Model Question Paper

Subject Code: BC0050

Subject Name: Oracle & Distributed Databases
Credits: 4 Marks: 140
Part A (One mark questions)

1. A schema is a collection of all objects that a user has created.
A) Schema
B) Data
C) Database
D) Relation

2. The ______ attribute is used to declare variables based on definitions of columns in a table.
A) %TYPE
B) %ATTRIBUTE
C) %ROWSET
D) %NOTFOUND

3. The DBA creates a account in the database for each user who needs access.

A) bank
B) fictitious
C) user
D) nominee

4. ____ security includes monitoring and assigning users permissions to the various objects in
the database.

A) Database
B) Relation
C) Functional
D) Data

5. Procedures and Functions are stored in the ______________



A) Package
B) Memory
C) Oracle Database
D) RAM


6. A _______ is an Oracle object that holds which holds other objects within it.

A) Package
B) Memory
C) Oracle Database
D) RAM

7. Procedure declaration resembles a function declaration except that there is no _______.

A) Data
B) Data Type
C) Function type
D) SQL Type

8. A _____is a data base object, like a table or an index.

A) database
B) view
C) Synonym
D) trigger

9. The combination of HTTP clients, Application Server, and Oracle database together is called
_________.

A) Suite
B) Developer Suite
C) Oracle 9i Developer Suite
D) Oracle database

10. The ______ offers a comprehensive set of middle tier services.
A) Client Applications
B) Server Applications
C) Business logic
D) Application Server



11. Opening a _____ executes the query and identifies the active set that contains all the rows,
which meet the query search criteria.
A) Cursor
B) Trigger
C) Table
D) View

12. Whenever any cursor (explicit or implicit ) is opened and used, ORACLE creates a set of
_______system variables via which ORACLE keep track of the "current status" of the cursor.

A) One
B) Two
C) Four
D) Three

13. A ________reliably manages a large amount of data in a multiuser environment so that
many users can concurrently access the same data.
A) Server
B) Database
C) Client
D) User

14. The ___________ objects are the logical structures that directly refer to the database's data
which include structures like tables, views, and indexes.
A) Database
B) Server
C) Schema
D) Software

15. Oracle stores records relating to each other in a _______.
A) table
B) field
C) column
D) cursor




16. The _______ is the Oracle database management system that is able to store, manage and
manipulate data.

A) Oracle Instance
B) Oracle Server
C) Oracle Database
D) Relation

17. A _______ is a network of databases managed by multiple database servers used together.
A) Centralized Databases
B) Distributed Databases
C) Local Databases
D) Physical Databases

18. The _________ concept is used to convert user transactions to data manipulation
instructions.

A) Query
B) Query Processing
C) Data Processing
D) Relation Processing

19. The ______ files hold parameters that can set the sizes of the various buffers and pools of
the SGA.

A) procedure
B) data
C) parameter
D) configuration

20. The ______ is a circular buffer that stores all changes made in the database.
A) Redo
B) Redo log
C) parameter
D) configuration
Ans: B

21. Designing the _______ database maps the conceptual schema to the storage areas
and determines the appropriate access methods.
A) Physical


B) Logical
C) Symmetric
D) Distributed

22. The ______ replication is a combination of partitioning, replication, and centralization.

A) predictive
B) Inductive
C) Replicative
D) Selective

23. The ________ is responsible for storing and reusing frequently used SQL statements, their
execution plans and stored procedures.

A) Library Cache
B) Shared Pool
C) Database Buffer Cache
D) Redo log buffer

24. The ________ memory area is used by all session-specific Java code and data within the
Java Virtual Machine (JVM).

A) Large Pool
B) Shared Pool
C) Java Pool
D) Streams Pool

25. A ______ is a communication pathway created between a user process and the Oracle
Server.
A) connection
B) data
c) database
d) file

26. The _________ automates the process of updating Heterogeneous Services configuration
data on remote hosts, ensuring correct operation over heterogeneous database links.

a) Multi-Threaded Agents
b) Pass-through SQL
c) Agent Self-Registration


d) Data Dictionary translations

27. A _____ is composed of one or more datafiles on disk.

A) table
B) tablespace
c) relation
d) synonym

28. A ______ groups one or more extents allocated for a specific type of object in the database.

A) table
B) tablespace
c) relation
d) segment

29. ________ requires that if a transaction is interrupted by a failure its partial results are not at
all taken into consideration and the whole operation has to be repeated.
A) Atomicity
B) Durability
C) Consistency
D) Isolation

30. With respect to site failures, an algorithm is said to be ____ if it works properly even if K
sites are down.
A) Resilient
B) n-Resilient
C) K-resilient
D) non-resilient

31. The _____ of the Oracle database consists of datafiles, redo log files, and control files.

A) Physical
B) Logical
C) block structure
D) data structure

32. A ______ helps ln Lhe creaLlon and managemenL of dlsLrlbuLed daLabases.

A) uaLabase ManagemenL SysLem


8) uaLa ManagemenL SysLem
C) ulsLrlbuLed uaLabase ManagemenL SysLem
u) Cracle daLa managemenL

33. The __________ schema defines at which site(s) a fragment is allocated.

A) Global
B) Fragementation
C) Local Mapping
D)Allocation

34. In all types of fragmentation, a _____ can be defined by an expression in a relational
language (we will use relational algebra), which takes global relation as operands and produces
the fragment as result.

A) database
B) fragment
C) view
D) synonym

35. The ______ fragmentation of a global relation is the subdivision of its attributes into groups;
fragments are obtained by projecting the global relation over each group.
A) vertical
B) horizontal
C) derived horizontal
D) mixed

36. workload dlsLrlbuLlon ls Lhe ma[or goal Lo have hlgh degree of parallellsm.

A) Llnear dlsLrlbuLlon
8) arallel dlsLrlbuLlon
C) workload dlsLrlbuLlon
u) no dlsLrlbuLlon

37. 1he _________query musL be decomposed lnLo a sequence of relaLlonal operaLlons called an
algebralc query.

A) calculus
8) algebralc


C) relaLlonal
u) adhoc

38. Two transactions are in ______ if they want to want to lock the same data item with two
compatible modes.
A) Landem
8) same Llme
C) relaLlon
u) confllcL

39. Every site has access to a _____, which is stable storage that stores information about the
history of execution, and enables recovery from failures.
A) table
B) relation
C) log
D) buffer

40. The solution to the problem of reliability is introducing ________.
A) consistency
B) isolation
C) durability
D) redundancy


Part B (Two mark questions)

41. The syntax used to create a user with the name John with a password john123@ is:
A) CREATE USER John
B) CREATE USER JOHN BY john123@
C) CREATE USER John IDENTIFIED BY john123@
D) CREATE USER John, john123@

42. The ________ error is raised when a select statement returns zero rows, and a
____________ error is raised when there is either a data type mismatch or if the size is smaller
than required size.
A) NO_DATA_FOUND
B) VALUE_ERROR
C) Both A and B


D) PROGRAM_ERROR

43. _________ should be used when a triggering statement affects rows in a table but the
processing required is completely independent of the number of rows affected.
A) Row Triggers
B) Statement Triggers
C) Before Triggers
D) After Triggers

44. The Oracle engine provides a procedure named ________ that allows programmers to
issue user-defined error messages.
A) raise_user_error
B) raise_system_error
C) raise_application_error
D) no error

45. The private SQL area is made up of ________ and ______ areas.
A) Persistent
B) Run time
C) PGA
D) Both A and B

46. The ________ provides programmatic accesses, centralized management, and multi-
channel delivery of internet services.
A) Business Intelligence Capabilities
B) Recovery
C) Open Framework
D) Integrated Manageability

47. The _________ structures are those that can be seen and operated on from the operating
system, such as the physical files that store data on a disk. The ______ structures are created
and recognized by Oracle Database and are not known to the operating system.
A) Logical, Physical
B) Physical, Logical
C) Database, Schema
D) Logical, Database

48. A ________ stores information about the physical structure of a database, name of the
database, and locations of the database.
A) Record


B) Table
C) Column
D) Schema

49. ________ fragmentation is a subset of tuples and ________ fragmentation is a subset of
attributes.
A) Vertical, Vertical
B) Horizontal, Vertical
C) Vertical, Horizontal
D) Horizontal, Horizontal

50. ________ fragmentation is defined using selection and projection operations of Relational
Algebra.
A) Horizontal
B) Vertical
C) Mixed
D) Derived Horizontal

51.
1. Reducing the remote references in turn maximizing the local references is the primary aim of
the data distribution.
2. Can be achieved by having redundant fragment allocation meeting the site requirements.
The above statements refer to ____ type of locality.

A) distributed
B) processing
C) variation
D) spread

52.
1. The Sets can overlap.
2. Depending upon the requirement you may have more than one common attribute in two
different fragments of a global relation.
The above statements refer to ____ clustering problem.

A) Horizontal
B) Vertical
C) Mixed
D) Derived Horizontal




53. A ______ transaction is a transaction that includes one or more statement that, individually
or as a group, _____ data on two or more distinct nodes of a distributed database.

A) non-distributed
B) distributed
C) update
D) Both B and C

54. The statements in a _____ transaction can reference any number of local or remote tables.
_____ guarantees that all nodes involved in a distributed transaction take the same action: they
either all commit or all roll back the transaction.

A) double, MS-Access
B) single, Oracle
C) single, SQL Server
D) double, Ingres

55. A _____ is a part of the application. One application issues a begin_transaction primitive;
from this point onwards, all actions which are performed by the application, until a commit or
_____ primitive is issued are to be considered as one compete transaction.

A) database, modify
B) query, abort
C) transaction; abort
D) database, abort

56. In the ____ phase, the initiating node in the transaction asks the other participating nodes to
promise to commit or roll back the transaction. During the ____ phase, the initiating node asks
all participating nodes to commit the transaction. If this outcome is not possible, then all nodes
are asked to roll back.

A) prepare
B) commit
C) Both A and B
D) abort

57. In ______ phase new locks are acquired and in ______ phase locks are only released.

A) Shrinking, Growing


B) Growing; Shrinking
C) Shrinking, moving
D) Growing, Growing

58. The cost of using an ordering mechanism can be divided into two components: the
____________ and the ____________________.

A) latency penalty, inherent ordering delay
B) inherent penalty, inherent ordering delay
C) latency penalty, ordering delay
D) ordering delay, latency penalty


59. A _____ area is a directory, file system, or Automatic Storage Management disk group that
serves as the __________ storage area for files related to recovery.

A) latency penalty, inherent ordering delay
B) inherent penalty, inherent ordering delay
C) flash recovery; default
D) default; flash recovery

60. RMAN can create datafiles automatically when the user executes ________or _________
commands.
A) Restore; rollback
B) recover; rollback
C) Restore; Recover
D) Recover; Recover

Part C (Four mark questions)

61. The following PL/SQL code block calculates the area of a circle for a value of radius varying
from 3 to 7. The output is to be stored in a table called Areas with two columns Radius and
Area. Show the output after the execution of the PL/SQL code block.

DECLARE
pi constant number(4,2) := 3.14;
radius number(5);
area number(14,2);



BEGIN
radius := 3;
WHILE radius<=7;
LOOP
area := pi * power(radius,2);
INSERT INTO areas VALUES(radius,area);
radius := radius + 1;
END LOOP;
END;

A)






B) Erroneous Code
C)
radius area
3 26.20
4 50.24
5 85.7
6 113.04
7 153.86

D)
radius area
3 28.26
4 50.24
5 78.5
6 113.04
7 153.86

62. Match the following looping statements:
Part A
A. Loop
B. WHILE loop
C. EXIT and EXIT WHEN statements
D. FOR loop
radius area
3 25.24
4 50.24
5 78.5
6 112.04
7 135.86



Part - B
1. Repeats a sequence of statements.
2. Enables you to evaluate a condition before a sequence of statements would be executed.
3. Enable you to escape out of the control of a loop.
4. Allows us to execute a block of code repeatedly until some condition occurs.

a) A-1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4 b) A- 3, B- 2, C- 4, D-1
c) A-4, B-3, C- 2, D-1 d) A-2, B- 4, C- 1, D- 3

63. Read the following function used to add two numbers:
CREATE or REPLACE FUNCTION faddnum(n1 IN number, n2 IN number) RETURN NUMBER
IS
BEGIN
RETURN (n1 + n2);
END;

The following code is used to test the output of the above function
begin
dbms_output.put_line('Sum is ' || faddnum(10,20));
end;

In order to see the output, what option should be set in Oracle?
A) set serveroutput on
B) set echo on
C) set echo off
D) None


64. Match the following:
Part A
A) Redo Log Buffer
B) Database Buffer Cache
C) Shared Pool
D) Library Cache

Part B
1) It is responsible for storing and reusing frequently used SQL statements, their execution
plans and stored procedures.
2) An area in memory that holds all the blocks read in from disk for query or modification.


3) A circular buffer that stores all changes made in the database. It contains are transferred
periodically from memory to the online redo log files on disk by the Log Writer (LGWR)
background process.
4) The contents of this memory area are shared by multiple users and hence the name shared
pool.

a) A-1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4 b) A- 3, B- 2, C- 4, D-1
c) A-4, B-3, C- 2, D-1 d) A-2, B- 4, C- 1, D- 3


65. Match the following terms with their corresponding definitions:
Part A
1. Schema
2. Clusters
3. Extents
4. Segments

Part B
a) A set of extents allocated for a certain logical structure.
b) A specific number of contiguous data blocks, obtained in a single allocation, used to store a
specific type of information.
c) Groups of one or more tables physically stored together which in turn improves the disk
access time.
d) A collection of database objects owned by a database user and has the same name as that
user.

A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
B) 1- b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a
C) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - b, 2 - a
D) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - a


66.
1. A horizontal fragment that is based on horizontal fragmentation of a parent relation.
2. Ensures that fragments that are frequently joined together are at same site.
3. Defined using Semijoin operation of relational algebra
The above stated properties hold true for _____ fragmentation.

A) Horizontal
B) Vertical


C) Mixed
D) Derived Horizonta

67.
1. Decomposes the distributed calculus query into an algebraic query on global relations.
2. The information needed for this transformation is found in the global conceptual schema
describing the global relations.
3. The information about data distribution is not used here but in the next layer.
4. The techniques used by this layer are those of a centralized DBMS.

The above statements are the properties of ______________

A) Data Localization
B) Global Query Optimization
C) Query Decomposition
D) Local Query Optimization


68. Match the following features of Heterogeneous services:
Part A
1. Transparent SQL access
2. Procedural Access
3. Pass-through SQL
4. Multi-Threaded Agents

Part B
A) Optionally, application programmers can directly access a non-Oracle system from an Oracle
application using the non-Oracle system's SQL dialect.
B) Take advantage of your operating system's threading capabilities.
C) Integrate data from non-Oracle systems into the Oracle environment as if the data is stored
in one single, local database.
D) Procedural systems, like messaging and queuing systems, are accessed from an Oracle9i
server using PL/SQL remote procedure calls.

a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D b) 1- B, 2 C, 3 D, 4 A
c) 1 C, 2 D, 3 A, 4 B d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 B, 4 - A


69. Match the following:
Part A


1. Client
2. Database Server
3. Local Coordinator
4. Global Coordinator

Part B
A) The node that originates the distributed transaction.
B) A node that references information in a database belonging to a different node.
C) A node that receives a request for information from another node.
D) A node that is forced to reference data on other nodes to complete its part of the transaction.

a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D b) 1- B, 2 C, 3 D, 4 A
c) 1 C, 2 D, 3 A, 4 B d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 B, 4 - A

70. Match the following with respect to Concurrency Control in Distributed Transactions:
Part A
1. Shared Mode
2. Exclusive Mode
3. Well Formed Transactions
4. Conflicts

Part B
A) Two transactions are in conflict if they want to want to lock the same data item with two
compatible modes
B) Here the transaction wants only to read the data item.
C) Here the transaction wants edit the data item.
D) The transactions are always well-formed if it always locks a data item in shared mode before
reading it, and it always locks a data item in exclusive mode before writing it

a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D b) 1- B, 2 C, 3 D, 4 A
c) 1 C, 2 D, 3 A, 4 B d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 B, 4 - A


71.
a) Transactions are well-formed
b) Compatibility rules are observed
c) Each transaction does not request new locks after it has released a lock
The above statements are applicable to _______ phase locking mechanism.

A) Single


B) Two
C) Three
D) Five

72.
1) A circular waiting situation
2) Involves many transactions, not just two.
3) The basic characteristic is the existence of a set of transactions such that each
transaction waits for another one.
4) This can be represented with a wait-for graph.
The above statements are applicable to ______.
A) Livelocks
B) Deadlocks
C) Locks
D) Live and Deadlocks

73. Match the following with respect to traditional backup processes:
Part A
1. Media-Independent, File-Based Retent
2. Central Data Storage
3. Modeling
4. Flexible Security

Part B
A) Security is an essential part of any backup system.
B) Uses a logical backup rather than a physical backup.
C) Automated, centralized backup and storage has always been the ultimate safe solution for
an organizations security.
D) The length of time a file is retained in the backup system should be determined by the
administrator, not by the constraints of the backup system.

a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D b) 1- B, 2 C, 3 D, 4 A
c) 1 C, 2 D, 3 A, 4 B d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 B, 4 - A



74. Match the following components of RMAN environment:
Part A
1. Target database
2. RMAN client


3. Recovery catalog database
4. Recovery catalog schema

Part B
A) A database containing the recovery catalog schema, which contains the metadata that
RMAN uses to perform its backup and recovery operations.
B) The user within the recovery catalog database that owns the metadata tables maintained by
RMAN.
C) The control files, datafiles, and optional archived redo logs that RMAN is in charge of backing
up or restoring.
D) The client application that manages backup and recovery operations for a target database.

a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D b) 1- B, 2 C, 3 D, 4 A
c) 1 C, 2 D, 3 A, 4 B d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 B, 4 - A


75. Match the following RAID levels with their definitions:
Part A
1. RAID level 1
2. RAID level 2
3. RAID level 3
4. RAID level 4

Part B
A) Block - interleaved parity organization, uses block-level striping, like RAID 0, and in addition
keeps a parity block on a separate disk for corresponding blocks from N other disks.
B) Refers to disk mirroring with block.
C) Also known as memory-style error correcting-code (ECC) organization, employs parity bits.
D) The bit-interleaved parity organization, improves on level 2 by exploiting the fact that disk
controllers, unlike memory systems, can detect whether a sector has been read correctly, so the
single parity bit can be used for error correction, as well as for detection.

a) 1 A, 2 B, 3 C, 4 D b) 1- B, 2 C, 3 D, 4 A
c) 1 C, 2 D, 3 A, 4 B d) 1 D, 2 C, 3 B, 4 - A









Answer Keys BC0050

Part - A Part - B Part - C
Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key Q. No. Ans. Key
1 A 21 A 41 C 61 D
2 A 22 D 42 C 62 A
3 C 23 C 43 B 63 A
4 D 24 C 44 C 64 B
5 C 25 A 45 D 65 C
6 A 26 C 46 C 66 D
7 B 27 B 47 B 67 C
8 D 28 D 48 A 68 C
9 C 29 A 49 B 69 B
10 D 30 C 50 C 70 B
11 A 31 A 51 B 71 B
12 C 32 C 52 B 72 B
13 A 33 D 53 D 73 D
14 B 34 B 54 B 74 C
15 A 35 A 55 C 75 B
16 B 36 C 56 C
17 B 37 A 57 B
18 B 38 D 58 B
19 C 39 C 59 C
20 B 40 D 60 C