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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. The booklet given in the examination hall is the Question Paper.
2. A student has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of
HB Pencil as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
3. Paper carries 100 questions. 20 question from Mathematics (120), 20 question from Science(21-50),
20 question from Social Science (5170) & 30 question from Mental Ability (71100) each of
1 (one) mark.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculators, mobile or any other electronic gadgets in any
form is not allowed.
5. There is no negative marking. Do not spend too much time on a particular question.
6. Before

answering the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
7. In case of any dispute, the answer sheet available with the institute shall be final.
NTSE(STAGE-I)
CLASS-X
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3
id7539718 pdfMachine by Broadgun Software - a great PDF writer! - a great PDF creator! - http://www.pdfmachine.com http://www.broadgun.com
Space for rough work
NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #1
1. P is point on side BC of AABC such that AP bisects ZBAC. Then :
(A) BP = CP (B) BA = BP (C) BP > BA (D) CP < CA
2. If the quadratic equation (a d) x
2
+ ax + (a + d) = 0 having equal roots then (d
2
/a
2
) has the value equal
to :
(A) sin
2
90 (D) cos
2
60 (C) sin
2
45 (D) cos
2
30
3. In AABC , BE and CF are medians. BE= 9cm, CF = 12 cm. If BE is perpendicular to CF, find the area of
AABC in sq. cms.
(A) 72 (B) 24 (C) 144 (D) Cannot be determined
4. In a triangle ABC, a straight line parallel to BC intersects AB and AC at point D and E respectively. If the
area of ADE is one-fifth of the area of ABC and BC = 10 cm, then DE equals :
(A) 2 cm (B) 2 5 cm (C) 4 cm (D) 4 5 cm
5. Number of integral values of p for which the quadratic equation x
2
px + 1 = 0 has no real roots is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) infinite
6. In the given figure, ZACB = 90 and CD AB. Then
2
2
AC
BC
= ?
A
D
C
B
(A)
CD
BD
(B)
AD
CD
(C)
AD
BD
(D)
CD
BC
7. If the hypotenuse of a right angled triangle is 41 cm and the area of the triangle is 180 sq cm, then the
difference between the lengths of the legs of the triangle must be :
(A) 22 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 27 cm (D) 31 cm
8. In the diagram, O is the centre of the circle. The angles CBD is equal to :
O C
D
B
A
50
(A) 25
o
(B) 50
o
(C) 40
o
(D) 130
o
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3 (NTSE)
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #2
9. Triangle ABC is isosceles with AB = AC. The measure of angle BAD is 30 and AD = AE. The measure of
angle EDC, is :
C B
A
E
D
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 15 (D) 20
10. If the first, second and last terms of an A.P. be a, b, 2a respectively, then its sum will be :
(A)
b a
ab
+
(B)
) a b ( 2
ab
(C)
) a b ( 2
ab 3
(D)
) a b ( 4
ab 3
11. In the adjoining figure ABCD is a parallelogram, then the measure of x is :
(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 135
12. In a right triangle with sides a and b, and hypotenuse c, the altitude drawn on the hypotenuse is x. Then
which one of the following is correct ?
(A) ab = x
2
(B)
x
1
b
1
a
1
= +
(C) a
2
+ b
2
= 2x
2
(D)
2 2 2
b
1
a
1
x
1
+ =
13. In figure, AABC is circumscribing a circle. Then the length of AB is :
(A) 6 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 14 cm
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #3
14. Find the measure of an angle, if six times its complement is 12 less than twice its supplement.
(A) 48. (B) 50. (C) 52. (D) 58.
15. If the sums of n, 2n and 3n terms of an AP are S
1
, S
2
and S
3
respectively, then
) S S (
S
1 2
3

is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
16. In figure, AB || DC. Then the value of x =
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 11
17. In the adjoining figure DP is parallel to AC, then the ratio of area of triangle PCB and quadrilateral ABCD
is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 2 : 3
18. In the figure DF || AG, DE || AB, AB = 15, CD = 8, AD = x, DE = 10, FG = y and CG = 6. The ratio x : y
equal to:
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1: 3 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #4
19. In the given figure, DEFG is a square and ZC = 90, then which of the following is false ?
B
A
C
G F
E D
1 2
(A) AADG ~ AGCF (B) AADG ~ AFEB (C)
DG
AD
=
FE
EB
(D) DE
2
= AD EB
20. Two concentric circles are of radius 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of the larger circle which
touches the smaller circle.
(A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 10 cm
21. Observe the figure given below and identify the correct option
Pupil
Iris
Pupil
Iris
Fig. (A) Fig. (B)
(A) Intensity of light in surroundings is more in figure A
(B) Intensity of light in surroundings is less in figure B
(C) More light can enter into eye in fig. B
(D) All are correct
22. A ray of light falls on a prism having one silvered surface, at an incident angle of 45 as shown in figure.
After refraction and reflection it retraces the path, then the refractive index of prism material is (prism
angle is 30) :
90
45
30
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
/
(A)
2
(B) 2 (C)
2
1
(D)
2
1
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #5
23. In which of the following case/cases spectrum will be obtained
(A)
white light
V
I
B
G
Y
O
R
(B)
V
I
B
G
Y
O
R
white light
(C)
white light
V
I
B
G
Y
O
R
(D) A and C
24. The sun is visible to us for about
(A) 1 minute before the actual sunrise. (B) 2 minutes before the actual sunrise.
(C) 3 minutes before the actual sunrise. (D) 4 minutes before the actual sunrise.
25. The outermost coating of human eye is made up of :
(A) Lens (B) Retina (C) Sclerotic (D) Iris
26. Magenta is a
(A) primary colour. (B) secondary colour.
(C) complementary colour. (D) tertiary colour.
27. If critical angle for a material to air is 30, then the refractive index of the material will be
(A) 1.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 2.5
28. A ray of light is incident on a hollow glass prism as shown. Then the ray will undergo
(A) deviation and dispersion both (B) deviation but no dispersion
(C) dispersion but no deviation (D) neither deviation nor dispersion
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #6
29. Dispersion of white light takes place because:
(A) Different colours of light bend through different angles with the incident ray
(B) The red light bends the least and the violet light bends the most
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) Refractive index of glass is not uniform in the prism.
30. The refractive index of a medium A with respect to that of a medium B is represented as
AB
. The refractive
indices of three media A, B and C with respect to vacuum are :

AV
= 3/2,
BV
= 4/3,
CV
= 5/4
Which of the following is correct ?
(A)
AB
<
AC
<
BC
(B)
AB
<
AC
>
BC
(C)
AB
>
AC
>
BC
(D)
AB
>
AC
<
BC
31. Read the following statements -
Statement A : Crystallisation is better technique of separation than simple evaporation technique.
Statement B : Some solids decompose or get charred on heating to dryness.
mark the correct answer -
(A) Statement (A) is correct and statement (B) is right explanation of it.
(B) Statement (A) is correct and statement (B) is not right explanation of it.
(C) Statement (A) is incorrect and statement (B) is correct.
(D) Statement (A) and statement (B) both are incorrect.
32. Match the following -
(i) Chromatography (a) Boiling point
(ii) Fractional distillation (b) Solubility
(iii) Solvent extraction (c) Adsorption
(iv) Sublimation (d) I
2
(A) (i) - (b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d) (B) (i) - (d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(C) (i) - (d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) (D) (i) - (c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
33. On moving from top to bottom in a group, in the periodic table, size of an atom -
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) first increases, then decreases
34. The law of octaves was proposed by -
(A) Newlands (B) Dobereiner (C) Lavoisier (D) Mendeleev
35. The element with highest electronegativity is -
(A) carbon (B) chlorine (C) fluorine (D) oxygen
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #7
36. What is the right order of first I.E.?
(A) Na>Mg>Al (B)Al> Mg>Na (C) Mg>Al>Na (D) Mg>Na>Al
37. Which name was proposed by Mendeleev for the element which is known by name Gallium now ?
(A) Eka silicon (B) Eka carbon (C) Eka aluminium (D) None of these
38. Which of the following statements is not true about collodial solution ?
(A) These are visible under powerful microscope.
(B) Their particles do not settle down with passage of time.
(C) Their particles are electrically charged.
(D) These are homogeneous in nature .
39. Which of the following is not an example of colloidal solution ?
(A) Face cream (B) Rubber (C) Carbonated drink (D) Both (B) and (C)
40. X and Y atoms have 2 and 6 valence electrons in their outermost shells respectively. The compound
which X and Y are likely to form is -
(A) XY
2
(B) Y
2
X
6
(C) YX
2
(D) XY
41. Which is absent in prokaryotes ?
(A) Nuclear envelope (B) Golgi apparatus (C) Mitochondria (D) All of the above
42. Cells which lose their nucleus during differentiation are
(A) nerve cells (B) muscle cells (C) red blood cells (D) white blood cells
43. Double membrane is absent in
(A) mitochondria (B) chloroplast (C) nucleus (D) lysosomes
44. Translocation means :
(A) Conduction of food by phioem (B) Conduction of food by xylem
(C) Conduction of water by phioem (D) Conduction of water by xylem
45. Transpiration is helpful in -
(A) Cooling (B) Loss of Water (C) Ascent of sap (D) Loss of nutrients
46. A pacemaker or S-A node is found in
(A) liver (B) heart (C) brain (D) spleen
47. Hormone that stimulates heart beat is
(A) Thyroxine (B) Adrenaline (C) Glucagon (D) Gastrin
48. The hormone that promotes reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate is
(A) oxytocin (B) relaxin (C) vasopressin (D) calcitonin
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #8
49. The endocrine gland nearest the lung is
(A) Pituitary (B) Pineal (C) Thymus (D) Adrenal
50. Excretory product in birds and reptiles is
(A) urea (B) uric acid (C) ammonia (D) guanine
51. The mountains located on the eastern boundary of India includes -
(A) Patkai Bum, Naga Hills and Mizo hills (B) Sahyadri, Nilgiri, Cardamom and Anaimalai hills
(C) Vindhyachal, Rajamhal hills (D) none of the above
52. The Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu receives rainfall due to :
(A) north west trade winds (B) north east trade winds
(C) Bay of Bengal Branch of Monsoon winds (D) all of the above
53. Winters are dry in India because:
(A) winds are from land to sea (B) winds are from sea to land
(C) winds are from mountainous regions (D) none of the above
54. Variation in atmospheric pressure in different hemispheres across the equator is:
(A) Southern oscillations (B) mango showers (C) burst of monsoons (D) none of the above
55. What is the name of crescentic sand dune ?
(A) Oases (B) Inselberg (C) Ventifacts (D) Barchan
56. Rajasthan receives very little rain because .......
(A) It is too hot
(B) There is no water available and thus the winds remain dry
(C) The monsoons fail to reach this area
(D) The winds do not come across any barrier to cause the necessary uplift to cool the winds
57. The velocity of winds is related to -
(A) The amount of moisture they carry (B) The nearness to the sea
(C) Pressure gradient in the direction of the flow (D) The direction in which they blow
58. On which side of the mountain will be the chinook winds found ?
(A) Lee ward side (B) Top of the mountain
(C) Bottom of the mountain (D) Wind ward
59. Intensity of the monsoons can be broadly predicted by measuring the difference in pressure between?
(A) Tahiti in French Polynesia in east Pacific and Port Darwin in northern territory of Australia in the Indian
ocean
(B) Tahiti in French Polynesia in west Pacific and Port Darwin in Southern Australia in the Indian ocean
(C) both of the above
(D) none of the above
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #9
60. The Northern mountain ranges of the Gondwana land are :
(A) The Aravallis (B) The Raj Mahal hills (C) The Meghalayan hills(D) All of the above
61. Which state is the most populous state according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Bihar (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) West Bengal (D) Madhya Pradesh
62. In how many years is the official enumeration of population carried out for census ?
(A) 1 year (B) 5 years (C) 10 years (D) 2 years
63. Which of the following is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males
and females in a society at a given time ?
(A) Age Composition (B) Literacy Rate (C) Sex Ratio (D) Death Rate
64. Which of the following factors are responsible for sparse population ?
(A) Flat plains and abundant rainfall (B) Rugged terrain and unfavourable climate
(C) Fertile soil and abundant rain fall (D) Rugged terrain and favourable climate
65. When was National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed ?
(A) September 2005 (B) August 2004 (C) May 2009 (D) None of these
66. In the secondary sector, which is the most labour absorbing unit?
(A) Small scale manufacturing (B) Medium scale manufacturing
(C) Large scale manufacturing (D) None of these
67. The service sector includes activities such as
(A) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry (B) making sugar, gur and bricks
(C) transport, communication and banking (D) none of these
68. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector :
(A) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular
(B) It is outside the control of the government
(C) Jobs are not regular
(D) It provides low salaries
69. On which of the following basis, the sectors are classified into public and private sectors?
(A) Employment conditions
(B) The nature of economic activity
(C) Ownership of enterprises
(D) Number of workers employed in the enterprise
70. Which one of the following defines GDP ?
(A) All final goods and services produced in a country in a year.
(B) All final and intermediate goods produced in a country in a year.
(C) Money value of all final goods and services produced in a domestic territory in a year.
(D) None of the above.
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #10
Direction (71 to 73) : Find the missing terms
71. 1, 3, 7, 25, 103, ?
(A) 526 (B) 521 (C) 515 (D) 509
72. RML, VIJ, ZFH, DDF, ?
(A) HDC (B) CHI (C) HCD (D) DIC
73.
1 2 3 2 10 12
2 5 12 10 16 13
1 2 1
?
10 24
(A) 5 (B) 11 (C) 13 (D) 8
Directions : (74 to 75) In each Q. there is a word written in capital letters with one letter underlined. For each letter
in that word there is a code written in small letters. That code is denoted by either (A), (B), (C), (D) or (E)
not in the same order. You have to find out the exact code for the underlined letter in the word. The number
of that code is the answer. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word (s) may be coded
differently.
74. BEST
(A) e (B) q (C) b (D) v
75. PAGE
(A) b (B) i (C) r (D) x
6. If MENTAL is written LNDFMOSUZBKM then how would TEST be written in that code ?
(A) UVFGTIIV (B) RSCDQRRS(C) SUDFQRSM(D) SUDFRTSU
Direction (77) : Read the following information and answer the given question :
77. If A B
+ C A
__________
A D D
where AB and CA are two digit numbers . ADD is three digit number.
Each letter represent distinct digit from 0 to 9.
Find the value of D + C.
(A) 9 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 6
78. If

means +, means

, means and + means , then

( )
1 9 8 18 4
2 8 8 32
+ +

= ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 12 (D) None of these
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #11
79. In a code language symbols are used for letters. In this, the letters and symbols may not be in the same
order. Observe the given words and find the correct answer.
HAT = , COT =
+
CAN =
+
Then, HOT = ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Direction (80-82) : Read the following information carefully and give the answer of following
questions :
A scientist is trying to prepare a medicine using four ingredients. He can choose from the stable
chemicals A, B and C and the unstable chemicals W, X, Y and Z. In order for the formula not to
explode, there must be two stable chemicals in it. Also, certain chemicals cannot be mixed
because of their reaction together .
(1) Chemical B cannot be mixed with chemical W
(2) Chemical C cannot be mixed with chemical Y
(3) Chemical Y cannot be mixed with chemical Z
80. If Y is the most important chemical and must be used in the formula, which other ingredients must be
used?
(A) A, B and W (B) A, B and X (C) A, B and Z (D) A, C and X
81. If chemical B is rejected because of its possible side effects but it is decided to use chemical Z, which
is a possible combination of the ingredients in the formula
(A) A, W, X and Z (B) A, X, Y and Z (C) A, W, Y and Z (D) A, C, W and Z
82. Which of the following combinations of chemicals is impossible?
I. Using chemical Y and W together.
II. Using chemicals B and C together.
III. Using chemicals W, X and Z together.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) I and III only (D) I and II only
83. A tailor had a number of shirt pieces to cut from a roll of fabric. He cut each roll of equal length into 10
pieces. He cut at the rate of 45 cuts a minute. How many rolls would be cut in 24 minutes ?
(A) 32 rolls (B) 54 rolls (C) 108 rolls (D) 120 rolls
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #12
Direction (84 to 86) : In the figure given below a cardboard is folded along the dotted lines and a cube is
constructed. Based on it answer the following questions :
F A
B
D E
C
84. Which letter will come in front of A ?
(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E
85. Which letter will not come near D ?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) E
86. Of the following figures, which figure does not belong to the cube ?
(A)
B
F
C (B)
F
B
A
(C)
C
A
F
(D)
87. If the numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in ascending order, minimum
number being on the top, which would come at the ninth place from the top ?
(A) 18 (B) 21 (C) 24 (D) 27
88. Ram walks 10 metres towards the South. Turning to the left, he walks 20 metres and then moves to his
right. After moving a distance of 20 meters, he turns to the right and walks 20 metres. Finally, he turns to
the right and moves a distance of 10 metres. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
(A) 10 metres North (B) 20 metres South (C) 20 metres North (D) 10 metres South
89. Deepak is brother of Ravi. Rekha is sister of Atul. Ravi is son of Rekha. How is Deepak related to Rekha ?
(A) Son (B) Brother (C) Nephew (D) Father
90. How many triangles are there in the following figure ?
(A) 25 (B) 20 (C) 31 (D) 29
Direction (91 to 92) : Find the mirror image
91. N u 5 6 p 7 u R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #13
92.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Direction (93 to 94) : Find the water image
93. U 4 P 1 5 B 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
94.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Direction (95 to 96): Select a figure from the four alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of
figure (X) would complete the pattern.
95.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (X)
?
96.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (X)
?
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NTSE_ STAGE-I _PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3_PAGE #14
Direction : (97 to 98) A square transparent sheet with a pattern is given in figure X. Find out from
amongst the alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is
folded at the dotted line.
97.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
98.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Direction : (99 to 100) A sheet has been folded in the manner as shown in X, Y and Z respectively and
punched. You have to choose from the alternatives how it will look when unfolded.
99.
X Y Z
(A) (B) (C) (D)
100.
X Y Z
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ANSWERKEY
NTSE(STAGE-I)
CLASS-X
PRACTICE TEST PAPER-3
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. D D A B B C D A C C C D D A D
Ques. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A C C C D A D B C B C D C B
Ques. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. A D A A C C C D D D D C D A C
Ques. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B C C B A B A A D D C A A B
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. B C C B A A C A C C B C C D A
Ques. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. D B B D B D C D B B C D B A D
Ques. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. C B C A C D C A B A