacetylene flame for silver soldering should be carbonising neutral oxidizing 18. A phosphate based flux paste is for soldering stainless steel brass aluminium 19. The soldering method where molten solder is pumped from the bottom of a bath through a slot so that a stationary wave of solder appears on the surface is known as the standing wave bath method stationary wave method rotary bath method 20. High temperature solder is used where the operating temperature is high. It is an alloy of tin / zinc / antimony / silver lead / copper / antimony tin / lead / antimony / silver 21. Soft solder is suited for joints, which are subjected to fatigue subjected to small forces subjected to strong forces 22. Silver solder is made from tin, copper and zinc

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95 copper, tin and silver copper, zinc and silver 23. been A resurfaced soldering iron cannot be used effectively until after the working face has polished tinned fluxed 24. When making a small soldered electrical connection, using flux-cored solder the soldering iron should be loaded with solder and then applied to the connection the soldering iron and solder should be applied simultaneously to the connection the connection should be heated first and then solder applied 25. Why is it necessary to use flux in all silver soldering operations? To increase heat conductivity To prevent overheating of the base metal To chemically clean the base metal of oxide film 26. A flux is used in soldering to to prevent solder spikes to dissolve oxides etch the metals surface for more adhesion 27. Insufficient heat used in soldering will cause contamination of the joint the joint to oxidize a high resistance joint potential 28. General purpose solders are graded by a numerical coding a letter coding a colour coding 29. Silver soldering is suited for electronic component soldering general soldering work

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96 high temperature applications Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding 1. Oxides form very rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is important, therefore, when welding aluminium to use a solvent filler flux 2. What is a good weld? Sides sloping to the base metals An oxide coating on the base metals Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle of the weld 3. When inspecting a butt-welded joint by visual means the penetration should be 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal the penetration should be 25 to 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal look for evidence of excessive heat in the form of a very high bead 4. In selecting a torch tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip opening determines the melting point of the filler metal amount of heat applied to the work temperature of the flame 5. In Gas Tungsten Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used to concentrate the heat of the arc and prevent its dissipation prevent the formation of oxides in the puddle lower the temperature required to properly fuse the metal 6. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and borax powder zinc chloride hydrochloric acid 7. What purpose does flux serve in welding aluminium? Ensures proper distribution of the filler rod Removes dirt, grease, and oil

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97 Minimises or prevents oxidation 8. Filing or grinding a weld bead may be performed to achieve a smoother surface may be necessary to avoid adding excess weight or to achieve uniform material thickness reduces the strength of the joint 9. The shielding gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding of aluminium consist of helium or argon, or a mixture of helium and argon nitrogen or hydrogen, or a mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen a mixture of nitrogen and carbon dioxide 10. Which statement concerning a welding process is true?

In the metallic-arc welding process, filler material, if needed, is provided by a separate metal rod of the proper material held in the arc In the oxyacetylene welding process, the filler rod used for steel is covered with a thin coating of flux The inert-arc welding process uses an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the atmosphere 11. The primary reason for using flux when welding aluminium is to promote better fusion of the base metal at a lower temperature prevent molten metal from flowing too widely prevent oxides from forming ahead of the weld 12. After welding you would normalise to release the stresses from the material remove carbon build up from the welded joint remove oxidation from the welded joint 13. The most important consideration(s) when selecting welding rod is/are current setting or flame temperature ambient conditions material compatibility 14. rod? Which items listed below is the most important consideration when selecting a welding Thickness of the metal to be welded only

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98 Type and thickness of the metal to be welded Type of torch 15. When inspecting a weld, you should make sure that the parent (or basis) materials are fully fused together the weld has inclusions inside the bead there are voids either side of the weld 16. What is undesirable in a good weld? 100% penetration by filler material fusing the edges of materials to be joined oxides mixed in with the filler material 17. Brazing material is made from copper, silver and tin copper zinc and silver copper and tin and lead Aircraft Weight and Balance 1. The term 'reaction' used in weighing an aircraft refers to the sum of the loads on all of the landing gear the individual loads on each landing gear the sum of the loads on the main landing gear only 2. Previous weighing records are are kept with aircraft records destroyed after 5 yrs retained for 2 yrs only 3. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are negative either positive or negative positive 4. What is meant by empty weight? Basic weight plus unusable fuel plus oil Basic weight only

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99 Basic weight minus unusable fuel plus oil 5. An aircraft which has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit will have a shorter take-off run the take-off run will not be affected will have a longer take-off run 6. Fore and aft limits of the CG are specified by the manufacturer are determined by the licensed engineer after a major check and weighing are determined by the pilot when calculating the loading data 7. flight that equipment which is required for every role of the aircraft for which the aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel. all equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular flight 8. The Datum point on an aircraft, for measuring C of G position could be the nose of the aircraft anywhere on the aircraft the front bulkhead 9. If the C of G of an aircraft with a full complement of fuel is calculated. Then the C of G will always be within limits if it was within limits with full fuel tanks the C of G must be recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still be within limits the C of G will only need to be recalculated if the fuel weight is behind the aircraft C of G position 10. Where would you find documented, the fore and aft limits of the C of G position? In the technical log In the Flight Manual (or the documentation associated with the C of A) In the aircraft Maintenance Manual 11. In aeronautical weighing terms The basic equipment of an aircraft is the crew equipment, and other equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a particular

all arms for forward of the reference datum are positive (+) and all arms aft of the reference datum are negative (-)

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100 all reference datum are as per company procedures all arms for forward of the reference datum are negative (-) and all arms aft of the reference datum are positive (+) 12. When an aircraft has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what should be done to the old Weight and Balance Report? Kept in the weight and balance schedule Kept in the aircraft logbook Destroyed after 3 months 13. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised once only, for the CAA in triplicate, for the CAA, the operator and the maintenance organisation in duplicate, for the CAA and the operator 14. Aircraft below 5700kg not used for commercial air transport purposes are required to be reweighed as required by the CAA every 5 years every 2 years 15. For purposes of calculating weight and C of G position, an adult male (with baggage) is considered to have a mass of 75 kg 85 kg 65 kg 16. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA all aircraft regardless of weight all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg MTWA 17. If a new Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued, the old one must be retained for two years six months one year 18. Cargo placed aft of the datum will produce a

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101 negative moment neutral moment positive moment 19. The basic weight of an aircraft is the pilot, flight crew and their luggage the passengers, baggage and fuel the aircraft, minimum equipment, unusable fuel and oil 20. Aircraft must be reweighed at periods not exceeding five years after two years from manufacture only after two years from manufacture then at periods not exceeding five years 21. Points forward of the datum point are negative positive neutral 22. Details on recording of weight and C of G position can be found in Airworthiness Notices Air Navigation Order BCAR section A 23. A load sheet is never carried on the aircraft need not be carried on the aircraft if one remains at base is always carried on the aircraft 24. A load Sheet must be signed by the Commander of the aircraft a licensed aircraft engineer the Loading Officer 25. Increasing the weight of an aircraft has no affect on the glide range increases the glide range

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102 decreases the glide range 26. Variable load is weight of crew, their baggage and equipment relevant to role fuel, oil and non-expendable equipment relevant to role basic weight plus operating weight 27. A Load Sheet is compiled in the order of Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load, Basic Weight Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel Load, Disposable Load Basic Weight, Variable Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load 28. What angle of turn will double the weight of the aircraft? 30 60 45 29. Where would you find the information on the conditions for weighing the aircraft? Technical Log Maintenance Manual Flight Manual in conjunction with the documents associated with the CofA 30. A Weight and Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by a Licensed aircraft engineer the CAA the pilot Aircraft Weight and Balance 1. When weighing an aircraft using elastic load cells, the load cells go between undercarriage and aircraft between top of jack and the aircraft as a single unit or combination of units under the aircraft wheels 2. When using weighing jacks, you should ensure they have been calibrated within the last year not worry about calibration, as that is the tool store-keeper's responsibility calibrate them before use

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103 3. A weighing cell is based on the variation of resistance with strain induced voltage with displacement differential currents with stress 4. When weighing an aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are positioned either under or on top of each jack one under each jack one on top of each jack 5. When weighing an aircraft with load cells the aircraft is jacked only the main wheels are weighed a load cell should be placed under each set of wheels 6. When weighing an aircraft by the weighbridge method, the aircraft is only levelled laterally jacked and levelled resting on the wheels 7. When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic system should be filled to 'maximum level' mark empty completely full Aircraft Handling and Storage 1. How would you position an aircraft when picketing during a strong wind condition? Position the aircraft side-on to the wind Position the tail into the wind Head the aircraft into the wind 2. An aircraft should be cleared of snow using air blast using cold fluid using hot fluid

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104 3. When a helicopter lands, how does the pilot signal to ground staff when it is safe to approach the aircraft? Flash the Nav lights Turn the anti collision lights off Flash the landing lights 4. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should be attached to the main gear the tail cone the nose gear 5. When picketing a helicopter you fit sleeves and tie off all blades fit sleeves to the blades to protect them if they strike the ground tie down one blade 6. When Ground Power is connected to aircraft, the generators are paralleled to supply never paralleled paralleled to supply for ground starting only 7. Why is the last part of towing an aircraft, done in a straight line? To relieve side pressure from the main wheels To relieve hydraulic pressure from the steering mechanism. To allow nose wheel chocks to be placed at 90 degrees to the aircraft 8. What is the towing speed when towing an aircraft? 6 mph 5 mph 7 mph 9. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used where holdover times are long for short holdover times where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade 10. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and tanker bonded together? Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

105 To maintain the aircraft and tanker at the same electrical potential To discharge static electricity from the aircraft to the tanker To enable the aircraft re-fuel pumps to be operated from the tanker electrical supply 11. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical buffing wheels as this will cause large static charges to build up may remove the aluminium coating may remove the alloy coating 12. What are types of jacks used for aircraft jacking? Quadrapod jack, Single base jack Quadrapod jack, Single base jack and Tripod jack Quadrapod jack 13. When turning and towing an aircraft, why should sharp radiuses be avoided? Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres could occur Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres could occur Power steering leaks could occur 14. What type of meter is used to test a fire extinguisher cartridge? Megger Safety ohmmeter Time delay reflectometer 15. Which of the following is bad practice for removing the ice and snow in cold weather? Remove deep ice by de-icing fluid Dry snow with hot air Use brush to remove deep wet snow 16. Name the two methods used for aircraft refueling. Open line refueling and gravity refueling Pressure refueling and gravity refueling Underwing refueling and pressure refueling 17. There is ice and snow on a helicopter blade. You remove all traces of ice and snow leave a layer of ice

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106 wipe off excess snow and leave ice 18. Removal of ice by the use of deicing fluid on the aircraft, before flight may remove ice for a period of time depending on the airfield conditions must be 1 hour before flight to enable fluid to be cleaned from aircraft will provide sufficient prevention of ice formation until take off 19. When deicing an aircraft with pressure deicing fluid, the sensors on the outside of the aircraft should not be blanked be fitted with blanks or bungs have their heating switched on 20. When mooring an aircraft what type of rope should be used? Fibre, with some slack due to shrinkage when wet Fibre, tied tight due to stretch when wet Nylon 21. If ice and snow is found on the wings of an aircraft. Before flight the all snow and ice must be removed snow should be removed but ice can remain because it has no appreciable affect on the airflow ice should be removed but snow can remain because the airflow will remove it 22. Flight controls, when externally locked will also lock the control column will not lock the control column will also lock the steering 23. When the park brake has been applied on an aircraft which has a pressurized hydraulic system and is reading maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to the left and right main wheels will read full scale deflection full system pressure no indication

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107 Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques 1. Nickel-cadmium battery cases and drain surfaces, which have been affected by electrolyte, should be neutralized with a solution of Potassium hydroxide Boric acid Sodium bicarbonate 2. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion residual product build-up is called Brinelling Exfoliation Granulation 3. Taper pins resist what loads tension shear compression 4. What test do you do on a bonded join? Shear Tension Peel 5. What would you use to check the run-out on a control rod? Micrometer + ball bearing DTI + V blocks 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge 6. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications? To take shear loads To take compression and shear loads To take compression loads 7. When using a D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings of -15 to +25 would indicate a runout of 0.020 inches 0.040 inches

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108 0.025 inches 8. A dent is measured in a tubular push-pull rod by passing a ball down its bore a steel ball and micrometer callipers and feeler gauges 9. What is used on Magnesium to re-protect it? Deoxidine Chromic Acid Selenious Acid 10. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing is carried out by applying a coating of Vaseline by washing with distilled water with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate 11. After carrying out an identification test of aluminium alloy with caustic soda, the caustic soda should be neutralized with Chromic anhydride solution Phosphoric acid Copper sulphate solution 12. To neutralize spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use sulphuric acid bicarbonate of soda caustic soda 13. Hydrogen embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it is treated with Zinc Chromate Phosphoric acid Nitric acid 14. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not allowed anywhere on the rod in the end thirds of the rod in the middle third of the rod

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109 15. When checking a diode forward bias function, the positive lead of the ohmmeter should be placed on the anode and the negative lead to the cathode cathode and the negative lead to the anode cathode and the negative lead the earth 16. The bonding resistance of primary structure must not exceed 0.05 ohms 0.005 ohms 0.5 ohms 17. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which the earthing device (tyre) is resting? 10 megohms 100 megohms 1 megohm 18. The three electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1) continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation. What is the order in which they are executed? 1-2-3 2-1-3 2-3-1 19. When an earth-return terminal assembly has to be replaced which of the following checks must be carried out? Bonding and insulation resistance tests Bonding and continuity tests Bonding and millivolt drop tests 20. When carrying out millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is an approximate guide for a correct reading? 10 millivolts for every 5 amps flowing 10 millivolts for every 15 amps flowing 5 millivolts for every 10 amps flowing 21. Effective continuity is not possible unless which of the following conditions exists? The portion of the circuit under test must constitute a simple series circuit with no parallel paths

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110 All circuit earths are disconnected All manually operated switches must be off 22. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing? To avoid breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting surfaces To avoid damage to the wiring To prevent fuses 'blowing' and lamps burning out 23. When replacing a bonding connection and the original conductor cannot be matched exactly, which of the following replacements would you use? One manufactured from the same type of material, but of greater cross sectional area should be selected One manufactured from any conducting material of the same cross sectional area be used One manufactured from any piece of Nyvin cable having the correct current capacity may be used 24. What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value for an aircraft undercarriage bay? 10 megohms 5 megohms 2 megohms 25. The recommended insulation resistance of a DC motor is 5 megohms 2 megohms 0.5 megohms 26. Bonding value for secondary structure is a maximum of 0.05 ohms 1 ohm 0.5 ohms 27. Wrinkling of an aircraft skin will weaken the skin increase drag on the aircraft cause rivets to pull 28. You have removed a bolt from a critical bolted joint for inspection and rectification. What action should you take prior to inspection?

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111 A preliminary inspection should be made before the hole is cleaned Clean the bolt shank and thread and re-grease and replace bolt and check for side-play. Before any inspection is carried out, the nut/bolt and hole must be cleaned with a solvent such as trichloroethylene 29. On inspection of a critical bolted joint you witness black or grey dust or paste. What type of corrosion has taken place and what type of material is involved? Fretting corrosion in aluminium alloys Galvanic corrosion in magnesium alloys Exfoliation corrosion in magnesium alloys 30. What is indicated by the wrinkling of the underside of an aircraft skin? Hogging Sagging Fretting 31. What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion? Selenious acid Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution Strontium chromate 32. Galvanic corrosion refers to a type of corrosion between two pieces of material surface corrosion plating process 33. Chromating used on magnesium alloys produces a chromate film surface metal chromates on the surface electrochemically chromium surface electrochemically 34. Chromating used on magnesium alloys uses chromates and converts the surface chemically uses chromium and converts the surface electrochemically uses chromium, which is deposited on the surface 35. When carrying out a bonding test in the presence of an anodic coating, what should you do? Take account of the resistance of the coating Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7 Hogging produces wrinkling on the underside of the aircraft. Sagging produces wrinkling on the upper side of the aircraft

112 Penetrate the coating so a good electrical contact is made Disregard the resistance of the coating 36. Maximum value of resistance between all isolated parts which may be subjected to appreciable electrostatic charging and the main earth 1 ohm 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less 0.05 ohm 37. Removal of corrosion from aluminium clad alloy is best done chemically by trichloroethylene chemically by sulphuric acid solution mechanically by buffing 38. Control methods for galvanic corrosion include ensuring correct heat treatments and correct alloying reducing cyclic stressing and increasing cross sectional area joining similar metals and using jointing compounds 39. The treatment for stress corrosion is the same as for surface corrosion or surface cracks in sheet metal not the same as fatigue corrosion always the replacement of the part 40. Very light corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed by rubbing with wire wool using a solvent using Alocrom 1200 41. To remove corrosion on Fe metals use sulphuric acid rust remover selenious acid rust remover phosphoric acid rust remover 42. The usual manufacturer's anti corrosive process to be applied to Fe aircraft parts is cadmium plating metal spraying

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113 anodising 43. An intervention defect is one where there is a requirement for the maintenance engineer to intervene the engineer has the discretion on whether to intervene the defect occurred because of some previous maintenance action 44. Vapour phase inhibitor should be used when re-protecting after corrosion when painting an aircraft when degreasing a component 45. When carrying out insulation resistance checks the measurement will also show cable continuity the measurement varies depending upon the ambient conditions of the aircraft under test the measurement is always infinity if the cable is installed correctly 46. How is damage classified on an aircraft skin? Negligible, allowable, repairable Negligible, allowable, replacement Negligible, repairable, replacement 47. When carrying out a millivolt drop test on a terminal, the maximum value should be 5mV/10A 10mV/10A 50mV/10A 48. A jury strut is used to support the structure during repairs as a datum when placing the aircraft in a rigging position as a reference when checking the C of G position 49. 'Run out' on a control rod is measured by dial test indicator, surface plate and vee-blocks micrometer, surface plate and vee-blocks surface plate, vernier callipers and vee-blocks 50. How do you check the resistance of a fire bottle cartridge?

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114 Use a light and bulb Use a multimeter Use an insulation tester 51. If after forming a crimp in an electrical condutor a high resistance is suspected, how would you carry out a check without disturbing the connection? Use a multimeter set to millivolts and carry out a millivolts drop test . Use a multimeter set to ohms to check the resistance Carry out an insulation check

Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques 1. When inserting a helicoil insert, which way does the tang face? Towards the mandrel Towards the hole Away from the hole 2. What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil? The same as the original thread size The tap supplied with the Helicoil kit The next size up from the original tap size 3. A thread insert is made from aluminium alloy stainless steel white metal 4. What are the 3 stages of a fatigue crack? stress, nucleation, fracture nucleation, stress, deformation nucleation, stress, yield 5. On a composite repair the vacuum should be at the required level above required level below required level

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115 6. If bridging strips or bonding cords are fractured, what action may be taken? The broken ends can be repaired with an 'in-line' splice A new conductor should be fitted The broken ends can be soldered 7. On a patch repair you should use material one gauge thicker than the original structure the same rivet spacing as the original structure only aluminium alloy rivets 8. In a fayed rivet repair with double rivets used, the strength of the material will be 100% same as the new material 75% 9. What does the grow-out on a hi-tigue fastener do? Transfers radial loads to the material prevents slip of the fastener Work-hardens the local hole area 10. When fitting a thread insert the insert should be tapped in using a hammer the hole should be expanded using a tap supplied by the insert manufacturer a thread the next size up from the original should be tapped 11. 'Stop Drilling' is the process of drilling holes to stop a crack at the crack ends drilling holes in a metal prior to riveting drilling a rivet head to remove it from the metal 12. A stud broken off below the surface is removed by a stud remover tool fitted into a drilled hole cutting a slot in it and removing with a screwdriver using a stud box 13. A UNF threaded wire thread insert may be identified by an unpainted tang

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116 by a red painted tang by a black painted tang 14. Damaged chromate film should be repaired by using selenious acid 10% by weight in water phosphoric acid 10% by weight in water selenious acid 20% by weight in water Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques 1. Which NDT detection method would be used to check for water ingress in the vertical stabilizer honeycomb structure? Gamma-ray X-ray Thermology Thermology would detect the cool patches in the honeycomb structure, especially after landing when the water ingress may still be frozen. Light blue on the image would show water ingress.

2. Transducers used in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of the following effects? Piezoelectric Hyper-acoustic Ferromagnetic 3. In a dye penetrant test, small tightly spaced cracked will produce pattern of small crack like chains small dots flakes like pattern 4. The eddy current method of N.D.T. uses AC or DC Alternating current Direct current 5. To measure the thickness of a paint finish, what type of NDT inspection is used? A woodpecker Ultrasonic Radiographic 6. When carrying out a dye penetrant test, after the developer has been applied it should be inspected after 1 hour Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

117 as soon as the developer is dry and again after approximately 10 minutes after 30 minutes 7. During a colour contrast test the penetrant time should be shorter for a small crack longer for a small crack longer for a wide crack 8. How should a dye penetrant field kit be stored? In direct sunlight At room temperature away from direct sunlight At a cold temperature in a darkened room 9. When carrying out a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel the dye should be applied to the inside and the developer to the outside both the dye and the developer should be applied to the outside the dye should be applied to the outside and the developer to the inside 10. When leak testing with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time for a component less than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick would be at least twice the normal soak time at least 3 times the normal soak time at least the normal soak time 11. When using a colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small crack is suspected in the material a magnifying glass is recommended less developer should be used less inhibitor should be used 12. What NDT method would you use to detect delamination? Eddy current Colour contrast dye penetrant Ultrasound 13. Magnetic particle testing detects faults longitudinally longitudinal and transverse

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118 transverse 14. Dye penetrant in a cold climate works more quickly takes longer to work is not affected 15. If after spraying the developer, red blotches appear, the part has sub-surface defects was not cleaned properly is porous 16. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant inspection? It seeps into the crack and makes it show up It is drawn to the crack by electrostatic attraction It acts as a blotter to draw out the penetrant that has seeped into the crack 17. The main advantage of dye penetrant inspection is the part to be inspected does not require cleaning the penetrant solution works on any non-porous material the defect must be opened to the surface 18. To detect a minute crack using dye penetrant inspection usually requires that the developer be applied to a flat surface the surface to be highly polished a longer than normal penetrating time 19. When checking an item with the magnetic particle inspection method, circular and longitudinal magnetization should be used to reveal all possible defects evenly magnetize the entire part ensure uniform current flow 20. Which type crack can be detected by magnetic particle inspection using either circular or longitudinal magnetisation? 45 transverse longitudinal Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

119 21. Surface cracks in aluminium castings and forgings may usually be detected by submerging the part in a solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear water gamma ray inspection the use of dye penetrants and suitable developers 22. Which of these metals is inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? Magnesium alloys Aluminium alloys Iron alloys 23. One way a part may be demagnetized after magnetic particle inspection is by slowly moving the part into an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength slowly moving the part out of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength subjecting the part to high voltage, low amperage AC 24. The testing medium that is generally used in magnetic particle inspection utilises a ferromagnetic material that has low permeability and high retentivity high permeability and low retentivity high permeability and high retentivity 25. The 'Dwell Time' of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the time the penetrant is allowed to stand time it takes for a defect to develop amount of time the developer is allowed to act 26. What non-destructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals or alloys and their heat-treat conditions? Ultrasonic inspection Eddy current inspection Magnetic particle inspection 27. Gamma Ray Testing of combustion chambers will show up light grey on black background black on lighter background grey on white background

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120 28. Which of these non-destructive testing methods is suitable for the inspection of most metals, plastics and ceramics for surface and subsurface defects? Magnetic particle inspection Eddy current inspection Ultrasonic inspection 29. Ultrasonic flaw detectors use high frequency sound waves a magnetic field x-rays 30. Defects are indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection test by red lines on a white background yellowish green marks green lines and dots 31. NDT using colour dye process at temperatures below 15C will retard the penetrant action of the dye and penetration time is extended not be affected by the temperature mean choosing alternative NDT method 32. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant should be applied on the inside with the developer on the inside on the outside with developer on the outside on the inside, with developer on the outside 33. In order for dye penetrant inspection to be effective, the material being checked must be magnetic have surface cracks be non-magnetic 34. Which of the following metals can be inspected using the magnetic particle inspection method? Aluminium alloys Iron alloys Magnesium alloys 35. After completion of electromagnetic crack detection, the test piece must be Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

121 de-magnetised before returning to service allowed to lose any residual magnetism over as long a period possible allowed to cool to room temperature as slowly as possible 36. Which of the following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from austenitic stainless steel? Penetrant dye Hot oil and chalk Magnetic - particle 37. Fluorescent penetrant processes for the detection of cracks or material defects are used with an ultra-violet radiation source an infra-red light source a tungsten light source 38. What is an isotope the power source of? X-Rays Ultra Violet Rays Gamma Rays 39. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive testing is a mixture of lubricating oil and lard oil lubricating oil and paraffin lubricating oil and petrol 40. Under magnetic particle inspection, a part will be identified as having a fatigue crack under which condition? The discontinuity pattern is straight The discontinuity is found in a highly stressed area of the part The discontinuity is found in a non-stressed area of the part 41. When inspecting a component which is being subjected to the hot fluid chalk process, the examination for defects should be carried out whilst the item is still quite hot immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinet when the item is quite cool 42. Circular magnetization of a part can be used to detect defects

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122 perpendicular to the long axis of the part parallel to the long axis of the part perpendicular to the concentric circles of magnetisatio 43. An indication of porosity when using a penetrant dye crack detection method is closely spaced dots of dye formed in a line areas where dye is not showing an area of scattered dots of dye 44. In a test for adequate demagnetization of a component after a magnetic particle test, the test compass should not deflect more than 1 when standing due east of the component more than 1 when standing north-east of the component more than 1 when standing due south of the component 45. If on application of developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what has happened? Thin porosity The hue has pinked Incorrect cleaning 46. If dye penetrant inspection indications are not sharp and clear, the most probable cause is that the part was not thoroughly cleaned before developer was applied was not correctly degaussed before the developer was applied is not damaged 47. The pattern for an inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up forming a single line a fern-like pattern parallel lines 48. When carrying out a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is applied the surface being tested should be etch primed thoroughly degreased painted with developer fluid

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123 49. When carrying out a dye penetrant inspection, what time should elapse after applying the developer before inspecting the component? After 10 minutes After 15 minutes Initial inspection after 30 seconds followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes 50. When should the developer be applied to the component? Before the penetrant dries After excess penetrant has been removed and the area completely dried Before applying penetrant 51. To check the structure of a wing ultrasound NDT is used low voltage X-rays are used high voltage X-rays are used 52. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the orientation (or direction) of the defect be known before the test can commence? Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant X-Ray and Magnetic Particle 53. Which of the following defects could not be detected by Eddy Current NDT inspection? A crack in a glass fibre reinforced plastic cowl Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy turbine blade A crack in a magnesium alloy wheel casting 54. Which of the following methods could be used to detect the presence of tiny drops of Mercury in a large area of aircraft hull structure after an accident with a mercury thermometer? X-Ray Ultrasonic Magnetic Particle 55. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the surface of the test piece is cleaned down to bare metal? Dye-penetrant Eddy Current

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124 Magnetic Particle 56. When using the colour contrast NDT the surface paint should be removed the surface should be lightly scuffed the surface should be bead blasted 57. When using dye penetrant field kit, removal of excess penetrant is done by applying the solvent by spraying once direct on the part using a lint free cloth spraying twice direct on the part 58. Liquid penetrant tests can be used to detect corrosion wall thinning in pipes and tubes fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy parts internal porosity in castings 59. Water-washable liquid penetrants differ from Post-emulsification penetrants in that they need not be removed from surfaces prior to development do not need an emulsifier added can only be used on aluminium alloys 60. When using a post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is most critical during penetration penetrant removal emulsification 61. A liquid penetrant test cannot be used on non-metallic surfaces locate sub-surface discontinuities be used on porous materials 62. Hot air drying of articles during liquid penetrant testing is carried out at a temperature of 130F 250F 75F

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125 63. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used? Radiographic Magnetic Flaw Dye penetrant 64. Magnetic Flux detection will show defects which are transverse to the flux direction only longitudinal and transverse to the flux direction longitudinal to the flux direction only 65. A hairline crack would show up on a dye penetrant inspection as a continuous line of small dots a group of dots spread over a wide area a thin broken line or chain 66. When carrying out an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel used for? To prevent the test piece from becoming scratched by the probe To reduce the friction between the probe and the test piece To create a good sonic coupling between the the probe and the test piece 67. Fluorescent dye penetrant is suited for what materials? Plastics and non magnetic materials Ferrous magnetic materials Non magnetic non-ferrous materials 68. In film radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are usually placed on the film side of the object between the intensifying screen and the film on the source side of the test object 69. Which type crack will probably cause the most build-up in the magnetic particle indicating medium? Shrink Fatigue Grinding 70. When using dye penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant should be applied

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126 on the outside, with developer on the outside on the inside, with developer on the inside on the inside, with developer on the outside 71. To detect a fault with magnetic particle flaw detection, the test requires one pass in any direction two passes at 90 degrees to each other two passes in any direction 72. The substance used in ultrasound inspection is a developer a couplant to allow sound waves to travel a cleaning agent to keep the components clean 73. Dye penetrant defects are marked using crayon, unless used in a highly stresses area pencil chalk 74. A pressure vessel of thickness 1/16 inch to 1/8 inch is being tested with dye penetrant. The penetrant should be left for less than normal the same length of time as normal 3 times longer than normal 75. Which of the following NDT techniques cannot be used on a component manufactured from austenitic stainless steel? Hot oil and chalk Penetrant dye Magnetic particle 76. The dye penetrant field test kit consists of cans of spray penetrant, spray cleaner and spray developer penetrant, cleaner and developer penetrant, cleaner, developer and a brush 77. The liquid applied to a component being checked by ultrasonic inspection is for acting as a transmission medium for the test Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

127 to prevent corrosion occurring from contact with the probe to prevent scratching of the surface by the probe 78. Which is the preferred method of test for aluminium alloy? Magnaflux Electroflux Ultrasonic 79. A composite flap panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you use to detect? High voltage x-ray Low voltage x-ray Coin tap test 80. The eddy current method of flaw detection can detect surface flaws only surface flaws and those just beneath the surface sub surface flaws only 81. With dye penetrant how is the developer applied? At a distance of 10 to 12 inches with several passes Using a tank As an even layer of chalk applied over the area 82. When using the dye penetrant method crack detection, the indications on a short, deep crack are long chain single dots circles 83. A deep internal crack in a structural steel member is detected by fluorescent penetrant method magnetic flaw method x-ray or ultrasonic process 84. The ultrasonic method of crack detection can be used on subsurface defects on all metals surface and subsurface defects on ferrous metals only

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128 surface and subsurface defects on all metals 85. Porosity in cast materials is detectable as a surface or sub surface defect only occurs on the surface is only detectable on the surface 86. When using the fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the component should be inspected using an ordinary lamp and special glasses infrared lamp ultraviolet lamp 87. When using the dye penetrant method of crack detection, it should not normally be used at temperatures below 0C above 15C above 20C 88. When using the dye penetrant method, the part should be kept wet with the penetrant for 5 minutes up to one hour 15 minutes 89. What NDT would you carry out on aluminium alloy? Magnetic flaw Ultrasonic Electroflux Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques 1. Where would you disconnect a chain? At a spring clip joint At an riveted joint At a bolted joint 2. How many times can a locking plate be used? indefinitely providing it is a good fit around the component to be locked once, then discarded Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

129 3 times, then discarded 3. When removing a piece of equipment from an aircraft that supports the aircraft, what should you do? Go ahead and remove the part Wait for the new part to arrive before replacing Fit a jury strut in place of the removed part 4. A hi-lock collar should be washed in solvent before fitting lubricated before fitting not lubed or washed because they are lubed at manufacture 5. When drilling out a rivet, use a drill smaller than the hole larger than the hole same size as the hole 6. When riveting two dissimilar sheets of metal together the joint should be protected with paint jointing compound grease 7. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is 120C 160C 100C 8. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one side of the work? Hilok Pop Blind 9. Torque loading is carried out to provide as tight a joint as possible flexibility sufficient clamping without over-stressing

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130 10. What is generally the best procedure to use when removing a solid shank rivet? Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a drill one size smaller than the rivet and remove the rivet with a punch Drill to the base of the manufactured rivet head with a drill one size smaller than the rivet shank and remove the rivet with a punch Drill through the manufactured head and shank with a shank size drill and remove the rivet with a punch 11. What action is taken with a common circlip removed from a component? It is checked for springiness It is examined for distortion It is replaced with a new item on assembly 12. The maximum bolt diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may be used is 1/4 7/16 3/8 13. Why is a shouldered stud used? As a replacement for a damaged stud To decrease weight without loss of strength To provide a rigid assembly 14. A thread insert is removed by a special drill provided by the thread insert manufacturer using a drill the major diameter of the thread insert once fitted, a thread insert must not be removed 15. When fitting Rivnuts into position, how are they secured and prevented from rotating? Locknut at the rear A locating key Peened 16. Hi-loks are installed with the shank lubricated when fitting thread lubricated when fitting thread and shank not lubricated

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131 17. A jury strut is one giving a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads additional support to a stressed area a temporary support 18. Which type of repair has to be used where the damage is large and lost strength of the area has to be restored? Insert and butt strap Patch repair to the punctured skin Filling plate and patch 19. Which of the following actions would be taken to fit a locking device to a nut or bolt, if the correct torque has been reached but the locking device will not fit? Tighten further until device fits File the base of the nut Change the nut or bolt for one that will achieve the desired condition 20. In the Push-pull tube linkage used in aircraft flying control systems, how is the length of the tube adjusted? It is fixed and does not require adjusting By adjusting end fittings at each end of the tube Fit anew push-pull tube 21. Spotfacing is done to provide a flat area on a rough surface provide a good surface for welding compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer 22. When fitting a hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal should be lubricated with the same fluid that is used in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol) grease with a specified hydraulic oil 23. A gap in a firewall can be plugged by a plastic bung an aluminium plate a fireproof bung or bush

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132 24. In a critically bolted joint a PLI washer can be used more than once only with self locking nuts a PLI washer can only be used once a PLI washer can be affected by thread lubricant 25. Which of the following jointing compounds should not be used in the vicinity of a joint where the temperature may exceed 200C? DTD 369 DTD 900 DTD 200 26. Why is jointing compound applied to the surfaces of material being joined together prior to riveting? To inhibit electrolytic action To act as a sealant and prevent filiform corrosion To prevent swarf damage 27. A metallic stiff nut cannot be used in areas in excess of 250oC is pre lubricated and does not need lubricating cannot be torque loaded 28. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables? Earth both ends of the screen Do not earth the screen Earth one end of the screen 29. When fitting a shackle pin, fit with 0.020 a shake-proof washer under the head head uppermost 30. The threads on a stud are of opposite hand at each end of the plain of portion are continuous throughout its length and there is no plain portion are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion 31. The angle between starts on a double start thread is Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

133 120 degrees 90 degrees 180 degrees 32. What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt indicate? 1.8 inch threaded portion and plain shank 1/2 inch UNF 1.8 inch nominal length 1/2 inch BSF 1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF 33. A UNF bolt is indicated by green dye 2-3 rings on the head a triangle on the head Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Assembly Techniques 1. BITE systems to be used on the ground only are deactivated by the parking break on take off by the undercarriage retraction 2. Electrical cables installed on aircraft. What is used to indicate concealed breaks? Continuity test Resistance test Bonding test 3. When checking resistance of a cable to the starter motor what test is carried out? Safety Ohmmeter Time Domain Reflectometer Millivolt drop test 4. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies? A continuity check must be carried out before switching on the circuit for the first time The observed readings should be noted and an independent check carried out by another engineer The readings observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and compared to previous readings

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134 5. A millivolt drop check is to be carried out on a heavy duty relay. The Millivoltmeter would be connected to the relay when contacts closed and power is on when contacts are open and power is on when contacts open and power off 6. After the normal function test of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit switched off the fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the isolation of the circuit concerned a second function test must be carried out to verify the first a duplicate check must be carried out in accordance with AWN 3 7. An Insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading obtained. What action would you take? Change or renew all the cables involved in the test Break the circuit down and carry out further checks A low reading would be expected because the cables are in parallel Abnormal Events 1. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, how should it be bonded? With at least two primary conductors, one each side of the engine With at least one primary conductor With at least two primary conductors on one side of the engine 2. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS or dc should not exceed 1 M ohm 1 ohm 0.05 ohm 3. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircraft? To prevent lightening strikes To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts from building up To provide a return path for electrical two-wire system 4. After a reported lightning strike

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135 the flight controls need to be checked for full and free movement only if a bonding lead to one of the control surfaces is found to be burned or broken the aircraft and its systems must have a major overhaul before the next flight the flight controls should be checked for full and free movement before the next flight 5. Whenever possible a functional test should be carried out on an aircraft using which power supply? The aircraft battery An external supply The aircraft generators 6. What is the reason for a primary bonding connection's large cross-sectional area? To carry lightening discharge current should the need arise To carry the static discharge current to the conducting nose wheel To maintain the airframe at the same potential throughout 7. Non metallic parts of the aircraft must be bonded by application of conductive paint do not require to be bonded because they are non conductive must be bonded by bonding leads 8. Which of the following is a preventive process against HIRF? Monitoring HIRF on the communication system Periodically checking aircraft bonding Visual inspections 9. On a composite aircraft, large items are bonded by use of large copper strips Don't need to be bonded because they are made of an insulating material. by primary bonding leads attached to a cage 10. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failure? Unserviceable radio filters Broken or missing static wicks Corrosion on bonding leads 11. HIRF interference occurs when in use on low frequencies Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

136 in use on mid frequencies in use on all frequencies 12. How many primary bonding conductors are required on an engine? 2 on one side 1 on each side 1 only 13. When an aircraft has been struck by lightning

control surface freedom of movement need not be checked provided skin punctures are less than 3/16 inch diameter. control surface bearings and hinges should be checked for stiffness in operation control surface freedom of movement need not be checked providing the bonding is undamaged. 14. A lightning strike on an aircraft would show the entry and exit point the entry point only the exit point only 15. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by shielding each individual conductor earthing each alternate conductor to separate points connecting all conductors to a common earth 16. When inspecting an aircraft after a lightning strike, you should observe all signs of burning entry and exit damage entry damage 17. To ensure protection against HIRF affecting audio and navigation aids ensure that all audio and navigation equipment is adequately screened ensure that the correct number of static wicks are fitted inspect and check all bonding leads to ensure their serviceability and replace if defective Abnormal Events

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137 1. An aircraft with under-wing mounted engines has a heavy landing, where would you expect to see wrinkling of the skins? Bottom skin caused by engine inertia On the top and bottom skins Top skin only 2. After a heavy landing you should check engine module alignment engine compressor shaft alignment engine thrust alignment 3. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by sagging tension hogging 4. After a report of flight through heavy turbulence, you would not carry out any checks check the aircraft symmetry carry out a major overhaul 5. How do you prevent aquaplaning during landing? Put flaps up Use reverse thrust Reduce flare 6. On an aircraft which has had a heavy landing, on the lower wing you may see sagging wrinkling hogging Maintenance Procedures 1. A Category-A licenced engineer can sign a CRS for what? An aircraft that he has sufficient type ratings for A task he has been locally trained for A task that someone else has completed

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138 2. How many signatories are there for a CRS for a Scheduled Maintenance Inspection? Two One One for each category of aircraft systems 3. Mandatory Warning Plaques and symbols need not be displayed if they are incorporated in the flight manual must be displayed on all flights must be displayed in the cabin only if they are legible 4. Following a major defect the C of A will be invalidated and needs renewing. is not affected, however may run out on a time basis. will be suspended until the defect is rectified. 5. When storing parts you should use monitor the temperature place in a sealed container silica gel 6. ATA specification 100 is the procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a Certificate of Airworthiness in the Transport Category (Passenger) the International standardization of maintenance manuals, illustrated parts catalogues, overhaul and repair manuals, service bulletins and letters the American FAA specification controlling the manufacture of aluminium and its alloys 7. An aircraft should carry at least the following number of spare fuses: 10 3 3 or 10%, whichever is greater 8. Maintenance Schedules are issued in a folder with the operators name on the cover with an approval certificate by the CAA by the operator with CAA approval 9. After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is issued Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

139 a Flight Release Certificate Certificate of Release to Service a Certificate of Maintenance Review 10. A hard time engine inspection involves removal of an engine component, its inspection and refitting replacement with a new or overhauled component an in-situ function test 11. Who approves Maintenance Manuals? The Board of Trade The Department of Trade and Industry The CAA 12. A Certificate of Release to Service must be issued after a repair has been carried out in accordance with an approved repair scheme engine runs a re-fuel has been done 13. If the operator varies the content of the maintenance schedule, what action must be taken? Amend the Maintenance Schedule and seek the CAA approval Await CAA approval before amending the Maintenance Schedule Amend the Maintenance Schedule 14. When is an EASA Permit to Fly conditions required? After a Certificate of Maintenance Review has been signed To allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test To allow an aircraft to fly on air test to check out a modification 15. When there is an overlap of responsibility, how is the CRS signed? Appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineers must each certify the parts appropriate to their license coverage Only one appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer may sign the CRS as he assumes responsibility for the operation, the other engineers must sign the paperwork An appropriate Type Rated Licensed Aircraft Engineer and an ATPL holder sign the CRS when the aircraft is away from base 16. Information contained in the ANO is

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140 written in compliance of the Civil Aviation Act of 1943 ratifying the ICAO Convention of a mandatory nature where safety is concerned of a legal nature in all sections and is therefore mandatory 17. An 'On Condition' Inspection involves a program of inspections used to increase the life of lifed components replacement of life expired components for new ones an inspection of a component with a view to continued operation if its condition warrants such action 18. Air Navigation General Regulations are to be found in CAA Printed Manual CAP 393 British Civil Airworthiness Requirements Section A Airworthiness Requirements CAP 455 19. The information in the ANO is given in the form of Chapters, each one dealing with a different aspect of Civil Aviation, these chapters being backed up by the schedules Articles of Law, some of which are further clarified by Schedules Regulations, each one covering a different aspect of Civil Aviation and as such is mandatory 20. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements interpret the ANO and form the Technical requirements for the design form the Technical requirements for the design and operation of aircraft and their equipment are printed by the CAA and are of an advisory nature 21. A CMR is raised after major overhaul defect rectification scheduled servicing at specified intervals 22. Compliance with the ANO is restricted to aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK Civil Register only All civil aircraft and their equipment on the international Civil Register aircraft and their equipment which are on the UK & Commonwealth Civil Registers 23. A Certificate of Release to service states that

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141 a task has been carried out in accordance with the ANO an operator has satisfied the CAA of his competence the aircraft has been maintained to an approved schedule 24. Technical and Administrative information is officially circulated to L.A.M.E.S. in C.A.I.P.s A.W.N.s B.C.A.R.s 25. Vital point inspections are carried out after an area is disturbed on an 'A' Check on a 'C' check 26. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the aircraft Maintenance Manual? Red Yellow Green 27. Which of the following NDT methods can be carried out and certified by a mechanic not approved specifically for NDT inspections Ultrasonic Neither of the above Magnetic Particle 28. B.C.A.R.'s are issued by Ministry of Trade and Industry detail mandatory requirements for aircraft design and construction contain minimum requirements to be met 29. The purpose of the CRS is to ensure that the log book entry is complete to comply with article 15 of the ANO which states that an aircraft must not fly unless it is properly equipped for the intended flight to turn a log book or job card entry into a legal document and to ensure that the signatory takes full responsibility for the work done

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142 30. Duplicate inspections are inspections certified by one approved signatory or LAE and then certified by a second approved signatory or LAE inspections signed by a mechanic and countersigned by an approved signatory or licensed engineer inspections which have to be duplicated but which can finally be certified by one LAE or approved signatory 31. When related to aeronautical engineering, the term 'Inspection' is defined in the publication Airworthiness Notice (AWN) 3 ANO article 11 BCAR Section L 32. The technical laws relating to Civil Aviation are contained in the Civil Aircraft Inspection Procedures the Civil Aviation Act 1971 the Air Navigation Order 33. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have been manufactured to approved drawings tested to destruction manufactured by British Aerospace 34. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organisations approved by S.B.A.C. British Standards Institute C.A.A. in accordance with BCAR 35. Civil Aircraft Airworthiness Information Procedures contain information of a mandatory nature contain approved inspection schedules are a guide to the general maintenance of aircraft 36. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements specify the minimum qualifications for aircrew and engineers give General technical information list the minimum design requirements for aircraft

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143 37. What work has to be recorded and signed for? Only work involving replacements Only work which entails a duplicate inspection All work carried out 38. Are C.A.A.I.P. mandatory? Yes, but only for six months at a time Only selected parts which are in B.C.A.R. No, nothing in C.A.A.I.P.s is mandatory 39. What is the licensed engineer responsible for when fitting a new component to an aircraft? The correct part number, the modification state and the serviceability of the component That the paperwork is signed by an approved signatory That is has a green serviceable tag 40. If an aircraft exceeded the RVSM, when shall the crew report the incident in the appropriate channels 24 hrs 72 hrs 48 hrs 41. If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second part of the duplicate inspection? a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type any licensed engineer 42. Block cumulative maintenance means that all the checks require the same man hour input except for the major inspections all the maintenance is carried out in blocks each check usually involves an increased aircraft down time 43. A separate modification record book is required for passenger aircraft exceeding 3600 kgs MTWA passenger aircraft exceeding 2730 kgs MTWA all aircraft 44. Sector record pages from the Tech Logs, must be

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144 retained for four years from the last effective date at least duplicated retained for two years from the date of issue 45. Minimum equipment to be carried is listed in JAR OPS JAR 145 JAR 25 46. What should be checked before a licensed engineer signs a CRS? That he/she has had continuation training within the previous 2 years That he/she has worked for 4 months on the aircraft type within the previous 2 years That he/she has worked for 6 months on the aircraft type within the previous 2 years 47. Rubber components should be stored in warm and humid conditions in a well lit room in a cool dark area 48. Storage of components to prevent corrosion is helped by wrapping in grease proof paper by using silica gel by placing them in a plastic box 49. Dye penetrant kits should be stored in direct sunlight to keep it dry out of sunlight in a dry place in a dark damp cupboard 50. When receiving new parts it is the responsibility of the engineer to check it has a green serviceable label attached it is of the correct modification state and is serviceable it was designed to acceptable standards 51. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are graded as class A, B and C primary, secondary and tertiary

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145 1, 2 and 3 52. If an unauthorized repair is carried out the Cof A is invalidated until an authorized repair has been done the aircraft can fly with a Certificate of Fitness for Flight the Cof A is not invalidated providing a CRS is issued 53. A C.of A. for export gives authority for the aircraft to fly is required before aircraft registration in a foriegn country does not give authority by it self for the aircraft to fly 54. A fitness for flight is issued for an aircraft after a major modification by the pilot, type rated on that particular aircraft a CAA surveyor or person approved within the CAA a appropriate licensed aircraft engineer 55. An unauthorised repair has been carried out sign a CRS for the repair carryout an approved repair apply for it as a modification 56. A Part-66 licensed engineer, when signing a CRS for a non-Part-145 company would need to have an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months maintenance experience for 4 months within the last 24 months 57. A National UK licensed engineer, when signing a CRS would need to have maintenance experience for 4 months within the last 24 months an aircraft type refresher in the last 24 months maintenance experience for 6 months within the last 24 months 58. Vital point inspections are points which require special certifying LAEs are components which involve duplicate inspections are lifed components

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146 59. On a pre flight check you notice an instrument glass is cracked. You should check MEL tell oncoming captain enter into technical log Unverified 1. Before carrying out a bonding test, remove any cadmium plating chromium plating anodize coating 2. A light-drive clearance is clearance fit a transition fit an interference fit 3. When testing an aircraft fuel contents indication system with fuel tanks partly filled, the test set replaces the aircraft system is placed in series with the aircraft system is placed in parallel with the aircraft system 4. When using pressurised water to flush away water soluble penetrant, the spray nozzle should be held about 45 degrees to the surface 15 degrees to the surface 60 degrees to the surface 5. When measuring voltage with a multimeter, place the meter in parallel with the shunt in series with the circuit in parallel with the circuit 6. After any maintenance work, a CRS has to be raised only for aircraft classified as commercial air transport for all aircraft only within a Part-145 organisation Raju Poulose Kuwait Airways Module 7

147 7. Pin punches are made of high carbon steel with tip hardened and tempered high carbon steel hardened and tempered case hardened mild steel 8. What is the name of the moving jaw of a vernier caliper? Main scale Cursor Vernier scale 9. One revolution of a 40 TPI micrometer will move the spindle 0.5 inch 0.25 inch 0.025 inch 10. A foam fire extinguisher is identified by being coloured (or has a label coloured) cream blue red 11. Where shielding against signal interference is necessary, the appropriate cables would be carried by moulded fibre-glass ducts for additional insulation moulded metal ducts for additional insulation resin-impregnated asbestos ducts for lightness and good conductivity 12. The controlling force in a moving coil meter is provided by the current in the coil a permanent magnet hairsprings - oppositely wound 13. When zeroeing a multimeter it is zeroed to the extreme left of scale in the centre to the extreme right of scale 14. Dies in a hand squeezer

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148 are not exchangeable are not adjustable can be adjusted for different material thicknesses 15. Who is reponsible for aircraft weighing equipment with respect to calibration and adjustment? The Competent Authority, at least every year Whoever is carrying out the task A licensed engineer with an instrument rating 16. What does 'Second Cut' of a file refer to? Arrangement of teeth Number of teeth per inch Grade 17. To extend the range of an ammeter, use a shunt multiplier variable resistor 18. Whos responsibility is it that a part to be fitted to an aircraft is of the correct modification standard? The mechanic's The certifying engineer's The store's 19. Which of the following bearings will; give the largest contact surface area on a shaft with the same diameter? Thrust bearing Plain bearing Roller bearing 20. After a daily inspection, a CRS must be signed if any rectification work has to be done on the aircraft always never 21. When repairing a weld you should

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149 remove material from area to be welded and then use a larger welding rod use a larger weld rod remov remove all existing weld before rewelding 22. What should the point angle of a twist drill be, for drilling stainless steel? 90 - 105 degrees 125 - 140 degrees 105 - 120 degrees 23. When repairing a hole in an aircraft skin, what is the most important consideration? The overall strength of the repair What rivets to use Matching the existing rivet pitch on the aircraft skin 24. The instrument used to check internal structure is a flexoscope borescope epidoscope 25. When cleaning an area before applying dye penetrant you should clean it with high pressure spray wash the area with water be careful not to push contaminants into the suspect crack 26. Which of the following reduction gear ratios will give the maximum RPM of the propeller? 20:9 3:2 16:7 27. Undamaged composite material will give a ______________ sound when a tap check is done. Hollow vibration Solid ringing Hollow thud 28. A hydraulic pipe flaring machine will have an included angle of 32 degrees

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150 25 degrees 45 degrees 29. * Wire wrapping is a form of termination allowing up to a maximum of 3 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG solid single-strand cable per post 4 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG multi-strand cable per post 5 terminations of 18 to 26 AWG solid single-strand cable per post 30. When soldering, the use of active flux will protect the joint both clean and protect the joint * clean the joint

31. To reduce interference on a radio system you reduce power and signal to zero connect power and signal to a common earth * segregate power and signal earth

32. When fitting an inline splice to a heavy duty direct conductor, you suspect a large resistance. You would use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to DC volts * use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to millivolts use a multimeter across the contact with the dial set to DC ohms 33. When carrying out an insulation check, the readings will * vary due to the humidity the test was carried out under be infinity if the cable is installed correctly be zero if the cable is installed correctly 34. During an NDT inspection, before removing developer, what would you use to mark the defect? * Crayon Lead pencil Chalk 35. What is the best technique for internal wing structure inspections? Magnetic particle * Radiographic Kuwait Airways Module 7

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151 ultrasonic In 36. In what ways does magnetic particle detection detect flaws? Transverse direction * Both transverse and longitudinal direction Longitudinal direction 37. A flexible hydraulic hose is proof tested to 2x normal pressure for 2 minutes 2x normal pressure for 5 minutes * 1.5x normal pressure for 2 minutes

38. What is teh best de-icing method immediately prior to flight? C Hot air blast from ground cart Cold fluid de-icing * Hot fluid de-icing

39. You should not refuel aircraft whilst the APU is running * within 30 m of operating radar equipment position and strobe lighting is on 40. How are metric tapered reamers classified? * By small end diameter By length By large end diameter

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