1 Elect/Fit Paper-III In a computer application window, the status bar displays:The menu for the application The name

of the application The font size, types of styles and alignment Message, page number and section number. D 2 Elect/Fit Paper-III In computer application window, the bar used to change document style and font size is:Status bar Standard tool bar Formatting tool bar Menu bar. C 3 Elect/Fit Paper-III In MS EXCEL, a formula can be a maximum of :255 characters long 235 characters long 245 characters long 275 characters long A 4 Elect/Fit Paper-III An EXCEL FILE is known as:Note book Work book Work sheet Document. C 5 Elect/Fit Paper-III In MS EXCEL, the [+] of mouse pointer stands for:Start menu Copy and paste Cut and paste Entering the data. B 6 Elect/Fit Paper-III An EXCEL workbook has a number of:Pages Documents Worksheets Workbooks. C 7 Elect/Fit Paper-III A worksheet is also known as:Page Spreadsheet Document Workbook. B 8 Elect/Fit Paper-III In MS EXCEL, the (arrow) shape of the mouse pointer indicates:Entering the data Cut and paste Copy and paste Start menu. B 9 Elect/Fit Paper-III In MS EXCEL worksheet, rows are denoted by:Alphabets Numbers Asterisks Arrows. B

10Elect/Fit Paper-III A chart data series is a collection of:Related values Functional values Collected values Resulted values. A 11Elect/Fit Paper-III A chart that exists on your worksheet is known as:Radar chart Embedded chart Scattered chart Column chart. B 12Elect/Fit Paper-III In Binary subtraction, subtract 11011 from 10111 :- 11011 - 00100 + 11011 + 00100. B 13Elect/Fit Paper-III Complement of a complement equal to; Zero Complement One Original. D 14Elect/Fit Paper-III The 1's compliment of a binary number is the number that results when :Each 0 is changed to 1 and vice-versa. Each 0 is changed to 2 and vice-versa. Each 0 is changed to 4 and vice-versa. Each 0 is changed to 8 and vice-versa. A 15Elect/Fit Paper-III Binary equivalent of 34.4 (8) is : 10100.1100 11000.0011 10011.0101 11100.100 D 16Elect/Fit Paper-III Flip Flop is also known as :Astable Multi vibrator Mono stable Multi vibrator Bi stable multi vibrator Tri stable multi vibrator C 17Elect/Fit Paper-III For production of voltage pulses without any driving pulse of all most square wave shape, occurring periodically, the circuit used is Free running multi vibrator Mono stable multi vibrator Bi stable multi vibrator RS flip flop. A 18Elect/Fit Paper-III Among the following ,the output device in a computer is; Key board Printer Mouse Joy stick. B

19Elect/Fit Paper-III Unidirectional Tri-directional Bi-directional Quadra-directional. C 20Elect/Fit Paper-III Line printer Laser printer Drum printer Character printer D 21Elect/Fit Paper-III Memory unit Input device Control device Output device. B 22Elect/Fit Paper-III is measured is:Volt Ampere Coulomb Ohm. B 23Elect/Fit Paper-III One watt second One watt hour One watt minute One watt. A 24Elect/Fit Paper-III R= V/I V = R/I I = R/V R = VxI A 25Elect/Fit Paper-III Ohm Coulomb MHO Volt. C 26Elect/Fit Paper-III work is measured is :Joule Watt Ohms None of the above B 27Elect/Fit Paper-III R Z I V B

Many dot matrix printers are:-

Dot matrix printer is an example of:-

A keyboard is a most common:-

Unit of current by which the rate of flow of electricity

One Joule is equal to :-

Ohm'S Law states that:-

The practical unit of Conductance is ;-

The unit representing power or by which the rate of doing

The symbol of Impedence is ;-

28Elect/Fit Paper-III The value of Milli ampere is:0.01 ampere 0.1 ampere 0.0001 ampere 0.001 ampere D 29Elect/Fit Paper-III The total opposition offered to the flow of current in an AC circuit by resistance inductance and capacitance is known as;Ohm Conductance Impedance Watt Hour. C 30Elect/Fit Paper-III Indicating instruments are graded on the basis of their:Range Internal resistance Limits of error None of the above. C 31Elect/Fit Paper-III Electrical instruments are classified as:Indicating, Integrating and recording instrument Recording, Deflecting and controlling instrument Integrating, controlling and Deflecting instrument Deflecting, controlling and Damping instrument. A 32Elect/Fit Paper-III Instrument that register electrical quantities over a period of time are classified as :Indicating instrument Recording instrument Moving coil instrument Integrating instrument. D 33Elect/Fit Paper-III The most common form of damping employed in electrical instrument is:Eddy current damping Fluid friction damping Air friction damping Electromagnetic damping. A 34Elect/Fit Paper-III Most suitable material used for controlling spring in an instrument is :Aluminum Phosphor Bronze. Iron Copper Bronze. B 35Elect/Fit Paper-III Shunt is used for increasing the range of a :Ammeter AVO meter Volt meter Electrostatic Volt meter. A 36Elect/Fit Paper-III Moving coil instrument is based on the principle of:Fleming Right Hand Rule Ohm's Law Fleming Left Hand Rule

Lenz's law. A 37Elect/Fit Paper-III Disadvantages of moving coil instrument is :Uneven scale division It can not be directly used with AC Error due to temperature is more Can not be designed as center-zero type. B 38Elect/Fit Paper-III The advantages of Moving Coil Instrument is :It correctly indicates the r.m.s value It can be designed as center -zero type They are free from frequency error They are not affected by stray magnetic field. B 39Elect/Fit Paper-III A low resistance connected in parallel with an ammeter in order to measure a greater current than the instrument itself can carry is termed as :Multiplier Shunt Swamping resistance Ballast resistance. B 40Elect/Fit Paper-III Material used for making SHUNT in an ammeter is usually:Copper Manganin Phosphor Bronze Bronze. B 41Elect/Fit Paper-III Most suitable instrument for measuring high voltages is :Milli voltmeter Electrostatic voltmeter Digital voltmeter None of the above B 42Elect/Fit Paper-III In a thermocouple instrument, the emf at the cold end is measured by :Moving coil instrument Moving Iron Instrument Milli volt meter Hot wire instrument. A 43Elect/Fit Paper-III The operating principle of Dynamometer type Wattmeter isSimilar to D C Motor Similar to A C Motor Similar to D C Generator Similar to A C Generator. A 44Elect/Fit Paper-III The true power in A C circuit being equal to :VI sin + VI cos + RI sin + RI cos +. B 45Elect/Fit Paper-III Digital Instrument have input impedance of the order of 10 Mega ohm or even higher 10 Mega ohm or even lower

5 Mega ohm only 5000 ohm only. A 46Elect/Fit Paper-III The digital meter work on the principle of Electro magnetic Induction Quantization Heating effect Eddy current. B 47Elect/Fit Paper-III The accuracy of best analog instruments are rated usually within + - 0.5% of full scale + - 1% of full scale + - 0.1% of full scale + - 5% of full scale. C 48Elect/Fit Paper-III Purpose of shunt in ammeter is to :Measure a greater current than that the instrument can carry Measure a lower current than the instrument can carry due to safety reasons Safe guard to instrument Reduce the internal resistance. A 49Elect/Fit Paper-III If a resistance is having colour bands Green, Yellow, and Red, the resistance value is:5400 ohms 5400 + - 10% 6400 ohms 5800 ohms. A 50Elect/Fit Paper-III For a given voltage four heating coils will produce maximum heat when connected:All in parallel All in series With two parallel pairs in series One pair in parallel with the other two in series. A 51Elect/Fit Paper-III Magnetic force that must be applied in the reverse direction to reduce the residual Magnetism to zero is called Magnetic Force Coercive force Electromagnetic force Electro static force. B 52Elect/Fit Paper-III If the Voltage applied and the resistance of a circuit are doubled the circuit will be:Doubled Halved Four times Remaining same. D 53Elect/Fit Paper-III A capacitor consists of two:Insulators separated by a dielectric Conductors separated by an insulator Ceramic plates and one mica disc Silver coated Insulators. B

54Elect/Fit Paper-III A force that tends to drive electricity through a circuit is called:Ampere Wattage RMS value EMF. D 55Elect/Fit Paper-III The meter, which is used for measuring and comparing the emf of different cells for calibrating and standardizing voltmeters and ammeters, is known as:Potentiometer Bonding tester Ammeter Multi meter. A 56Elect/Fit Paper-III The resistance 'R' offered by a conductor depends upon:R = L / A A = L / R L = R / A P = L / A A 57Elect/Fit Paper-III To specify the magnitude of resistance, colour code is used. Certain colours are used for certain numbers. Number used for 'Black' band resistance is:1 5 0 2 C 58Elect/Fit Paper-III One mega ohm is equal to:10 to the power 2ohms 10 to the power 3 ohms 10 to the power 4 ohms 10 to the power 6 ohms. D 59Elect/Fit Paper-III When different resistances are joined end on end, they are said to be connected in:Parallel Series - parallel Parallel - series Series D 60Elect/Fit Paper-III The current flowing through a conductor is proportional to difference of potential at the ends of the conductor, provided the temperature remains constant is defined by: Coulombs Law Ohms Law Joules Law Kirchoffs Law. B 61Elect/Fit Paper-III One horsepower is equal to:500 Ft Lb/sec 550 Ft Lb/sec 600 Ft Lb/sec 746 Ft Lb/sec. B

62Elect/Fit Paper-III Superposition Theorem can be applied only to circuit having----------------elements. Resistive Non-linear Passive Linear-Bilateral. D 63Elect/Fit Paper-III In an electrical circuit, where the current produced by an applied voltage is proportional to that voltage i.e. Parameters of circuit are constant is called:Electric network Active network Linear circuit Non linear circuit. C 64Elect/Fit Paper-III The term defined as the lagging of magnetization or induction flux density behind the Magnetizing force is known as:Right hand grip rule Magnetizing field Hysterisis Permeance C 65Elect/Fit Paper-III The property of a material that opposes the creation of Magnetic flux is known as:Reluctance Magneto motive force Analogous Permeance. A 66Elect/Fit Paper-III When an AC voltage is applied to the plates of a capacitor:Capacitor will discharge what ever charges available Capacitor is charged in one direction Capacitor will resist the voltage The capacitor is charged in one direction and then in the opposite direction D 67Elect/Fit Paper-III Fleming's left hand rule is to find out the direction of :Current Field The motion of current carrying conductor Current and field C 68Elect/Fit Paper-III In a transformer, the thickness of the core lamination for a frequency of 50 Hz is :0.5 mm 0.15 mm 0.25 mm 0.35 mm. D 69Elect/Fit Paper-III Generation of AC is :More expensive than that of DC More complicated than that of DC More economical than that of DC Less reliable than that of DC. C

70Elect/Fit Paper-III The normal overload setting for star delta starter is at :10% overload 12% overload 15% overload 25% overload B 71Elect/Fit Paper-III The open circuit voltage of dry cell is 2 volt 1.2 Volt 1.4 to 1.6 Volt 1.5 Volt. D 72Inst/Fit Paper-III The type of capacitor suitable for use in AC circuits such as in AC motor starter is : Paper capacitor Electrolytic capacitor Polorised electrolytic condenser Non-polarized electrolytic capacitor B 73Inst/Fit Paper-III The tenacity with which a magnetic material holds on to its magnetism is called : Coercive force Retentivity Coercivity Magnetic Hysterisis C 74Inst/Fit Paper-III In some cases motors are required to run in both direction with out sparking, the brushes must be placed at: MBD MNA GNA MMF C 75Inst/Fit Paper-III In DC generator staggering slots are used to minimize ripple in the Input voltage Input and out put voltage Output voltage Output current C 76Inst/Fit Paper-III The total capacitance in an electrical circuit having three capacitors of 2 micro farads, 3 micro farads and 6 micro farads connected in series: 11F 11 Mf 0.1 mF 10 F C 77Inst/Fit Paper-III Series circuit at resonance is also called acceptor circuit because Minimum Maximum Equal Zero. B

78Inst/Fit Paper-III In iron cored transformer with 8: 1 ratio is connected to 120V mains, the voltage across secondary will be: 20 V 15 V 10 V 25 V. B 79Inst/Fit Paper-III For high voltage the insulator used is: Trace paper Melinex Impregnated Tissue paper B 80Inst/Fit Paper-III Any machine converts mechanical energy into electrical energy is known as Motor Stator Generator Amplifier C 81Inst/Fit Paper-III Fleming's right hand rule is used to find out the direction of: Field Motion of the conductor Direction of induced emf Direction of current. B 82Inst/Fit Paper-III In delta connected alternators the 3 phase windings are joined in: Auto transformer Step up transformer Step down transformer Voltage transformer B 83Inst/Fit Paper-III In transformerif K is greater than one, then the transformer is called: Greater accuracy Robust in construction To provide equal amount of frequency Cooling purpose D 84Inst/Fit Paper-III The maximum value, positive or negative of an alternating quantity is known as: Time period Frequency Amplitude Cycle C 85Inst/Fit Paper-III The direction of motion of a DC motor is given by: Fleming's right hand rule Fleming's left hand rule Faraday's law Lenz's law B 86Inst/Fit Paper-III The total capacitance in electrical circuit having three capacitors of 2 mF, 3 mFand 6 mF connected in series is: 11 F

11 Mf 1 F 1 mF D 87Inst/Fit Paper-III The value of Joule's mechanical equivalent of heat is: 4.18 Joules / calorie 4.18 calorie / joule 4.18 calorie 4.18 Joules A 88Inst/Fit Paper-III The power consumed by a bulb having 75 ohm resistance and drawing 200 mA current is: 30 Watt 15 Watt 3 Watt 0.3 Watt D 89Inst/Fit Paper-III Equivalent DC value of an alternating quantity which produces heat at same rate through a circuit is known as: Power RMS value Form factor Amplitude factor B 90Inst/Fit Paper-III By decreasing the flux, the speed a shunt motor will be: Remain constant Increase Decrease Diminish because torque is insufficient. B 91 In lead acid battery( charged state ) electrolyte used is Dilute H2SO4 Concentrated sulphuric acid KOH Unaffected AFTC/ 92 One of the factors of useful life of secondary cell is Servicing Environment Cell properties None of the above AFTC/ 93 In Ni-Cd battery( charged state ), positive plate used is PbO2 PbSO4 Ni2O2 Cd AFTC/ 94 Capacity of a battery is measured in Amperes-sec Farads Amperes-Hours None of the above AFTC/ 95 In lead acid battery( discharged state ), negative plate used is PbO2

PbSO4 Ni(OH)2 Cd(OH)2 AFTC/ 96 In lead acid battery( charged state ) negative plate used is PbO2 PbSO4 Ni(OH)2 Cd(OH)2 AFTC/ 97 The emitter of a transistor is doped to a lesser extent than collector depends upon specification heavily so that most of emitter injected electron go to the base of transistor. AFTC/ 98 Basic drawback with base bias circuit is the base and collector power supplies are same. base and collector resistors are returned to collector supply. it cannot be used in switching circuits. Beta DC varies with current and temperature. AFTC/ 99 In the collector feedback bias the Beta DC generally varies. the base resistor is grounded the base resistor is returned to the collector than to power supply. difficult to set a stable Q-point. AFTC/ 10 Amplification factor for triode is given by = rp/gm = gm.rp = gm/rp+gm None of the above. AFTC/ 10 The transistor used in power amplifier have large current ratings large voltage ratings large power dissipating capacity neither of these characteristics AFTC/ 10 The input and output signals of a CE amplifier are Always equal Out of phase Always negative In phase AFTC/ 10 A shift counter is also called a Ripple counter Johnson counter Decade counter Ring counter AFTC/ 10 The transistor of Class B push pull amplifiers are biased at : Cut off Center of DC load line

Saturation Biasing is fixed by manufacturer AFTC/ 10 The varactor is usually Forward biased Biased Unbiased In the breakdown region AFTC/ 10 For normal operation of the transistor the collector diode has to be Forward biased. Reverse biased. Non conducting Operating in breakdown region AFTC/ 10 If an ammeter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ = mA and re = 1 K, the maximum peak to peak unclipped output is 1V 2V 5V 10V AFTC/ 10Inst/Fit Paper-III Kirchoff's law are more comprehensive than ohms law are used for solving: Electrical conductance Electrical temperature co efficient Electrical resistance network Electrical net work D 10Inst/Fit Paper-III Resistance offered by 100 cm length of wire having an area of cross section of 100 cm sq. is called: Specific temp. co- efficient Specific conductance Specific co-efficient Specific resistance D 11Inst/Fit Paper-III In transformer if K is less than one, then the transformer is called : Auto transformer Step down transformer Voltage transformer Step up transformer B 11Inst/Fit Paper-III To reduce the iron losses in an induction motor the stampings are made of: Silicon steel Invar steel Carbon steel Graphite steel. A 11Inst/Fit Paper-III The first generation computer was introduced with: Solid state transistors Vacuum tubes Chips IC's B

11Inst/Fit Paper-III The KWH meter can be classified as an: Deflecting instrument Digital instrument Recording instrument Indicating instrument C 11Inst/Fit Paper-III Induction Watt Hour meters are free from: Phase error Creeping error Temperature error Frequency error D 11Inst/Fit Paper-III The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instruments is: Air friction Eddy current Fluid friction None of the above B 11Inst/Fit Paper-III Induction instruments have found widest application as: Voltmeter Ammeter Frequency meter Watt hour meter D 11Inst/Fit Paper-III The unit of magnetic flux in CGS system is: Weber Maxwell Tesla Oersted B 11Inst/Fit Paper-III If an electron moves from the conduction band in to the valance band, so that a mobile electron hole pair disappear, then this process is known as: Collision Re combination Partition Thermal agitation. B 11Inst/Fit Paper-III A device that can rectify frequencies above 300 M Hz for beyond the capacity of the bipolar diode is: Zener diode Step recovery diode Schottky diode Pin diode. C 12Inst/Fit Paper-III To make the AC equivalent circuit, DC source must be: Reduced to one Reduced to zero Increased to high value Increased to the value of AC B 12Inst/Fit Paper-III In a CC amplifier, voltage gain: Cannot exceed unity Depends upon output impedance Dependent on input signal

Is always constant. A 12Inst/Fit Paper-III The main use of class C amplifier is: In RF circuits of a TXR above 20 K Hz As stereo amplifier In communication sound equipment As distortion generator. A 12Inst/Fit Paper-III The value of Alpha (Current amplification) in junction transistor is: Less than one More than one Equal to one 0.707 of one A 12Inst/Fit Paper-III The unwanted screen current in a pentode valve is prevented by: Capacitor Suppressor grid Control grid Choke. B 12Inst/Fit Paper-III If the control grid in a triode as an amplifier circuit is open circuited, it will work as: Amplifier Rectifier Oscillator Rectifier or an amplifier. B 12Inst/Fit Paper-III If by mistake, AC source in a bridge rectifier is connected across the DC terminals, it will result in burning of: One diode Two diodes Three diodes Four diodes. B 12Inst/Fit Paper-III The common base PNP junction transistor has reverse biased arrangement between: Emitter and base Emitter and collector Collector and base Base and emitter C 12Inst/Fit Paper-III When the emitter/ base junction of a transistor is reverse biased, collector current: Is reversed Increases Decreases Stops. D 12Inst/Fit Paper-III Loud speaker is: An electrical device Mechanical device An electro mechanical device A pneumatic device A

13Inst/Fit Paper-III If acid is splashed in eyes, it should be washed with : 5% solution of soda bi carbonate 5% solution of soda bi carbonate and plenty of water 2% solution of nitrogen 5% solution of alkali and plenty of water. A 13Elect/Fit Paper-III The speed of floppy disk when inserted in a floppy disk drive unit is:180 rpm 360 rpm 540 rpm 720 rpm. B 13Elect/Fit Paper-III Erasable PROM (EPROM) is:Temporary memory Permanent memory Volatile memory Non volatile memory. D 13Elect/Fit Paper-III In Erasable PROM (EPROM), data can be erased by exposing it to:X' rays Alpha rays Infra red rays Ultra violet rays. D 13Elect/Fit Paper-III In secondary memories, an amplifier and comparator are used to convert:Small signal to large signal Large signal to small signal Small signal to standard logic levels Standard logic levels to small signal. C 13Elect/Fit Paper-III A Random Access Memory (RAM) is:Volatile memory Non volatile memory Temporary memory Permanent memory. A 13Elect/Fit Paper-III The memory which is also called as 'Read Write Memory' is:ROM RAM PROM EPROM B 13Elect/Fit Paper-III The memory in which MOSFETS are used is:ROM PROM EPROM Static RAM C 13 Paper-III If an amitter follower has V CEQ = 5V, ICQ = mA and re = 1 K the maximum peak to peak unclipped output is 1V 2V 5V

10V AFTC/Electrical, Instrument & Radio 13 Which of the following is not an advantage of DC system Uses single pole switching Mechanical and electrical problems with commutators Can be paralleled No load-balancing problem AFTC/ 14 Slip ring are used in DC generator AC generator TRU None of these AFTC/ 14 In aircraft DC power supply generators employed are self excited shunt wound separately excited permanent magnet none of the above AFTC/ 14 The rms value of an A C is peak/2 2*peak peak/v2 (peak)2 AFTC/ 14 The main housing of a generator is yoke rotor winding none of the above AFTC/ 14 The brushes used in air craft generator are of natural graphite artificial graphite Copper iron AFTC/ 14 The standard frequency used in A/C system is 400 Hz 50 Hz 60 Hz 25 Hz AFTC/ 14 The frequency generator in cps is (rev/min) x pair of poles/ 100 (rev/sec) x pair of poles/60 (rev/min) x pair of poles/ 60 none of the above AFTC/ 14 The power factor of the generator is ratio of total power and effective power effective power and apparent power total power and apparent power none of the above AFTC/

14 The number of the ampere hours the manufacturers claim the accumulator will give is rated capacity actual capacity % capacity total capacity AFTC/ 14 For conversion of AC to DC we use alternators stabilizers generators rectifiers AFTC/ 15 DC power is converted to AC using Alternators stabilizers generators rectifiers AFTC/ 15 The % capacity efficiency of battery is defined as the ratio of actual capacity to the rated capacity multiplied by 10 50 60 100 AFTC/ 15 The aircraft electrical system uses AC and DC AC only DC only accumulator AFTC/ 15 The procedure where build up or collapse of the main EM flux is slowed down by a second and opposing magnetizing force is Induction slugging relaying none of these AFTC/ 15 The function of the inverter is AC to DC conversion amplify AC DC to AC none of these AFTC/ 15 Voltage of each cell in the lead acid accumulator should be 10 v 20 v 9 v 2 v AFTC/ 15 The electro graphitic brushes made up of carbon absorbs moisture due to fine pores high conductivity low conductivity

none of the above AFTC/ 15 In twin generator system ,third coil is wound on core for generation of voltage generation of eddy current for separation of parallel relays none of the above AFTC/ 15ELECT/FIT When the A/C is subjected to sudden severe deceleration such would occur in crash landing, all fire extinguishers are automatically operated by the action of : Push s/w type 'C' Dimmer s/w Inertia s/w Type 'D' circuit breaker C 15ELECT/FIT The component which combines the function of circuit protector and switch is : Tumbler switch Fuse Micro switch Circuit breaker D 16ELECT/FIT the most suitable method operation used in CBs, to trip in the event of reverse current when used in DC circuit is thermal Manual electromagnetic both thermal and electromagnetic C 16ELECT/FIT Slugged relay operates on the principle of : Faraday's law Joule's law Coloumb's law Lenz's law D 16ELECT/FIT In linear actuator, equal armature speeds in both the direction of rotation can be adjusted by means of Brush rocker arm electromagnetic brake Input voltage regulation Armature with limit switches A 16ELECT/FIT Over travel of plungers, when a linear actuator is switched off, is prevented by Limit switches Electromagnetic brake Torque reaction ears Split field motor B 16ELECT/FIT In rotary actuators the break coil is connected in : Parallel to the armature Series parallel to the armature Series with the armature Parallel to the field winding C

16ELECT/FIT Intermittent electrical faults in an A/C can be effectively located and rectified by : Operating faulty system in air Using continuity and insulation tester Replacing entire wiring system Simulating conditions of systematic vibration D 16ELECT/FIT In a primary cell, the complete impurity cell formed, consists of : Zinc as +ve, impurity as -ve and H2SO4 as electrolyte Zinc as -ve, impurities as +ve Copper as +ve, impurity as -ve. zinc as -ve, impurity as +ve and H2SO4 as electrolyte D 16ELECT/FIT In a simple cell, the formation of film of hydrogen during the chemical action Between the Zinc and the electrolyte is known as : Local action Polarisation Sulphation De-polarisation B 16ELECT/FIT The shelf life (storage ) of dry cells depends upon : Polarization Local action Its useful life Its capacity B 16ELECT/FIT In secondary cells discharge rate of current multiplied by 10 gives the : Capacity of the cell Nominal capacity of the cell Effective capacity of the cell Terminal voltage of the cell B 17ELECT/FIT If two or more cells are connected in series: Voltage will be same and capacity increases Voltage will be same and capacity decreases The total capacity will be same of single cell and voltage increases Capacity and voltage be same C 17ELECT/FIT In a lead acid cell internal short circuit is indicated by : Failure of SG to rise after charge to correct value. Excessive gassing on charge No gassing on charge or a low terminal voltage High voltage reading on charge. C 17ELECT/FIT A non return valve fitted in the air inlet of battery pressurization chamber used to: Escape of electrolyte Prevent fumes and gases escaping into aircraft Prevent thermal run-away Provide better connection B 17ELECT/FIT The main purpose of non spill vent plug in aircraft battery is to : Allow the gas to escape

Allow the electrolyte to escape Fill the electrolyte into the cell Add the water into electrolyte A 17ELECT/FIT The positive electrode of Dry cell is made of: Carbon Copper Zinc Platinum A 17ELECT/FIT Average EMF or Nominal voltage of an alkaline cell is: 2 Volts 2.7 Volts 1.7 Volts 1.2 Volts D 17ELECT/FIT Negative plate of Alkaline batteries are made of: Steel Spongy lead Nickel hydroxide Iron D 17ELECT/FIT After capacity test a lead acid battery should be given : Insulation test Routine charge Initial charge Rest for 12 hours B 17ELECT/FIT In Digital Capacity tester 400 counts is equal to:10 Ampere hour 5 Ampere hour 1 Ampere 2 Ampere C 17ELECT/FIT In heavy discharge cell tester, the value of resistance connected across the volt meter is 0.035 ohms 0.35 ohms 0.005 ohms 0.030 ohms A 18ELECT/FIT In Lead Acid batteries, the specific gravity of the electrolyte should be: 1.840 1.640 1.270 1.170 C 18ELECT/FIT During initial filling of Lead acid batteries, the level of electrolyte usually be:1/4 inch above separators 1/2 inch above separators 3/4 inch above separators 1 inch above separators A 18ELECT/FIT When the first insulation test on a wet silver zinc charged battery found low, action to be taken is:

Categorize Remove the cells and retest Charge the battery and retest Clean the cells with boric acid, dry ,assemble and retest D 18ELECT/FIT As a whole an atom is electrically neutral, due to : Equal Number of neutrons and electrons Equal and opposite charge of protons and neutrons Presence of valance electrons Equal and opposite charges of protons and electrons D 18ELECT/FIT In an atom the number of electron in an orbit is given by the formula: 1.6 X 10 to the power of -19 1.6 X 10 to the power of -18 1.6 X 10 to the power of -14 2n x n D 18ELECT/FIT Swamping is process of inserting a : High value resistance in series with the collector Low value resistance in series with the collector Low value resistance in series with the emitter High value resistance in series with the emittter D 18ELECT/FIT As a whole, an atom is electrically : Positively charged Negtively charged Neutral charged particle C 18ELECT/FIT The type of emission, in which amount of emitted electrons depends upon the intensity of the light radiation, is Thermionic emission secondary emission photo emission Field emission C 18ELECT/FIT Thoriated tungsten cathode is designed to work at : 5 to 10 volts 5 to 50 volts 50 to 500 volts (a) 500 to 5000 volts D 18ELECT/FIT The additional energy required by an electron to overcome the surface barrier of the metal is called : Electron emission Work function Thermionic emission Surface emission B 19ELECT/FIT The purpose of grid in a vacuum tube is to control the : Input voltage applied to cathode Input voltage applied to anode Flow of electrons between cathode and anode Flow of electrons from anode to cathode C

19ELECT/FIT Intensity of the light spot, in an ESCRT is controlled by : Focusing anode accelerating anode control grid electrostatic deflecting plates. C 19ELECT/FIT The main function of accelerating electrode in an ESCRT is to : Control intensity of light spot Eliminate highly divergent electrons Focusing the beam into a spot Deflecting the beam into the screen. B 19ELECT/FIT The focusing adjustment in an ESCRT is achieved by : varying first anode voltage varying second anode voltage varying grid voltage varying accelerating electrode. A 19ELECT/FIT The substance which have overlapping valance and conduction band are termed as : Semiconductors Insulators Conductors Di-electric C 19ELECT/FIT A PN junction diode can be formed by doping silicon with : Antimony and phosphorous Arsenic and antimony Boron and gallium Arsenic and indium D 19ELECT/FIT When silicon is doped with Arsenic, the type of semiconductor formed is : N type extrinsic P type extrinsic N type intrinsic P type intrinsic A 19ELECT/FIT In a lightly doped reverse biased PN junction diode, at break down voltage flooding occurs due to electric field causing collisions of charge carriers results in : Zener breakdown Transient current Avlanche breakdown Forward current C 19ELECT/FIT To obtain recombination current as well as larger collector current, a NPN transistor to be biased : Forward Forward Forward Reverse Reverse Forward Reverse Reverse B

19ELECT/FIT A medium in which an electric field can exist without creating a current or it is a non-conductor of electricity or insulator is called:Dielectric strength Breakdown voltage Breakdown in electric field Dielectric D 20ELECT/FIT The tetrode valve has the disadvantage of : Inter electrode capacitance Inter electrode inductance Shielding action of grid Kink effect at low plate potential D 20ELECT/FIT In pentode valve, suppressor grid is inserted between : Cathode and plate Plate and screen grid Cathode and screen grid Cathode and grid B 20ELECT/FIT The purpose of screen grid in a tetrode valve is to reduce inter electrode : Capacitance between anode and grid Capacitance between cathode and anode Inductance between cathode and grid Inductance between cathode and anode A 20ELECT/FIT The reduction in plate current with increasing plate voltage is called: Mutual characteristics Kink effect Amplification factor Power factor B 20ELECT/FIT For deflection of the electron beam around the center of the screen is obtained in an ESCRT, by applying the signal to : x-x plates Control grid Final anode y-y plates D 20ELECT/FIT The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor is known as :a Doping Mixing Biasing Super imposing A 20ELECT/FIT Barrier potential of silicon at 25 Deg C is: 0.7 V 0.5 V 0.3 V 0.03 V C 20ELECT/FIT An atom is said to be stable when its valance orbit contains : 16 electrons

8 Electrons 4 Electrons 2 Electrons B 20ELECT/FIT The inherent property of an atom is to : Attract another atom Stay as free atom Accelerate at high speed Achieve stable state D 20ELECT/FIT Barrier potential of Germanium at 25 Deg C is: 0.1 V 0.2 V 0.3 V 0.7 V C 21ELECT/FIT Barrier potential decreases with temperature at the rate of : 0.2 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp 0.02 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp 0.002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp 0.0002 V/Deg celsius rise above room temp C 21ELECT/FIT The purpose of suppressor grid in pentode valve is to : Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and grid Reduce inter electrode capacitance between cathode and anode Eliminate undesirable kink effect Eliminate electron cloud C 21ELECT/FIT The reverse current, when a PN junction diode is reverse biased, that drops to zero after thE depletion layer stops growing is known as : Surface leakage current Minority carrier current Transient current Reverse breakdown current C 21ELECT/FIT The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.2 V for a forward DC current of 100 mA , is equal to : 5 ohm 50 ohm 25 ohm 0.1 ohm A 21ELECT/FIT The knee voltage of a PN diode equals to: Barrier potential Applied voltage Cut-in voltage Breakdown voltage A 21ELECT/FIT In a reverse biased PN diode the point at which reverse current rises sharply is known as : Knee voltage Applied voltage Barrier potential

Reverse breakdown voltage D 21ELECT/FIT The value of bulk resistance of a silicon diode, when forward voltage drop is 1.5V at a forward DC current 2 A, is equal to 4 ohms 0.4 ohms 40 ohms 10 ohms B 21ELECT/FIT The purpose of filter circuit in rectifiers is to : Convert AC into DC convert DC into AC Convert pulsating AC into a steady DC Convert a pulsating DC into a steady DC D 21ELECT/FIT The heavily doped region in a transistor is : Base Emitter Collector Depletion layer B 21ELECT/FIT If an NPN transistor is Reverse Reverse biased (ie, emitter is reverse biased and collector reverse biased ), then the emitter and collector current will be : Zero Maximum Zero an maximum respectively Maximum and zero respectively A 22ELECT/FIT In an unbiased transistor, the width of emitter depletion layer when compared to the width of collector depletion layer is : Equal Smaller Larger and smaller respectively Larger B 22ELECT/FIT The minority carriers in a CE configurated NPN transistor collector region causes : Base current Emitter current Breakdown of transistor Leakage current D 22ELECT/FIT While analyzing the DC load line of a transistor, the point of intersection with the calculated base current is known as: Saturation point Cutoff point Quiescent point Breakdown point C 22ELECT/FIT The process of applying appropriate voltage to a transistor is called : Voltage regulation Forward biasing Biasing Reverse biasing C

22ELECT/FIT Connecting transistor in a circuit, whereby, the input is fed between common terminal and one of the other two and output is taken between common and one of the remaining terminal is called : Biasing Configuration Feed back Coupling B 22ELECT/FIT The method of biasing, in which gain reduces due to negative feedback is : Base bias Emitter feedback bias Collector feedback bias Voltage divider bias C 22ELECT/FIT A coupling capacitor connects : A grounded point to an un grounded point An ungrounded point to a grounded point A grounded point to another grounded point an ungrounded point another ungrounded point D 22ELECT/FIT A by pass capacitor connects : A grounded point to an ungrounded point An ungrounded point to a grounded point A grounded point to another grounded point An ungrounded point to another ungrounded point B 22ELECT/FIT Mingling of AC quantity with DC quantity during amplification of a signal avoided by the use of : Capacitor Resistor Inductor Thermister A 22ELECT/FIT One common feature of capacitors when used for coupling and bypass is that they : Block AC and short DC to ground Block DC and short AC to ground Improve current gain Are used only in output stage B 23ELECT/FIT A saturated SCR can turned off only by : Removing the gate pulse Reducing the gate trigger Increasing the gate trigger to saturation Reducing the load current below the holding current D 23ELECT/FIT In a common collector amplifier, output signal is taken from : Across the collector and earth Across the base and emitter Across the emitter resistor Across the collector and base C 23ELECT/FIT The phase difference of 180 Deg between the input signal voltage and output signal voltage in a common emitter amplifier is called : Amplification factor

Voltage reversal Phase reversal Current reversal C 23ELECT/FIT The small signal amplifiers are rated for a maximum power output of : 1/2 Watt 1 Watt 5 Watts 10 Watts A 23ELECT/FIT The main draw back of direct coupling is : Input impendence is very low Drift Output impendence is very high output impendence is very low B 23ELECT/FIT The maximum possible collector efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is: 15 % 25 % 45 % 50 % D 23ELECT/FIT The maximum possible overall efficiency of a class A amplifier with resistive load is : 10 % 25 % 50 % 75% B 23ELECT/FIT In Colpitts oscillators a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : Capacitors Inductance An auto-transformer Tank circuit A 23ELECT/FIT The Wien bridge oscillator is the most widely used oscillator for frequencies in the range o 5 HZ to 1 MHZ 15 HZ to 2.5 MHZ 20 HZ to 3 MHZ 30 HZ to 30 MHZ A 23ELECT/FIT The Q factor of a crystal circuit is in the order of : 5000 and above 10,000 and above 15,000 and above 20,000 and above S 24ELECT/FIT In Hartley oscillators, a phase shift of 180 Deg is achieved through : A tank circuit An inductance A capacitance

An auto-transformer S 24ELECT/FIT High energy ignition unit gives : 500 sparks/sec 60 sparks / sec 2 sparks / minute 60 sparks/ minute D 24ELECT/FIT In HFIU the gap between the ionizing electrode and one main electrode is 0.093" 0.001" 0.01" 0.039" C 24ELECT/FIT In HFIU the gap between the two main electrodes is 0.01" 0.001" 0.093" 0.93" C 24ELECT/FIT The purpose of choke in HEIU is to : Control duration of discharge Control input supply Control the circuit None of the above A 24ELECT/FIT The functional test on HFIU is carried out with an input voltage of : 24 V 12V 28V 16 V D 24ELECT/FIT The purpose of ignition in a/c is to : Provide air and fuel Ignite fuel and air mixture Control flow of air and fuel None of the above B 24ELECT/FIT Rotating magnet type magneto in one revolution produce 2 sparks 4 sparks 5 sparks 8 sparks B 24ELECT/FIT Armature reaction in aircraft alternators is determined by:Power factor and load current Load current only Phase difference Field excitation current A 24ELECT/FIT In three phase alternator synchronizing the phases are connected in the proper order of: RYB RBY

BYR YBR A 25ELECT/FIT In frequency wild generator the secondary winding of the compounding transformer are in Series with three phases of generator Series with compounding rectifier Parallel with three phases of generator Parallel with compounding rectifier B 25ELECT/FIT In aircraft rotary inverter, out put voltage can be varied by:Adjusting the series field rheostat Voltage regulator adjustment Increasing or decreasing current in series field and armature Adjusting shunt field rheostat D 25ELECT/FIT The speed and voltage of rotary inverter can be adjusted by a : Rheostat in the series field Trimmer in the equalizing field Rheostat in the shunt field Rheostat in the equalizing field. C 25ELECT/FIT In modern a/c generators during varying speed & load condition the effect of armature reaction is controlled by Interpoles Interpoles & shifting of brushes Compensating windings Interpoles and compensating windings D 25ELECT/FIT The field magnets and armature core in a generator are made of lamination to minimize the effect of:Eddy current Commutation Sparking at the brushes Hysterisis loss A 25ELECT/FIT The magnetic field in DC generator is provided by the field system consisting of:Field magnet and current Field coil and magnet Yoke and armature Armature and voltage B 25ELECT/FIT Lap winding is used in the armature for:High current and low voltage High voltage and low current High voltage and high current Low voltage and low current A 25ELECT/FIT The distance measured in terms of armature slots between the two sides of the coil is known as:Front pitch Coil span Pole pitch

Back pitch B 25ELECT/FIT Wave winding is used in the armature for:High current and low voltage High voltage and low current High voltage and high current Low current and low voltage B 25ELECT/FIT Auxiliary power unit supplies power in the event of : TRU failure Generator failure Engine failure None of the above B 26ELECT/FIT Cooling centrifugal fan fitted at driving end of a DC generator is meant for heat dissipation when generator is not running to assist slip stream air flow during flight to cool generator during ground run to facilitate bench testing C 26ELECT/FIT The starter generator will run at its optimum efficiency if it is: run at maximum operating speed run at 30% total load current Provided with additional interpole to counteract the voltage Provided with slip stream cooling system D 26ELECT/FIT The purpose of bi-metal ring in armature of carbon pile voltage regulator is to:Provide compensation for variation in temperature Dissipate the heat Connect the pile into the field circuit Enable the core to be locked in position A 26ELECT/FIT Trimmer resistance in voltage regulator is used:to increase the current to raise the voltage for dip setting for minor setting of voltage in aircraft D 26ELECT/FIT The zener diode in solid state voltage regulator is used to Amplify the output in the emitter circuit of TR3 Control the initial current to the base of TR2 Switch on the transistor TR1 Establish the system operating voltage D 26ELECT/FIT In two coil method of stabilization, the series stabilizer coil is used to:Assist the shunt stabilizer coil Assist the main coil Oppose the shunt stabilizer coil Oppose the ballast resistance C 26ELECT/FIT The feed back resistance in a voltage regulator is connected in series with:-

Shunt field Ballast resistance Stabilizer coil Trimmer resistance C 26ELECT/FIT In negative feed back stabilization a fall in voltage creates a resultant flux that Assist the main coil flux Opposes the main coil flux Assist the stabilizing coil flux Opposes the stabilizing coil flux B 26ELECT/FIT In equalized voltage control system, equalizer coils are connected between:Negative of the two generators Positive and negative of generators Any set of positive brushes Negative brush ring of each generator D 26ELECT/FIT The definite drop to the voltage load characteristics of shunt generator in parallel op Decompounding coil Stabilizer resistance Shunt coil Equalizing coil A 27ELECT/FIT In compensated decompounding system, the main coil of voltage regulator is connected In series with master regulator carbon pile In series with main coil In parallel with master regulator carbon pile In parallel with M.R carbon pile A 27ELECT/FIT In master regulator system the carbon pile of master regulator is connected In series with the fields of parallel generators In series with operating coil of main regulators Across the operating coils In series with decompounding coil B 27ELECT/FIT When shunt generators are operated in parallel, the satisfactory distribution of fairly De compounding coil Main winding of individual regulators Equalizing coil Compensated de compounding of regulator D 27ELECT/FIT If the carbon pile regulator hunts on application of load, the possible cause can be Core screw is loose High resistance in piles Open circuit in feed back resistance Pile compression screw is out of adjustment D 27ELECT/FIT In Carbon pile voltage regulator, voltage setting is done by:Pile compression screw

Magnet core screw Pile screw Decompounding coil B 27ELECT/FIT In an aircraft, the generator voltage varies with load, the cause may be:Carbon pile electric circuit of regulator faulty Generator output low Regulator out of adjustment Regulated voltage too high C 27ELECT/FIT Operation of Fire extinguisher is categorized under:Essential services Non-essential services Vital services Allied services C 27ELECT/FIT In split bus bar system, when battery relay fails to close it contacts, this will result Essential AC consumers Vital DC consumers Charge the batteries Essential DC consumers C 27AF/Fit Paper-III Some electric motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions so that the Speed of the motor can be more closely controlled Power output of the motor can be more closely controlled Motor can be operated in either direction C Reversible DC motors have two sets of field windings wound in opposite directions. By using two sets of windings, the direction of the amature rotation can be reversed by the action of a switch. 27AF/Fit Paper-III One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of An out of round commutator A broken field lead A shorted armature C A growler test may be made of an armature to determine if any of the windings are shorted. 28AF/Fit Paper-III Electric wire terminals for most aircraft applications must be what type? Slotted Hook Rink C Most aircraft electrical wiring is terminated with ring type terminals rather than hook or slotted terminals. If the nut on the terminal stud should become loose, the ring type terminal will remain on the stud whereas a hook or slated terminal will slip off. 28AF/Fit Paper-III What is the principal advantage of the series-wound dc motor? High starting torque Suitable for constant speed use Low starting torque A One of the chief characteristics, or advantages of a series wound DC motor is its high starting torque. 28AF/Fit Paper-III If a generator is equipped wsith a vibrator type voltage regulator, the actual time the voltage regulator points remain open

Depends on the load carried by the generator is controlled by the reverse-current cutout relay point clearance is increased when the external load is greater than the generator output A The actual time the voltage-regulator points in a vibrator type voltage regulator remain open is determined by the amount of load being carried by the generator. When the load is great, the voltage drops and the points must remain closed longer to allow the voltage to rise. When the load is high, the voltage is high and the points remain closed a very short time. 28AF/Fit Paper-III What is a cause of generator brush arcing? Seating brushes with No. 000 standpaper carbon dust particles Low spring tension C Low spring tension on generator brushes could cause the brushes to bounce and arc. 28AF/Fit Paper-III When ac generators are operated in parallel, the amperes and frequency must both be equal frequency and voltage must both be equal amperes and voltage must both be equal B Before AC generators may be connected in parallel, it must be determined that the output voltage, the frequency and the phase rotation of all the generators are the same. 28AF/Fit Paper-III The starting current of a series-wound dc motor, in passing through both the field and armature windings, produces a low starting torque speed slightly lighter when unloaded high starting torque C A series wound DC motor has a very high starting torque because all of the current that passes through the armature also passes through the field. 28AF/Fit Paper-III Which motor would be most likely to have an armature brake? Starter motor Landing light refraction motor Inverter drive motor B A landing-light retraction motor is the most likely of the motors listed here to have an armature brake. The brake causes the armature to stop turning as soon as the switch is released. 28AF/Fit Paper-III The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of interpoles shaded poles drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field A Interpoles are used in large compound wound DC generators to overcome the effect of armature reaction. If armature reaction is not corrected, it will cause the brushes to arc under certain lead conditions. 28AF/Fit Paper-III The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the strength of magnetic field number of conductors in the armature speed at which the armature rotates A A constant generator output voltage is maintained under varying load and speed conditions by varying the strength of the magnetic field in the generator

28AF/Fit Paper-III The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc generator are a part of the armature assembly field assembly brush assembly B The pole pieces(pole shoes) in a DC generator are part of the field assembly. The pole pieces form a part of the magnetic circuit for the field. 29AF/Fit Paper-III how many cycles of ac voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving field type for each revolution of the rotor? four three six B Three cycles of alternating current are produced by a six-pole alternator for each revolution of the rotor. Each pair of poles produces one cycle of AC. 29AF/Fit Paper-III if the reverse current cutout relay contact . . . . . . . . . .to open after the generator output has dropped . . . . . Battery potential, current will flow through the . . . . . . . . . in the normal direction and through the shunt opposite the normal direction and the shunt field opposite the normal direction opposite the normal direction and through the . . . . Field in the normal direction C If the reverse-current cutout relay contacts fail to . . . . When the generator output drops below the battery potential, current will flow from the battery through the . . . . . . .. In the direction opposite its normal flow. Current will also flow through the shunt field but . . . . . . . Flow through the field coils in the normal direction of flow 29AF/Fit Paper-III How does the magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric motor armature operate? Centrifugal force releases a rotating brake cog from (.. . . . . Long answer , to be typed. . . ) a friction brake is applied by a magnet and released by a spring. a friction brake is applied by a spring and released by a magnet. C A magnetic brake used to stop rotation of an electric meter armature is applied by spring force and is released by an electromagnet energized when the meter is turned on. As soon as the motor is turned off, the spring applies the brake and stops the rotation of the armature. 29AF/Fit Paper-III In a generator, what eliminates any possible sparking to the brush guides caused by the movement of the brushes with the holder the brush pigtail brush spring tension undercutting the mica on the commutator A The brush pigail eliminates any possible sparking between the brush and the brush guide all of the current is carried from the brush into the holder through the pigtail rather than through the sliding contact made between the brush and the brush guide. 29AF/Fit Paper-III A series-wound dc electric motor will normally require more current at high RPM than at low RPM approximately the same current throughout its operating range of speed more current at low RPM than at high RPM C A series-wound DC motor produces an extremely high starting torque. It uses a large amount of current when it first starts to rotate and when it is operating at slow speed. The current drops off as the armature speed and the counter EMF builds up. 29AF/Fit Paper-III The type of electric wire terminals used for most aircraft applications, in addition to providing good current carrying

capabilities, are designed primarily to prevent circuit failure due to terminal disconnection for uncomplicated and rapid circuit connection and disconnection for permanent connection to the circuit A terminals used on aircraft electrical wires must safely carry all of the current the wire can carry. They must also be designed in such a way that they cannot cause a circuit failure by inadvertently disconnecting from the termination which they are installed. 29AF/Fit Paper-III Aluminium wire must be stripped very carefully because high resistance will develop in stripping nicks stripping nicks can cause short circuits individual strands will break easily after being nicked C Aluminium wire must be stripped very carefully, because if a strand is nicked, it will quite likely break. 29AF/Fit Paper-III The commutator of a generator changesdirectcurrentproducedinthearmature into alternating current as it is taken from the armature changes alternating current produced in the armatureintodirectcurrentasit is taken from the armature reverses the current in the field coils at the proper time in order to produce direct current B The commutator and the brushes used on a DC generator acts as a mechanical rectifier that changes the AC produced in the armature coils into DC before it leaves the generator 29AF/Fit Paper-III An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the . . . . . . . . . . . . .available for use total amperes being used in the airplane rate of current used to charge the battery C An ammeter in a battery charging circuit in an aircraft is used to indicate the rate of current that flows into or out of the battery. 29AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator? Reduce field strength overcome armature reactiong Reduce arcing at the brushes C Interpoles are used in high-output compound wound DC generators to counteract field distortion and to overcome armature reaction. Armature reaction causes arcing at the brushes. Interpoles do not reduce the field strength, they increase it. 30AF/Fit Paper-III To test generator or motor armature windings for opens place armature in a growler and connect a 110V test light on adjacent segments; light should light check adjacent segments on commutator with an ohmmeter on the high resistance scale use a 12/24V test light between the armature core segments and the shaft A A generator armature may be checked for an open winding by placing it on a growler and using the built-in 110Volt test lamp to test for continuuity between the individual segments. The lamp will light if the coil between the segments being checked is good. 30AF/Fit Paper-III What is the color and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes? left side-- green, right side-red, rear aft - white left side-- red, right side-green, rear aft - white left side-- white, right side-green, rear aft - red B Position lights for navigation on an aircraft are located on the wing tips and the tail. There is a red light on the left wing, a green light on the right wing and a white light on the tail that shines aft.

30AF/Fit Paper-III To what depth is the mica insulation between the commutator bars of a dc generator undercut? One-half the width of the mica Equal to twice the width of the mica Equal to the width of the mica C When a DC generator is overhauled, the commutator is turned on a lathe until it is perfectly round and smooth. After the commutator is turned, the mica separators between the commutator bars are undercut to approximately the width of the mica, or somewhere in the neightborhood of 0.02 inch. 30AF/Fit Paper-III A voltage regulator controls generator output by introducing a resistance in generator-to-battery lead in the event of overload shorting out field coil in the event of overload varying current flow to generator field coil C A voltage regulator controls generator output voltage by varying the amount of current allowed to flow in the generator field coil. 30AF/Fit Paper-III Which type of dc generator is not used as an airplane generator? Externally grounded Series wound compound wound B Series-wound DC generators are not used in aircraft electrical systems because of the difficulty in regulating and controlling the output voltage. 30AF/Fit Paper-III What is the most accurate type of frequency measuring instrument? Integrated circuit chip having a clock circuit Electrodynamometers using electromagnetic fields Electromagnets using one permanent magnet A The most accurate frequency measuring instruments in use today are digital instuments that contain integrated circuit chips and clock circuit. 30AF/Fit Paper-III During ground operation, aircraft generator cooling is usually accomplished by auxiliary air cooled through an air/fuel heat exchanger an integral fan an external motor-driven fan B When an aircraft is operating on the ground, the genrator is cooled by air pulled through its windings by an integral fan(a fan that is mounted on the armature shaft). 30AF/Fit Paper-III What does a rectifier do? Changes direct current into alternating current Changes alternating current into direct current Reduces voltage B A rectifier is an electrical device or circuit that allows electrons to pass in one direction but blocks them when they try to flow in the opposite direction. A rectifier changes alternating current into direct current. 30AF/Fit Paper-III What type of instrument is used for measuring very high values of resistance? Megohmmeter shunt type ohmmeter multimeter A A megohmmeter is a special type of ohmmeter used to measure very high values of resistance Many megohmmeters have their own high-voltage power supply built into them. 30AF/Fit Paper-III When a diode is checked for an open circuit or a short circuit, it should be

in the circuit checked with a milliamp ammeter disconnected from the circuit C When a seminconductor diode is checked for an open or a short circuit, it is removed from the circuit and its resistance is checked with an ohmmeter. The diode is good if it has a high resistance when checked in one direction and a low resistance when it is checked in the opposite direction. The diode is shorted it both readings are low, and it is open if both readings are high. 31AF/Fit Paper-III When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it has a full charge before removing it from the circuit has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit C A high voltage capacitor can store enough electrical charge to cause a dangerous shock when it is removed from the circuit. Before removing any high voltage capacitor, short across its terminals with an insulated handle screwdriver to fully discharge it. 31AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery? A high internal resistance condition Excessive current draw from the battery Constant current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity B Thermal runaway of a nickel cadmium battery occurs when some of the cells become excessively hot. The heat lowers both the voltage and the resistance so the cells can accept a high rate of charging current. This high current produces more heat and the battery can destroy itself. The termperature rise that triggers the thermal problems can come from heat generated by a fast discharge, from high ambient temperature, or from a breakdown of the separator material. 31AF/Fit Paper-III How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together? Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter the output voltage will be high the transformer will get hot in normal operation C If some of the windings in a transformer are shorted together, an excessive amount of current will flow in the windings and the transformer will get hot in normal operation. 31AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following are the major parts of a de motor? 1. Armature assembly. 2. Field assembly 3. Brush assembly 4. Commutator 5. Pole piece 6. Rheostat 7. End frame 1,2,3,7 2,3,4,5 3,5,6,7 A The major parts of a practical DC motor are the ammature assembly, the field assembly, the brush assembly, and the end frame. 31AF/Fit Paper-III 1. There are three basic types of dc motors; series shunt, and compound. 2. In the series motor, the field windings, consisting of relatively few turns of heavy wire,areconnectedinserieswiththearmaturewinding.

Regarding the above statements, only No. 1 is true only No. 2 is true both No. 1 and 2 are true C Statement 1 is true. There are three basic types of DC motors: series motors, shunt motors, and compound motors. Statement 2 is also true. In a series motor, the field windings, consisting of a relatively few turns of heavy wire, are connected in series with the armature winding. 31AF/Fit Paper-III For general electrical use in aircraft, the acceptable method of attaching a terminal to a wire is by crimping soldering crimping and soldering A Crimped terminals on an aircraft electrical wire transmit the tension and vibration loads from the wire into the terminal gradually and do not cause stress concentrations, as is done with a soldered connection. Soldered terminals are not considered satisfactory for aircraft wiring because vibration will likely cause them to break off of the wire. 31AF/Fit Paper-III Whichofthefollowingfactorsmustbetakenintoconsiderationwhen determiningthewiresizetouseforanaircraftinstallation? 1.Mechanicalstrength 2. Allowablepowerloss 3. Easeofinstallation 4.Resistanceofcurrentreturnpaththroughtheair(. . . contd..in explanation)2,5,6,7 1,2,4,5 2,4,6,7 A (. . . .contd. .. . .)aircraft structure. 5. Permissible voltage drop 6. Current carrying capability of the conductor 7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). When selecting the size wire to use in an aircraft electrical system, you must consider the allowable powe loss (the amount of electrical energy converted into heat), the permissible voltage drop, the current carrying ability of the wire, and the type of load (Continuous or intermittent) that is carried by the wire. 31AF/Fit Paper-III Whenselectinhardwareforattachingbondingconnectionstoanaircraftstructure,whichoft hefollowingshouldbeconsidered? 1MechanicalStrength2Allowablepowerloss3Easeofinstallation4Amountofcurrenttobecar ried6typeofload(continuous or intermittent) 1,3,5 4,5,6 1,2,3 A Hardware used for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure should be selected on the basis of mechanical strength, the amount of current to be carried, and the ease of installtion. 31AF/Fit Paper-III How should the splices be arranged if several are to be located in an electrical wire bundle? Staggered along the length of the bundle Grouped together to facilitate inspection Enclosed in a conduit A Splices of the individual wires in a wire bundle should be staggered so the bundle does not become excessively enlarged. 31AF/Fit Paper-III What is the minimum bend radii for an electrical wire bundle? Ten times the outside diameter of the bundle

Five times the outside diameter of the bundle Fifteen times the outside diameter of the bundle A Wire bundles should not be bent with a bend radius of less than 10 times the outside diameter of the bundle. 32AF/Fit Paper-III When approved, splices may be used to repair manufactured harnesses or installed wiring. The maximum number of splices permitted between any two connectors is one two three A There shall not be more than one splice in any one wire segment between any two connectors or other disconnect point unless it is specifically approved by the engineering department of the aircraft manufacturer. 32AF/Fit Paper-III AN/MS electrical connectors are specifically designed to meet Technical Standard Order (TSO) specification Military Specifications International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standards B Air Force Navy (AN) or Military Specifications (MS) electrical connnectors are specifically designed to meet military specifications. Components that meet these specifications are almost all approved for use in FAA certificated aircraft. 32AF/Fit Paper-III The most common method of attaching a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS electrical connector is by crimping soldering Crimping and soldering A For years the wires were connected into AN or MS connectors by soldering them into pots on the end of the pin or socket. A newer and far more common method of attachment to MS connectors is by crimping a tappered pin on the ed of the wire and inserting this pin into a tapered here in the back side of the pin or socket in the connector. 32AF/Fit Paper-III The pin section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on the power supply side of a circuit the ground side of a circuit either side of a circuit (makes no differenct) B The pin section of an AN/MS connector should be installed on the ground side of a circuit and the socket on the "hot" side. This arrangement minimizes the possibility of a short between a connector and ground when the connectors and separated. 32AF/Fit Paper-III The voltage output of an alternator may be regulated by controlling the Speed of the alternator voltage output of the de exciter resistance in the rotor windings B The voltage output of an AC alternator is determined by the amount of current flowing in its exciter field. The alternator output voltage may be controlled by varying the output voltage of the DC exciter. 32AF/Fit Paper-III If several long lengths of electrical cable are to be installed in rigid conduit, the possibility of damage to the cable as it is pulled through the conduit will be reduced by dusting the cable with powdered graphite dusting the cable with powdered soapstone applying a light coat of dielectric grease B Long lengths of electrical cable may be lubricated as they are slid into

either a rigid or a flexible conduit by dusting the cable and the inside of the conduit with powdered soapstone, tire talc or regular talcum powder. 32AF/Fit Paper-III Grounding is electrically connecting a conductive object the primary structure. One purpose of grounding is to prevent current return paths allow static charge accumulation prevent development of radio frequency potentials B The most reasonable choice is that electrically grounding a conductive object prevents the development of radio-frequency potential that causes static in a raio. Grounding actualy keeps all components at the same electrical potential, so there is no build up of static charges. Static charges cause sparks to jump and these sparks produce radio-frequency energy. 32AF/Fit Paper-III What is normally used to bond noncontinuous stainless steel aircraft components? Stainless steel jumpers copper jumpers Aluminium jumpers B Electronic action may rapidly corrode a bonding connection if suitable precautions are not taken. Copper jumpers may be safely used to bond together noncontinuous stainless steel components. 32AF/Fit Paper-III Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in volts ohms amperes C Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in amperes. 32AF/Fit Paper-III When adding a rheostat to a light circuit to control the light intensity, it should be connected in parallel with the light series with the light series parallel with the light switch B When installing rheostat in a light circuit to control the light intensity install it in series with the light. 33AF/Fit Paper-III Circuits that must be opened only in an emergency or whose inadvertent activation could endanger system frequently employ guarded switches push-pull type circuit breakers only (no switches) spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker switches A When it is important that an electrical switch not be inadvertently operated, it is normally installed with a guard over its operating handle. The guard requires a conscious effort to get to the switch to actuate it. 33AF/Fit Paper-III If one switch is used to control all navigation lights, the lights are most likely connected in series with each other and parallel to the switch in series with each other and in series with the switch parallel to each other and in series with the switch C If navigation lights on an aircraft are controlled by one switch, the lights are connected in parallel with each other and in series with the switch. 33AF/Fit Paper-III Oil canning of the sides of aluminium or steel electrical junction boxes is considered to be normal operation in vibration prone areas a shorting hazard acceptable operation B Oil canning is the condition of a piece of sheet metal that causes it to snap back and forth when it is distorted or vibrated. If the sides of an

electrical junction box oil-can, there is a possibility of some of the wires becoming shorted. 33AF/Fit Paper-III Electricl wiring installed in aircraft without special enclosing means (open wiring) offers the advantages of ease of installation, simple maintenance, and reduced weight. When bundling open wiring, the bundles should be limited as to the number of cables to minimize damage from a single electrical fault include at least one shielded cable to provide good bonding of the bundle to the airframe limitedtoaminimumbendradiusoflivetimesthebundlediametertoavoidexcessivestresseso nthecableinsulation A The number of wires run in a single bundle in an open wiring installation should be limited to minimize the damage that could result from a single electrical fault. 33AF/Fit Paper-III During inspection of the terminal strips of an aircraft electrical system, it should be determined that only locknuts have been used for terminal attachment to the studs the terminal studs are anchored against rotation only plain nuts and lockwashers have been used for terminal attachment to the studs B Studs used in terminal strips must be anchored to prevent their rotation. This anchoring is normally done by using a square end on the stud set into a square hole in the terminal strip. 33AF/Fit Paper-III What protection to wires and cables does conduit provide when used in aircraft installations? Electromagnetic Mechanical Structural B conduit is used to give mechanical protection to electrical wiring in an aircraft installation. 33AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following should be accomplished in the installation of aircraft wiring? Support the bundle to structure and/or solid fluid lines to prevent chafing damage Provide adequate slack in the wire bundle to compensate for large changes in temperature Locate the bundle above flammable fluid lines and securely clamp to structure C Any time a wiring bundle is installed in an aircraft in such a way that it passes through a compartment parallel to a fluid line carrying flammable fluids, the bundle should be routed above the fluid line, and it should be clamped securely to the aircraft structure. In no case should a wire be supported by a flammable fluid line. 33AF/Fit Paper-III If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is connected to the (-) terminal of the source voltage and the (-) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the meter is connected to the (+) terminal of the source voltage, the voltmeter will read Correctly Low voltage Backwards C If a voltmeter is connected into a circuit with the polarity reversed, the meter will read backwards. 33AF/Fit Paper-III When using the voltage drop method of checking circuit resistance, the input voltage must be maintained at a constant value output voltage must be maintained at a constant value input voltage must be varied A When using the voltage-drop method to check circuit resistance, the input voltage must be maintained at a constant value.

33AF/Fit Paper-III The nominal rating of electrical switches refer to continuous current rating with the cotnacts open voltage rating with the contacts closed current rating with the contacts closed C The nominal current rating of conventional aircraft switches is usually stamped on the switch housing. This rating represents the continuous current rating of the swtich with the contacts closed. 34AF/Fit Paper-III Aircraft electrical junction boxes located in a fire zone are usually constructed of asbestos cadmum plated steel stainless tell C A stainless steel junction box is recommended for installation in a fire zone. 34AF/Fit Paper-III To help minimize radio interference a capacitor will largely elilminate and provide a steady direct current if the capacitor is connected to the generator in parallel series series/parallel A The output of a DC generator normally has some AC hash, or noise, caused by brush arcing superimposed on it. This AC can cause radio interference, and it may be removed by connecting a capacitor between the armature and ground in parallel with the armature windings. The AC passes to ground through the low impedance path provided by the capacitor. 34AF/Fit Paper-III The primary considerations when selecting electric cable size are current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop the voltage and amperage of the load it must carry the system voltage and cable length A When selecting electrical cable size, you must consider both the current carrying capacity of the wire and the allowable voltage drop. 34AF/Fit Paper-III The navigation lights of some aircraft consist of a single circuit controlled by a single switch which has an ON position and an OFF position, with no additional positions possible. This switch is referred to as a double-pole, single-throw (DPST), two position switch Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), two position switch single-pole, single-throw (SPST), two position switch C A switch that controls a single circuit and has only an OFF and an ON position is referred to as a single pole, single throw (SPST), two-position switch. 34AF/Fit Paper-III Electric circuits are protected from overheating by means of thermocouples shunts fuses C Electrical circuits are protected from overheating by means of fuses or circuit breakers. 34AF/Fit Paper-III How does the routing of coaxial cables differ from the routing of electrical wirig? Coaxial cables are routed parallel with strigers or ribs Coaxial cables are routed at high agles to stringers or ribs Coaxial cables are routed as directly as possible C Generally speaking, coaxial cable, which must have as short a run as

possible, is allowed to be routed directly rather than being run parallel to or at right angles to stringers and ribs. 34AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following copper electrical cable sizes should be selected to replace a No. 6 aluminium electrical cable? No. 4 No. 6 No. 8 B The gene. . . . . .. . . . For replacing aluminium electrical . . . . .with copper of two wire gages smaller (larger number) may be used to replace aluminium. This rule does not hold in this instance. According to the current-carrying capacity charts in Figures 11.5 and 11.6 on page 180 of AC 43, 13-1A:A-6-gage aluminium electrical cable is rated at 83 amps in free air and 50 amps in a bundle or conduit, and an 8 gage copper electrical cable in free air is rated at only 73 amps and 46 amps in a bu 34AF/Fit Paper-III In Installations where the ammeter isinthegeneratororalternatorlead, and the regulator system does not limit the maximum current that the generatoror alternator can deliver,the ammeter can be redlined a twhat percent of the generator or alternator rating?50 75 100 C According to AC 43, 13-1A, paragraph 426(c), on page 175, in installations where the ammeter is in the generator or alternator lead, and the regulator system does not limit the maximum current the generator or alternator can deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at 100% of the generator or alternator rating. 34AF/Fit Paper-III Which statement relating to electric wiring is true? Whenattachingaterminaltotheendofanelectriccable,itshouldbedeterminedthatthestren gthofthecabletoterminaljointisatleasttwicethetensilestrengthofthecable --- same upto -- to terminal joint is at least equal to the tensile strength of the cable itself all electric cable splices should be covered with soft insulating tubing (spaghetti) for mechanical protection against external abrasion. B The tensile strength of the wire to terminal joint should be at least equivalent to the tensile strength of the wire itself. The resistance of the joint should be negligible, relative to the normal resistance of the wire. 34AF/Fit Paper-III Bonding connections should be tested for resistance value. amperage value reactance A A bonding connection must be installed in such a manner that the resistance of each connection does not exceed 0.003 ohm. 35AF/Fit Paper-III what kind of switch should you install in a single wire circuit that required the switch to be manually held in the ON position? single-pole, single-throw(SPST), two-position normally open (NO) single-pole, single-throw (SPST), single-position Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), single-position normally open (NO) A A switch used in a single-wire circuit that requires the switch to be manually held in the closed, or ON, position is a single-pole, single-throw, normally open switch. 35AF/Fit Paper-III A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible circuit and should be located as close to the unit as possible electrical unit in the circuit and should be located as close to the source as possible A A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the circuit. It is installed as close to the source as is possible.

Circuit breakers are usually mounted directly on the main bus. 35AF/Fit Paper-III How should a voltmeter be connected? In series with the source In parallel with the load In series with the load. B In order for a voltmeter to read the voltage drop across the load, it must be connected in parallel with the load. 35AF/Fit Paper-III A circuit protection deice called a current limiter is essentially a slow-blow fuse and is designed to be used in 400 cycle AC circuits heavy power circuits starter-generator circuits B A current limiter, such as is used in the armature circuit of a highcurrent DC generator, is a form of slow-blow fuse that will accept a surge of current greater than the generator rating. But if there is a continual flow of current in excess of the generator rating, it will open the armature circuit and remove the generator from the system. These current limiters cannot normally be replaced in flight. The current limiter for a small, low current generator is a variable resistor in the field c 35AF/Fit Paper-III If it is necessary to use an electrical connector where it may be exposed to moisture, the mechanic should coat the connector with grease use a special moisture-proof type spray the connector with varnish or zinc-chromate B When electrical connectors are exposed to moisture, a special moisture proof-type connector should be used. 35AF/Fit Paper-III The three kinds of circuit-protection devices used most commonly in aircraft circuits are circuit breakers, resistors and current limiters circuit breakers, fuses and current limiters circuit breakers, capacitors and current limiter plug-ins mechanical reset types B The three most commonly used circuit-protection devices are circuit breakers, fuses and current limiters. Circuit breakers and fuses protect the wiring in the load circuits of the aircraft and are accessible to the pilot in flight. Current limiters, a form of slow-blow fuse in the generator output circuit are not available for replacement in flight. 35AF/Fit Paper-III If a wire is installed so that it comes in contact with some moving parts, what protection should be given the wire? Wrap with soft wire solder into a shield Wrap with friction tape Pass through conduit C Anytime an electrical cable, a wire bundle, or an individual wire comes into contact with some moving part of the aircraft, the wire must be protected by passing it through conduit. 35AF/Fit Paper-III In the American Wire Gauge (AWG) system of numbers used to designate electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to a size is related to its combined resistance and current-carrying capacity. current carrying capacity cross sectional area C The American Wire Gauge (AWG) system is used to indicate the size of electrical wire. The AWG number relates to the diameter of the wire, and therefore to its cross-sectional area. There is no direct correlation between the AWG number of a wire and its area, but the larger the number, the smaller the wire size.

35AF/Fit Paper-III What is the allowable voltage drop for a No. 18 copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 amperes, continuous operation? Use the formula VD = RLA VD=Voltage drop R = Resistance per ft =0.00644 L=Length of wire A=Amperes 1/2 V 1 V 4 V C Using the formula given with this question, we find that the voltage drop in an 18 gauge copper wire, 50 feet long, carrying 12.5 amps, is 4.025 volts. VD= RLA = 0.00644 . 50 . 12.5 = 4.025 volts 35AF/Fit Paper-III What is the purpose of the selection of derated switches for known continuous load current applications? To calculate the voltage drop across the circuit To prevent short circuits in the motor field windings To obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life C Electrical switches must be derated when they are used with certain types of electrical loads. These loads either have an abnormally high current inflow when the switch is first closed, or else they have extremely high voltage from an induced load when the switch is opened. The use of derated switches is important to obtain reasonable switch efficiency and service life. 36AF/Fit Paper-III What is the advantage of a circuit breaker when compared to a fuse? Never needs replacing Always eliminates the need of a switch Resettable and reusable C A circuit breaker is resettable and reusable, whereas a fuse, once it is blown, must be replaced with a new one. 36AF/Fit Paper-III What is the advantage of a current limiter? It breaks circuit quickly It can be reset easily It will take overload for a short period C A current limiter is a type of slow-blow that will take a momentarily high overload of current but will open the circuit under a sustained overload in excess of its rating. 36AF/Fit Paper-III Where electric cables must pass through holes in bulkhoads, formers, ribs, firewalls, etc. the wires should be protected from chafing by wrapping with electrical tape using a rubber grommet wrapping with plastic B When an electrical cable must pass through a hole in a metal structure, the edges of the hole are covered with a rubber grommet to keep the metal from cutting or chafing the wire. The cable should be attached to the structure with a clamp that holds it centered in the hole. 36AF/Fit Paper-III In aircraft electrical systems, automatic reset circuit breakers should not be used as circuit protective devices are useful where only temporary overloads are normally encountered must be used in all circuits essential to safe operation of the aircraft

A FAR23 1357 states that each resettable circuit protective device must be so designed that a manual operation is required to restore service after tripping. 36AF/Fit Paper-III A certain switch is described as a single-pole, double throw switch (SPDT). The throw of a switch indicates the number of circuits each pole can complete through the switch terminals at which current can enter or leave the switch places at which the operating device (toggle, plunger etc.) will come to rest and at the same time open or close a circuit A The throws of a switch indicate the number of circuits, or paths for current, the switch can select for each of its poles. An SPDT switch can select either of two paths. 36AF/Fit Paper-III When considering an alteration, the criteria upon which the selection of electric cable size should be based are applied voltage ad allowable voltage drop current carrying capacity and allowable voltage drop current carrying capacity and applied voltage B When wire size is selected for an alteration of an aircraft electrical system, both the current carrying capacity of the wire and the allowable voltage drop for the length of the wire must be considered. 36AF/Fit Paper-III What is an important factor in selecting aircarft fuses? The current exceeds a predetermined value. The voltage rating should be lower than the maximum circuit voltage Capacity matches the needs of the circuit. C It is important when aircraft fuses are selected that all the current ratings are appropriate for the circuit protection required. The aircraft service manual specifies the current ratings to be used. 36AF/Fit Paper-III The circuit breaker in the instrument lighting system protects the lights from too much current wiring from too much current wiring from too much voltage B A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft electrical system primarily to protect the wiring from too much current. Circuit breakers are installed as close to the source of electrical power as is practical, usually on the main bus. 36AF/Fit Paper-III One advantage of using ac electrical power in aircraft is that ac electrical motors can be reveresed while dc motors cannot greater ease in stepping the voltage up or down that the effective voltage is 1.41 times the maximum instantaneous voltage; therefore, less power input is required. B One advantage of using AC electrical power in aircraft is the ease with which the voltage may be increased or decreased. Passing alternating current through a transformer changes its voltage. 36AF/Fit Paper-III Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated? To reduce the core reluctance To increase the core permeability To reduce the effects of eddy currents C The iron cores used in most induction coils, transmers and motors are made of laminated soft iron. The thin laminations reduce the losses caused by eddy currents flowing in the iron. 37AF/Fit Paper-III Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical power for all normal operation and battery furnished dc electrical power for standby emergency use. In aircraft of this type that operate no dc generators, the batteries are kept charged by inverters which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power alternators which use the aircraft's generators as a source of power

rectifiers which use the aircraft's ac generators as a source of power C Large aircraft that use AC for normal electrical operation often use battery-furnished DC for standby use. These systems use transformers to reduce the voltage and rectifiers to change the alternating current into direct current to keep the batteries charged. 37AF/Fit Paper-III The voltage in an ac transformer secondary that contains twice as many loops as the primary will be greater and amperage less than in the primary greater and the amperage greater than in the primary. less and the amperage greater than in the primary A A transformer that contains twice as many turns (loops) in the secondary winding as there are turns in the primary winding will have a secondary voltage that is twice the voltage in the primary. The current in the secondary will be only one half the current in the primary. 37AF/Fit Paper-III If the positive field lead between a generator and a generator control panel breaks and is shorted while the engine is running, a voltmeter connected to generator output would indicate zero voltage residual voltage normal voltage B If the positive field lead between a generator and its control panel or voltage regulator breaks and shorts to ground while the engine is running, the generator can produce only residual voltage. With both ends of the field at ground potential there can be no field current. The only magnetic field for the armature windings to cut is that caused by the permanent magnetism in the generator field frame. Permanent magnetism in the field frame produces residual voltage, which is somewhere between 37AF/Fit Paper-III What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism? Flash the fields. Reseat the brushes Energize the armature A Residual magnetism may be restored to a generator by flashing its field. To flash the field, momentarily pass direct current from the battery through the generator field coils in the normal direction of current flow. 37AF/Fit Paper-III The major advantages of alternating current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the fact that its current and voltage can easily be increased or decreased by means of a inverter by means of a rectifier by means of a transformer C Alternating current may have its voltage changed to any other value of AC by the use of a transformer. A transformer does not change the power of the AC, but when the voltage is increased, the current will correspondingly decrease. 37AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following must be accomplished when installing an anticollision light? Install a switch independent of the position light switch Use shielded electrical cable to assure fail safe operation Connect the anticollision light to the aircraft position A When installing an anticollision light, you must use a switch that is independent of the position-light switch. 37AF/Fit Paper-III The inductor-type inverter output voltage is controlled by the

number of poles and the speed of the motor voltage regulator dc stator field current C An inductor-type inverter uses a rotor made of soft iron laminations. Grooves are cut laterally across the surface of the rotor to provide poles that correspond to the stator poles. The voltage produced by an inductor type inverter is controlled by the DC stator field current. 37AF/Fit Paper-III When using an ohmmeter to check the continuity of a generator field coil, the coil should be removed from the generator housing. show high resistance when the meter prods are connected to the terminals of the coil show very low resistance if it is a series field coil C Series field coils are wound of relatively few turns of heavy wire and have a very low resistance. All of the generator output current flows through them. 37AF/Fit Paper-III The strength of the core of an electromagnet depends upon the material from which it is constructed and which of the folllowing? The number of turns of wire in the coil and the applied voltage the number of turns of wire in the coil and the amount of current(ampere) passing through the coil. The size (cross section) and the number of turns of wire in the coil and the applied voltage. B The strength of an electromagnet depends upon the material used for the core, the number of turns of wire in the coil, and the amount of current flowing through the coil. 37AF/Fit Paper-III A voltage regulator controls generator voltage by changing the resistance in the generator output circuit current in the generator output circuit resistance of the generator field circuit C A voltage regulator controls generator output voltage by varying the resistance of the generator field circuit. This may be done by using a carbon-pile voltage regulator, a vibrator-type voltage regulator, or a transistor voltage regulator. The resistance in the field circuit determines the amount of field current allowed to flow. 38AF/Fit Paper-III The overvoltage control automatically protects the generator system when excessive voltage is present by opening the shunt field circuit opening and resetting the field control relay breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the field control relay A An overvoltage control protects a generator system when there is excessive voltage in the system. The overvoltage control opens the generator shunt field circuit to reduce the output voltage. 38AF/Fit Paper-III When dc generators are operated in parallel to supply power for a single lead, their controls include an equalizer circuit to assure that all generators share the load equally. The equalizer circuit operates by .. . . . . . . . . . . . . . Output of the low generator to equal the output of the high generator decreasing the output of the high generator to equal the output of the low generator increasing the output of the low generator and decreasing the output of the high generator until they are equal C An equalizer circuit in a multiengine DC generator system maintains an equal sharing of the load between all of the generators.

When the load is shared unequally, the output voltage of the low generator is increased, and the output voltage of the high generator is decreased. 38AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following is considered to be an intermittent duty circuit? Anticollision light circuit Landing light circuit Instrument panel light circuit B A landing light circuit is an intermitted-duty circuit. The other circuits listed in the alternatives are continuous-duty circuits that must operate during the entire flight. 38AF/Fit Paper-III The most common method of regulating the voltage output of a compound dc generator is to vary the current flowing through the shunt field coils total effective field strength by changing the reluctance of the magnetic circuit resistance of the series field circuit A The most common method of regulating the output voltage of a compound DC generator is by varying the current flow through the shunt field coils. 38AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Figure 18) Which of the batteries are connected together incorrectly? 1 2 3 C The batteries in 1 are connected correctly in a series circuit. The batteries in 2 are connected correctly in a parallel circuit. The batteries in 3 are connected incorrectly in a parallel circuit. The polarity of the center battery is reversed and it will act as a short circuit across the other two batteries. 38AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Figure 19) Upon completion of the landing gear extension cycle, the green light illuminated and the red light remained lit. What is the probable cause? Short in the down limit switch Short in the gear safety switch Short in the up limit switch C In order for the red light to remain on when the landing gear is down and locked, there must be a short in the up-limit switch that keeps wire 19 electrically connected to wire 8. This keeps power supplied to the red light. 38AF/Fit Paper-III If any one generator in a 24 volt dc system shows low voltage, the most likely cause is an out-of-adjustment voltage regulator shorted or grounded wiring a defective reverse current cutout relay. A One generator in a 24 volt DC system produces too low in voltage, the most logical cause would be an out-of-adjustment voltage regulator. 38AF/Fit Paper-III How can the direction of rotation of a dc electric motor be changed? Interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings Rotate the positive brush one commutator segment B The direction of rotation of a DC motor may be changed by reversing the connection to either the field or the armature winding, but not to both of them. 38AF/Fit Paper-III Aircraft which operate only ac generators (alternators) as a primary source of electrical power normally provide current suitable for battery changing through the use of a stepdown transformer and a rectifier an inverter and voltage dropping resistor a dynamotor with a hall-wave dc output

A Aircraft that use AC generators as the primary source of electrical power usually have a TR (transformer-rectifier) unit to provide direct current where it is needed. 38AF/Fit Paper-III During inspection of an anticollision light installation for condition and proper operation, it should be determined that electrical or mechanical interconnections are provided so thattheanticollisionlightwilloperateatalltimesthatthepositionlightswitchisintheO Nposition an appropriately rated fuse is in position at the light to protect the connecting wiring against electrical faultsw the anticollision light can be operated independently of the position lights. C An anti-collision light must be installed so that it can be operated independently of the position lights. 39AF/Fit Paper-III Major adjustments on equipment such as regulators, contactors and inverters are best accomplished outside the airplane on test benches with necessary instruments and equipment. Adjustment procedure should be as outlined by the equipment manufacturer the FAA aircraft technical orders A Any major adjustments on electrical equipment must be done in direct compliance with the equipment manufacturer's maintenance recommendations. 39AF/Fit Paper-III A battery-generator system provides direct current. On installations requiring alternating current from the battery-generator system, it is necessary to have a transformer an inverter a variable resistor between the battery and generator B An inverter is a device that converts direct current into alternating current. 39AF/Fit Paper-III A relay is a magnetically operated switch a device which converts electrical energy to kinetic energy any conductor which receives electrical energy and passes it on with little or no resistance A A relay is a magnetically operated electrical switch. 39AF/Fit Paper-III the purpose of a rectifier in an electrical system is to change the frequency of alternating current direct current to alternating current alternating current to diret current C A rectifier is an electrical check valve that allows electrons to flow in one direction only. A rectifier is used to change alternating current into direct current. 39AF/Fit Paper-III What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a transformer designed to triple its input voltage? Primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary Primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary Primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary A If a transformer has a three-to-one (3:1) step-up ratio, the secondary winding will have three times as many turns as the primary winding. The secondary voltage will be three times the primary voltage. 39AF/Fit Paper-III In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag, which is true? Real power is zero Real power is greater than apparent power Real power equals apparent power.

C In an AC circuit that has no phase lead or lag, the power factor is one (100%). All of the current is in phase with the voltage. The real power is equal to the apparent power. 39AF/Fit Paper-III How are generators rated? Watts at rated voltage Amperes at rated voltage The impedance at rated voltage B Generators are rated according to the current they can produce at their rather voltage. 39AF/Fit Paper-III How is a shunt wound dc generator connected? One field is shunted across the other Both fields are shunted across the armature The field and armature are shunted with a capacitor B This question assumes the generator has two field poles and two field coils. The two field coils are connected together in series and the two coils are shunted across (connected in parallel with) the armature. 39AF/Fit Paper-III The poles of a generator are laminated to reduce flux losses increase flux concentration reduce eddy current losses C The pole shoes of a generator are usually made of laminated soft iron to reduce the eddy current losses. Eddy currents produce heat and are a source of power loss in the generator. 39AF/Fit Paper-III What is the frequency of an alternator dependent upon? Voltage RPM Current B The frequency of the alternating current produced by an aircraft alternator is dependent upon the speed (RPM) of the alternator. 40AF/Fit Paper-III The generator rating is usually found stamped on the firewall generator engine B The current rating of a generator is usually stamped on the generator nameplate. If the rating is not on the nameplate, it may be found in the generator specifications by referring to the part number of the generator, which is stamped on the nameplate. 40AF/Fit Paper-III Residual voltage is a result of magnetism in the field windings field shoes armature B Residual voltage produced by a generator when no current is flowing through the field coils is produced by the permanent magnetism in the field shoes of the generator. 40AF/Fit Paper-III In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if an ohmmeter is properly connected across a circuit component and some value of resistance is read the component has continuity and is open either the component or the circuit is shorted the component has continuity and is not open C If the ohmmeter is connected correctly and indicates some value of resistance, current is flowing through the component and it has continuity. It is not open.

40AF/Fit Paper-III CSD driven generators are usually cooled by oil spray an integral fan both ram air and an integral fan A An AC generator that is built integral with the constant speed drive is cooled by an oil spray delivered by the CSD section. The oil used in cooling is held in a reservoir in the CSD. 40AF/Fit Paper-III A CSD unit drives a generator through the use of a synchronous electric motor an infinitely variable mechanical gearing system a variable hydraulic pump and hydraulic motor C AC generator speed is held constant as the engine speed varies by a constant speed drive unit. A variable delivery hydraulic pump supplies fluid to a hydraulic motor. The ratio of the speed between the input and output of the CSD is varied to maintain a constant generator speed by controlling the pressure of the fluid that is delivered to the motor. 40AF/Fit Paper-III Integrated drive generator must be replaced if the KVA has been exceeded by 10% the unit has an overspeed of 10% of its design operational speed the pressure differential button is extended. B An IDG consists of a brushless AC generator and a constant speed drive in a single housing. The frequency of the AC is determined by the generator speed, and the CSD holds the generator speed constant at 12,000 RPM through the normal operating range of the engine. If the CSD should fail and allow the generator to overspeed, the IDG must be replaced. 40AF/Fit Paper-III If the IDG scavenge oil filter is contaminated with chunks or pieces of metal change the oil at 25 hour intervals remove and replace the IDG replace athe oil and filter at 25 hour intervals B An integrated drive generator (IDG) has its own integram lubrication system. Contamination of the IDG scavenge oil filter with chunks or pieces of metal indicates a mechanical failure in the IDG and the IDG must be removed and replaced. 40AF/Fit Paper-III When necessary during operation, CSD disconnect is usually accomplished by a switch in the cockpit circuit breaker activation a shear section in the input shaft A Constant speed drive units are equipped with an electrically actuated disconnect that is controlled manually by a switch in the cockpit or automatically by the generator control unit. The disconnect is actuated in the event of certain types of generator malfunctions. 40AF/Fit Paper-III A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight, due to a malfunction such as overtemperature, may be reconnected automatically if the temperature falls back into the normal operating range manually by the flightcrew only on the ground by maintenance personnel C Some jet transport aircraft that use AC as the primary electrical power have a switch on the flight engineer's panel that allows the constant speed drive (CSD) unit to be disconnected in flight, if there is a malfunction such as an excessively high generator drive oil temperature. The CSD unit can be reconnected only by maintenance personnel when the aircraft is on the ground.

40AF/Fit Paper-III The purpose of antiskid generators is to monitor hydraulic pressure applied to brakes indicate when a tire skid occurs measure wheel rotational speed and any speed changes C Antiskid generators are mounted in the wheel hubs, and they produce a signal whose frequency is proportional to the wheel rotational speed. This signal is sent into a computer where its rate of frequency change is compared with an allowable rate-of-change. If the rate is too fast, it signals that a skid is impending. 41AF/Fit Paper-III In a brake antiskid system, when an approaching skid is sensed, an electrical signal is sent to the skid control valve which acts as a bypass for the debooster cylinders relieves the hydraulic pressure on the brake equalizes the hydraulic pressure in adjacent brake B If the antiskid computer senses that one wheel is decelerating fast enough to indicate an impending skid, it sends a signal to the skid control valve for that wheel. The skid control valve relieves hydraulic pressure from that brake untill the rate of deceleration for its wheel is no longer excessive. 41AF/Fit Paper-III An antiskid system is a hydraulic system an electrohydraulic system an electrical system B An antiskid system is an electrohydraulic system. It uses an electrical signal to actuate a hydraulic valve in the brake system. 41AF/Fit Paper-III Antiskid braking systems are generally armed by a centrifugal switch a switch in the cockpit the rotation of the wheels above a certain speed B A brake antiskid system is armed by placing the arming switch in the ARMED position. This releases the brakes and initiates the locked wheel protection circuit. The armed antiskid system will not allow the brakes to be applied untill the weight of the aircraft is on the wheels and the wheels have reached a rotational speed of more than 15 to 20 MPH. 41AF/Fit Paper-III A typical takeoff warning indication system, in addition to throttle setting, monitors the position of which of the following? Alierons, elevators, speed brake and steerable fuselage landing gear. Elevators, speed brake, flaps and stablizer trim Aerodynamically actuated slats, elevators, flaps and speed brake B A takeoff warning indicator system senses a number of items, and if any of them are not in the correct configuration for takeoff when the throttle for engine No. 3 is advanced for takeoff, an aural warning will sound to inform the pilot of the problem. The items sensed are: -- elevator or stabilizer trim in the takeoff range -- speed brake (spoilers) handle in the 0 degree position -- steerable fuselage landing gear is centered -- wing flaps are at 10 degree -- leading edge flaps are extended. 41AF/Fit Paper-III The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by an 80 knot airspeed sensor an ignition system switch not set for takeoff a thrust lever C The takeoff warning system is actuated by a switch on the power lever (thrust lever).

If any of the monitored flight controls are not properly set for takeoff, when the thrust lover is advanced, a warning will sound. 41AF/Fit Paper-III (1)An airspeed indicator measures the differential between pilot and static airpressuressurroundingtheaircraftatanymomentofflight. (2)Anairspeedindicatormeasuresthedifferentialbetweenpilotandcabinairpressuresata ny offlight. Regarding the above statements,both No. 1 and No. 2 are true only No. 2 is true only No. 1 is true C Statement (1) is true. An airspeed indicator is a differential pressure gauge that measures the difference between ram(pilot) pressure and the static pressure surrounding the aircraft. Statement (2) is not true. An airspeed indicator does not measure the difference between pilot pressure and cabin air pressure. 41AF/Fit Paper-III The angle-of-attach detector operates from differential pressure when the airstream is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft is not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft is parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft B The angle-of-attack indicating system consists of an airstream-direction detector mounted on the side of the fuselage and an indicator mounted in the instrument panel. The airstream direction defector contains a sensing element that measures the direction of the local airflow relative to the true angle of attack. It makes this measurement by finding the angular difference between the direction of the local airflow and the fuselage reference plane. 41AF/Fit Paper-III (1)Whenanairplaneisslowedbelowapproximately20MPH,theantiskidsystemautomaticallyd eactivatestogivethepilotfullcontrolofthebrakesformaneuveringandparking2)Anantisk idsystemconsistsbasicallyofthreecomponents;wheelspeedsensors,controlboxandcontro lvalves(contd only no 1 is true only no 2 is true both no 1 and no 2 are true C cont'd. . . Regarding the above statements. Statement (1) is true. When all of the wheels are turning at less than 20 miles per hour, the locked-wheel arming circuit becomes inoperative, giving the pilot full braking action for low-speed taxing and parking. Statement (2) is also true. An antiskid system consists basically of three components; the wheel speed sensors, the control box and the control valves. 41AF/Fit Paper-III In an antiskid system, wheel skid is detected by an electrical sensor a discriminator a sudden rise in brake pressure A A wheel skid is detected by the electrical wheel speed sensor in the wheel hub. If the wheel slows down faster than it should, the sensor sends a signal to the control box, and the hydraulic pressure on the brake in that wheel is released. 41AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following functions does a skid control system perform? 1. Normal skid control. 2. Normal braking. 3. Fail safe protection. 4. Locked wheel skid control 5. Touchdown protection 6. Takeoff protection. 1,2,3,4 1,3,4,5

1,2,5,6 B The skid control system performs four functions normal skid control, locked-wheel skid control, touchdown protection and fail safe protection. 42AF/Fit Paper-III In the air with the antiskid armed, current cannot flow in the antiskid control box because landing gear squat switch is open landing gear down and lock switch is open landing gear antiskid valves are open A An aircraft with an antiskid system cannot land with the brakes applied even if the brake pedals are depressed. When the aircraft is airborne the landing gear squat switch causes the antiskid control box to prevent fluid reaching the brakes. 42AF/Fit Paper-III At what point in the landing operation does normal skid control perform its function? when wheel rotation deceleration indicates an impending skid When wheel rotation indicates hydroplaning condition anytime the wheel is rotating A Normal skid control comes into play when any wheel decelerates at a rate that indicates an impending skid. 42AF/Fit Paper-III (1)An antiskid system is designed to apply enough force to operate just below the skid point. (2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit when the antiskid system is turned off or if there is a system failure. Regarding the above statements, only No. 1 is true only No. 2 is true both No. 1 and No. 2 are true C Statement (1) is true. An antiskid system is designed to apply the correct amount of force to operate the wheel just below the skid point. This gives the most effective braking. Statement (2) is also true. A warning lamp lights when the system is turned off or when there is a system failure. 42AF/Fit Paper-III When an airplane's primary flight control surfaces are set for a particular phase of flight, such as landing or takeoff, the corresponding control-surface indicating system will show flap/slat position speed break position trim position C The control surface indicating system used in some aircraft notes the position of the primary flight control surface and shows whether or not the trim tab is set properly for the existing flight condition. 42AF/Fit Paper-III The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some flight aircraft in activated by static air pressure positive air pressure negative air pressure C Reed-type stall warning indicators used in some of the small general aviation aircraft are actuated when the angle of attack is increased to the position at which there is a negative pressure at the pickup hole in the leading edge of the wing. 42AF/Fit Paper-III Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall is imminent is starting to occur first affects the outboard portions of the wings A A stall warning system warns the pilot when a stall is imminent. It senses the angle of attack, and when the aircraft is approaching a stall it warns the

pilot, providing ample time to take corrective action before the staff actually occurs. 42AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Fig. 19) What is the indication of there landing gear position light under the following conditions Aircraft on jacks Landing gear in transit Warning horn sounding extinguished flashing illuminated A When the aircraft is on jacks, the gear safety switch is changed from that in Figure 19 (see next page). The landing gear is in transit, causing the position of the nose gear-down switch and the down limit switch to be changed. The warning horn is sounding. Current is flowing from the 5 amp circuit breaker, through wire #6, the changes position of the nose-gear-down switch, one or both of the throttle switches and the changed down limit switch to the horn. The landing gear has not yet reach 42AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Fig. 19) Which repair should be made if the gear switch was placed in UP position and the gear does not retract? Replace electrical wire No. 15 Replace the down limit switch Replace electrical wire No. 12 C If the landing gear does not retract when the weight is off the landing gear and the gear switch is placed in the UP position, wire 12 could be faulty and need to be replaced. Current flows from the bus through the 20 amp circuit breaker, through wire 1 to the gear switch in the UP position, through wires 13 and 10 to the up limit switch in the position shown, through the gear safety (squat) switch whose position is changed, through wire 12 to the relay coil. When the realay is energized, current flo 42AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause the landing gear warning signal to sound? Landing gear locked down and throttle advanced Landing gear locked down and throttle retarded Landing gear not locked down and throttle retarded. C The landing gear warning horn wil sound if the landing gears are not all down and locked and the throttle is retarded to reduce power for landing. 42AF/Fit Paper-III (Ref to Fig. 20) What will illuminate the amber indicator flight? Closing the nosewheel gear full retract switch Retanding one throttle and closing the left wheel gear locked down switch Closing the nose, left and right wheel gear full retract switches C In order for the amber indicator light to illuminate, all three of the landing gears must be in their up and locked position. The full retracted switches for the nosewheel, left wheel and right wheel must all be closed. 43AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Fig 20) What is the minimum circumstance that will cause the landing gear warning horn to indicate an unsafe condition? All gears up and one throttle retarded Any gear up and both throttles retarded Any gear not down and locked and one throttle retarded C The landing gear warning horn (aural warning) will sound anytime either throttle is retarded and any one of the landing gears is not down and locked. 43AF/Fit Paper-III Where is the landing gear safety switch usually located? On the main gear shock strut On the landing gear drag brace

On the pilot's control pedestal A The landing gear safety switch or squat switch is usually located on one of the main landing gear shock struts. 43AF/Fit Paper-III what safety device is actuated by the compression and extension of a landing gear strut? Uplock switch Downlock switch Ground safety switch C The ground safety switch (squat switch) is actuated by the compression of the landing gear oleo strut. The ground safety switch prevents the landing gear from retracting when the weight of the aircraft is on the landing gear. 43AF/Fit Paper-III Which repair would require a landing gear retraction test? Landing gear safety switch Red warning light bulb Gear downlock microswitch C The replacemement of a landing gear, down lock Microswitch would require a retraction test in which the airplace in put on jacks and the landing gear is retracted and extended. This type of test is required anytime any change or adjustment is made that could affect the operation of the retracting mechanism. 43AF/Fit Paper-III Landing gear warning systems usually provide which of the following indications? Red light for unsafe gear, no light for geardown, green light for gear up Green light for gear up and down, red light for unsafe gear Red light for unsafe gear, green light for gear down, no light for gear up C Some landing gear systems indicate in the manner shown here. A red light shows an unsafe condition and a green light shows when each gear is down and locked. There is no light to show when the landing gear is up and locked. 43AF/Fit Paper-III In most modern hydraulically actuated landing gear systems, the order of gear and fairing door operation is controlled by sequence valves shuttle valves microswitches A Hydraulically actuated landing gear systems that have hydraulically actuated wheel-well doors, control the operating sequence of the doors and the landing gear by the use of sequence valves. These valves prevent the landing gear from retracting while the doors are closed. 43AF/Fit Paper-III What landing gear warning device(s) is/are incorporated on retractable landing gear aircraft? A visual indicator showing gear position A light which comes on which the gear is fully down and locked A horn or other. . . . . Device and a red warning light C All retractable landing gear aircraft must have some type of device to warn the pilot if the landing gear is not down and locked when the throttles are retarded for landing. All of the devices listed in the alternatives for this question are indicators except the horn or other aural device and a red warning light. 43AF/Fit Paper-III when a landing gear safety switch on a main gear strut closes at littoff, which system is deactivated? Landing gear position system Antiskid system Aural warning system

B When the landing gear strut indicates that the weight is off of the landing gear, the safety switch deactivates the antiskid system. An antiskid system has a provision that prevents the brakes from being applied, regardless of the position of the brake pedal until weight is on the landing gear. 43AF/Fit Paper-III Microswitches are used primarily as limit switches to limit generator output control electrical units automatically prevent overcharging of a battery B Microswitches are used primarily as liit switches to provide automatic control of such electrical units as flap and landing gear actuator motors. 43AF/Fit Paper-III When installing pneumatic surface bonded type deicer boots remove all paint from the area to be covered by the delcer boot apply a solution of glycerin and water between the rubber and the wing skin apply a sllastic compound between the boot and the wing skin A When installing a surface bonded deicer boot on an aircraft wing, remove all the paint from the area to which the boot is to be bonded. The metal must be perfectly clean and the bonding material must be applied in strict accordance with the instructions furnished by the maker of the deicer boot. 44AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following are found in a laminated integral electrically heated windshield system? 1. Autotransformer 2. Heat control relay 3. Heat control toggle switch 4. 24V dc power supply 5. Indicating light 1,2,4,5 2,3,4,5 1,2,3,5 C An aircraft windshield that has an integral healer laminated into the panel uses a 115 volt AC power supply, an autotransformer, a heat-control toggle switch a heat control relay and indicating lights, but no DC power supply. 44AF/Fit Paper-III What controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system? Shuttle valve Vaccum pump Distributor valve C A distribtutor valve controls the inflation sequence in a pneumatic deicer boot system. 44AF/Fit Paper-III What is the source of pressure for inflating deicer boots on reciprocating engine aircraft? Vane-type pump Gear type pump Piston type pump A Normally the air pump used on a reciprocating engine for the inflation of deicer boots is a vane-type pump. 44AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following regulates the vaccum of the air pump to hold the deicing boots dellated when the pneumatic deicing system is off? Distributor valve Pressure regulator Suction relief valve C A suction relief valve regulates the vacuum spplied by the air pump to hold the deicer boots deflated when the pneumatic deicing system is oil. 44AF/Fit Paper-III What may be used to clean deicer boots? Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel

Naphtha Soap and water C Since deicer boots are normally made of rubber, they should be cleaned with mild soap and water. 44AF/Fit Paper-III Some aircraft are protected against airframe icing by heating the leading edges of the airfoils and intake ducts. When is this type of anti-ice system usually operated during flight? Continuously while the aircraft is in flight In symmetric cycles during icing conditions to remove ice as it accumulates Whenever icing conditions are first encountered or expected to occur C An anti-icing system is operated in flight when icing conditions are first encountered or when they are expected to occur The leading edge of the wing is kept warm by a continous supply of heated air. When the system is designed to deice the leading edge, much hotter air is supplied to the inside of the wing, but for shorter periods of time and in a cyclic sequence. A deicer system allows the ice to accumulate and then breaks it off. 44AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following indications occur during a normal operational check of a pneumatic deicer system? Relatively steady readings on the pressure gauge and fluctuating readings on the vaccum gauge Fluctuating readings on the pressure gauge and relatively steady readings on the vaccum gauge Pressure and vaccum gauges will fluctuate as the deicer boots inflate and deflate B A pneumatic deicer system is operating normally when the pressure gauge fluctuates as the various tubes inflate and the vaccum gauge shows a relatively steady reading as all of the tubes are held deflated. 44AF/Fit Paper-III What method is usually emloyed to control the temperature of an anti-icing system using surface combusion heaters? Thermo-cycling switches Thermostats in the cockpit Heater fuel shutoff valves A Thermocycling switches control the temperature of an anti-icing system that uses combustion heaters These switches shut off the fuel to the heater when the temperature is high enough. 44AF/Fit Paper-III What is the purpose of the distributor valve in a deicing system utilizing deicer boots? To equalize the air pressure to the left and right wings To sequence the deicer boots inflations symmetrically To distribute anti icing field to the deicer boots B The distributor valve in a deicer system sequences the deicer boot inflation and deflation cycle so the ice will be removed symmetrically from the aircraft. 44AF/Fit Paper-III What is the purpose of the oil separator in the pneumatic deicing system? To protect the deicer boots from oil deterioration To remove oil from air exhausted from the deicer boots To prevent an accumulation of oil in the vaccum system A The oil separator in a pneumatic deicing system is located in the exhaust of a wet type vaccum pump. Oil from the engine is used to lubricate and seal the pump. After passing through the pump. After passing through the pump, this oil is discharged with the exhaust air. The oil separator removes the oil from the air and motors, it to the engine crankcase.

Getting rid of this oil, before the air reaches the deicer boots, helps prevent their deterioration. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Where are the heat sensors located on most aircraft with electrically heated windshields? Imbedded in the glass Attached to the glass Around the glass A The termistor type heat sensors in an electrically heated windshield are laminated into the glass panels. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Two possible sources of heat for the operation of a wing termal anti-icing system are first stage of the aircycle turbine, turbo compressor compressor bleed air, aircraft electrical system combustion heater, exhaust gases B Wing thermal anti-icing systems usually use heated bleed air from the turbine engine compressor, but electrically heated elements are also used in some installations. 45AF/Fit Paper-III What maintains normal windshield temperature control in an electrically heated windshield system? Thermal overheal switches Thermistors Electronic amplifiers. B Thermistors (a special form of electrical resistor whose resistance is a function of its temperature) are used to control the amount of current used in an electrically heated windshield. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Arcing in an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown in the temperature sensing elements autotransformers conductive coating C Arcing inside an electrically heated windshield panel usually indicates a breakdown of the conductive coating through which the current passes. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following connects vaccum to the deicer boots when the systems is not in operation, to hold the boots tightly against the leading edges in flight? vaccum relief valve Ejector Distributor valve C A distributor valve in the deicer system directs vaccum to the deicer boots to hold them tightly against the leading edges in flight when they are not needed. 45AF/Fit Paper-III How do deicer boots help remove ice accumulations? By preventing the formation of ice By breaking up ice formations By allowing only a thin layer of ice to build up B Deicer boots inflate and deflate to break up ice that has formed on the leading edges of the wing and the tail surfaces. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Why are the tubes in deicer boots alternately inflated? Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes keeps distrubance of the airflow to a minimum alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes does not disturb airflow Alternate inflation of deicer boot tubes relieves the load on the air pump A Pneumatic deicer boots are inflated alternately to keep the disturbance of the air over the airfoil to a minimum. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Carburetor icing may be eliminated by which of the following methods? Alcohol spray and heated induction air

Ethylene glycol spray and heated induction air Electrically heating air intake, ethylene glycol spray or alcohol spray A Carburetor icing can be minimized by spraying isopropyl alcohol into the throat of the carburetor and by using heated induction air. 45AF/Fit Paper-III Why should a chemical rain repellent not be used on a dry windshield? It will etch the glass It will restrict visibility It will cause glass crazing. B If a syrupy, chemical rain repellant is sprayed on the windshield of an airplane without a heavy rain striking it, it will smear and restrict visibility through the windshield. 45AF/Fit Paper-III What is the principle of a windshield pneumatic rain removal system? An air blast spreads a liquid rain repellent evenly over the windshield that prevents raindrops from clinging to the glass surface An air blast forms a barrier that prevents raindrops from striking the windshield surface A pneumatic rain removal system is simply a mechanical windshield wiper system that is powered by pneumatic system pressure. C A windshield pneumatic rain removal system blows the rain from the windshield with a blast of compressor bleed air. A blast of high velocity air, directed against the outside surface of the windshield, forms a barrier that keeps raindrops from hitting the surface of the windshield. 46AF/Fit Paper-III What mixture may be used as a deicing fluid to remove frost from an aircraft surface? Ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol Methyl ethyketone and ethylene glycol Naptha and isopropyl alcohol A Frost may be removed from an aircraft by spraying it with a deicing fluid which normally contains ethylene glycol and isopropyl alcohol. 46AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following is the best means to use when removing wet snow from an aircraft? A brush or a squeegee Hot air Warm water. A Wet snow deposits should be removed from an aircraft with a brush or squeegee. 46AF/Fit Paper-III What are three methods of anti-icing aircraft windshields? 1. Blanket-type heating system 2. Anelectricheatingelementinthewindshield 3. Heatedaircirculatingsystem 4. Hotwatersystem 5. Windshieldwipersandanti-icingfluid 6. Ribbontypeheatingsystem 2,3,5 1,2,6 2,3,4 A Some aircraft prevent ice formation on the windshield by using a double panel windshield with warm air blown through the space between the panels. Others use windshield wipers with anti-icing fluid sprayed on. Most moderm airplanes use an electrical heater element in the windshield. 46AF/Fit Paper-III What icing condition may occur when there is no visible moisture present? Injector ice Inlet ice

Carburetor ice C Carburetor ice can fonn when the outside air temperature is well above freezing and when there is no visible moisture present, muich of the temperature drop causes carburetor ice comes from the evaporation of the fuel. 46AF/Fit Paper-III What should be used to melt the ice in a turbine engine if the compressor is immobile because of ice? Deicing fluid Anti-icing fluid Hot air C Ice should be melted from the inside of a turbine engine by flowing warm air through the engine until all of the rotating parts move freely. 46AF/Fit Paper-III What is used as a temperature sensing element in an electrically heated windshield? Thermocouple thermistor Thermometer. B Thermistors (a special form of electrical resistor whose resistance is a function of its temperature) are used as temperature sensors in an electrically heated windshield. 46AF/Fit Paper-III In what area of an aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector? surface combustion heater compartment Cockpit and/or cabin Engine and/or nacelle B Carbon monoxide detectors are installed in the cabin and in the cockpit of an aircraft to inform the occupants of the presence of this deadly gas. 46AF/Fit Paper-III What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated? A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided automatically B When a visual smoke detector is activated, a lamp inside the indicator is automatically turned on. The light is scattered by the smoke so the smoke is visible against the black background inside the window of the indicator. 46AF/Fit Paper-III The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are Water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical and halogenated hydrocarbons Water, dry chemical, methyl bromide and cholorobromomothane Water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide and dry chemical A Fire extinguishing agents that are suitable for aircraft interior fires are water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical and Halon 1301 or 1211, which are both forms of halogenated hydrocarbons. 46AF/Fit Paper-III When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color? Blue Green Red B When an air sample containing carbon monoxide passes over silica gel crystals that have been dyed with a yellow indicator dye, the crystals turn to a shade of green. The intensity of the green color is proportional to the concentration of carbon monoxide in the sample of air. 47AF/Fit Paper-III Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of Construction Maintenance

detection C Smoke-detection instruments are classified according to the method they use for detecting the presence of smoke. 47AF/Fit Paper-III Smoke detectors which use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called electromechanical devices photoelectrical devices visual devices B Smoke detectors that measure the light transmissibility of the air (the ability of the air to allow light to pass through it) are called photoelectrical devices. 47AF/Fit Paper-III A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit would be returned to service by Heating the indicating element to 300 degree F to reactivate the chemical installing a new indicating element evacuating the indicating element with CO2 B A contaminated carbon monoxide test unit should be serviced by installing a new indicating element. 47AF/Fit Paper-III Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? Fenwal continuous loop Lindberg continuous element Thermocouple C The termocouple-type fire-detection system is activated by an abnormal rate of temperature rise. 47AF/Fit Paper-III Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument? chemical reactor photoelectric cell sniffer B Smoke detectors used in the cargo and/or baggage compartments of aircraft are usually of the photoelectric coil type, which measures the amount of light that can pass through the air. If there is smoke in the area being protected, the amount of light passing through the smoke is decreased and the system warns the flight crew of the presence of smoke in the compartment. 47AF/Fit Paper-III Light refraction smoke detectors measure a reduction if the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area sense light rellected from smoke particles passing through a chamber use radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke B Light refraction type smoke detectors detect the presence of smoke by sensing the light that is reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber. 47AF/Fit Paper-III Why does the Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits? A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction This installation is equal to two system: a main system and a reserve system A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning. C The Fenewal fire detection system is wired between two parallel circuits so that a short can exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning 47AF/Fit Paper-III A fire extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by attaching a remote pressure gauge weighing the container and its contents a hydrostatic test

B Fire extinguishers containing carbon dioxide are weighed to determine their state of charge. Containers of Freen and nitrogen and containers of dry powder, have the condition of their charge measured by the use of pressure gauges that are part of the container. 47AF/Fit Paper-III What is the color code for fire-extinguisher lines? Brown Yellow Red and green A aircraft plumbing that contains fire extinguishing agents is color coded with a stripe of brown tape and a series of diamonds. 47AF/Fit Paper-III the most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous loop fire detection systems is improper routing or clamping of loops moisture dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections C Dented, kinked or crushed sensor sections are a common cause of false fire warnings in the continuous loop fire detection system. 48AF/Fit Paper-III A thermocouple in a fire detection system causes the warning system to operate because it generates a small current when heated heat decreases its electrical resistance it expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning system. A a termocouple in a fire-detection system generates its warning signal by producing a small current when it is heated. This small current activates a sensitive relay which in turn causes the slave relay to indicate the presence of a fire. 48AF/Fit Paper-III The thermocouple fire warning system is activated by a Certain temperature core resistance drop rate of temperature rise. C The thermocouple type fire warning system is activated by an abnormal rate of temperature rise rather than by a specific temperature. 48AF/Fit Paper-III When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in parallel with each other and in series with the light series with each other and the light series with each other ad parallel with the light A In fire detection systems using a single indicator light, the thermal switches are wired in parallel with each other and the entire cobination of switches is in series with the indicator light. 48AF/Fit Paper-III Built-in aircraft fire extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with carbon dioxide and nitrogen halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen B Most of the modern aircraft built-in-fire extinguishing systems are charged with a halogenated hydrocarbon agent, such as Halon 1211 or Halon 1301, pressurized with nitrogen. 48AF/Fit Paper-III In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems, (1)duringremovalorinstallation,theterminalsofdischargecartridgesshouldbegrounded orshorted (2)beforeconnectingcartridgeterminalstotheelectricalsystem,thesystemshouldbechec kedwithavoltmeter (cont'd. .) only no 2 is true both no 1 and no 2 are true neither no 1 nor no 2 is true B (cont'd. .) to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections.

Regarding the above statements, Statement (1) is true. The discharge cartridges for a fire extinguishing system contain explosive charges called squibs. These squibs are ignited with an electrical current when the fire extinguisher agent discharge switch is closed. When removing or installing a discharge cartridge, ground or short the terminals to prevent an accidental firing. Statement(2) is also true. Before connecting th 48AF/Fit Paper-III what method is used to detect the thermal discharge of built-in fire-extinguisher system? a discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal discharge line a rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line the thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle B If a built-in fire extinguishing system is discharged because of thermal (overheat) condition, the red indicator disk is blown out. 48AF/Fit Paper-III The thermal switches of a bimetalic thermal switch type the detection system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in parallel with each other and in parallel with the indicator lights parallel with each other but in series with the indicator lights series with each other but in parallel with the indicator lights B The thermal switches in a bimetallic thermal switch type of fire detection system are connected in parallel with each other. The entire combination of switches is connected in series with the indicator light. If any switch completes a circuit to ground, the indicator light will turn on. 48AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Fig 21) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire-extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 PSIG (Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum and maximum pressure). 47 to 73 degree F 47 to 71 degree F 45 to 73 degree F C For this problem, we must interpolate. 330 PSIG is 0.3 of the way between 319 and 356 and 73 is 0.3 of the way between 70 degree and 80 degree. 330 PSIG is 0.52 of the way between 317 and 342 and 45.2 is 0.52 of the way between 40 degree and 50 degree. The fire extinguisher could have a pressure of 330 PSIG over a temperature range of 45 degree to 73 degree F. 48AF/Fit Paper-III (Refer to Fig 21) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 33 degree F 215 to 302 PSIG 214 to 301 PSIG 215 to 301 PSIG A For this problem, we must interpolate. 33 degree F is 0.3 of the way between 30 degree and 40 degree. 215 PSIG is 0.3 of the way between 209 and 230 PAIG, and 302 PSIG is 0.3 of the way between 295 and 317 PSIG. At 33 degree F the acceptable pressure range is between 215 and 302 PSIG. 48AF/Fit Paper-III On a periodic check of fire-extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed? Release pressure if above limits Replace the extinguisher container Increase pressure if below limits B On a periodic check of fire extinguisher containers, if the pressure, when

corrected for ambient temperature, was not between the minimum and maximum limits, the fire extinguisher container must be replaced. 49AF/Fit Paper-III In some fire extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a red disk on the side of the fuselage green disk on the side of the fuselage yellow disk on the side of the fuselage C If a fire extinguisher system has been intentionally discharged, the yellow disk on the side of the fuselage is blown out. If the fire extinguisher system has been discharged because of an overtemperature condition, the red disk is blown out. 49AF/Fit Paper-III If a fire-extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason, it must be pressure checked is recommended that the cartridge because only on the original discharge valve assembly cannot be used again C The fire extinguisher cartridge discussed here is the type used in a high rate discharge (HRD) . . . . . . .container. If a cartridge is removed from a discharge valve for any reason, it should not be used in another discharge valve assembly. The distance the contact point protrudes may vary with each unit. Continuity might not exist if a used plug that has been indented with a long contact point were installed in a discharge valve that has a short contact point. 49AF/Fit Paper-III Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system? A. Display "No Smoking" placards B. Provide adequate fire fighting equipment (contd. .) 1,3 and 4 1,2 and 4 1,2,3 and 4 C (Contd. . .) C. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease D. avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems All four items listed here are safety precautions to be followed when working with an oxygen system. 49AF/Fit Paper-III Which fire extinguishing agent that is considered to be the least toxic? Carbon dioxide Bromotrifluromethane (Halon 1301) Bromochloromethane (Halon 1011) B Halon 1301 is a popular fire extinguishing agent that is suitable for use in aircraft cabin . . . .. .because it is the least toxic of the commonly used extinguishing agents. 49AF/Fit Paper-III Maintenance of fire detection systems includes the repair of damaged sensing elements removal of excessive loop or element material replacement of damaged sensing elements C Of the maintenance functions listed here, the only allowable maintenance for a fire detection system is the replacement of a damaged sensing element. 49AF/Fit Paper-III A squib as used in a fire protection system, is a temperature sensing device device for causing the fire extinguishing agent to be released probe used for installing trangible disks in extinguisher bottles

B a squib is an electrically actuated explosive device used to break the seal on a high rate discharge fire extinguisher bottle in order to release the agent.